1. AN INTRODUCTION TO STAR WRITER 1.Which command is used to start StarOffice?

a) Start -> File-> Text b) File -> New ->Text c) Start- > Programs -> StarOffice d) Start -> File -> Save 2. How is the desktop in StarOffice called? a) StarDraw b) StarBase c) StarCalc d) StarDesktop 3. The flashing vertical bar is called ______ a) required spot b) starting point c) end point d) Insertion point 4. _____ is the keyboard shortcut to cut a selected text. a) Ctrl + A b) Ctrl + X c) Ctrl + A d) Ctrl + Z 5. ___ key moves the insertion point to the beginning of the document. a) Ctrl+Shift b) Ctrl + Home c) Ctrl + End d) Ctrl + Tab 6. StarWriter is a ______ a) Microsoft Visual Studies b) Word Processor c) Msgbox d) Package 7. Which command is used to open a new document? a) File ->Text ->New b) File -> New->TextDocument c) File -> Save d) File-> Document-> Save 8. When should the enter key be pressed ? a) at the end of each line b) at the end of each page c) at the end of a paragraph d) at the end of each file 9. What is the keyboard shortcut for saving a document ? a) Ctrl + A b) Ctrl + Left arrow c) Ctrl + S d) Ctrl + Right arrow 10.The shortcut key to paste a text is _____ a) Ctrl + V b) Ctrl + X c) Ctrl + A d) Ctrl + Z 11.Which keys can be used to correct a mistake ? a) Del b) Backspace c) Home d) End 12.The keyboard shortcut to select the entire document a) Ctrl + A b) Ctrl + X c) Ctrl + End d) Ctrl + Left arrow 13.Which can be moved by using keyboard or mouse ? a) Text b) Letter c) Menu d) Insertion point 14.Which key has to be pressed to move one word to the right ? a) Ctrl + A b) Ctrl + Shift c) Ctrl + Left Arrow d) Ctrl + Right Arrow 15.To move one word to left which key has to be pressed ? a) Ctrl + Left arrow b) Ctrl + Right arrow c) Shift d) Ctrl + Shift 16.Which key has to be pressed to move one cell to the left in a table ? a) Tab b) Ctrl + Tab c) Shift + Tab d) Alt + Tab 17.To move one cell to the right to the table ______ key has to be pressed. a) Tab b) Ctrl + Tab c) Shift + Tab d) Alt + Tab 18.Which key can be used to move one line down ? a) Up arrow b) Left arrow c) Right Arrow d) Down Arrow 19.To move to the end of a line, which key has to be pressed ? a) Insert b) Home c) Up d) End 20.Which key is used to go to the beginning of a line ? a) End b) Up c) Home d) PageUp 21.If the document is long, without moving the insertion point, the text can be _________ a) formatted b) edited c) scrolled d) selected 22.How many sets of scroll arrows are there ? a) five b) four c) three d) two

23.Which keys can be used to scroll left and right ? a) Up and right arrows b) Up and left arrows c) Left and right arrows d) Up and down arrows 24.Which key is used to toggle between type-over mode and the insert mode a) Del b) Insert c) Home D) End 25.Where should a click be made to unselect the wrongly selected text a) Inside the selected text b) Outside the selected text c) At the end of the text d) At the beginning of the text 26.Which key is used to hold down and drag across the text to select a) Left arrow b) Right arrow c) Left mouse d) Right mouse 27.Which menu is used to copy a text ? a) Edit -> Cut b) Edit - > Copy c) Edit -> Select d) Edit -> Select all 28.Which command is used to search a word, in search and replace dialog box a) Replace b) Cancel c) Search d) Select 29.For highlighting the first match which button is to be clicked ? a) search b) Cancel c) Select d) Replace 30.Which button is used to perform replacement of matter without confirmation ? a) Replace all b) Replace c) Ignore d) Ignore all 31.Which key should be pressed to move to the end of the document ? a) Ctrl + End b) Ctrl + X c) Ctrl + V d) Ctrl + A 32....... consists of several applications. a) Star Office b) Star Writer c) Star Calc d) Star Base 33.Text documents can be created using ..... a) Star Office b) Star Writer c) Star Calc d) Star Base 34.......... has its own desktop. a) Star Office b) Star Writer c) Star Calc d) Star Base 35.MSWORD, WORDPERFECT, STAR WRITER are examples of ......... a) word processor b) Spreadsheet c) DBMS d) package 36.The documents can be closed by ........ a) File -> exit b) Start -> Close c) Edit ->close d) File -> close 37...... button is clicked to leave the text as is and go to the next match. a) ignore b) find next c) ignore all d) Search 38....... button is clicked to close the alert box. a) Ok b) Cancel c) Close d) Exit 39.The number of buttons in the SaveAs dialog box is ....... a) 2 b) 4 c) 7 d) 8 40.The number of buttons is Open dialog box is ...... a) 2 b) 4 c) 7 d) 8 41.A ........ may contain text, tables,graphs,charts,pictures etc. a) document b) paragraph c) line d) page 42.The thick horizontal line in the page area is called ....... a) end of document marker b) end of paragraph c) end of line d) end of file 43. The ......... gives the information about the current mode (Insert or Type-over mode) a) Status bar b) Title bar c) Menu bar d) Tool bar 44. When a new text is typed if the existing text to the right of the insertion point disappears then the user is in the ..... mode. a) Type-over b) insert c) both a & b d) INSERT ON

2. TEXT FORMATTING

PART-I
1. A paragraph is any text followed by a ........ a) return b) enter c) hard return d) soft return 2. Which type of formatting use key ideas or pointers? a) underlining b) highlighting c) bold d) italic 3. By clicking which icon, different colours can be utilised in a text ? a) file b) open file c) font colour d) colour 4. By which process the monotonous appearance of a text can be modified ? a) decoration b) editing c) formatting d) underlining 5. Which key is used to underline the selected text ? a) Ctrl+ U b) Ctrl + I c) Ctrl + B d) Ctrl + V 6. Which dialog box will be displayed when we click Format ->Character a) Dialog box b) character dialog box c) StarWriter window d) replace dialog box 7. A set of characters and numbers in a certain style is called___________ a) column b) cell c) row d) font 8. Ctrl+I key is used to make the selected text in ______ a) bold b) highlighting c) italic d) underlined 9. Which key is used to get the selected text in bold form ? a) Ctrl+ U b) Ctrl + I c) Ctrl + B d) Ctrl + V 10. Some splash can be added to the documents, with the help of the _______ a) pointer b) colour printer c) printer d) buttons 11. The size of a font is measured in points and there are ...... points per inch. a) in types b) in points c) in inches d) in pixels 12. By clicking respective ______ the types of text formatting can be removed ? a) key b) button c) icon d) toolbar 13. Which font looks like professional ? a) Fajita b) Arial c) Times New Roman d) Lucida 14. Which is the decorative font ? a) Fajita b) Arial c) Times New Roman d) Lucida 15. In which menu are all the formatting options available a) file b) format c) help d) none 16. The text in the paragraph can be justified to keep _______ a) large left margin b) large right margin c) both margins even d) top and bottom space even 17.In a text, each paragraph is provided with different _______ a) tab settings b) margins c) left alignment d) right alignment 18.The text is ______ aligned by default while typing a) center aligned b) right aligned c) left aligned d) none 19.What can be done to set off a paragraph from the main body text ? a) right indent b) left indent c) center indent d) none 20.Which indent is used for numbered lists? a) right indent b) left indent c) increasing indent d) hanging indent 21.Which icon can be used to unindent a text a) right indent b) left indent c) increasing indent d) decreasing indent

22.What is the shortcut to justify a text ? a) Ctrl + E b) Ctrl + L c) Ctrl + R d) Ctrl + J 23.Ctrl+L is used to ______ the text. a) center align b) right align c) left align d) justify 24.Which keys are used to right align the text ? a) Ctrl + E b) Ctrl + L c) Ctrl + R d) Ctrl + J 25.Which feature can be used to list the important points and messages ? a) number b) bullets c) bullets and numbers d) shortcut keys 26.Which is used to name a set of defaults for formatting text ? a) Star Writer b) Style c) StarOffice d) StarCalc 27.By using ____ the styles for the buttons and number can be selected a) Format -> Bullets b) Format -> Numbering c) Formatting -> Numbering/ Bullets d) Format-> Style 28. Which window can be used to search for help on other StarOffice elements ? a) View b) help c) Edit d) Help agent 29. Which menu can be used to get help on other StarOffice elements ? a) File -> Open b) Edit -> Content c) Help -> Content d) Help -> Paste 30. The special kind of indent used for numbered lists is ........ a) right indent b) left indent c) increasing indent d) hanging indent 31. To outline text, to highlight individual words, quotations or references or to separate certain parts of text,various type of ...... can be applied. a) highlighting b) editing c) formatting d) selecting 32. Bold,italic, underline can be achieved by selecting an option from ....... list box under format menu. a) highlighting b) editing c) formatting d) selecting

