Engineering Service (IES) General Ability Question Paper 2007 2012

IES 2007 General Ability Test
S. K. Mondal
ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAMINATION - 2007 GENERAL ABILITY TEST

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions), 60 in PART-A and 60 in PART-B. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions. sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
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S. K. Mondal
PART-A
ORDERING OF SENTENCES Directions (For the 8 items which follow): In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet. Example 'X' has been solved for you. (EXAMPLE) S1: There was a boy named Jack. S2: At last she turned him out of the house. P: So the mother asked him to find work. Q: They were very poor. R: He lived with his mother. S: But Jack refused to work. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) R - Q - P S (b) P - Q - R S (c) Q - P - R S (d) R - P - S Q Explanation: The correct sequence in this example is R - Q - P - S, which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. X.
1. S1: The canvas of human rights is as large as life itself. S6: In all such endeavours, the world is a small village, with a great deal to be learned from each other in upholding human rights. P: Upholding human rights in all the spheres is a challenge which every civilized society has to accept. Q: This will call for perpetual vigilance. R: There are many connotations of human rights. S: It will be necessary to ensure that there is a continuous movement forward, however small it may be. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) R - P - S Q (b) S - Q - R P (c) R - Q - S P (d) S - P - R Q
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2. S1: The Lok Sabha completed fifty years of its existence in May, 2002. S6: While one may not agree with the view that the decision to televise the proceedings of Parliament and State Legislatures was wrong, it will have to be admitted that it proved our worst fears and brought these institutions to public ridicule. P: The pros and cons of televising Parliamentary proceedings have been debated extensively in India and abroad. Q: In India, this task remains undone. R: A common person can see the unseemly sight of democracy in action when the proceedings of State Legislatures are telecast. S: The hallmark of democratic governance is Parliament's supervision and control over the executive. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) S - R - Q P (b) P - Q - R S (c) S - Q - R P (d) P - R - Q S
3. S1: For ethical codes to be effective, provisions must be made for their enforcement. S6: In fact, they can create a false sense of security. P: Unethical managers should be held responsible for their actions. Q: On the other hand, one should not expect codes to solve all problems. R: Although the enforcement of ethical codes may not be easy, the mere existence of such codes can increase ethical behaviour by clarifying expectations. S: This means that privileges and benefits should be withdrawn and sanctions should be applied. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) Q - S - R P (b) P - R - S Q (c) Q - R - S P (d) P - S - R Q 4. S1: Managing, like all other practices whether medicine, music composition, engineering, accountancy, or even baseball is an art. S6: Thus, managing as practice is an art; the organized knowledge underlying the practice may be referred to as a science
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P: It is this knowledge that constitutes a science. Q: It is doing things in the light of the realities of a situation. R: Yet managers can work better by using the organized knowledge about management. S: It is know-how Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) R - P - S Q (b) S - Q - R P (c) R - Q - S P (d) S - P - R Q
5. S1: So why is there so much fuss in France over creeping Americanization? S6: No one travelling in any part of France, city or village, could possibly mistake it for any other country. P: Though a wealthy and sophisticated society, France has found it hard to come to terms with its decline in the pecking order of world powers. Q: But the relative decline is not absolute decline. R: One theory is that it has its roots in a failure of confidence. S: The all-pervading American culture is an unwelcome reminder of days long gone when French culture held sway. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) S - P - R Q (b) R - Q - S P (c) S - Q - R P (d) R - P - S Q
6. S1: The Bundela Rajputs were Suryavanshis. S6: There are accounts that the Bundelas branched off from the Kannauj Pratihara dynasty. P: It is also said that the Vindhyela was the name given to the lineage, which over time was altered to Bundela. Q: A satisfied Devi accorded the blessing that the drop of blood falling on the sacrificial altar would yield great rulers. R: The chief cut off his own head as an offering.
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S: Legend has it that a local Gahrwar Rajput chief did tireless penance to appease the goddess Vindhyavasini Devi at her abode on the Vindhyan range. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) S - P - Q - R (b) Q - R - S - P (c) S - R - Q - P (d) Q - P - S R
7. S1: Even those areas which are well above the sea level will feel the impact of climate change. S6: More importantly, we must take a totally different approach to management of water resources. P: Take an area like the Sunderbans, which is really low lying, you need some kind of protection over there to ensure that life and property stay protected. Q: If you get the kind of cloudburst that Mumbai had in 2005 and the sea level was much higher, the drainage would be much less effective. R: We need to take a second look at all these vulnerable areas and then take a series of adaptation measures. S: We are really caught between two factors, one is the increase in the sea level and the other is the higher probability of extreme precipitation effects. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) Q-S-P-R (b) R-P-S-Q (c) Q-P-S-R (d) R-S-P-Q 8. S1 : There were not many people in the United States from my part of the country. S6: That was quite unusual because most of my friends who went to the United States stayed back to make their careers. P: But my grandfather's sudden demise became the cause of my return to India. Q: I would have stayed there for a year more to do economics. R: originally intended to do business administration. S: It was an emotional decision on my part because he always wanted me to come back and get into business. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) P S R - Q (b) R - Q - P - S

(c) P - Q - R - S (d) R - S - P Q
S. K. Mondal
ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

Direction (For the 8 items which follow): In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S) to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your Answer Sheet accordingly. Example 'z' has been solved for you. EXAMPLE Z. It is well- known that the effect is very bad on children of cinema (P) (Q) (R) (S) Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) P - S - R - Q (b) S - P - Q - R (c) S - R - P - Q (d) Q - S - R P Explanation: The proper way of writing the sentence is "It is well-known that the effect of cinema on children is very bad." This is indicated by the sequence P - S - R - Q and so (a) is the correct answer. 9. Even the underbelly of the city's crumbling health infrastructure too (P) attacks that also reveal as the city's urban infrastructure crumbles (Q) (R) it is these increasing cases of canine (S) Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) Q P R S (b) R S Q P (c) Q S R P (d) R P Q S
10. Perhaps that globalization has endorsed is that identities of (P) the most pernicious myth infinitely assimilable, flexible or fractured (Q) (R) people, societies and nations are (S) Which one of the following is the correct sequence?

(a) Q P S R (b) R P S Q (c) R S P Q (d) Q S P R
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11. While in the years to come the salary gaps will be adequately filled if not surpassed (P) tourism and hospitality sector pales slightly in comparison (Q) to other service industries like the IT and BPO sectors (R) when it comes to pay packages, veterans of the field believe that (S) Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) Q - P - S - R (b) S - R Q - P (c) S P Q - R (d) Q - R - S P 12. A dysfunctional family is one in which physical, emotional or sexual abuse is experienced (P) and when there is inconsistent and unpredictable parenting or neglectful parent-child interactions (Q) where one or both parents are unable to fulfil their responsibilities (R) due to mental illness or substance abuse (S) Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) P S R Q (b) Q R S P (c) P R S Q (d) Q S R P
13. Hard where producers and consumers sell and buy in whatever market takes their fancy (P) though it is to get economists to agree on anything (Q) and thus an interlocking system of world trade (R) there does seem to be a consensus to accelerate globalization (S) Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) Q P R S (b) R S Q P (c) Q S R P

(d) R P Q S
S. K. Mondal
14. Over the past five decades but the post cold-war era brings new challenges to the UN (P) particularly its peacekeeping operations for which demand has increased sharply (Q) in every area of the United Nations Charter (R) international cooperation has brought advances (S) Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) P Q S R (b) S R P Q (c) P R S Q (d) S Q P R
15. Since offer them a means of satisfying their own personal goals (P) People tend to follow those who in their view (Q) this understanding in carrying out their managerial actions, the more effective they are likely to be as leaders (R) the more managers understand what motivates their subordinates, and the more they reflect (S) Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) Q P S R (b) R S P Q (c) Q S P R (d) R P S Q
in spite of the absence of modern industrial technologies (P) could be crossed and enormous territories controlled (Q) in the pre-modern period and its testimony to the way in which huge distances (R) was one of the greatest achievements of state-building (S) Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) Q - R - S - P (b) S - P - Q - R (c) Q - P - S - R (d) S - R - Q P
16. The Roman Empire
S. K. Mondal
SYNONYMS
Directions (For the 8 items which follow): Each of the following eight items consists of a worn in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters. 17. GARISH (a) Selfish (b) Affluent (c) Unpleasantly over coloured (d) Person with great intellect 18. WRAITH (a) Dead body (b) Ghost (c) Extreme anger (d) Circle of flowers 19. TIMOROUS (a) Time-consuming (b) Timely (c) Threatening (d) Timid 20. EXPLICATE (a) To apologize (b) To make something complicated (c) To strengthen (d) To explain 21. EXACTION (a) Demand (b) Aggravation (c) Accuracy (d) Collaboration 22. DANK (a) Taut (b) Rite (c) Dry (d) Damp 23. PORTENTOUS (a) Imaginary (b) Ominous (c) Demonstrate (d) Convincing 24. SURREPTITIOUS

(a) Deceitful (b) Savoury (c) Insipid (d) Painful
S. K. Mondal
Directions (For the 8 items which follow): For each of the following eight items, select the word/ group of words that is closest in meaning to the underlined portion of the given sentence. 25. A conscientious worker is always admired by his superior officers. (a) Smart (b) Sincere (c) Extrovert (d) Reticent 26. Amit was cut to the quick when he learnt that his brother had cheated him. (a) Flummoxed (b) Become unconscious (c) Felt guilty (d) Was deeply hurt 27. Romila is not easily pleased by anything (a) Fastidious (b) Thrifty (c) Profligate (d) Swanky 28. The host of the party did not like the gratuitous remarks made by one of the guests. (a) Personal (b) Critical (c) Uncalled for (d) Flattering 29. His brother is leading a sequestered life. (a) Secluded (b) Unhealthy (c) Disreputable (d) Marked by affluence 30. The Chief Executive Officer is known for his martinet approach. (a) A style marked by indifference (b) A style marked by empathy (c) A style marked by strict discipline (d) A style marked by innovative management practices 31. Shobit's parsimonious nature is known to all his friends. (a) Selfish (b) Miserly (c) Vindictive (d) Indecisive
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S. K. Mondal
32. After the event, the manager looked knackered. (a) Satisfied (b) Delighted (c) Tired (d) Wiser
ANTONYMS
Directions (For the 8 items which follow): Each of the following eight items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital letters. 33. CHARLATAN (a) Charitable person (b) Person with miserly habits (c) Person having sound special skills (d) Person who loves outdoor games 34. QUIXOTIC (a) Fickle (b) Effective (c) Overdressed (d) Practical 35. IMPECUNIOUSNESS (a) Affluence (b) Commitment (c) Pliability (d) Puerility 36. FECKLESS (a) Shy (b) Efficient (c) Infertile (d) Escapable
37. PROLIX (a) Promise (b) Generous (c) Terse (d) Careless 38. CRAVEN (a) Intrepid (b) Irresponsible (c) Greedy (d) Grateful

39. INCHOATE (a) Articulate (b) Corruptible (c) Fully developed (d) Sincere 40. SUPERCILIOUS (a) Excited (b) Modest (c) Fatigue (d) An improved version
S. K. Mondal
SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions (For the 8 items which follow): (i) In this section a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in anyone of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (e), indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a 'No error' response. (ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong.) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed. (iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet. Examples P and Q have been solved for you.
(EXAMPLES)
P. The young child (a) Q. We worked (a) singed (b) a very sweet song. (c) throughout the season. (c) No error (d) No error (d)
very hard (b)
Explanation: In item P, the word 'singed' is wrong. The letter under this part is (b); so (b) is the correct answer. Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the correct answer, as the sentence does not contain any error.