3. CORRECTING SPELLING MISTAKES PART-I 1. Which can identify the spelling mistakes in the document as it is typed ? a) StarOffice b) StarWriter c) StarCalc d) StarDraw 2. Which icon is used to turn ON or OFF automatic Spell-check feature ? a) Spelling b) Spellcheck c) Auto SpellCheck d) none 3. ----- is useful for Auto Spellcheck. a) Insert table dialog box b) AutoCorrect Dialog box c) Spelling correction dialog box d) Insert row dialog box 4. Which key is to be pressed to select the spelling command ? a) F6 b) F2 c) F4 d) F7 5. Which of the following buttons is clicked to replace all occurrences of the word ? a) Replace b) Replace All c) OK d) Ignore 6. Which option is used for correcting the spelling of the misspelled words ? a) AutoCorrect option b) Correct Option c) Spelling option d) AutoSpell option 7. Which steps are used for a spell check ? a) Tools -> Check b) Tools -> Spelling c) Tools-> Check->Spelling d) Tools-> Spelling-> Check 8. _____ displays alternative spellings for a misspelled word ? a) Replacement dialog box b) Suggestions list c) Insert column dialog box d) Insert Table dialog box 9. Which of the following is used to check each word typed in a document ?

a) System b) Symbol c) Dictionary d) Check list 10. To add the error and its correction to the AutoCorrect list the _____ command is used. a) Tools -> File b) Tools -> Correct c) Help -> AutoCorrect d) Tools-> AutoCorrect/AutoFormat 11. Which key is to be pressed to delete a misspelled word ? a) Backspace b) F7 c) F1 d) F5 12. Which command is used for adding a spelling correction ? a) Tools-> AutoFormat b) Tools -> Spelling c) Tools-> Autocorrect d) Tools->File 13. The Star Writer underlines ...... words with squiggly red line a) bold b) italicized c) misspelled d) all the above 14. For getting suggestion on misspelled word click ...... a) right mouse button on the word b) left mouse button on the word c) highlight the word and press F7 d) click autocorrect icon 15. ...... is the only check box in the autocorrect dialog box a) text only b) match case c) similarity search d) backward 16. ............ list box displays alternative spelling a) suggestions b) search for c) replace with d) replacement 17. Ignore button is clicked to .......a) to skip all occurrences b) to skip this occurrence, but to stop at the next one c) to close dialog box d) to replace all without confirmation 18. ...... button is clicked to include the word to dictionary a) include b) replace c) add d) more 19. The number of tabs in auto correct dialog box is ........ a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 20. The only option button in the Auto correct dialog box is ..... a) whole words only b) match case c) backwards d) text only

4. WORKING WITH TABLES

PART - I
1. Which is used to specify the number of rows and columns ? a) Toolbar b) Grid c) Menu d) Insert menu 2. To move forward through the cells we have to press ____ key a) Shift b) Backspace c) Tab d) Shift + Tab 3. Which key is to be pressed to move backward through the cells a) Tab b) Shift c) Backspace d) Shift + Tab 4. To insert more than one row which command is to be used ? a) Table ->Column-> Insert b) Format ->Insert->Row c) Insert ->Table -> Row d) Table ->Insert-> Row 6. The name of the table is given in .. text box in the Insert Table dialog box. a) Columns text box b) Name text box c) Rows text box d) Header text box 7. Without disturbing the table to delete the entries which key is to be pressed ? a) Insert b) Delete c) Backspace d) Tab 8. To insert a row below the current row which icon is to be used ? a) Optimise b) Inserting row c) Inserting column d) Delete row 9. Which command is used to delete the selected table ? a) Table ->Delete -> Table

b) Format -> Delete ->Table c) Tools ->Delete-> Table d) Format -> Table -> Delete 10. With the help of the command, Table -> Table properties, which box can be obtained ? a) Format box b) Format dialog box c) Table Format d) Format table box 11. How many functions can be performed by using the table formatting tool bar ? a) 15 b) 14 c) 13 d) 12 12. Which is used to change the borders of the table ? a) Table formatting toolbar b) Table toolbar c) Toolbar d) Task bar 13. Which icon is used to split a cell into two or more cells ? a) Merge cells b) Split cells c) Line style d) Tools fixed 14. ____ icon is used to delete the current row from the table a) Delete Row b) Delete Column c) Inserting Row d) Inserting Column 15. Which icon is used to display a floating tool bar with different border options ? a) Line style b) Borders c) Table fixed d) Optimise 16. ______ icon is used to choose the style of line to be used for the border a) Borders b) Line style c) Optimise d) Merge cells 17. By clicking which icon, a palette of colours is displayed ______ a) Border b) Background Colour c) Line style d) Merge cells 18. Using the ...... in the columns and rows text box the number of columns and rows are entered. a) check boxes b) drop down list c) spin arrows d) option buttons 19. Star writer displays the table as a ..... a) grid b) graph c) chart d) icon 20. The number of icons present in the table formatting toolbar is .... a) 12 b) 13 c) 11 d) 14 21. Clicking on the borders icon of the table formatting toolbar ..... is displayed. a) floating toolbar b) colour palette c) borders dialog box d) pop-up menu 22. The dialog box used to create a table in starwriter is a) page style b) paragraph c) table format d) insert table 23. The third icon in the table formatting toolbar is a) borders b) insert pictures c) insert table d) insert cells 24. The intersection of a row and column is . a) a table b) a grid c) an intersection point d) a cell

5. PAGE FORMATTING 1. Which is used to see the page format change on the screen ? a) Page View b) Print View c) Print Preview d) a or c 2. Ruler option is used to change ..... a) lines b) rulers c) margins d) columns 3. When the Format -> Page command is clicked ...... is displayed. a) dialog box b) Style dialog box c) Page dialog box d) Page style dialog box 4. Which is used to set the width of the paper ? a) Dialog box b) Page Style dialog box c) Style dialog box d) Page dialog box

5. Which has to be clicked if the ruler is not displayed on the screen ? a) Restore button b) View -> Ruler c) View-> Screen d) Start button 6. Which is used for setting a margin in the displayed page ? a) Page up b) Tab c) Page Tab d) Page down 7. To create a header, which tab can be used ? a) Header tab on style dialog box b) Header tab on page dialog box c) Header tab on Page Style dialog box d) Header tab on dialog box 8. To insert page number which of the following commands can be used ? a) Insert->Fields-> Page Numbers b) Insert->Rows->Page numbers c) Insert->Page->Page numbers d) Insert->Columns->Page numbers 9. If the length of the document is more than the width, it is called a) Margin b) Landscape c) Portrait d) Footer 10. By clicking which tab, a footer can be created ? a) Page Tab b) Tab c) Header tab d) Footer Tab 11. By selecting the style from which box, the format of page numbers can be changed ? a) Page View b) Print Preview c) Numbering combo box d) Page style dialog box 12. How many spin boxes can be displayed when the header checkbox is clicked ? a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2 13. The default top and bottom margins for a page are ........... a) 1 inch b) 1.25 inch c) 3 inch d) 8.5 inch 14. The default left and right margins for a page are ......... a) 1 inch b) 11 inch c) 1.25 inch d) 8.5 inch 15. If the user knows the exact value for the margins then the ..... dialog box can be used. a) paragraph b) page format c) page style d) paper format 16. The option that gives an overall picture of the document is ........ a) print preview b) page preview c) print view d) view page 17. The default paper format of a page in Starwriter is ...... a) 8.5 inch x 11 inch b) 1 inch x 1.25 inch c) 1.25 inch x 11 inch d) 8.5 inch x 1 inch 18. To change the paper size in the ....... drop down list the required size is selected a) paper format b) page layout c) paper source d) margins 19. If the width of the document is more than the length, it is called a) Margin b) Landscape c) Portrait d) Footer

6. SPREADSHEET PART-I 1.Which is used to analyze sets of numbers ? a) Worksheet b) Spreadsheet c) Worksheet program d) Spreadsheet program 2. Which was the first electronic spreadsheet ? a) StarCalc b) VisiCalc c) StarWriter d) StarOffice 3. Which company developed the improve spreadsheet program ? a) Lotus Corporation b) Intel Corporation c) Microsoft Corporation d) Borland international 4. The first electronic spreadsheet was developed for

a) Lotus Corporation b) Intel Corporation c) Microsoft Corporation d) Apple II 5. The number of rows in StarOffice Calc is a) 256 b) 63 c) 32000 d) 8192 6. VisiCalc consists of .. rows and . Columns. a) 254, 63 b) 63, 254 c) 256, 32000 d) 32000, 256 7. Which of the following is not a spreadsheet package ? a) Lotus 1-2-3 b) Improve c) Lotus Amipro d) QuattroPro 8. Two or more adjacent cells are referred to as ........ a) cell b) range c) column d) row 9. The first cell is referred to as ....... a) A b) 1 c) 1A d) A1 10. Data or formula can be entered into a ......... a) Spreadsheet b) Worksheet c) Cell d) Row 11. Where are the function bar and object bar visible ? a) In the menu bar b) Below the menu bar c) below the main toolbar d) Above the menu bar 12. In which of the following, StarCalc program is included ? a) Lotus 1-2-3 b) StarOffice c) WordStar d) MSOffice 13. To open a spreadsheet which is saved, from which of the following open option can be selected ? a) Dialog box b) File menu c) Mouse pad d) Mouse pointer 14. While entering a data in the worksheet which format is to be used ? a) YY/DD/MM b) MM/DD/YY c) DD/MM/YY d) YY/DD/MM 15. Which is a text operator ? a) < > b) ^ c) & d) / 16. ......... is not a comparative operator. a) = b) < > c) / d) > = 17. By selecting the close option in the file menu, we can ..... a) open the worksheet b) close the worksheet c) work on the worksheet d) work on the file menu 19. Which is used to describe the format of specifying a formula ? a) Style b) Syntax c) Menu d) File 20. Which is a time-saving formula that is represented by a single word ? a) Syntax b) Abbreviation c) Function d) Syntex 21. Exponentiation is represented by ........ a) / b) % c) ^ d) + 22. A1<=B1 is an example for which operation ? a) Greater than or equal to b) Less than or equal to c) Inequality d) Greater than 23. Which is an example for inequality operation ? a) A1 > = B1 b) A1 < > B1 c) A1 < B1 d) A1 > B1 24. The Automatic Fill feature of StarCalc is used to ........ a) copy the contents b) create a series c) a or c d) fill a cell 25. Which command is used to enjoy the contents of a cell into other cells ?

a) Edit -> Down -> Fill b) Fill ->Down ->Edit c) Edit->Fill->Down d) Edit-> Up> Fill 26. To select the range in the worksheet which command can be used ? a) Edit -> Series -> Fill b) Edit ->Fill ->Series c) Edit->Fill->Down d) Edit-> Series-> Down 27. Which is the default type of cell addressing used by StarCalc ? a) cell addressing b) absolute cell addressing c) Relative cell addressing d) Addressing 28. A continuous group of cells in a worksheet is called ....... a) cell b) range c) menu d) file 29. Which icon is used for inserting a formula in the worksheet ? a) Insert Applet icon b) Insert formula icon c) Insert Chart icon d) Insert Object icon 30. Which option under the file menu can be used to print the worksheet ? a) Cell option b) Row option c) Column option d) Range option 31. By clicking which icon, the contents in percentage format can be displayed ? a) Number format currency icon b) Number format percentage icon c) Number format colour icon d) Number format standard icon 32. With the help of which operation, we can enter the area in the worksheet to be charted ? a) C2:F7 and click OK b) C3:F7 and click Next c) C1:F7 and click OK d) C4:F6 and click OK 33. The personal computers appeared in ........ a) 1975 b) 1977 c) 1979 d) 1976 34. In StarCalc, the rows are numbered from 1 to ......... a) 320000 b) 32 c) 3200 d) 32000 35. ..... bar is used to display the current cell and its contents . a) function b) menu c) formula d) scroll 36. In order to edit the data in a worksheet ....... key is used a) F4 b) F7 c) F1 d) F2 37. ...... operators combine cell areas. a) reference operators b) comparative operators c) text operators d) arithmetic operators 38. ....... operators combine sections of text to the entire text. a) reference operators b) comparative operators c) text operators d) arithmetic operators 39. To enter the same formula or data in various cells we can use .... feature of StarCalc. a) copy and paste icon b) automatic fill c) fill series d) fill 40. Absolute cell addressing makes a cell address absolute by using the ..... a) semicolon b) colon c) dollar sign d) underscore 41. The ..... facility of StarCalc helps to format the worksheet with different predefined styles and colours.a) autoformat b) automatic fill c) function d) autopilot window 42. The formula +sum(Sheet1.A1;Sheet2.A1) is known as .......... a) 4D formula b) 2D formula c) 3D formula d) spreadsheet formula 43. Visicalc contains .. rows and .. columns. a) 524, 36 b) 254, 36 c) 63, 254 d) 254, 63 44. At the bottom there are number of bars.

a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 4 45. The position of the cell pointer can be changed using a) ctrl key b) backspace key c) arrow keys d) shift key 46. If the data entered in worksheet is text or word the program recognizes it as a a) text b) number c) label d) integer 47. While editing the data in a worksheet .. appears on the formula bar. a) a vertical cursor b) a horizontal cursor c) mouse pointer d) I beam 48. The syntax for formula is a) :\> b) = c) => d) =< 49. To enter the same formula or data in various cells we can use . Feature of Star Calc a) copy and paste icon b) automatic fill c) fill series d) fill 50. The functions are available in StarCalc in the pull down menu of a) function auto pilot window b) function autoformat window c) function auto correct window d) function autopilot query window 51. Selecting format -> cells opens the . Dialog box. a) auto format dialog box b) format character c) cell attribute d) fill series 52. . At the top of dialog box can be used to choose the type of cell attribue. a) tabs b) options c) buttons d) menus 53. The insert cell icon opens up a tool box consisting of number of icons. a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6 54. To draw in spreadsheet click a) insert picture icon b) colour icon c) draw icon d) show draw function icon 55. .. icon generates a scrolling screen. a) insert OLE object b) insert applet icon c) insert formula d) insert floating frame 56. .. icon is used to import data from different file/URL a) insert OLE object b) insert plug in icon c) insert applet icon d) insert formula icon 57.StarCalc generates charts on the basis of .. a) numeric data b) text c) document d) application 58. After clicking insert chart the cursor becomes . a) circle b) cross c) asterisk d) +sign 59. To separate the cells of same sheet in a formula . Is used. a) colon b) semicolon c) comma d) hyphen 60. The % icon multiplies the contents of the cell with a) 10 b) 100 c) 1000 d) 1 61. The number format currency icon displays contents with . Decimal digits. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 62. Column width and row height can be changed using . Menu a) format b) edit c) tools d) file

7. DATABASE PART-I 1. The entire collection of related data in one table is referred to as .......... a) File b) Menu c) Query d) Field 2. The term data comes from the word ..... a) Data b) Datum c) Menu d) File 3. The types can be ...... a) Character b) Number c) Boolean d) a or b or c 4. Which of the following type can be integer, float, double precision and data ? a) primitive b) numeric c) user defined d) all the above 5. Data processing involves ...... a) data collection b) data verification c) validation of data d) all the above 6. The process of carrying out long hand method is ....... a) data processing b) only data processing c) manual data processing d) computerized data processing 7. Each row in a table represents a ........ a) File b) Table c) Record d) Cell 8. Which is a repository of collections of related data or files ? a) Data b) database c) data processing d) all the above 9. Which key identifies uniquely a record in a database table ? a) primary key b) secondary key c) F 1 key d) F 7 key 10. Which of the following processes in joining data from two table of different databases ? a) Searching b) Sorting c) Merging d) Filtering 11. ....... is browsing a selected list of records. a) Merging b) Filtering c) Sorting d) Searching 12. ....... is a process of arranging the data in a table in some order. a) Searching b) Merging c) Sorting d) Editing 13. Process of performing correction on the existing data is called a) Sorting b) Editing c) Searching d) Filtering 14. Which consists a single data table ? a) Database table b) Flat database c) Flat file database d) Fill 15. Sorting on more than one field of a table at the same time is called . a) Sorting b) Multiple sorting c) Editing d) Searching 16. A screen displaying the fields of a record in a well space out manner is called ......... a) Record b) Form c) Filter d) File 17. The common fields of two or more tables is called a ....... a) Cell b) Row c) Key d) Primary Key 18. Which is the most prevalent database in business organization ? a) Flat file database b) Relational database c) Network database d) Database 19. In which database, records are organised in a tree like structure ? a) Object oriented database b) Relational database c) Hierarchial database d) Network database 20. Which represents different approaches to the treatment of data by the developers ?