41. Many a student are (a) 42. The article should not (a)
.
of unemployment. (c) five hundred words. (c)
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No error (d) No error (d)
frustrated because (b) exceed more than (b)
43. He ought not have done such (a) (b)
a filthy thing. No error (c) (d)
44. The Chief Minister couldn't but help shedding tears at the plight of the (a) (b) villagers rendered homeless by a devastating cyclone. No error (c) (d) 45. The trust has succeeded (a) money for its future programmes. (c) admirably in raising (b) No error (d) for the health and happiness (b)
46. Emphasis on equality of life ensures (a) of every individual. No error (c) (d) 47. It does not matter how you do it; (a) you should finish the work within a week. (c) 48. Please understand that (a) and concerns nobody else. (c)
what I want is that (b) No error (d)
the dispute on this issue is between my brother and myself (b) No error (d)
COMPREHENSION
Directions (For the 12 items which follow): In this section you have TWO short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read a passage, and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. Examples 'I' and 'J' are solved for you.
PASSAGE (EXAMPLE)
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In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creatures. I. The authors main point is that (a) different forms of life are found on earth (b) different levels of existence are possible in nature (c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings (d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in developing the author's position? (a) All forms of life have a single over-riding goal (b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace (c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups (d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death I. The idea which represents the author's main point is "peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings", which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer. J. The best assumption underlying the passage is "The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace", which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer.
PASSAGE - I
Fungi form an isolated group within the plant kingdom and indeed are regarded by many as forming a separate kingdom of their own. They differ from all other plants by their lack of the green pigment chlorophyll, in the construction of thread-like units known as hyphae and their method of reproduction. Reproduction occurs by spores either of sexual or asexual origin. The spore germinates, sending out a germ-tube that elongates to produce a thread-like, usually septet, filament that then branches out repeatedly. By continued ramifications, these threads or hyphae form a cobweb or felt-like sheet known as a mycelium. In most instances, fusion between two hyphae, usually from different mycelia, must occur before a fruit-body can be produced. Even then this process will only take place given the correct climatic factors and a sufficient food supply. Fungi differ from the higher plant forms by the absence of the green pigment chlorophyll, which enables plants to photosynthesize. By this process green plants are able to obtain their carbohydrates; the chlorophyll in their leaves fixes atmospheric carbon dioxide in the presence of sunlight and water to
S. K. Mondal
manufacture sugar for their nutrition. As fungi are unable to do this they have to obtain their carbohydrates from decomposed animal or plant tissues. Hence they are found in habitats rich in rotting vegetation such as woodland, grassland, compost heaps, sawdust piles and on dung or manure heaps. 49. Consider the following statements: Fungi grow on rotting vegetation or animal because 1. they cannot produce their own food 2. this provides them with the food they need Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 50. What are fungi? (a) Cells (b) Plants (c) Animals (d) Dead matter 51. Consider the following statements: 1. Fungi are the green pigment called chlorophyll. 2. All plants other than fungi have chlorophyll. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 52. How do fungi reproduce? (a) They reproduce from seeds (b) Spores are the means for their reproduction (c) They reproduce through saprophytes (d) They reproduce through decomposed animal or plant tissues 53. Consider the following statements: 1. A mycelium is another name for chlorophyll. 2. Fungi obtain carbohydrates from hyphae. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
S. K. Mondal
54. Consider the following statements: Sugar cannot be produced by plants unless 1. chlorophyll is present 2. sunlight, water and carbon dioxide are present Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
PASSAGE - I
Today, the import duty on a complete machine is 35% for all practical purposes, whereas the import duty on the raw materials and components ranges from 40%-85%. The story does not end here. After paying such high duties on components, once a machine is made; it is subject to excise duty from 5%-10%. At the time of sale, the machine tools are subject to further taxation, i.e., Central sales tax or State sales taxes which range from 4%-,16%. This much for the tax angle. Another factor which pushes the cost of manufacture of machine tools is the very high rate of interest payable to banks ranging up to 22%, as against 4%-7% prevailing in other advanced countries. The machine tool industry in India has an enviable record of very quick technology absorption, assimilation and development. There are a number of success stories about how machine tool builders were of help at the most critical times. It will be a pity, in fact a tragedy, if we allow this industry to die and disappear from the scene. It may be noted that India is at least 6000 km away from any dependable source of supply of machine tools. The Government of India has always given a great deal of importance to the development of small scale and medium scale industries. This industry has also performed pretty well. Today, they are in need of help from India's machine tool industry to enable them to produce quality components at reduced costs. Is it anybody's case that the needs of this fragile sector will be met from a distance of 6000 km? Then, what is it that the industry expects from the Government? It wants a level playing field. In fact, all of us must have a deep introspection and recognize the fact that the machine tool industry has a very special place in the country from the point of strategic and vital interests of the nation. 55. Consider the following statements: 1. The machine tool industry has a very meagre role to play in India. 2. The performance of the small scale industry can be further improved with the help from the Indian machine tool industry. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
S. K. Mondal
56. Which of the following best explains the sentence "It wants a level playing field"? The machine tool industry in India (a) needs liberalized policy to import the desired components at a low cost (b) needs land at subsidized rate (c) needs electricity at subsidized rate (d) wants to adopt novel marketing strategies for sales promotion 57. Which one of the following is the correct statement? (a) The Government of India has taken due notice of the problems of the machine tool industry (b) The Government of India has not taken sufficient measures to help the machine tool industry (c) India should not waste its precious resources on the production of machine tools (d) Banks in other countries are running in loss owing to a low interest rate 58. According to the passage, all the following factors are responsible for high cost of machine tools in India, except (a) sales tax (b) excise duty (c) higher duty on components (d) high profit of margin of the manufacturers 59. Why do small and medium scale industries look for help from India's machine tool industry? 1. To compete with the IT sector 2. To produce components at lower cost without sacrificing quality Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 60. If the banks' rate of interest in India is made at par with that in the other advanced countries, how will the cost of manufacture of machine tools in India vary? (a) It will go up by 22% (b) It will go up by 4% to 7% (c) It will remain the same (d) It will decrease considerably
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PART-B
61. Due to whose efforts were the legal obstacles to the remarriage of widows removed through law in the year 1856? (a) Raja Rammohan Roy (b) Keshab Chandra Sen (c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (d) Devendranath Tagore 62. Consider the following statements: 1. In the Lok Sabha proceedings, when the voting is done, the Speaker of Lok Sabha can never cast his vote. 2. In the warrant of precedence, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha is equal to the Speaker of Lok Sabha in rank. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 63. In terms of value in US dollars, the share in world exports is lowest for which one among the following? (a) Hong Kong (b) India (c) Malaysia (d) Singapore 64. Consider the following statements: 1. The States Reorganization Commission appointed by Pandit Nehru in its report opposed the splitting of the then Bombay and Punjab States. 2. The States Reorganization Act passed in the year 1956 provided for 18 States and 7 Union Territories. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 65. Consider the following famous places: 1. Dharmasthala 2. Khajuraho 3. Ranakpur
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Which of the above places is/ are well-known for Jain architecture? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 66. Lala Lajpat Rai was assaulted by police in a demonstration which caused his death. That demonstration was against (a) Rowlatt Act (b) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (c) Arrival of Simon Commission (d) Public Safety Ordinance 67. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following: 1. Passing of Indian Press Act 2. Surat Split of congress 3. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement 4. Passing of Rowlatt Act Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events? (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-1-3-4 (c) 2-1-4-3 (d) 1-2-4-3 68. Excess fluoride in drinking water can cause the following, except (a) Deformity of teeth (b) Hardening of bones (c) stiff and painful joints (d) Diarrhoea 69. The 74th Amendment of the Constitution of India relates to which of the following? (a) Public sector Undertakings (b) Compulsory Universal (c) Urban Local Bodies (d) Rural Local Bodies 70. Consider the following pairs: 1. Vernacular Press Act 2. Formation of Indian National Congress 3. Partition of Bengal: Lord Curzon Which of the pairs given above is / are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
S. K. Mondal
71. Among the following States, which one does not have any significant coal resources? (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Maharashtra 72. Retreating monsoon causes sporadic rainfall in which of the following areas? (a) Coast of North Maharashtra (b) Northern Chhattisgarh (c) Malwa plateau and Vidarbha region (d) Coast of Tamil Nadu. 73. During the Indian freedom struggle, who of the following was the first Indian woman to become the President of the Indian National Congress? (a) Aruna Asaf Ali (b) Sucheta Kriplani (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Vijayalakshmi Pandit 74. During the Indian freedom struggle, who of the following formed the party called 'Forward Bloc'? (a) C. R. Das (b) M. N. Roy (c) Rash Behari Bose (d) Subhash Chandra Bose 75. The Indian freedom fighters Ashfaqulla Khan and Ramprasad Bismil were hanged due to their involvement in which one of the following? (a) Chittagong armoury raid (b) Kanpur conspiracy case (c) Meerut conspiracy case (d) Kakori conspiracy case 76. In the context of the Indian freedom struggle, the famous 3rd June plan is also known as which one of the following? (a) Cabinet Mission Plan (b) Rajagopalachari Formula (c) Mountbatten Plan (d) Wavell Plan 77. Under whose viceroyalty was the interim government with Pandit Nehru as head formed? (a) Lord Irwin (b) Lord Linlithgow (c) Lord Wavell (d) Lord Mountbatten 78. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II

(Industrial Unit) A. Damanjodi Aluminium refinery B. Debari zinc smelter C. Ramgiri gold-field D. Taloja copper project Code: A B C (a) 2 4 1 (b) 2 1 4 (c) 3 1 4 (d) 3 4 1
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(State) 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Maharashtra 3. Orissa 4. Rajasthan D 3 3 2 2
S. K. Mondal
79. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Eminent Citizens) List-II (Well-known as) A. Hema Bharali 1. Conservationist B. Vani Ganapathy 2. Gandhian C. M. S. Narasimhan 3. Dancer D. Suprabha Seshan 4. Mathematician Code: (a) (b) (c) (d) A 1 1 2 2 B 3 4 3 4 C 4 3 4 3 D 2 2 1 1
80. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Power Station) List-II (State) A. Kolaghat 1. West Bengal B. Chandrapur 2. Rajasthan C. Suratgarh 3. Maharashtra D. Unchahar 4. Uttar Pradesh Code: (a) (b) (c) (d) A 4 4 1 1 B 3 2 3 2 C 2 3 2 3 D 1 1 4 4
81. Among the following Presidents of India, who was the Speaker of Lok Sabha before becoming President? (a) K. R. Narayanan (b) R. Venkataraman (c) N. Sanjiva Reddy (d) V. V. Giri 82. Consider the following statements: 1. The Administrator of Andaman and Nicobar Islands is designated as Lieutenant Governor.
S. K. Mondal
2. Delhi and Puducherry (Pondicherry) have their own Legislative Assemblies and High Courts. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? State or Union Territory Seat of High Court (a) Uttarakhand (Uttaranchal) : Nainital (b) Daman and Diu : Ahmedabad (c) Arunachal Pradesh : Guwahati (d) Chhattisgarh : Bilaspur
84. Consider the following statements: 1. Petrofils Cooperative Limited is a joint venture of the Government of India and Weavers' Cooperative Societies. 2. Petrofils Cooperative Limited is under the administrative control of Weavers' Cooperative Societies. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 85. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Hydroelectric Power Plant) List II (State) A. Kadana 1. Andhra Pradesh B. Kalinadi 2. Gujarat C. Machkund 3. Karnataka D. Vaiterna 4. Maharashtra Code: (a) (b) (c) (d) A 2 2 4 4 B 1 3 1 3 C 3 1 3 1 D 4 4 2 2
86. To Port Blair, which one of the following cities is geographically nearest? (a) Kolkata (b) Kuala Lumpur (c) Singapore

(d) Yangon
S. K. Mondal
87. Which one of the following pairs of National Highways crosses Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra? (a) NH4 and NH6 (b) NH5 and NH7 (c) NH6 and NH7 (d) NH7 and NH9 88. Which one of the following is not a member of 'the Commonwealth'? (a) Malaysia (b) Sri Lanka (c) Indonesia (d) Singapore 89. Where are the Headquarters of International Organization for Standardization (ISO) located? (a) Geneva (b) Paris (c) London (d) Vienna 90. Where were the 33rd National Games held in February, 2007? (a) Bhopal (b) Chandigarh (c) Guwahati (d) Hyderabad 91. Rehan Poncha is well-known sportsman in which one of the following sports? (a) Golf (b) Swimming (c) Billiards (d) Lawn Tennis 92. Which one of the following was not a participant in the One-day Cricket World Cup, 2007? (a) Scotland (b) Canada (c) UAE (d) Netherlands 93. The Baglihar Hydropower Project, very frequently in the news, is located on which one of the following rivers? (a) Beas (b) Chenab (c) Ravi (d) Sutlej
S. K. Mondal
94. In the case of which one of the following diseases does the Government of India provide free "CD4 Test and Antiretroviral Therapy"? (a) Dengue haemorrhagic fever (b) Japanese encephalitis (c) Meningococcal (d) AIDS 95. In the context of Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following movements is associated with the Gandhi-Irwin Pact? (a) Swadeshi Movement (b) Non-Cooperation Movement (c) Civil Disobedience Movement (d) Quit India Movement 96. In which one of the following organs of human body is hydrochloric acid produced? (a) Stomach (b) Liver (c) Pancreas (d) Small Intestine 97. Which part of potato plant is used as vegetable? (a) Modified root (b) Modified stem (c) Modified leaf (d) Modified flower 98. Recently, in which one of the following countries did scientists create the world's first genetically modified chickens to lay eggs capable of producing drugs that fight cancer and other life threatening diseases? (a) France (b) Germany (c) UK (d) USA 99. Who of the following is associated with the aluminium company HINDALCO? (a) Arun Sarin (b) Navin Jindal (c) Ravi Ruia (d) Kumar Mangalam Birla 100. Madhava Menon Committee is associated with the drafting of which one of the following? (a) National Population policy (b) National Tribal policy (c) National Policy on Criminal Justice (d) National Health Policy 101. Which one of the following South-East Asian countries is a member of OPEC? (a) Indonesia

(b) Malaysia (c) Myanmar (d) Thailand
S. K. Mondal
102. Who of the following laid the first rail-road in India? (a) Lord Ripon (b) Lord Wavell (c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Dalhousie
103. Among the following foods, which one is rich in proteins? (a) Boiled rice (b) Bread of wheat (c) Fried potato chips (d) Fried gram 104. From which one of the following places was INSAT-4B satellite launched in March, 2007? (a) Baikanour (b) Cape Canaveral (c) Kourou (d) Sriharikota 105. For the year 2006, the Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to a/an (a) writer (b) environmentalist (c) head of a State (d) banker 106. When a person drinks alcohol and walks clumsily, it is due to the effect of alcohol on which one of the following parts of his brain? (a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) Pons (d) Medulla oblongata 107. What was the purpose of NASA's Cassini spacecraft recently in the news? (a) To carry the materials for building the international space station (b) To observe and study the Saturn and its rings (c) To monitor the approach of asteroids towards planet Earth (d) To conduct space journeys for space tourists
108. What is the name of the pigment that gives colour to the human hair? (a) Keratin (b) Melanin (c) Myelin

(d) Myosin
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109. The 'pacemaker', which initiates and maintains the heartbeat, is located in the wall of which one of the following chambers of heart? (a) Left auricle (b) Right auricle (c) left ventricle (d) Right ventricle 110. In human body, where is the smallest bone located? (a) Palm (b) Foot (c) Nose (d) Ear 111. The roots of which one of the following plants contain the bacteria that convert free nitrogen to nitrates used by plants? (a) Mustard (b) Pea (c) Sugarcane (d) Wheat 112. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, rubber is cultivated in Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu only. 2. India ranks second in production as well as consumption of natural rubber in the world. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 113. To whom among the following is the Rajiv Gandhi National Fellowship given? (a) Young victims of either war or famine in other countries to persue studies in India (b) Poor Indian students to persue the study of certain specialized subjects in other countries (c) Destitute Indian children to persue studies up to university level (d) ST students to enable them to get M.Phil. and Ph.D. degrees 114. Other than Russia and USA, which one of the following countries has launched manned spacecraft? (a) France (b) China (c) Germany (d) UK
S. K. Mondal
115. Consider the following statements: 1. Chile is the largest producer of copper in the world. 2. Kuwait is the largest producer of mineral oil in the world. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
116. In the world, India is one of the major producers of which one of the following minerals? (a) Copper (b) Lead (c) Chromium (d) Zinc 117. Which one of the following regions has the largest area of wheat production? (a) Asia (b) Europe (c) North America (d) South America 118. The water of which one of the following lakes is used for producing salt? (a) Barapani (b) Kolleru (c) Loktak (d) Sambhar 119. What is the name of the winds that blow from the subtropical high pressure belts towards the subpolar low pressure belts? (a) Easterlies (b) Trade winds (c) Westerlies (d) Western disturbances 120. Which one of the following rivers originates in Brahmagir range of Western Ghats? (a) Penneru (b) Kaveri (c) Krishna (d) Tapti
I.E.S- (OBJ) 2008
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GENERAL ABILITY TEST

PART-A SYNONYMS Directions (For the 9 items which follow):
Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of words in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word or group of words in capital letters.
ANTONYMS Directions (For the 7 items which follow):

Each of the following seven items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital letters.
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BEAVER AWAY a. To waste away b. To sleep for long hours c. To work hard d. To steal something BADGER a. To ricochet b. To err c. To apologize d. To pester persistently SWISH a. False b. Fashionable c. Annulment d. Rapid SURREPTITIOUS a. To be impatient b. Susceptible c. Supportive d. To act stealthily SURROGATE a. Surpassable b. Substitute c. Surfeit d. Surveillant UP-THE CREEK a. To get lot of money b. In dire difficulties c. To be very successful d. To achieve ones aim by deceit CAVEAT a. Award b. Controversy c. Warning d. Graphic NIP AND TUCK a. Close competition b. Heavy rain c. Fierce attack d. Mixture COMEUPPANCE a. Sudden arrival b. Parity c. Paradox d. Retribution
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SALACIOUS a. Decent b. Satisfying c. Preciptious d. Fortifying SEDULOUS a. Lack of emotions b. Lack of steady effort c. Affluent d. Modest SWINGEINE a. Dull b. Meagre c. Disrepute d. Proportionate TEDIUM a. Appreciation b. Fixation c. Neutrability d. Liveliness TENDENTIOUS a. Impartial b. Calm c. Supplementary d. Super-duper TEMERITY a. Humourous b. Hybrid c. Humility d. Humiliation CAPRICE a. Excuse b. Steady behaviour c. Accusation d. Exhortation
Directions (For the 5 items which follow):