a) Relational database b) Hierarchial database c) Network database d) Object oriented database 21. In which database, one record can be related to any number of related types ? a) Relational database b) Network database c) Hierarchial database d) Object oriented database 22. A ..... is a collection of programs that allows many number of users to access data . a) database system b) management system c) database management system d) network database 23. Which has to be opened to work with StarBase ? a) WordStar b) StarOffice c) StarWriter d) MSoffice 24. Which key has to be pressed to move to next column ? a) enter b) replace c) insert d) tab 25. How many field types can be used by StarBase ? a) 10 b) 22 c) 12 d) 13 26. The entire collection of related data in one place is referred to as a ...... a) file b) table c) record d) a or b 27. In a table each row is called a ...... a) file b) row c) record d) column 28. Each column in a table is called ....... a) record b) field c) menu d) column 29. Printed information that is assembled by gathering data is called a ....... a) SQL b) report c) form d) field 30. The way of communicating with a database is ....... a) query b) filter c) Structured Query Language d) Flat file database 31. In the lower part of the window which is displayed ? a) properties pane b) field pane c) field properties pane d) file properties pane 32. Which option is used to specify if the user should always enter a value for that field ? a) length b) entry c) description d) default value 33. ...... option is sued to specify a default value to be assigned to that field. a) length b) entry c) default value d) type 34. Which option allows us to specify the type of number ? a) length b) entry c) type d) default value 35. By pressing which key, one can go to second field ? a) Shift b) Replace c) Tab d) Replace all 36. How will you save the table with a name ? a) By pressing Ctrl+S key b) By going to the file c) a or b d) By clicking save 37. For opening the table, we have to ......a) Click on the name of the table b) double click on the name of the table c) enter the name of the table d) all the above 38. Entering include ...... a) changing a value of a field in a record b) deleting a record c) appending a record d) all the above

39. By clicking on the table format which can be displayed on the screen ? a) dialog box b) text box c) dialog box for setting height d) dialog box for setting width 40. By using dialog box for setting height which can be changed ? a) font type b) style c) size d) all the above 41. To edit a record we have to select the record by clicking on the .......... a) record key b) record pointer c) record button d) tab key 42. By clicking on the delete rows option the selected record will be a) changed b) deleted c) selected d) edited 43. At the end of a table, a new record can be entered by ....... a record. a) supporting b) appending c) creating d) deleting 44. Which is a type of query ? a) autofilter b) filter c) table d) file 45. Two types of filter are ......a) manual filter & default filter b) autofilter & default filter c) autofilter & manual filter d) default filter & manual filter 46. To remove the filter which icon is used ? a) icon b) filter c) remove filter d) remove filter/sort icon 47. Designing a form using .... option is similar to creating query using autopilot option. a) autofilter b) default filter c) autopilot d) remove filter 48. The records in the table are displayed in the ascending order of the specified field by clicking which icon? a) descending b) ascending c) removing d) selecting 49. To sort the records in the descending order we have to ........a) select the field b) click on the sort descending icon c) select the field and click on the descending icon d) select the menu 50. By clicking which command, the AutoPilot query window can appear ? a) New -> Autopilot b) New -> Query c) New ->Query->Autopilot d) New->Autopilot>Query 51. What are the options does a pull down menu have ? a) Cut b) Copy c) Update d) all the above 52. By clicking which button the records in the field can be displayed ? a) View b) Field name c) Preview d) all the above 53. A form can be selected by ....... a) moving the pointer b) single click c) double click d) pressing the tab key 54. To create a report we have to ........ in the explorer pane. a) left click b) right click c) double click d) all the above 55. To customize a report we have to select ........for the report. a) format and style b) an alignment and style c) sort and style d) none 56. Which option follows the outline window ? a) search b) sort c) preview d) type 57. Which window is used to choose the format for the report ? a) style selection b) outline c) format style d) format 58. Multiple reports can be created and stored for ...... a) a table b) a query c) a or b d) menu 59. Which defines screens which are used to enter data ?

a) report b) form c) menu d) file 60. DBMS is an acronym for ........a) Data Management System b) Database Manipulating System c) Database Management Systemd) Database Maintaining System 8. MULTIMEDIA PART I 1. GIF means a) Graphic Interchange File b) Graphic Interchange Format c) Graphic Information File d) Graphic Information Format 2. Expand CBT. 3. Expand WBT. 4. MMS means a) Multimedia Services b) Multimedia Messaging System c) Mutimedia System d) Multimedia Messaging Services 5. The . is just an illusion, but makes the users think that it is real. a) MMS b) CBT c) virtual reality d) multimedia 6. The two most commonly used image formats are a) MP3/MPEG b) GIF/JPG c) JPG/JPEG d) GIF/Nx view 7. .. are typical examples of static images. a) photographs b) Shockwave c) MPEG files d) bitmap images 8. A file creates a perfect reproduction of the original. a) JPG b) Nx View c) Shockwave d) GIF 9. A .. file uses a complex technique to compress images. a) JPEG b) GIF c) MPEG d) NxView 10. . is limited to an 8-bit palette. a) JPEG b) GIF c) MPEG d) NxView 11. is best suited for storing simple graphic images with relatively few colors. a) JPEG b) GIF c) MPEG d) NxView 12. The image files are a lossy format. a) JPEG b) GIF c) MPEG d) NxView 13. The . format supports full color and produces relatively small file sizes. a) JPEG b) GIF c) MPEG d) NxView 14. Expand JPEG. a) Joint Processor Experts Group b) Joint Photographic Experts Group c) Joint Photographic Expression Group d) Joint Photo Experts Group 15. Which of the following attributes control the characteristics of sound ? a) Lossy and Lossless b) Amplitude and Frequency c) Lossy and Amplitude d) Frequency and Lossless 16. Which compression retains the exact image throughout the compression ? a) Lossless b) Lossy c) Cel-based d) Object based 17. Which of the following is also called frequency ? a) amplitude b) resistance c) pitch d) modulation 18. There are . types of video compressions. a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6

19. Which compression provides some loss of quality ? a) Lossless b) Cel based c) Lossy d) Object based 20. There are categories in 2 D animations.a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 21. MIDI stands for .. a) Musical Instrument Digital Interface b) Musical Interface Digital Instrument c) Modeling Instrument Digital Interface d) Modeling Instrument Digital Information 22. Which of the following is also known as slide or path animations ? a) Cel based animations b) object based animations c) 3 D animations d) 2 D or 3 D animations 23. MIDI format was developed in .. year.a) 1972 b) 1982 c) 1984 d) 1974 24. Which type of animation is commonly used in computer games ? a) Object based b) Cel based c) attributes based d) procedure based 25. . Sound format is a very flexible format that can be used for wide range of musical applications. a) MIDI b) wave c) real audio d) AU 26. There are steps in the process of creating 3D animations.a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 27. . Sound format can contain only digital notes. a) AIFF b) AU c) MIDI d) WAVE 28. How many frames per second causes the video to look jerky ? a) <9 b) <10 c) <15 d) <20 29. The Real Audio format was developed in year. a) 1982 b) 1995 c) 1994 d) 1981 30. .. files supports both audio and videos. a) MIDI b) AIFF c) Real Audio d) AU 31. .. color depths results in the image looking murky ? a) < 255 b) <16 c) <256 d) <8 32. . Sound format is more popular for transfer of data over the internet. a) AIFF b) .mid c) .au d) Real Audio 33. AIFF stands for .. a) Audio Interface Format File b) Audio Interchange File Format c) Au Interchange File Format d) Audio Information File Format 34. The Real Audio Format have the extension .. a) .rm or .rf b) .ram or .rf c) .rm or .ram d) .rm or .rad 35. AIFF format was developed by a) Apple b) Real networks c) Sun micro systems d) Microsoft 36. Which sound format was developed by Macromedia ? a) Quick Time b) Shock wave c) Wave d) AIFF 37. How many tags are used to launch helper applications ? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6 38. Which tag is used to add inline sound to a web page ? a) <inline> b) <bgsound> c) <sound> d) <helper> 39. AVI format sound files are developed in .. a) 1995 b) 1992 c) 1985 d) 1991 40. AVI stands for a) Audio Video Interface b) Audio Video Information c) Audio Video Interleave d) Audio Video Interchange 41. MPEG stands for a) Moving Pictures Experts Group b) Model Pictures Expression Group c) Moving Pictures Expression Group d) Morphing Pictures Experts Group

42. Which sound format files was developed by IBM and Microsoft ? a) MIDI b) AV c) WAVE d) AIFF

9. PRESENTATION PART-I 1. In view mode, all the slide titles will appear in a list along with the headings and sub topics. a) normal b) outline c) notes d) handouts 2. Which page of the wizard allows to specify the transition effect to be used for the presentation ? a) first b) second c) third d) fourth 3. Which pane displays the slides in the presentation ? a) left b) right c) middle d) top 4. Which of the following are one of the most powerful and effective application ? a) documents b) worksheets c) presentations d) databases 5. Which option allows to manually control the transition of slides ? a) default b) automatic c) manual d) optional 6. Which of the following application that allows to create attractive and professionallooking presentations ? a) StarOffice Impress b) StarOffice Draw c) StarOffice Calc d) StarOffice Base 7. How many panes in the middle pane of presentation and templates pane ? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 8. Which slide pane displays a thumbnail image of the slide ? a) left b) right c) middle d) bottom 9. How many tabs are there in left pane to view the presentation in different formats ? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 10. Which of the following view allows to create and edit slides ? a) normal b) outline c) notes d) handouts 11. Which of the following view used by a presenter to add additional information to a slide ? a) normal b) outline c) notes d) handouts 12. Which of the following view allows to reorder slides ? a) normal b) outline c) slide sorter d) handouts 13. Which view allows to scale the slides so that the slides can fit into a page ? a) slide sorter b) handouts c) outline d) normal 14. Which of the following view is used to rearrange slides ? a) normal and outline b) handouts and slide sorter c) outline and slide sorter d) normal and notes 15. Which page can be used to specify basic background information that to be included in all the slides ? a) Master b) Layouts c) Custom animation d) Slide transition 16. Which command is to create a new Impress presentation from within any Staroffice application ? a) File Presentation b) File New Presentation c) File New Presentation d) File Presentation New

17. How many options are displayed in Presentation Wizard to create an empty presentation ? a) 4 b) 5 c) 2 d) 3 18. Which page of the presentation wizard allows to select a background for all the slides in the presentation ? a) first b) second c) third d) fifth 19. Which page of the wizard allows to create an empty presentation ? a) first b) second c) third d) fourth 20. Which option allows to manually control the transition of slides ? a) default b) Automatic c) Manual d) optional 21. Which key is pressed to create a new presentation using a template ? a) Shift + Alt + N b) Shift + Ctrl + N c) Ctrl + Alt + N d) Shift + Tab + N 22. Which page allows to modify animation effects to elements of a slide ? a) Layouts b) Master c) Custom animation d) Slide Transition 23. Which command is used to insert a picture in a slide ? a) Insert Picture b) Format Picture c) Insert Picture From file d) Insert From file Picture 24. Which of the following is used to import objects from other application into a presentation ? a) Insert object b) Insert OLE object c) Insert Plug-in d) Insert application 25. Which key is used to open the styles and formatting window ? a) F5 b) F7 c) F2 d) F11 26. Which key is used to select a range of slides ? a) Alt b) Ctrl c) Shift d) Tab 27. Which key is used to print in StarOffice ? a) Alt + P b) Ctrl + P c) Shift + P d) Shift + Ctrl + P 28. Which of the following is used to move from slide to slide quickly ? a) move b) Navigator c) Copy d) Ctrl +P

1. OBJECT ORIENTED CONCEPTS USING C++ PART A 1. The solutions to the problems are in the form of a) programs b) application c) programs or application software d) software or hardware 2. A computer . operates on a set of known input data items a) program b) application c) hardware d) software 3. The .. transforms the input data into a set of expected data items. a) program b) software c) hardware d) application 4. .. categorized the input data items. a) variables b) constants c) operators d) data types 5. It was realized that viewing the solution of a problem as .. separate segments does not resemble the way human beings solve the real life problems a) two b) four c) six d) eight 6. is an example of object oriented programming language a) pascal b) BASIC c) C d) C++

7. programming facilitates the way of problem solving by combining data and operations that are to be performed on the data. a) basic b) structured c) object-oriented d) procedural 8. The .. represent the behavior of an object a) variables b) data c) expressions d) operations 9. The data type conventionally represents an object in the real world. a) data b) class c) variables d) declaration 10. increases the functionality of a derived class and also promotes reusability of code. a) class b) functions c) polymorphism d) inheritance 11 .. data type allows programs to organize as objects that contain both data and functions a) user defined b) class c) static d) built-in 12. .. provides security to data, as unrelated member functions cannot access its data a) class b) inheritance c) polymorphism d) data hiding or abstraction 13. .. reduces software complexity as multiple definitions are permitted to an operator or function a) polymorphism b) inheritance c) data hiding d) abstraction 14. allows a class to be derived from an existing class thus promoting the reusability of code a) polymorphism b) inheritance c) data hiding d) abstraction 15. communicate with one another by sending data as inputs. a) class b) objects c) variables d) constants

2. OVERVIEW OF C++ PART A 1. C++ was developed at AT & T laboratories in the early 1980s by .. a) Dennis Ritchie b) Rick Mascitti c) Bjarne Stroustrup d) Dan Bricklin 2. The name C++ was coined by a) Dennis Ritchie b) Rick Mascitti c) Bjarne Stroustrup d) Dan Bricklin 3. The basic types are collectively called as a) variables b) statements c) constants d) tokens 4. A . is the smallest individual unit in a program a) variables b) statements c) constants d) tokens 5. . have special meaning to the language compiler. a) identifiers b) constants c) keywords d) operators 6. .. cannot be used as normal identifiers. a) keywords b) variables c) constants d) punctuators 7. Identifiers are also called as a) keywords b) variables c) punctuators d) operators

8. . are memory boxes that hold values or constants a) punctuators b) variables c) keywords d) operators 9. A variable name must begin with a a) alphabet b) underscore c) alphabet or underscore d) numbers or alphabets 10. . are data items whose values cannot be changed a) variables b) constants c) operators d) keywords 11. constant must have at least one digit and must not contain any fractional part a) float b) integer c) char d) string 12. A sequence of digits starting with 0 (zero) is treated as .. constant. a) octal b) hexadecimal c) decimal d) integer 13. A sequence of digits starting with 0x is treated as integer a) octal b) hexadecimal c) decimal d) integer 14. . is a signed real number. a) integer b) signed integer c) character d) floating point 15. The letter . is used to represent the floating- point constant exponent form. a) L or l b) E or e c) U or u d) F or f 16. . constant is a constant that contains a single character enclosed within single quotes. a) character b) string c) integer d) real 17. .. is a sequence of characters surrounded by double quotes. a) character b) string c) integer d) real 18. Each string literal is by default added with a special character . which marks the end of a string. a) \n b) \o c) \ d) 19. .. specifies an operation to be performed that yields a value. a) keyword b) operator c) punctuator d) identifier 20. operator require one operand a) relational b) unary c) binary d) ternary 21. operator requires two operands a) relational b) unary c) binary d) ternary 22. operator requires three operands a) relational b) unary c) binary d) ternary 23. are executed in the order of precedence. a) keywords b) statements c) operators d) functions 24. The logical way of grouping of the operands and the operators for evaluation is called . a) expression b) association c) order of precedence d) statements 25. .. operators are used to compare values. a) assignment b) relational c) logical d) arithmetic 26. A . is constructed using any two operands connected by a relational operator a) expression b) relational expression c) logical expression d) arithmetic 27. Relational operators have .. precedence than the arithmetic operators.

a) higher b) lower c) equal d) unique 28. .. operators combines the results of one or more conditions. a) assignment b) logical c) relational d) unary 29. The logical operators have precedence to relational and arithmetic operators. a) higher b) lower c) equal d) unique 30. A operator is also called as conditional operator. a) unary b) binary c) ternary d) relational 31. is the simple assignment operator. a) * b) c) = d) + 32. are characters with a specific function. a) punctuators b) keywords c) identifiers d) constants 33. are the kind of data that variables hold in a programming language a) keywords b) identifiers c) data types d) punctuators 34. .. allow users to define variables that would represent an existing data type. a) type def b) scalar c) enumerated d) derived 35. .. data type helps users in creating a list of identifiers. a) type def b) scalar c) enumerated d) derived 36. .. is a qualifier that can be added to variable declaration a) data type b) storage class c) variable name d) constant name 37. .. variables are not initialized with appropriate values based on their data type. a) register b) extern c) auto d) static 38. Auto variables get undefined values known as .. a) junk character b) garbage c) default values d) none 39. data types are also called as fundamental or basic data types. a) integral b) user defined c) derived d) built-in 40. Integral, float and void are the three .. data types a) fundamental b) derived c) user defined d) floating 41. . is a data type that can hold both the character data and the integer data a) int b) string c) char d) float 42. .. can store values with fractional part. a) long b) short int c) int d) float 43. .. type indicate that a function does not return a value a) void b) int c) float d) char 44. are built from the basic integer and floating type or user defined data types a) integral type b) derived type c) built-in type d) user defined type 45. Each element is accessed using the of the element in the array a) beginning b) number c) positional value d) b or c 46. The numbering of the elements in an array commences from a) -1 b) 1 c) 0 d) b or c 47. The .. indicates that it holds nothing. a) int b) void c) return d) function 48. A .. is a variable that holds a memory address. a) functions b) integer c) variables d) pointers