In each of the following five items, a related pair of words (in capital letters) is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair (in capital letters).
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CALLOW : MATURITY a. Eager : Anxiety b. Incipient : Fruition
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18. c. Apathetic : Disinterest d. Exposure : Weathering DAMPEN : ENTHUSIASM a. Moisten : Throat b. Test : Commitment c. Reverse: Direction d. Mute : Sound RUFFLE : COMPOSURE a. Flourish : Prosperity b. Adjust : Balance c. Upset : Equilibrium d. Chaff : Wheat LATENT : MANIFESTATION a. Dormant : Awakening b. Patent : Appearance c. Redoubtable : Impress d. Aggrieved : Distress CELERITY : SNAIL a. Indolence : Sloth b. Humility : Peacock c. Nervous : Energy d. Emulation : Rivalry (b) I told her the news (c) No error (d) Acting from inside information (a) the police were able to arrest the gang (b) before the robbery occurred (c) No error (d) Amit did not have a girl-friend (a) till he was 21, but now (b) he is making up at the lost time (c) No error (d) She wanted to be an actress (a) but her father soon (b) nipped that idea in the bud (c) No error (d) Captains language was uncompromising (a) he told junior officers their work (b) must improve or they would be fired (c) No error (d) ORDERING OF SENTENCES Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the correct sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet. Example X has been solved for you.
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SPOTTING ERRORS Directions (For the 6 items which follow) :