49. Every byte in the computers memory has a) space b) address c) values d) allocation 50. When a program is compiled, some .. is allocated to the variables by the compiler. a) memory b) value c) constants d) statement 51. When we use & operator, the C++ compiler . in the memory to hold the values a) reserves space b) associates c) stores d) accesses 52. The asterix * operator is used to declare a . variable a) pointer b) integer c) constant d) float 53. The operator is used to display the contents stored at a location a) + b) & c) * d) / 54. is a unary operator a) + b) c) * d) / 33. The name assigned to a data field that can assume any of a given set of values is defined as the a) variables b) constants c) keywords d) modifiers 34. . are user defined name entities of memory locations that can store data. a) variables b) constants c) keywords d) modifiers 35. names must begin with a letter or underscore. a) variable b) constant c) keywords d) modifiers 36. are allocated memory to store data. a) functions b) integer c) variables d) pointers 37. Every variable should be separated by . when more than one variable of the same data type is declared in a single declaration statement. a) ; b) , c) = d) / 38. . values are stored in 16 bit format in binary form. a) float b) char c) integer d) double 39. Maximum value stored in an integer variable is .. and the minimum value is .. a) -32768 , 32767 b) 32767 , 32768 c) 32728 , +32727 d) 32728, 32729 40. The . bit is also called as the most significant bit or sign bit. a) 16th b) 8th c) first d) last 41. The 16th bit will have the value 1 if a . value is stored a) negative b) positive c) integer d) float 42. When the modifier . is used the integer data type will store only positive numbers. a) short int b) signed c) unsigned d) long int 43. The range of unsigned integers goes upto . a) 216 b) 28 c) 24 d) 232 44. The maximum value stored in an unsigned integer is .. a) 255 b) 65535 c) 32768 d) 3.4e+10 45. The . alters the base data type to yield new data type a) modifier b) typedef c) enum d) extern

46. . modifies the range of the integer values as the sign bit is also used to store data. a) short int b) signed c) unsigned d) long int 47. . increases the bytes for a particular data type thus increasing the range of values. a) short int b) int c) long int d) float 48. The base data type should be prefixed with the modifier at the time of .. a variable. a) using b) initializing c) referring d) declaring 49. The . qualifier specifies that the value of a variable will not change during the run time of a program. a) extern b) auto c) const d) variable 50. Any attempt to alter the . defined with this qualifier will throw an error message by the compiler. a) extern b) auto c) const d) variable 51. refers to data type changes brought about in the expressions by the compiler. a) implicit conversion b) variables c) constants d) auto 52. .. variables are sensitive to the data type they point to. a) static b) extern c) pointer d) register 53. .. is achieved by prefixing the variable or value with the required data type. a) typedef b) type cast c) enum d) storage class 3. BASIC STATEMENTS PART A 1. . statements such as reading data, processing data and displaying information are the essential functions of any computer program. a) declaration b) input/output c) assignment d) return 2. There are methods for assigning data to the variables. a) two b) four c) three d) seven 3. Data is read from the keyboard during runtime by using the object . a) input b) read c) inc d) cin 4. is a predefined object that corresponds to a standard input stream. a) cin b) input c) inc d) read 5. .. represents the flow of data from the standard input device the keyboard a) output stream b) instream c) input stream d) stream input 6. The declarations for the object cin are available in a header file called a) istream.h b) instream.h c) iostream.h d) streamin.h 7. file comprises the combined properties of istream and ostream. a) streamio.h b) instream.h c) iostream.h d) oistream.h 8. A . file comprises of all standard declarations and definitions for predefined functions. a) program file b) header file c) application file d) document file

9. One can include the header file in the program by using a . a) input/output b) function call c) return d) preprocessor directive 10. A preprocessor directive starts with . a) $ b) # c) < d) @ 11. .. is a typical preprocessor directive, that instructs the compiler to include the header file iostream.h a) include b) main() c) getch() d) reference 12. The . is the extraction or get from operator. a) >> b) << c) $ d) # 13. The . operator takes the value from stream object to its left and places it in the variable to its right. a) << b) $ c) # d) >> 14. Multiple values can be read from the input stream and placed in the corresponding variables, by the extraction operator. a) including b) copying c) pasting d) cascading 15. is a predefined object of standard output stream. a) cin b) cout c) outc d) coutput 16. The is called the insertion operator or put to operator. a) >> b) # c) << d) != 17. The operator directs the contents of the variable to its right to the object to its left. a) << b) >> c) >>= d) <<= 18. of insertion operator facilitates sending of multiple output via a single statement. a) including b) copying c) pasting d) cascading 19. It is from the . function that one needs to give call statements to the various modules that needs to be executed and the other executable statements. a) user defined b) main() c) void d) none 20. The declaration statement is also called as . statement because memory is set aside to store data. a) declaration b) initialization c) definition d) definite 21. An statement, assigns value on the right hand side of an expression to the variable on the left hand side of the assignment operator. a) assignment b) selection c) control d) conditional 22. Program statements that cause jumps from one part to another part of the program is called as .. statements a) control structures b) operators c) punctuators d) identifiers 23. creates branches for multiple alternative sections of code, depending on the value of a single variable. a) if..else b) switch c) cin d) while 24. .. statement is the simplest of all the decision statements. a) if b) if..else c) switch d) for 25. block is executed only if true block is not executed. a) if b) else c) switch d) for 26. Each else matches with the nearest unmatched preceding a) if b) if..else c) braces d) semicolon

27. . is a multiple branching statement. a) switch b) if c) for d) do 28. Every action block should be terminated with a .. statement. a) continue b) for c) break d) case 29. . execute a set of instructions repeatedly for a certain number of times. a) control structure b) continue c) conditions d) loops 30. A looping block consists of . Segments a) three b) two c) four d) six 31. A looping process .. the condition variable when the control enters the loop for the first time. a) executes b) initializes c) increments d) tests 32. A looping process . the segment of the body a) executes b) initializes c) increments d) tests 33. A looping process . value of the condition variable as required a) executes b) initializes c) increments d) tests 34. A looping process .. the condition variable in the form of a relational expression. a) executes b) initializes c) increments d) tests 35. There are kinds of loops in C++. a) two b) three c) four d) many 36. do. while <condition> is called as .. a) exit check loop b) entry check loop c) no exit loop d) no entry loop 37. The control exits the loop once the test expression is evaluated to .. a) true b) false c) 0 d) 1 38. .. is an entry controlled loop and is used when an action is to be repeated for a predetermined number of times. a) if b) for c) do d) while 39. . is executed only once when the loop is executed for the first time. a) declaration b) statements c) definition d) initialization 40. is evaluated before the commencement of every iteration. a) declaration b) test c) definition d) statement 41. .. segment is executed before the commencement of new iteration. a) condition b) initialisation c) declaration d) increment 42. Each segment in the for loop can comprise a set of instructions, each instruction should be separated by a operator. a) semi colon b) colon c) braces d) comma 43. The .. statement forces the next iteration of the loop to take place, skipping any code following it. a) continue b) break c) switch d) while 44. . statement would exit the current loop only. a) continue b) break c) switch d) while 45. The machine readable form of a program called as . a) object file b) source file c) binary form d) executable form 46. create object files from source code.

a) compiler b) translator c) Machine d) program 47. .. are translator programs that create a machine-readable program from the source code. a) compilers b) translator c) machines d) software

1. FUNCTIONS PART A are the building blocks of C++. statements b) functions c) data types d) keywords The starting point for the execution of a program is .. main() b) void c) #include<iostream.h> d) { Functions reduce the of the program. keywords b) variables c) tokens d) functions Function induce . of code. invoking b) accessibility c) reusability d) execution Declaration of a function is made through a function name b) function type c) function prototype d) brackets The main purpose of is to help the compiler to check the data requirement of the function. a) function name b) function type c) function prototype d) brackets 7. With function prototyping, a is always used when declaring and defining a function. a) data type b) identifier c) function name d) template 8. In a function declaration, the names of the arguments are .. and so they are optional. a) actual variables b) dummy variables c) formal variables d) function variables 9. The . in the prototype act as place holders. a) data types b) variables c) keywords d) punctuators 10. A function can be called or invoked from another function by using its a) function type b) function prototype c) function name d) template 11. The . may include a set of actual parameters, enclosed in parentheses separated by commas. a) function type b) function prototype c) function name d) template 12. Parameters associated with call statement is called . a) actual b) formal c) dummy d) function 13. Parameters associated with function header is called .. a) function b) actual c) formal d) arguments 14. In .. method, the called function creates new variables to store the value of the arguments passed to it. a) call by variable b) call by value c) call by reference d) call by function 15. .. method copies the values of actual parameters into the formal parameters. 1. a) 2. a) 3. a) 4. a) 5. a) 6.

a) call by variable b) call by value c) call by reference d) call by function 16. In method, the flow of data is always from the call statement to the function definition. a) call by variable b) call by value c) call by reference d) call by function 17. In method, any change in the formal parameter is not reflected back to the actual parameter. a) call by variable b) call by value c) call by reference d) call by function 18. In .. method, the called function arguments formal parameter become alias to the actual parameters in the calling function. a) call by variable b) call by value c) call by reference d) call by function 19. In .. method, the function is actually working on the original data. a) call by variable b) call by value c) call by reference d) call by function 20. In method, any change in the formal parameter is reflected back to the actual parameter. a) call by variable b) call by value c) call by reference d) call by function 21. The actual parameters can be passed in the form of constants or variables or expressions to the formal parameters which are of type. a) integer b) float c) value d) reference 22. The actual parameters can be passed only as variables to formal parameters of type. a) integer b) float c) value d) reference 23. We cannot have a value for an argument in between the argument list. a) default b) integer c) float d) reference 24. The data type of a function is treated as .. , if no data type is explicitly mentioned. a) int b) char c) float d) double 25. functions execute faster but require more memory space. a) linein b) void c) main d) inline 26. functions are used when the functions are small. a) linein b) void c) main d) inline 27. keyword is just a request to the compiler. a) linein b) void c) main d) inline 28. refers to the accessibility of a variable. a) scope b) stack c) storage classes d) functions 29. A .. variable is defined within a block. a) local b) function c) file d) class 30. The scope of a .. variable is the block in which it is defined. a) local b) function c) file d) class 31. A . variable cannot be accessed from outside the block of its declaration. a) local b) function c) file d) class 32. A block of code begins and ends with .

a) < > b) { } c) ( ) d) [ ] 33. A . variable is created upon entry into its block and destroyed upon exit. a) local b) function c) file d) class 34. The scope of a . variables declared within a function is extended to the function block, and all sub- blocks therein. a) local b) function c) file d) class 35. The life time of a . Scope variable, is the life time of the function block. a) local b) function c) file d) class 36. The scope of formal parameters is . Scope. a) local b) function c) file d) class 37. A variable declared above all blocks and functions has the scope of a . a) local b) function c) file d) class 38. The life time of a scope variable is the life time of a program. a) local b) function c) file d) class 39. The operator reveals the hidden scope of a variable. a) assignment b) binary c) relational d) scope 5. STRUCTURED DATA TYPE ARRAYS PART A 1. An in C++ is a derived data type that can hold several values of the same type. a) int b) float c) array d) char 2. An array is a collection of . of the same type that are referenced by a common name. a) data types b) variables c) constants d) keywords 3. Arrays are of types a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 2 4. Arranging the data in given array either in ascending or descending order is called . a) merging b) searching c) sorting d) filtering 5. . are otherwise called as literals, which are treated as single dimension array of characters. a) integer b) float c) double d) string 6. A character array should be terminated with a . character. a) \0 b) \a c) \n d) \t 7. The instance cin, treats white space or carriage return as . for string. a) beginner b) terminator c) symbol d) character 8. gets() is available in . a) stdio.h b) iostream.h c) istream.h d) ostream.h 9. getline() is a member function of standard .. stream. a) stdio.h b) iostream.h c) istream.h d) ostream.h 10. . is a member function of standard output stream. a) gets() b) getline() c) cin d) write() 11. All member functions of a class, should be accessed through a of class.

a) variable b) constant c) object d) literals 12. The two parameters required for .. function are identifier string characters, and number of characters to be displayed. a) gets() b) getline() c) cin d) write() 13. .. function returns the number of characters stored in the array. a) strlen() b) strcpy() c) strcmp() d) length() 14. function copies source string to target string. a) strlen() b) strcpy() c) strcmp() d) length() 15. .. function compares the two given strings. a) strlen() b) strcpy() c) strcmp() d) length() 16. A array is an array in which each element is itself an array. a) 1 - D b) 2 - D c) 3 - D d) 5 - D 17. The elements in a array is stored either row-wise manner or column-wise manner a) 1 - D b) 2 - D c) 3 - D d) 5 - D 18. The size of . dimension is optional in array initialization. a) first b) second c) any d) third 19. Array parameters by default behave like a .. parameter. a) reference b) value c) function d) method 20. The C++ compiler will automatically attach even if we omit in a string literal a) \0 b) \a c) \n d) \t

6.CLASSES AND OBJECTS PART I 1. The most important feature of C++ is . a) Function b) Array c) pointer class 2. Bjarne Stroustrup initially gave the name . for C++ a) C b) C with objects c) C with classes with functions 3. A .. is a new way of creating and implementing a user defined data type a) class b) array c) function derived data type 4. The functions are also called as . a) attributes b) arrays c) methods access specifiers 5. A class specification has .. parts. a) two b) three c) four 6. The body of a class is enclosed within . a) ( ) b) < > c) { } 7. The body of a class is terminated by a a) , b) : c) ; 8.The .. body contain the declaration of variables and functions a) function b) class c) array methods 1. The class body has access specifiers

d)

d) C

d)

d)

d) five d) [ ] d) } d)

a) two b) three c) four d) six 2. Specifying visibility label is optional. a) private b) public c) protected d) a or b 3. By default the members will be treated as . if a visibility label is not mentioned. a) private b) public c) protected d) a or b 4. The members that have been declared as can be accessed only from within the class a) private b) public c) protected d) a or b 5. The members that have been declared as can be accessed from the inherited class too. a) private b) public c) protected d) a or b 6. The members that have been declared as .. can be accessed from outside the class also. a) private b) public c) protected d) a or b 7. Instruments allowing only selected access of components to objects and to members of other classes is called as a) polymorphism b) inheritance c) encapsulation d) data abstraction 8. Data abstraction is achieved through . a) polymorphism b) inheritance c) encapsulation d) data hiding 9. .. is the key feature of object oriented programming a) data abstraction b) data hiding c) data types d) classes 10. Certain special functions called . can also be able to access the private members a) data members b) member functions c) friend functions d) virtual functions 11. Members of the class are further classified into .. a) two b) three c) four d) six 12. .. are the data variables that represent the features or properties of a class. a) data members b) member functions c) pointer arithmetic d) array declaration 13. are the functions that perform specific tasks in a class. a) data members b) array declaration c) class name d) member functions 14. Member functions are called as a) data types b) access specifiers c) methods d) attributes 15. Data members are also called as ..

a) data types b) access specifiers c) methods d) attributes 16. In C++ the class variables are known as . a) functions b) methods c) objects d) pointers 17. . can also created by placing their names immediately after the closing brace of the class declaration. a) class b) objects c) operator d) function 18. The members of the class are accessed using the operator. a) dot b) comma c) semi colon d) paranthesis 19. A member function can call another member function directly, without using the operator. a) dot b) comma c) semi colon d) paranthesis 20. .. can also be passed as arguments. a) objects b) class c) functions d) operators 21. The member variable is initialized to zero, only when the first object of its class is created. a) integer b) float c) char d) static 22. The .. variable is shared by all the other objects of its class type. a) integer b) float c) char d) static 23. The scope of the .. variable is within the class but its lifetime is the lifetime of the program. a) integer b) float c) char d) static 24. The members defined within the class behave like . a) arrays b) structures c) inline functions d) user defined functions