In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the approximate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a No error response. (ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed. (iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet. Example P and Q have been solved you for. (EXAMPLES) P. The young child singed (a) (b) A very sweet song. No error (c) (d) Explanation: In item P, the word signed in wrong. The letter under this part is (b); se (b) is the correct answer. Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the correct answer, as the sentence does not certain any error. (i)
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There were gapes of horror (a) form the spectators as (b) the performer fell from the tightrope (c) No error (d) She gazed at me (a) in misbelief when
(EXAMPLE)
X. S1 : S6 : P: There was a boy named Jack At least she turned him out of the house So the mother asked him to find work
Q: R: S:
They were very poor he lived with his mother But Jack refused to work
Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) RQP-S (b) PQR-S
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(c) (d) QPR-S RPS-Q
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example is R-Q-PS, which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
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S1 : The first aeroplanes were fragile and clumsy. S6 : In those days people considered flight in an aeroplane to be a miracle P : When they took off they would not fly very high Q : They also broke down frequently R: It was difficult for them to take off S : They flew slowly and only in the vicinity of the airfield Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. R P S Q b. S Q R P c. R Q S P d. S P R Q S1 : Lions usually live in a family parties called prides. S6 : They actack man only when they are wounded or otherwise aroused. P : Wild lions are not normally a menance to man. Q : A pride is commonly made up of a lion, two lionesses and cubs. R : Sometimes pigs and other animals are also killed by them. S : They usually prey on zebras and antelopes. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. P S R Q b. Q R S - P c. P R S Q d. Q S R P S1 : Not long age television was a rarity. S6: Only a few people understand the technology behind it. P: It has become a means of entertainment and information. Q: Yet nowadays there is one in virtually every home. R: But most of us do not know much about how an image appears on the television screen S: We have grown used to it. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. P R Q S b. Q S P R c. P S Q R d. Q R P S S1: I have know in my own life, in my own experience, people who were hating one another on account of their religious views.
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S6: We are the inheritors of a great world heritage. P: They try to find out whatever is of value in them. Q: You will find that other religions are studies with sympathy and respect by those who do not adhere to them R: All that has changed today. S: The classics of the whole world form the classics of every human being. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. P S R Q b. R Q P S c. P Q R S d. R S P Q S1: Javert was a strong, upright and just man. S6: So he took the only way out for him-he killed himself. P: But now his life was turned upside down. Q: It was his safe world of rules. R: He would help no one, and he helped no one. S: He did not want favours from a thief. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. Q P S R b. S R Q P c. Q R S P d. S P Q R S1: Nowadays we pay a great deal of attention to pure air, open windows and garden cities. S6: Pasteurised milk is milk which has been treated in this way. P: Another useful discovery of Pasteurs was the process, now called, pasteurization. Q: Pasteur was one of the first to show how necessary all these are if we are to fight against germs and disease. R: Pasteur helped them by showing that by heating win or milk to a temperature of 60 degree Centrigrade, the germs were made harmless. S: Some wine-growers were troubled by a germ which has turned their win sour. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. R S P Q b. Q P S R c. R P S Q d. Q S P R S1: Scientist have found that any train running on wheels cannot go faster than 300 kilometres an hour. S6: Japanese engineers are, therefore, planning another kind of train, a magnetic train without, wheels, which would also float above the ground.
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P: One way of building such trains has already been tried out Q: If we want trains which can go still faster we must build them without wheels. R: But it would not be possible to run them on the Tokaido line because in same tunnels there would not be enough air to support them S: Here, the whole train floats above the ground on top of a cushion of air created by powerful fans. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. QPSR b. SRQP c. QRSP d. SPQR S1: Newspapers are the cheapest medium of information today. S6: Consequently, 50 percent of our population is denied across to information vital for the functionaries of a democracy. P: If you cannot buy a paper, you can go to a public library. Q: And yet newspapers do not reach nearly fifty percent of our population. R: They are also easily available to everybody S: It is because people are illiterate. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. RSQP b. QPRS c. RPQS d. QSRP S1: Social isolation, overcrowding, the competitiveness of our society and several other factors are responsible for stress. S6: Yet some other get totally depressed and often much worried. P: In England we refer to competition in society as the rat-race. Q: All of us react to that rat-race in different ways. R: But some of us get very much tried and bored every easily. S: The pressures on all of us are very great because speed and competition have become part of everyday life. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. RPQS b. SQPR c. RQPS d. SPQR S1: It is true that a few women have opportunities to work outside the home. S6: If women stop doing this work there would be havoc in the public life. P: Women do much work all the time within the house. Q: This work could be termed as socially productive labour. R: It consists of cooking, washing, cleaning, fetching fuel and water etc. S: This work is crucial to the survival of society. Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. PQRS b. RSPQ c. PSRQ d. RQPS ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
Direction (For the 10 items which follow) In the following item, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sequence. Choose the proper sequence and marks in your Answer Sheet accordingly. Example Z has been solved for you. (EXAMPLE) Z. It is well-known that it very bad the effect P Q of cinema on children R S Which one of the following is the correct sequence? (a) PSRQ (b) S-P-Q-R (c) S-R-P-Q (d) Q-S-R-P Explanation: The proper way of writing the sentence is It is well-known that the effect of cinema on children is very bad. This is indicated by the sequence P-S-R-Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
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Life comes Awed by all the things that their words can do with computer and gadgets P who can get anything done by clinking a few buttons
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a full circle when some technologically challenged mothers R begin to believe that their child is a super-kid in the digital world S Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. RPQS b. PRQS c. RPSQ d. PRSQ Unaware Reading other periodicals and publication P ourselves with merely Q of the need to build R
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the intellect we tend to entertain S Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. QPRS b. RSQP c. QSRP d. RPQS Loss of employment in a country like India where P is no social security net to fall back on Q most people are still poor and there R or livelihood can be really injurious S Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. SRPQ b. QPRS c. QRPS d. SPRQ Many people organized their energies around a goal P but simply because they have never Q or brains or even courage R fail in life not for lack of ability S Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. PQRS b. SRQP c. PRQP d. SQRP Being to a viewing point a higher more expansive place P to move from a point of view Q willing to change allows you R from which you can seen both sides S Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. RQPS b. QRPS c. QRSP d. RQSP Yet one area to players who have violated the spirit of the game P in which Indian Cricket administration should definitely Q denying the benefits of Indian corporate sponsorship R use its financial clout is in S Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. RPQS b. QSRP c. RSQP d. QPRS While improvements have definitely helped climbers now carry lighter oxygen bottles P in technology over the years Q made of titanium and get regular weather updates R through satellite phones the route to Mt. Everest remains treacherous as ever S Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. QPRS b. SRPQ c. QRPS d. SPRQ Life the number of breaths you take P that take your breath away Q is not measured by R but by the moments S Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. QPSR b. RSPQ c. QSPR d. RPSQ The greatest miss it but that it is too P danger for most of us Q is not that our aim is too high and we R low and we reach it S Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. QSPR
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b. PRQS c. QRPS d. PSQR The fundamental but an institutional framework that lays down P and cannot be trampled on by the ruling government Q the rights of the people and rules of political engagement R mark of a democracy is not elections S Which one of the following is the correct sequence? a. SPQR b. PSRQ c. PSQR d. SPRQ
peace, which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer. PASSAGE I J.K Galbraith has described the current inflation as a revolt of the rich against the poor. Richard Parker supports this view with the claim that it is the richest people that benefit by inflation: while the rest, especially the poorest, suffer in proportion to their relative property. On the other hand, a 1979 study published by the Brookings Institute indicates that the lower classes are generally benefited by inflation, while the upper classes lose. The confusion over who suffers from inflation is extended to other questions such as the major causes of inflation. In addition to the proponents of the demand theory, there are many who doubt whether inflation is essentially an economic problem at all. Konard Kellen holds that inflation is not an economic problem but a psychological one. Paul Samuelson cites a social factor, the evaluation of a more humane society, as a root cause of inflation.
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COMPREHENSION
Directions (For the 13 items which follow): In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read and passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. Example T and J are solved for you PASSAGE (EXAMPLE) In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakable is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups and as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creature. I. The authors remains point is that (a) different forms of life are found on earth (b) different levels of existence are possible in nature (c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings (d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in developing the authors position? (a) All forms of life have a single over-riding goal (b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire of peace (c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups (d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death.
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What does the author believe? a. Only the rich suffer from inflation b. Only the poor suffer from inflation c. Both the rich and the poor suffer from inflation d. It is debatable as to who suffers from inflation From the passage, which one of the following may be inferred? a. The effect of inflation can be studied with scientific precision b. The effect of inflation cannot be studied with scientific precision c. Economists are biased towards the rich or the poor d. The effect of inflation varies from place to place, and people to people On the basis of the information given in the passage, what are the causes of inflation? a. Essentially economic b. Essentially psychological c. Essentially social d. Highly controversial How des the author write? a. Objectively b. Critically c. Sympathetically d. Persuasively
PASSAGE II
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Explanation: I. The idea which represents the authors main point is peace and security are the chief goals of all living being, which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer. J. The best assumption underlying the passage in The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for
Work itself is a very important factor in motivating a person. A person tends to perform a task more enthusiastically if that work affords more satisfaction than the other work. A persons satisfaction out of work is more is it is more need satisfying. A man seeks something from work and if he gets more satisfaction from a particular work he will be prone to do that work better or harder. There are incentives for work; these can be financial or non-financial. People like missionaries and some scientists do not work basically for material gains as such. A person wants to do a work which is personally meaningful.
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Which one of the following is correct? a. Work is the most important factor by which a person is motivated.
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b. Work is the least important factor that motivates a person c. Among the several factors that motivate a person, work is an important one. d. Nothing can motivate a person who does not have some permanent work. Which one of the following is correct? A persons work satisfaction depends on a. the money and other benefits he receives from work b. the need satisfying nature of the work he does c. the physical environment in which he works d. the personal relationship he establishes with his colleagues and superiors Which one of the following is correct? If, a person get more satisfaction from a particular work, he will a. stick on the that work for every b. certainly achieve mastery over that work soon c. slowly develop a taste for that work d. do that work in a better and harder manure Which one of the following is correct? Both the scientists and the missionaries work a. because of the incentives given to them b. without hopping for any material gain c. without receiving any material gain d. because they want to be appreciated Which one of the following is correct? Every person wants to have a work which a. helps him to get involved meaningfully b. helps him to earn substantially c. is pleasant and easy d. can be finished quickly
PASSAGE III In our country there is very little popular writing on science. Those who write are writing for other scientists. The newspapers these days devote a little more space then before for scientific topics but they appear to be rather ill-digested knowledge not written in simple readable language. So if we are to bridge this gap and disseminate scientific knowledge and promote scientific temper, it has become necessary for some of the scientists to turn to popularization. Today we have almost compulsion for doing this if we are to convey to the people the meaning and relevance of the pursuit of science. It is time same scientists enters the field of scientific journalism.
58.
53.
59.
54.
55.
60.
56.
d. The author condemns the attitude displayed by newspapers in the matter of promoting popular writing on science. Which one of the following is correct? Popular writing on science in our country appears to be a. not properly digested and easily comprehensible b. extremely restricted in outlook c. very lucid, intelligible and self explanatory d. based on obsolete knowledge of the topics chosen Which one of the following is correct? The propose of promoting popular scientific writing in newspapers is a. to attract more people to the study of science b. to spread scientific knowledge and encourage scientific temper among the common people c. to give the people information about modern scientific inventions d. to help the newspapers to increase their circulation among the students of science The author wants some of the scientists to turn to popularization. What does that imply? a. The scientists should go round and country and explain to the people the various achievements of science b. The scientists should make use of the television and radio to spread the message of science among the common people c. The scientists should write in newspapers about the various aspects of science in easily understandable language. d. The scientists should seek the help of social organizations to spread scientific knowledge among the common people. PART-B
61.
62.
57.
What does the passage suggest? a. The author is fully satisfied with the role of newspapers in promoting popular writing on science. b. The author is totally dissatisfied with the role of newspapers in promoting popular writing on science. c. The author appreciates the readiness of newspapers to allow more space than before to writings on science.
63.
The deficiency of which one of the following leads to anemia? a. Ascorbic acid b. Citirc acid c. Folic acid d. Nicotinic acid The highly fatal disease of Rabies is caused by which one of the following? a. Virus b. Bacteria c. Protozoan d. Nematode worm How in jasmine plant propagated? a. Grafting b. Layering c. Root cutting d. Stem cutting
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64. Which chamber of the heart has the thickest muscular walls? a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle Among the following fruits, which one is not a true fruit? a. Apple b. Date c. Coconut d. Tomato In human body, while one of the following glands is located in the neck? a. Adrenal b. Hypothalamus c. Pituitary d. Thyroid In human body, which one among the following secretes digestive enzyme? a. Large institute b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Spleen Which one among the following is a warm blooded animal? a. Anaconda b. Crocodile c. Shark d. Whale Which one among the following is an ape naturally found in India? a. Chimpanzee b. Hoolak Gibbon c. Gorilla d. Orangutan Which one among the following plants produces seeds without producing flower? a. Cashew nut b. Date Palm c. Pinus d. Toddy The stem of which one of the following plants is usually underground? a. Banana b. Sweet potato c. Topioca d. Water melon In the context of Wholesale Prize Index (WPI) in India, under the Primary Articles group, what is the approximate weight of Food Article in WPI? a. 12 b. 15 c. 18 d. 21 Which one of the following is responsible for bringing out the report on National and Per Capita Income in India? a. Ministry of Planning b. Ministry of Human Resource Development c. Ministry of Home Affairs d. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation In terms of both quantity and value, which one of the following countries is the largest cutting and polishing centre of diamonds in the world? a. Belgium b. France c. India d. South Africa Regarding the procurement of wheat for central pool, which one of the following States has the highest share of contribution? a. Haryana b. Madhya Pradesh c. Punjab d. Uttar Pradesh So far how many times has the countrywide Economic Census been done in India? a. Thrice b. Five times c. Seven times d. Nine times Which among the following was the capital of Shivaji? a. Singhagarh b. Raigarh c. Panhala d. Poona Who among the following arrived in the court of Jehangir as an official ambassador of King of England? a. William Hawkins b. Sir Thomas Roe c. Sir Edward Terry d. Bernier Which Mughal Emperor granted the Dewani of Bengal to the British East India Company in the year 1765? a. Jehangir b. Shahjahan c. Aurangzeb d. Shah Alam-II Who of the following was the representative of Indian National Congress in the Second Round Table Conference, held in London? a. Madan Mohan Malviya b. C. Rajagopalachari c. Mahatma Gandhi d. Vallabhbhai Patel Where did Lala Hardayal and Sohan Singh Bhakna form the Gadar Party in 1913? a. Paris b. San Francisco c. Tokyo d. London
65.
74.
66.
75.
67.
76.
68.
77.
69.
78.
70.
79.
71.
80.
72.
81.
73.
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82. Prior to Independence, the elections to the Constituent Assembly were held under which one of the following? a. Mountbatten Plan b. Cabinet Mission c. Cripps Proposals d. Wavell Plan Who among the following introduced cashew nut, pineapple and tobacco into India? a. Dutch b. English c. French d. Portuguese When All India Trade Union Congress was founded in 1920, who of the following was elected its president? a. C.R. Das b. Lala Pajpat Rai c. N.M. Joshi d. V.V. Giri Which one of the following was the occasion on which Jawaharlal Nehru stepped forward, as an important national leader? a. Agitation against Rowlatt Act b. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement c. Formation of Swaraj Party d. Agitation against the arrival of Simon Commission At the time of Tripuri Congress Session in 1939 in which Subhash Bose has defeated Sitaramayya, who among the following had withdrawn his candidature from Presidentship? a. Abdul Kalam Azad b. Jawaharlal Nehru c. Jayaprakash Narayan d. Vallabhbhai Patel Which one of the following was not a programme of the Non-Cooperation cell given in 1920? a. Boycott of titles b. Boycott of Civil Services c. Boycott of English education d. Boycott of police and army In which year was Mahatma Gandhis famous work Hind Swaraj written? a. 1907 b. 1909 c. 1914 d. 1934 Consider the following statements with reference to Union Government: 1. The tenure of Chairman/Members of Staff Selection Commission is for five years or still they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. 2. The tenure of Chairman/Member of Union Public Service Commission is for six years or till they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, who inquires into all doubts and decides disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of Vice-President of India? a. The President of India b. The Supreme Court of India c. The Election Commission of India d. The Attorney General of India Who among the following tribes live in the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands? a. Apatani b. Jarawa c. Munda d. Santhal Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Book) A. Crime and Punishment B. Farewell to Arms C. The Rights of Man D. Unto The Last List II (Author) 1. Ernest Hemingway 2. Feodor Dostoyevsky 3. John Ruskin 4. Thomas Paine Code: A B C D a. 2 3 4 1 b. 4 1 2 3 c. 4 3 2 1 d. 3 1 4 3 In India, when both, the offices of the President and the Vice-President happen to be vacant simultaneously, who will discharge the duties of the President? a. The Prime Minister b. The Union Home Minister c. The Speaker of Lok Sabha d. The Chief Justice of India For the review of which of the following was a Commission under the chairmanship of Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah constituted by Union Government? a. Industrial sickness b. River water disputes c. The Constitution of India
83.
90.
84.
91.
85.
92.
86.
87.
88.
93.
89.
94.
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95. d. Centre-State relations In which one of the following countries did the Industrial Revolution first take place? a. USA b. UK c. Germany d. France Who of the following is the author of the famous book Das Kapital? a. Adam Smith b. Karl Marx c. Rousseau d. Voltaire Which one of the following is the correct statement? In the Parliament of India, a money bill can be introduced only with the recommendation of a. the President of India b. the Prime Minister of India c. the Speaker of Lok Sabha d. the Union Finance Minister Which one of the following is a place of famous Hindu pilgrimage as well as a site of important hydroelectric power project? a. Devaprayag b. Guntur c. Nasik-Triambakeshwar d. Omkareshwar State which one of the following groups of oceanic water currents meet near Newfoundland Island of Canada? a. Gulf Stream and Labrador b. Kuroshio and Kurile c. Agulhas and Mozambique d. Brazilian and Falkland How many Indian States border Myanmar? a. Three b. Four c. Five d. Six Match List I with List Ii and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Name of the River) A. Godavari B. Krishna C. Tapti D. Cauvery List II (Tributary Joining) 1. Parna 2. Hemavati 3. Pranhita 4. Koyana Code: A B C D a. 1 4 3 2 b. 3 2 1 4 c. 1 2 3 4 102. d. 3 4 1 2 Where is the Port of East London located? a. England b. Ireland c. East coast of USA d. South Africa Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? a. Northern Rhodesia : Namibia b. Gold Coast : Ghana c. Dutch Guyana : Suriname d. Dutch East Indies : Indonesia Khmer Rouge atrocities pertained to which one among the following? a. South Africa b. Iraq c. Libya d. Cambodia Recently, the President of India conferred the India Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2006 on whom among the following? a. Kim Dae Jung b. Mohamed El Baradei c. Shirin Ebadi d. Wangari Muta Maathai In the year 2007, which one of the following pairs of countries launched spacecrafts to carry out research on the Moon? a. Australia and Canada b. China and Japan c. France and Germany d. Russia and South Korea In December, 2007, which one of the following countries launched in interceptor missile called AAD-02 to intercept a ballistic missile? a. Iran b. North Korea c. India d. Pakistan Recently, who of the following writers in English, has been awarded the Sahitya Akademi Fellowship? a. Amitav Ghosh b. Anita Desai c. Jhumpa Lahiri d. Shashi Tharoor In the context of Indian Defence, what is Admiral Gorshkov, frequently in the news? a. Stealth worship b. Nuclear powered submarine c. Aircraft carrier d. Marine oil drilling platform Hugo Chavez, who is frequently in the news, is a President of which one of the following countries? a. Argentina b. Brazil
103.
96.
104.
97.
105.
98.
106.
99.
107.
100.
101.
108.
109.
110.
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111. c. Cuba d. Venezuela What is the Defence outlay (approximate) in India for the year 2008-09? a. Rs. 65,000 crores b. Rs. 85,000 crores c. Rs. 95,000 crores d. Rs. 1,05,000 crores What is a major use of allethrin? a. In household insecticides b. In glass manufacture c. In steel manufacture d. In paints and varnishes Which one of the following is not correctly match (approximately)? a. 4 Imperial gallons = 18.18 litres b. 4 pounds = 1.81 kilograms c. 30 pounds per sq. in. = 2.07 kg per sq. cm. d. 5 hectares = 18.35 acres Big Mac Index is employed in the determination of which one of the following? a. Infrastructure development b. Purchasing power parity c. Defence budget per capita d. Crop yield What does the term Pyrrhic Victory imply? a. A victory in a war wherein Air Force has played a major role b. A victory achieved at a great cost to the winner c. A victory of a political party wherein members of the opposition party have betrayed their own members d. A victory achieved in games as a result of match-fixing 116. The well-known sportsman Liu Xiang has excelled in which event? a. Table Tennis b. Weightlifting c. Hurdles race d. Swimming Which one of the following subjects is mainly dealt with by Montreal Protocol? a. Undersea cable network b. International cooperation against terrorism c. Depletion of Ozone layer d. Exploration of outer space From which year does the 11th Five Year Plan start? a. 2005 b. 2006 c. 2007 d. 2008 In the context of Indias defence, what is C130 J Hercules? a. A supersonic fighter jet b. A troop transport aircraft c. An unmanned patrol aircraft d. A multi-purpose amphibious vehicle Who among the following is a blanker? a. Samir Jain b. Raghav Bahl c. K.V. Kamath d. G.M. Rao
112.
117.
113.
118.
114.
119.
115.
120.
1
I
[DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO)
T.B.C. : Q-GUG-K-HBU Serial No. [ Test Booklet Series
138510 1
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL ABILITY TEST
(Time Allowed: Two Hours]
B
(Maximum Marks: 200)
1.
2. 3.
INSTRUCTIONS IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMEN:r OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A,B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test [ Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. .... , , .J. 4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions), 60 in PART-A and 60 in PART-B. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. , 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. . 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Befose you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per .instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. . 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0'33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. ' (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
1/ .
( DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO)
PART-A ORDERING OF SENTENCES Directions (For the 10 items which follow) :