7.POLYMORPHISM PART I 1. The word polymorphism means a) many functions b) many pointers c) many shapes 2. Polymorphism is achieved in ways. a) 2 b) 3 c) 4

d) many types d) many

3. The term . means a name having two or more distinct meanings a) overriding b) encapsulation c) inheritance d) overloading 4. .. is one of the facets of C++ that supports object oriented programming a) method overloading b) function overloading c) object overloading d) oriented overloading 5. . strategy is adopted by the compiler when functions invoked in function overloading. a) best b) match c) match best d) best match 6. overloading gives additional functionality to the c++ operators. a) operator b) method c) function d) constructor 7. The functionality of + operator can be extended to strings using . overloading. a) method b) operator c) constructor d) function 8. operator can be overloaded by C++. a) membership b) scope resolution c) sizeof d) unary 9. operator cannot be overloaded by C++. a) membership b) scope resolution c) sizeof d) all of these 10. . is a membership operator. a) . b) , c) ; d) : 11. Operator functions must be .. functions. a) member b) friend c) a or b d) member or user defined 12. Which of the following is used to declare the operator function ? a) function ( ) b) operator ( ) c) method ( ) d) void ( ) 13. The mechanism of giving special meaning to an operator is called .. overloading. a) function b) method c) constructor d) operator 14. operators overloaded through a member function take one explicit argument. a) unary b) binary c) ternary d) assignment 15. How many explicit argument taken by binary operators overloading through a member function a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6 15. . overloading must have at least one operand of user-defined type ? a) operator b) function c) method d) constructor 16. The overloaded operator must have at least operand of user defined type. a) 6 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1 8. CONSTRUCTORS AND DESTRUCTORS PART I 1. Which of the following function gets executed when an instance of a class comes into scope ? a) constructor b) destructor c) method d) member 2. The . initializes the class object. a) destructor b) pointer c) constructor d) operator overloading 3. .. gets executed when a class goes out of scope. a) pointer b) destructor c) constructor d) function overloading

4. returns nothing a) constructor b) destructor c) pointer d) a and b 5. are not associated with any data type. a) variables b) constants c) constructor and destructor d) functions 6. . gets executed automatically when the object is created. a) constructor b) variables c) operators d) destructor 7. overloading can be applied for constructors. a) method b) operators c) function d) pointer 8. The constructor without parameters is called constructor a) method b) operator c) function d) default 9. The compiler generates .. constructors automatically. a) user defined b) default c) operator d) function 10. The name of the constructor is the same as that of the .. a) data type b) scope c) class d) method 11. function removes the object from the memory. a) destructor b) constructor c) scope d) pointer 12. .. is used as prefix to destructor. a) # b) @ c) ! d) ~ 13. cannot be overloaded. a) constructors b) destructors c) operators d) functions 14. A class can have .. destructors. a) only one b) two c) three d) many 9. INHERITANCE PART I 1. . is the most powerful feature of an object oriented programming language. a) encapsulation b) inheritance c) polymorphism d) functions 2. . is a process of creating a new class. a) encapsulation b) inheritance c) polymorphism 3. .. is a class from which other classes are derived. a) base class b) derived class c) sub class 4. class inherits all the properties of the base class. a) constructor b) destructor c) super

d) functions

d) methods

d) derived

5. .. can be added to enhance the inheritance functionality. a) attributes and data types b) methods and functions c) attributes and methods d) data types and functions 6. keyword is used to define the name of the derived class. a) class b) void c) main() d) private 7. . must be used between derived and base class.

a) : : b) : c) ; 8. There are . access specifiers in inheritance. a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 9. .. is the default visibility mode. a) public b) protected c) private 10. is referred to the visibility mode. a) access specifier b) constructor c) destructor 11. Which of the following of the base class are not inherited ? a) encapsulation b) destructors c) access specifiers

d) ! d) 3 d) class

d) encapsulation

d) constructors

12. .. are executed first when an instance of the derived class is created. a) access specifiers b) constructors c) data members d) functions 13. There are .. types of inheritance. a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6 14. form of inheritance is reflected by the transitive nature of inheritance. a) single b) multiple c) hierarchial d) multi level 15. . inheritance occurs when a class is derived from a class which is a derived class itself. a) single b) multiple c) hierarchial d) multi level 16. .. are executed in reverse order. a) access specifiers b) constructors c) destructors 17. Classes used only for deriving other classes are called . a) concrete class b) abstract class c) class members 18. Which of the following object classes are not declared ? a) concrete b) void c) abstract 19. . are executed in the order of inherited class. a) constructors b) destructors c) abstract classes

d) functions d) polymorphism d) cosntructor

d) concrete classes

10 IMPACT OF COMPUTERS ON SOCIETY PART I 1. How many elements needed at least to reach out the benefits of IT to the common man ? a) 256 b) 3 c) 4 d) 18 2. What will be the 85% usage of computer ? a) word processing b) database c) spreadsheet d) power point 3. Which of the following will enable the common man to put computers to better use ? a) application b) entertainment c) education d) hardware 4. introduced in banks reduced the time required to provide service to the user ? a) software b) hardware c) methods d) IT 5. .. permits banking from the comfort of the home by using internet facility ? a) E-Commerce b) E-banking c) E-shopping d) E-cards

6. CBT means . a) Computer Based Tutorials b) Common Based Tutor c) Computer Based Teacher d) Computer Based Teaching 7. .. enables online educational programs leading to degrees and certifications ? a) E-Commerce b) E-learning c) E-shopping d) E-education 11 . IT ENABLED SERVICES PART I 1. ITES stands for a) IT Environment Studies b) IT Enabled Services c) IT Evolution Studies d) IT Enabled Studies 2. .. helps in improving the quality of service to the users ? a) computer b) Software c) IT d) Application 3. . traditional services are IT enabled a) Word processors b) Spreadsheets c) Databases d) None of these 4. .. can be collected for one purpose may be useful for some other purpose. a) Data b) Program c) Computer d) ITES 5. .. is not an IT enabled service. a) E-governance b) call centers c) programs d) Web based services 6. .. is happening all over the globe. a) Programs b) Application c) IT d) Hardware 7. . is a category of IT enabled services pertaining to collection, digitization and processing of data. a) Call centers b) Data management c) E-governance d) Web based services 8. services comprise punching data from manually filled forms and images. a) DBMS b) Call centers c) Digitization d) Data processing 9. . is the key for effective and profitable use of IT in organizations. a) Data management b) Call centers c) E-governance d) Digitization 10. is a permanent, legal document that formally states the result of a medical investigation. a) Call centers b) Medical Transcription c) Data management d) Egovernance 11. . facilitates communication and supports the insurance claims. a) Call centers b) Medical Transcription c) E-governance d) Web based services 12. There are steps involved in Medical transcription. a) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 5 13. .. refers to the conversion of non-digital material to digital form. a) Data management b) Digitization c) Web based services d) Data processing 14. Which of the following may be digitized ? a) Maps b) Manuscripts c) Images and sound d) all of these 15. . helps us in accessing web based services.

a) Programs Government

b) Applications

c) Computers

d)

12. COMPUTER ETHICS PART I 1. Computer has its roots in the work of whom during World War II ? a) Charles Babbage b) Herman Hollerith c) Blaise Pascal d) Norbert Wiener 2. Who began to examine unethical and illegal uses of computers by computer professionals ? a) Donn Parker b) Norbert Wiener c) Blaise Pascal d) Napier Bones 3. security refers to the protection of hardware. a) Personal b) Personnel c) Physical d) Data 4. .. security refers to the software setups. a) Personnel b) Personal c) Data d) Physical 5. security permit only authorized access to the system. a) Personal b) Personnel c) Physical d) Data 6. security refers to protecting data and computer system against negligence of employees. a) Data b) Physical c) Personal d) Personnel 7. .. is any illegal activity using computer software. a) Computer crime b) Software crime c) Data crime d) System crime 8. How many percentage the computer crimes happen within the company ? a) 60 % b) 75 % c) 80 % d) 100 % 9. How many percentage of crimes are unreported ? a) 100 % b) 60 % c) 80 % d) 75 % 10. Making and using duplicate hardware and software is called a) Crime b) Security c) Piracy d) Publicity 11. . is self replicating that can cause damage to data and files. a) System b) Application c) Virus d) On-line 12. How many known virus programs are in existence ? a) 57000 b) 67000 c) 75000 d) 80000 13. How many new viruses are found each day ? a) 7 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 14. . laws prevent computer crimes in India. a) Cyber b) Crime c) Legal d) Computer 15. is the illegal access to the network or computer system. a) Virus b) Cracking c) Authentication d) Breaking