In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first seritence (SI) and the final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
Example 'X' has been solved for you:

X. SI: There was a boy named Jack. S6 : At last she turned him out of the house. p : So the mother asked him to find work. Q : They were very poor. R : He lived with his mother. S : But Jack refused to work.
The proper sequence should be :

(a) R Q P S (b) P Q R S (c) Q P R'S (d) R P S Q
-,
Explanation "
The correct sequence in this example is R Q P S which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. 1. SI: What are the practical results ortlUs modem cult of beauty? S6 : For the facts seem to contradict themselves. P : These are questions which it is difficult to answer. Q : The exercises and the massage, the health motors and the skin foodsto what have they led ? R : Do they get something for the enormous expenditure of energy, time, and the money demanded of them by the beauty-cult ? S : Are women more beautiful than they were? ~
2:-
SI: The headmaster more closely. S6 : Besides, one of hurt. -
looked at the boy his feet had been
P : Although he must have been about eighteen years old, he wore a child's suit.
Q : He noticed the strange mixture of ':/

clothes that he wore. R : His shoes were too broken and old even for a beggar. S It was amazingly short in the arms and legs and. yet wide enough for his thin body.

(a) (b) (c) (d) S Q P R R Q S P

(a) Q S R P (b) (c) (d) R Q S P P
QP S R
P R Q S (Contd.)
R S 2
S Q P R
3.
S) : There was a dacoit who used to rob rich people. S6 : He robbed rich people again. P : Once the police managed to 'capture him. Q : He was sent to prison for 10 years, but he managed to escapeR : He helped the poor and the needy from the money so obtained. S : The court which tried him found him to be guilty. The proper sequence should be : (a) .R P S Q(b) RSQP
5.
S) : So the father gave his younger son a third part of all that he had. S6 : He became poor and returned to the village. P : Then he left his village and went to rhe- town. Q : The son sold his share of the land and the animals. R : Soon all his money was gone. S : He wasted his money on feasting and drinking. The proper sequence should be : (a) --Q P S R (b) PQRS (c) S P Q R (d) RPQS
..
4.
(c) RPQS (d) PQSR

6.
S) : In those days I was an even better walker than I am today. S6 : Even a small additional weight of food bothered me and I looked for a place to eat and rest. P : But as the day progressed, and with the warmth 'of the day, the rate of walking fell. . Q : I walked like the young with quick steps covering eight miles in two hours in the morning. R : On a particular August morning I set out quite early. It was quite pleasant and cool to begin with. S I carried with me enough food to meet my simple needs and was therefore able to keep away from the towns. ' The proper sequence should be : (a) PQSR (b) SQRP ~) R'S Q P (d) PSQR
/"
S) : It was an impulsive decision. S6 : The train was already on the platform and all the passengers were in a hurry to board the train. P Buying tickets, therefore, was no problem. Q : Four of us, all room-mates in the (\J hostel, decided to travel by train from Gwalior to Delhi and witness the Republic Day Parade. R : Ashok pretended sickness and prevailed upon the man nearest to the window to QUY four more tickets-one for him and three for his sisters' . : S There was a large crowd in the station and a long queue in front of the ticket window. The proper sequence should be : (a) PSQR (b) SRP (c) PQRS (d) SQRP
(Contd.)
7.
SI: Abraham
went to the great slave
9.
SI:
I stopped building.
and looked
up at the
market in New Orleans. S6 : He did not rest until he achieved his goal. P From that day onwards he hated the entire slave-trade.
S6: Help!
Save me !'
P : I thought I must have imagined the scream. Q : There were no lights on at all in it. R : Then I heard the voice again. S : Everyone seemed to be asleep'. The proper sequence should be : (a) (b) Q S R P P Q R S' Q S P R R S P Q The flight was delayed by a few hours.
Q : The slaves were auctioned like cattle there. R : The sight of these miserable human beings made him very sad. S : He resolved to do everything he could to abolish it. The proper sequence should be :
(a)
Q R P S' P Q R S S R Q P Q P R S He was no child prodigy.
(b) (c) (d) 8. S,:
(c(
(d)
10. SI:
S6 : The threat turned out to be a hoax and the plane took off a few hours behind the schedule.
S6 : He saw the parade as a movement of people compelled to be machines. P : When soldiers marched through Munich accompanied by drums and pipes, children enthusiastically join~ in. Q : Indeed, it was a very long time before Albert learned to speak. R : But when little Albert passed such a parade, he began to cry and told his parents, "When I grow up, I don't want to be one of those people". S : He was always taciturn. The proper sequence should be : (a) (c) Q (a) (b) (c) (d)
P : The caller had given information

about the planting of a time bomb in the plane. Q : The empty plane was subjected to a thorough search. R : The passengers were asked to vacate
I
the plane. S : The delay was caused by an
anonymous phone call. The proper sequence should be : R Q- P S S P R,Q
S R
(b) R Q S P S Q P R
QR P S
P Q S R
."/
~QSPR 4
(Contd.)
SYNONYMS
Directions (For the 10 items which follow) :

Each of the following ten items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters. 11. BEMOAN (a) (b) (c) (d) Lament Pacify Request. Imagine 16. DERELICT (a) (b) (c) (d) Derogatory Depressing Ramshackle Sluggish
12. PROSAIC (a) (b) (c) (d) Dull and ordinary Slow and steady Grand Precious
17. INJUNCTION (a) (b) (c) (d) Bruise Injustice Ruling Reproach
13. OMINOUS (a) (b) (c) (d) Helpless Humble Restless Sinister
1-8. IMPLORE (a) (b) (c) (d) Entreat Put into Practice Interfere Transmit
14. ELOQUENT (a) (b) (c) (d) Ambiguous Graceful Fluent Productive
19. GROTESQUE (a) (b) (c) (d) Boring Gripping Monstrous Obnoxious
15. FRAIL (a) Astute
20. PERTINENT (a) Dependable
(b) Delicate (c) (d) Foolish Immature
(b) Relevant (c) (d) Remarkable Sensible (Contd.)
ANTONYMS
Each of the following ten items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital letters. 21. PAROCHIAL (a) (b) (c) Broad-minded Contradictory Paranoid 26. REPRIMAND (a) (b) (c) (d) Bequeath Petition Praise Scold
(d) Overriding 22. FICKLE (a) (b) (c) (d) Belligerent Constant Disinterested Proud
27. LUSH (a) (b) (c) (d) Cramped Ridiculous Rampant Sparse
23. DISGRUNTLED (a) (b) (c) Contended Detached Obedient
28. TENTATIVE (a) (b) (c) (d) Definite Outdated Preliminary Universal
(d) Vigorous 24. VIBRANT (a) Feel aggrieved at
29. MARVELLOUS (a) (b) (c) (d) Awful Contentious Fictitious Malicious
(b) Occasional (c) (d) Pale Shabby
25. FORBIDDING (a) Declaring
30. PASSIONATE (a) (b) (c) (d) Abnormal Apathetic Oppressive Superficial
(b) Forcing (c) Exposing
(d) Inviting 6
(Contd.)

In this section, you have five short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read the passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. PASSAGE-I On the day of the Christmas concert the entire orchestra entered the gymnasium where a large throng of pupils and parents were gathered. The school choir had gathered on the balcony with candles and the orchestra began "Silent Night". Slowly the lights dimmed, leaving us in darkness except for the hundred glimmering candles held by the choir as they softly sang the carol. Slowly, and just as dramatically, the orchestra began to falter-in dimming of the lights, when the lights faded out completely, direct proportion to the so did the orchestra, because no
one could read his music. Except for me, for my music was in my head. From a corner of the stage, the sound of my violin filled the gymnasium. The choir and I went through verse after verse. When it was all over, the ovation was positively thunderous. 31. The narrator is (a) a priest 34. The statements that 'the ovation means that expression of was
positively thunderous' (a)
(b) the leader of pupils (c) an instrumentalist
There was a joyful appreciation
by people.
(d) a smger 32. Why did the orchestra begin to falter? (a) (c) The orchestra was not led properly. The violin instruments. (d) There was no coordination chorus. 33. How could the choir sing when the lights dimmed? (a) They had memorized the songs. in the dominated the other
(b)
The audience joined the singers and sang aloud.
(c)
The audience made circles and danced in ecstasy.
(b) The dimming of lights caused it. (d)
The audience made a noise resembling thunder.
35. How was it possible for the narrator to continue with his music ? (a) He was at the corner of the stage where he could get light. (b) His instrument did not need electric power. (c) jar-He He played in candle light. did not need to read his music.
(b) They could sing in candle light. (c) There was some natural light at the choir side. (d) The narrator helped them sing. 7
(Contd.)
PASSAGE-II Patriotism is easy enough during war. For one thing, people become actively conscious of their country when it is threatened. For another, since everyone or nearly everyone feels it, there is a strong collective emotion flowing through the country. But when the war is over, the country recedes from the consciousness, and it is rarely even at the back of the mind. The question, "Am I doing any good to the country ?" doesn't occur to the mind; and even the question, "Is what I am doing good or bad for the country ?" occurs only rarely. A limited patriotism is better than none, but it is not enough. 36. The author says that one reason why patriytism is easy during war-time is that (~ war is the only factor responsible for arousing patriotism. 39. When the author says that the country "recedes from the consciousness", he means to say that (a) people no longer feel that they belong to the country.
(b) when the country is in danger, we become conscious of it. (c) we become patriotic when we are in a fighting mood. always In the
(b) people do not have the country clearly in the forefront of their mind. (c) people are not capable of understanding what is good and desirable for them.
(d) patriotism IS consciousness.
37. Another reason suggested by the author for the emergence of patriotic feeling during war-time is that (a) patriotism is specially required during war-time.
(d) the moral values which they have so far upheld would disappear from their minds. 40. By a "limited patriotism", the author refers to (a) (b) the people's attitude of indifference to the welfare of their country the attitude of people who love other countries as much as they love their own country those who are self-centered and mainly concerned about their own welfare
(b) we become deeply conscious of danger to ourselves during war-time. (c) patriotism becomes contagious because one finds a lot of other people feeling patriotism.
(d) everyone feels that he/she should strive to protect the others. 38. When the threat of war is over, (a) there is no need for people to be interested in others' welfare. (c)
(b) people do not consider it necessary to serve the country. )e) people tend to become totally unmindful of national interests.
(d) the attitude of people who are indifferent to the welfare of their country except during war-time
(d) people are generally anxious to serve the country.
(Contd.)
PASSAGE-III Most people lead the lives that circumstances have thrust upon them ..But Wilson had boldly taken the course of his life into his own hands. At 35, he had quit his job to lead a pleasant life on an exotic island with just enough money to last for twenty five years. Once, fifteen years after he had been on the island, I happened to meet him and enquired about his financial situation. He said, "It will carry me on till I am sixty." "But one cannot be sure of dying at sixty", I said. "Well ..." he. replied, "it depends on oneself, doesn't it" ? 41. According to the author, most people 43. " depends on oneself" suggests that (a) do not allow circumstances to affect Wilson, at 60, would their lives. (a) depend on his own resources. (b) have fatalistic attitude towards life. /' (b) surrender himself to destiny. (c) do not know how to cope with their (c) take way his own life. situation. (d) carry on living in the same way. (d) do nothing to change the condition they live in. 42. Wilson's boldest decision was that he (a) quit his job. (b) saved a lot of money to lead a pleasant life. (c) preferred to live in isolation. (d) wanted to live without depending on others. PASSAGE-IV A soap opera is a' kind of a sandwich, whose recipe is simple enough. Between thick slices of advertising, spread twenty minutes of dialogue, and predicament, villainy, and female suffering in equal measure, throw in a dash of nobility, sprinkle with tears, season with organ music, cover with a rich announcer sauce, and serve five times a week. It may also contain a teaser, a giveaway, a contest offer, or a cowcatcher or hitch-hike for another of the sponsor's products. It is the hope of every advertiser to habituate the housewife to an engrossing narrative whose optimum length is forever and at the same time to saturate all levels of her consciousness with the miracle of a given product, so that she will be aware of it all the days of her life and mutter its name in her sleep. 44. The second sentence of the passage contains the description of alan (a) (b) (c) (d) programme announcement. recipe for sandwich. advertisement. melodrama. 46. According to the author, the advertisers aim at (a) educating and housewives. enlightening the
(b) brainwashing the housewives. (c) (d) selling their wares very cheap. offering pure entertainment. and wholesome
45. Which ofthe following accurately describes the author's style in the passage? (a) (b) (c) (d) Scientific and objective style. Romantic style. Satirical style. Sentimental and melodramatic style. 9
(Contd.)
PASSAGE-V Most of you probably did not see Mohan at close quarters. He had amazing qualities. One of these qualities was that he managed to draw out the good in another person. The other person may have had plenty of evil in him. But he somehow spotted the good and laid emphasis on the good. The result was that the poor man had to try to be good. He could not help it. He would feel ashamed when he did something wrong. 47. The author assumes that most of us (a) (b) (c) (d) have not seen Mohan. have not heard of Mohan. are not well-acquainted with Mohan's powers. have not observed Mohan's house closely. 49. The other man is called poor because (a) he usually came from a poor family. (b) he was always very evil. (eJ" he must try to become good and give up his evil ways. (d) he did not know what to do and was helpless. 50. The other man tried to be good because (a) (b) Mohan forced him to do so. he wanted to imitate Mohan. he was ashamed of doing a wrong thing.
48. One of Mohan's greatest qualities was that (a) he could completely destroy the evil in another man. ~ he could discover the good in another man. (c) he always maintained a good life. (d) he always kept aw:ay from bad men.
,tc}
(d) he did not want to remain poor.
SPOTTING ERRORS Directions (For the 10 items which follow) : (i) In this Section a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each oneis labelled '(a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in a y underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in anyone of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a 'No error' response. (ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong.) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed. (iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet. Examples 'P' and 'Q' have been solved for you: P. The young child singed a very sweet song. (~ (b) (~ Q. We worked very hard throughout the season. (a) (b) (c)
No error (d) No error

(d)
Explanation " In item P, the word 'singed' is wrong. The letter under this part is (b); so (b) is the correct answer. Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the correct answer, as the sentence does not contain any error. (Contd.) 10
51. Many a student
in our college (b)
(a(
(a) by Mahatma Gandhi's call.
are extremely fond of the new game. (c) many brilliant students (b)
No error (d)
52. During India's struggle. for freedom
gave up their studies (c)
No error (d)
53. He opposed the scheme at first (a) No error (d)
but when it was fully explained (b)
he came to our views. (c)
54. The world we live presents (a)
an infinite variety (b)
of experiences everyday. (c)
No error (d)
55. Any meaningful discussion of national integration (a) which threaten it. (c) 56. The lion told the fox (a) 57. The traveler was so hungry (a) 58. You may have to regret later (a) 59. She was ashamed No error (d) that he is very weak (b) that he gulped all the food (b)
must take stock about the tendencies

(b)
and that he had no appetite. (c) placed over the table.
No error (d) No error (d) No error

(d)
,--(e)'
within your mean. (c)
if you do not start living (b)
when she remembered (b)
that she did not visit her mother for a year. (c)
JJi
No error (d) 60. Tell me (a)
what all you know about it. (b)
before I take a decision in the matter. (c)
No error (d)
11
(Contd.)
PART-B
61. Financial distribution between the Union and the States takes place on the basis of the recommendations of: (a) The Inter-State Council 66. Which one of the following is a pigment? (a) (b) (c) (d) Albumin Elastin Keratin Melanin
(b) The Planning Commission (c) The Finance Commission
(d) The National Development Council 6T Paul Krugman won the Nobel Prize for his contribution to : (a) Economics 67. Azlan Shah cup is associated with: (a) (b) (c) (d) Badminton Cricket Football Hockey
(b) Genetics (c) (d) Literature Promotion of peace
.
,
63. The famousPalme d' Or (Golden Palm) is awarded to the best (a) sculptor
68. Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma is well known as an exponent of : (a) (b) (c) (d) Santoor Sitar Tabla Violin
(b) painter (c) travel writer
(d) film director 64. Which one of the following places is the natural habitat of Lion-tailed Macaque? (a) Maikala hills
69. Consider the following pairs: 1. 2. 3. Lionel Messi Football
(b) Neora valley (c) Nilgiris Namit Bahadur : Boxing Sanya Richards: Badminton
(d) Pachmarhi 65. Which one of the following places is well known for the annual mass nesting of Olive Ridley turtles? (a) Gopalpur
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) (b) (c) (d) 12
1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 1,2 and 3 (Contd.)
(b) Gahirmatha (c) Paradeep
(d) Puri
70. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, who ofthe following formed the Congress Khilafat Swarajya Party? (a) Vallabhbhai Patel and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Hakim Ajmal Khan
74. Consider the following pairs: Well known place 1. 2. 3. 4. Bokaro Jamshedpur Korba Rourkela State Bihar Jharkhand Chhattisgarh Orissa
Which ofthe pairs given above are correctly (c) (d) J .B. Kriplani and K.M. Munshi matched? Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das (a) 71. Who is the author of the play Neel Darpan ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Aurobindo Ghosh Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay Deen Bandhu Mitra Rabindra Nath Tagore 75. Mike Pandey is well known as a : (a) 72. Who of the following organized the East India Association in London to mobilize public opinion for Indian welfare? (a) (b) (c) (d) Anandamohan Bose Bhikaji Cama Dadabhai Naoroji Surendranath Banerjea (c) Industrialist and social activist (d) Theatre artist 76. Consider the following pairs: 1. 2. 3. Zubin Mehta Orhan Pamuk Musician Environmentalist (b) Newspaper columnist Conservationist and filmmaker (b) (c) 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3.and 4
.(df 1,2,3 and 4
73. A new group of countries called BASIC is frequently mentioned in the news. Which of the following is not one of them ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Argentina Brazil India South Africa 13
Robert Zoellick : Novelist
Which of the 'pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 1,2 and 3 (Contd.)
77. Which one of the following is a purpose of Kepler Spacecraft launched by NASA? (a) To finally determine the existence of water or the signs of conditions favourable to the formation of water on moon (b) To repair the Hubble Telescope already positioned in the space (c) To look for the signs of organic molecules or conditions leading to the formation of them on Mars (d) To search for Earth-size planets
80. Which country had helped India in Green Revolution (a) (b) (c) (d) Technology for" agricultural development and self-sufficiency in food? U.S.S.R. U.K. Germany United States of America
81. Who of the following was the leade: of a

society popularly known as 'Red Shirts' ,? (a) Maul ana Abul Kalam Azad (b) (c) (d) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan Muzaffar Ahmed Mohammad Ali J innah
moving around other stars 78. The Parliament of India consists of: (a) The Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the office of the President ofIndia only (b) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only (c) The Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the office ofthe Prime Minister of India only (d) The Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha, the office of the President ofIndia and the office of the Prime Minister of India 79. The permanent headquarters secretariat is located at : (a) (b) (c) Kathmandu of SAARC
82. Which one of the following districts is well

known for the cultivation of coffee? (a) (b) (c) (d) Balasore Chikmagalur Guntur Khurda under whose
83. In the Union Government,

(a)
charge is the Cabinet Secretariat? The Prime Minister of India Affairs (c) The Union Home Minister
(b) The Union Minister of Parliamentary
(d) Any Cabinet Minister to whom the Prime Minister allocates the charge
84. What is the number of spokes in Ashoka' s

Dharma Chakra in the Flag of India? (a)
12 16 18 24
(Contd.)
Dhaka New Delhi
(b) (c) (d)
(d) Islamabad
14
85. Who served as India's first Ambassador to the Soviet Union? (a) (b) (c) (d) V.P. Krishna Menon Vijayalakshmi Pandit K.M. Pannikar K.R. Narayanan
90. "Historical materialism" is a tenet of which one of the following political theories? (a) (b) (c) (d) Capitalism Fabian socialism Liberalism Marxism
Union 86. Which one of the following Ministries launched the Eco-Mark scheme for labelling the consumer products? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ministry of Agro and Rural Industries Ministry of Environment and Forests Ministry ofF ood Processing Industries Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution 87. India is not a member of: (a) (b) (c) (d) ADB APEC Antarctic Treaty Colombo Plan
91. The giant oil and gas company Gazprom belongs to : (a) (b) (c) (d) Canada Russia UK USA
.,.
92. In which of the regions of India do you find tropical rain forests ? (a) (b) (c) (d) North-west and South-east
Central India North-east only South-west and North-east times, "Spirulina" is being
88. At the end ofthe year 2009, with which one of the following did India sign a civil nuclear agreement? (a) (b) (c) (d) Brazil China Russia South Africa
93. In recent popularized
as a rich source of some
nutrients. It is alan : (a) (b) (c) (d) alga mushroom fern flowering plant
89. For his leadership, in which one of the following movements was Vallabhbhai Patel bestowed the title "Sardar" ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Bardoli Satyagraha Champaran Satyagraha Khilafat Movement Quit India Movement 15
94. In which State is the famous Tawang monastery located ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Arunachal Pradesh Jammu and Kashmir Himachal Pradesh Sikkim (Contd.)
95. When
you
travel
In
car
from which
100. Which elements
one of the following

IS
mineral muscle
Bhubaneshwar to Vishakhapatnam, (a) NH 4
required
for
National Highway would you take?
contraction? (a) (b) (c) Calcium Iron Sodium
(b) NH 5 (c) NH 6
(d) NH 7 96. What is the key ingredient in vinegar that you use in your diet ? (a) Acetic acid
(d) Zinc 101. With which one of the following rivers does Chambal river merge ? (a) (b) (c) Banas Ganga Narmada
(b) Ascorbic acid . (c) (d) Benzoic acid Nicotinic acid is used to
(d) Yamuna 102. Who of the following is the chairman of the National Water Resources Council? (a) The Prime Minister of India Union Minister of Water Resources (c) The Union Minister of Agriculture
97. Which one of the following induce artificial rain ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ammonium chloride Calcium carbonate Potassium nitrate Silver iodide of which
(b) The
(d) The Union Minister of Earth Sciences 98. In the context following (a) (b) (c) one of the 103. Which one of the following experiences the least annual range of temperature (a) Arctic circle ? is "Doha Round" mentioned
frequently in news ? Global climate change Global economic recession Global trade
(b) Tropic of Capricorn (c) (d) kinds of Tropic of Cancer Equator
(d) Global terrorism 99. Which one of the following organisms causes malaria ? (a) (b) {c) Bacterium Fungus Protozoan
104. In the context of Indian Defence, what is "Nag" ? (a) (b) (c) (d) 16
Nuclear powered submarine Inter-continental Indigenously ballistic missile
built battle tank
(d) Virus
Anti-tank missile (Contd.)
105. The famous couple Jalabala Vaidya and Gopal Sharman are well known to be associated with: (a) (b) (c) (d) Environmental Painting Theatre Wildlife documentaries Education
110. The
International
Date
Line
passes
through: (a) . Baffin Bay (b) (c) (d) 111. Anup playing: (a) (b) (c) Badminton Chess Football Bering Strait Denmark Strai t Hudson Bay Sridhar
IS
106. According to UNIDO's International Yearbook ofIndustrial Statistics 2010, out of the top 10 countries in manufacturing production, the two developing countries namely India and Brazil rank respectively: (a) (b)
f
well
known
for
Sixth and seventh Seventh and eighth
(c) Eighth and ninth (d) Ninth and tenth 107. Who of the following is the author of the book "Imaging India: Ideas for the New Century" ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Aravind Adiga MJ. Akbar Nandan Nilekani Shashi Tharoor planes are manufactured
(d) Table tennis 112. From which one of the following chambers of human heart is the oxygenated blood pumped into aorta ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Right atrium Right ventricle Left atrium Left ventricle
108. F-16 fighter by : (a) (b) (c)
113. Which one of the glands in human body produces the ? growth hormone (Somatotropin) (a) (b) Adrenal Pancreas Pituitary Thyroid
Bell Aircraft Corporation Boeing Aircraft Company Dassault Aviation Martin Aeronautics
(d) Lockheed Company
(c) (d)
109. From the evolutionary point of view, which one among the following organisms is more advanced than the other three ? (a) (b) (c) Crocodile Dolphin Shark
114. Indus river originates in : (a) (b) (c) Kinnaur Ladakh Nepal
(d) Tortoise 17
(d) Tibet (Contd.)
115. Consider the following pairs: 1. 2. 3. Gimar hills Nallamalai hills : Gujarat : Andhra Pradesh : Tamil Nadu
118. Which one of the following member of ASEAN ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Cambodia Laos Singapore South Korea
is not a
Shevaroy hills
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ? (a) (b) (c) 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only
119. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Vitamin)
A. B\
List-II (Deficiency disease)

1. 2. 3. 4. B 2 4 1 C
1
(d) . 1, 2 and 3 116. The Nanda Devi peak is located in : (a) Himachal Pradesh
Night blindness Beriberi Scurvy Rickets D 4 3 4 3 is of the

I>
B. C. D.
A D C A
(b) Jammu and Kashmir (c) Sikkim
Code:
(a) (c) 3~
(d) Uttarakhand 117. To which one of the following countries does Ana Ivanovic actually belong? (a) (b) (c) (d) Czech Republic Poland Russia Serbia
(b) 2 (d) 2
1 2
4
3'- 1
120. The Gandhi river: (a) (c) (d) Chambal Rihand Sutlej (b) Narmada
Sagar reservoir
18

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IES 2007 General Ability Test

ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAMINATION - 2007 GENERAL ABILITY TEST

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

16. The Roman Empire

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

very hard (b)

IES 2007 General Ability Test

frustrated because (b) exceed more than (b)

43. He ought not have done such (a) (b)

a filthy thing. No error (c) (d)

what I want is that (b) No error (d)

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

IES 2007 General Ability Test

I.E.S- (OBJ) 2008

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

ANTONYMS Directions (For the 7 items which follow):

Directions (For the 5 items which follow):

CALLOW : MATURITY a. Eager : Anxiety b. Incipient : Fruition

SPOTTING ERRORS Directions (For the 6 items which follow) :

PART-A ORDERING OF SENTENCES Directions (For the 10 items which follow) :

Example 'X' has been solved for you:

The proper sequence should be :

SI: The headmaster more closely. S6 : Besides, one of hurt. -

looked at the boy his feet had been

Q : He noticed the strange mixture of ':/

The proper sequence should be :

The proper sequence should be :

(c) RPQS (d) PQSR

went to the great slave

Q R P S' P Q R S S R Q P Q P R S He was no child prodigy.

(b) (c) (d) 8. S,:

P : The caller had given information

the plane. S : The delay was caused by an

anonymous phone call. The proper sequence should be : R Q- P S S P R,Q

Directions (For the 10 items which follow) :

15. FRAIL (a) Astute

20. PERTINENT (a) Dependable

(b) Delicate (c) (d) Foolish Immature

(b) Relevant (c) (d) Remarkable Sensible (Contd.)

23. DISGRUNTLED (a) (b) (c) Contended Detached Obedient

(d) Vigorous 24. VIBRANT (a) Feel aggrieved at