BIOSCI 101

THE UNIVERSITY OF AUCKLAND

FIRST SEMESTER, 2010 Campus: City

BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES Essential Biology: From Genomes to Organisms

(Time Allowed: TWO hours) INSTRUCTIONS Multiple Choice Questions: Multiple Choice Questions: Use the Teleform Sheet. Use pencils only. Shade the rectangle completely. Do not cross out mistakes. ERASE them completely. Complete family name, first name, initial and ID Number. Do not complete your stream. Fill spaces from left to right. Your code is 26039039. Check this is correct on your teleform. Failure to enter the version code or other details correctly will mean your MCQ cannot be marked.

Short Answers: Exam Format:

Print your name and I.D. at the top of EVERY ANSWER PAGE Record your answers in spaces provided. All questions must be attempted. (Total marks = 100) ALL QUESTIONS MUST BE ATTEMPTED.

Multiple Choice Questions: Section A: Evolution Section B: Biochemistry Short Answers: Section C: Section D: Evolution Biochemistry

20 marks 25 marks 30 marks 25 marks

Turn in the teleform answer sheet and short answer sheets (Sections C & D) Retain your Multiple Choice question pages (sections A & B)

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SECTION A

EVOLUTION

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(20 marks) (Recommended time 30 minutes)

Choose the CORRECT answer from the alternatives provided. Question 1: Question 2: What is the most important missing evidence or observation in Darwins theory of 1859? 1. The source of genetic variation. 2. Evidence that some organisms became extinct. 3. Observation that competition exists in populations. 4. Observation that variation is common in populations. 5. Evidence of the overproduction of offspring. Even in Darwins time, the blending hypothesis was incompatible with observed facts. If the blending hypothesis were true, then what should one expect to observe over the course of generations? 1. Genetic polymorphisms should increase. 2. Members of a breeding population should become more uniform in phenotype. 3. Genetic variation should increase. 4. Phenotypic polymorphisms should increase. 5. Neutral variation should decrease.

The following information is required to answer questions 3 and 4. A large population of laboratory animals has been allowed to breed randomly for a number of generations. After several generations, 36% of the animals display a recessive trait (aa), the same percentage as at the beginning of the breeding program. The rest of the animals show the dominant phenotype, with heterozygotes indistinguishable from the homozygous dominants. Question 3: Question 4: What is the estimated frequency of allele a in the gene pool? 1. 0.80 2. 0.18 3. 0.60 4. 0.40 5. 0.70 What proportion of the population is probably heterozygous (Aa) for this trait? 1. 0.72 2. 0.48 3. 0.36 4. 0.60 5. 0.18
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Question 5: Question 6: Question 7: Question 8: Question 9:

In modern terminology, diversity is understood to be a result of genetic variation. Sources of variation for evolution include all of the following EXCEPT: 1. mistakes in DNA replication. 2. translocations and mistakes in meiosis. 3. mistakes in translation of structural genes. 4. recombination at fertilisation. 5. recombination by crossing over in meiosis. The following important concepts of population genetics are due to random events or chance EXCEPT: 1. sexual recombination. 2. the bottleneck effect. 3. mutation. 4. the founder effect. 5. natural selection. Which of the following is one important evolutionary feature of the diploid condition? 1. Diploid organisms are more likely to clone successfully than haploid organisms. 2. The DNA in diploid cells is more resistant to mutation thanthe DNAin haploid cells. 3. Diploid organisms express less of their genetic variability than haploid organisms. 4. Recombination can only occur in diploid organisms. 5. An extra set of genes facilitates the inheritance of characteristics acquired by the previous generation. When we say that an individual organism has a greater fitness than another individual, we specifically mean that the organism: 1. utilises resources more efficiently than other species occupying similar niches. 2. competes for resources more successfully than others of its species. 3. mates more frequently than others of its species. 4. lives longer than others of its species. 5. leaves more viable offspring than others of its species. Adult male vervet monkeys have red penises and blue scrotums. Males use their colourful genitalia in dominance displays, when they compete with each other for access to females. The colouration of the male genitalia is best explained as the result of ________, and specifically of ________. 1. natural selection; intersexual selection 2. natural selection; stabilising selection 3. sexual selection; disruptive selection 4. disruptive selection; intrasexual selection 5. sexual selection; intrasexual selection

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Question 11: Question 12: Question 13: Question 14:

A proficient engineer can easily design skeletal structures that are more functional than those currently found in the forelimbs of such diverse mammals as horses, whales, and bats. The reasonthe actual forelimbs of these mammals do not seem to be optimally arranged is because: 1. though we may not consider the fit between the current skeletal arrangements and their functions excellent, we should not doubt that natural selection ultimately produces the best design. 2. natural selection is generally limited to modifying structures that were present in previous generations and in previous species. 3. natural selection operates in ways that are beyond the capability of the human mind to comprehend. 4. natural selection has not had sufficient time to create the optimal design in each case, but will do so given enough time. 5. in many cases, phenotype is not merely determined by genotype, but by the environment as well. Which of the following isNOT considered an intrinsic isolating mechanism? 1. gametic incompatibility 2. ecological isolation 3. geographic isolation 4. timing of courtship display 5. sterile offspring Which of the following MUST occur during a period of geographic isolation in order for two sibling species to remain genetically distinct following their geographic reunion in the same home range? 1. postzygotic barriers 2. ecological isolation 3. reproductive isolation 4. prezygotic barriers 5. temporal isolation Theoretically, the production of sterile mules by interbreeding between female horses and male donkeys should: 1. result in the extinction of one of the two parental species. 2. cause convergent evolution. 3. reinforce prezygotic and postzygotic barriers between horses and donkeys. 4. weaken the intrinsic reproductive barriers between horses and donkeys. 5. eventually result in the formation of a single species from the two parental species. A defining characteristic of allopatric speciation is: 1. artificial selection. 2. the appearance of new species in the midst of old ones. 3. asexually reproducing populations. 4. large populations. 5. geographic isolation.

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Question 16: Question 17: Question 18: Question 19:

The Galapagos archipelago appeared about 2 million years ago, when submerged volcanoes (seamounts) rose above the oceans surface. A single hypothetical colonisation event introduced a species of finch to one island in the distant past. Today, several islands in the archipelago contain unique species of finches. What must have happened following the initial colonisation event to account for the current situation? (i) cladogenesis (ii) anagenesis (iii) allopatric speciation (iv) adaptive radiation 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. (i), (iii), and (iv) (ii) and (iii) (ii), (iii), and (iv) (i) and (iv) (i) and (iii)

A rapid method of speciation that has been important in the history of flowering plants is: 1. genetic drift. 2. behavioural isolation. 3. polyploidy. 4. a mutation in the gene controlling the timing of flowering. 5. paedomorphosis. Which of the following is a way that allopolyploidy can most directly cause speciation? 1. It can improve success in island habitats. 2. It can change the mating behaviour of animals. 3. It can generate geographic barriers. 4. It can overcome hybrid sterility. 5. It can produce heterochrony. According to the concept of punctuated equilibrium: 1. a new species accumulates most of its unique features as it comes into existence. 2. given enough time, most existing species will branch gradually into new species. 3. evolution of new species features long periods during which changes are occurring, interspersed with short periods of equilibrium or stasis. 4. natural selection is unimportant as a mechanism of evolution. 5. transitional fossils, intermediate between newer species and their parent species, should be abundant. The origin of a new plant species by hybridisation coupled with nondisjunction is an example of: 1. autopolyploidy. 2. allopatric speciation. 3. sympatric speciation. 4. habitat selection. 5. heterochrony.
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Which of the following statements represents the best explanation for the observation that the nuclear DNA of wolves and domestic dogs has a very high degree of homology? 1. Dogs and wolves are both members of the family Canidae. 2. Dogs and wolves are similar because of convergent evolution. 3. Dogs and wolves belong to the same order. 4. Dogs and wolves shared a common ancestor very recently. 5. Dogs and wolves have very similar morphologies.

SECTION B

BIOCHEMISTRY

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(25 marks) (Recommended time 30 minutes) Choose the CORRECT answer from the alternatives provided. Question 21: Question 22: Question 23: Question 24: Which of the following statements is NOT characteristic of catabolic reactions? 1. They are divergent processes in which a few precursors form a wide variety of polymeric products. 2. Glycolysis is an example of a catabolic pathway. 3. They often involve hydrolysis of macromolecules. 4. They often produce NADH or FADH2. 5. They serve to generate energy. Which of the following would yield the most energy per gram when oxidised? 1. glycogen 2. glucose 3. protein 4. fat 5. starch The phosphorylation of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate: 1. is an exergonic reaction not coupled to any other reaction. 2. is not an endergonic reaction. 3. is an exergonic reaction that is coupled to the endergonic hydrolysis of ATP. 4. is so strongly exergonic that it does not require a catalyst. 5. is an endergonic reaction that takes place because it is coupled to the exergonic hydrolysis of ATP. Which of the following produces the most ATP when glucose (C6H12O6) is completely oxidised to carbon dioxide (CO2) and water? 1. glycolysis 2. oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA 3. citric acid cycle 4. oxidative phosphorylation 5. fermentation
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Question 25: Question 26: Question 27: Question 28: Question 29: Question 30:

Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen (O2) is present or absent? 1. electron transport 2. chemiosmosis 3. oxidative phosphorylation 4. glycolysis 5. the citric acid cycle Glucokinase: 1. has a low Km for glucose and, hence, is important in the phosphorylation of glucose in the starved state. 2. catalyses the phosphorylation of glucose to form glucose 6-phosphate in the liver. 3. catalyses a readily reversible reaction. 4. catalyses the conversion of ADP to ATP. 5. is widely distributed and occurs in most mammalian tissues. Which type of enzyme is involved in phosphorylation reactions? 1. carboxylase 2. phosphatase 3. isomerase 4. dehydrogenase 5. kinase All of the following statements about NAD+ are true EXCEPT: 1. NAD+ is reduced to NADH during both glycolysis and the Krebs cycle. 2. NAD+ can receive electrons for use in oxidative phosphorylation. 3. NAD+ is reduced by the action of dehydrogenases. 4. NAD+ has more chemical energy than NADH. 5. In the absence of NAD+ , glycolysis cannot function. The reactions of glycolysis occur inwhich of the followingeukaryotic cell compartments? 1. Nucleus, cytoplasm and mitochondria. 2. cytoplasm 3. nucleus 4. Both cytoplasm and mitochondria. 5. mitochondrion During glycolysis, when glucose is catabolised to pyruvate, most of the energy of glucose is: 1. transferred directly to ATP. 2. retained in the pyruvate. 3. transferred to ADP, forming ATP. 4. stored in the NADH produced. 5. used to phosphorylate fructose to form fructose 6-phosphate.

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Question 31: Question 32: Question 33: Question 34: Question 35:

Phosphofructokinase is an important control enzyme. Which of the following statements concerning this enzyme are NOT true? 1. It is inhibited by ATP. 2. It is a coordinator of the processes of glycolysis and the Krebs cycle. 3. It is activated by ADP. 4. It is an allosteric enzyme. 5. It is activated by citrate. The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and CO2: 1. involves the participation of an oxidation-reduction coenzyme. 2. is catalysed by an enzyme belonging to the dehydrogenase family. 3. all of the other options givenare correct. 4. is not a readily reversible reaction. 5. involves the participation of an activation-transfer coenzyme. Succinate dehydrogenase is located in this complex. 1. Complex III. 2. Complex I. 3. Complex IV. 4. Complex II. 5. It is not known where succinate dehydrogenase is located. In the presence of oxygen (O2), the three-carbon compound pyruvate can be catabolised in the citric acid cycle. First, however, the pyruvate (i) loses a carbon, which is given off as a molecule of CO2, (ii) is oxidised to form a two-carbon compound called acetate, and (iii) is bonded to coenzyme A. These three steps result in the formation of: 1. acetyl CoA, FAD, H2 and CO2. 2. acetyl CoA, NADH, H+ and CO2. 3. acetyl CoA, NAD+, ATP and CO2. 4. acetyl CoA, FADH2 and CO2. 5. acetyl CoA, O2 and ATP. Whichof the following statements about the electron transport chain in animal cellsis NOTtrue? 1. Electrons are carried from Complex I and Complex II to Complex III by the lipid soluble molecule coenzyme Q or ubiquinone. 2. Four protein complexes are involved in the transfer of electrons from NADH to the final electron acceptor. 3. The protein complexes are located in the inner mitochondrial membrane. 4. Cyanide is an effective inhibitor of electron transport. 5. NADH produced in glycolysis is the principal source of electrons for the electron transport chain.

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Question 36: Question 37: Question 38: Question 39: Question 40:

Which statement is INCORRECT? 1. Insulin stimulates glycogen synthesis. 2. Glycogen is only oxidised from the reducing ends of branched polymers. 3. Reducing ends of glycogen polymers can attach to glycogenin. 4. Branches in glycogen polymers are formed by 1-6 glycosidic linkages. 5. Glycogen is stored in the liver. Liver glycogen is an important fuel storage source because it is: 1. a linear chain glucose polymer that can be processed at both ends to release glucose. 2. easily taken up by the brain. 3. rapidly cleaved to maintain blood glucose levels. 4. utilised for low intensity muscle work. 5. hydrophobic.

What is the general order of predominant fuel use in hard working skeletal muscles as they work to exhaustion? 1. creatine phosphate blood glucose muscle glycogen fatty acids cellular ATP stores. 2. creatine phosphate muscle glycogen blood glucose fatty acids cellular ATP stores. 3. muscle glycogen blood glucose fatty acids cellular ATP stores creatine phosphate. 4. cellular ATP stores creatine phosphate muscle glycogen blood glucose fatty acids. 5. cellular ATP stores muscle glycogen blood glucose fatty acids creatine phosphate. Which statement is NOT true? 1. Pancreatic -cells are stimulated to secrete insulin by elevated blood glucose levels. 2. Glucagon stimulates liver glycogen breakdown. 3. Insulin stimulates growth. 4. Dropping blood glucose triggers pancreatic -cells to secrete insulin. 5. Insulin stimulates the liver to take up glucose from the blood. Which statement is TRUE? 1. Glucose 6-phosphatase is unique to the skeletal muscle. 2. Glucokinase has a lower affinity than hexokinase for glucose. 3. Hexokinase is more active in liver than in skeletal muscle. 4. Glycogen synthesis uses ADP-glucose. 5. Glucokinase is more active in skeletal muscle than the liver.

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BIOSCI 101

Of the following lists, which one contains thedistinctive enzymes of the gluconeogenic pathway? 1. glucose 6-phosphatase, pyruvate dehydrogenase, pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase 2. glucose 6-phosphatase, pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase, pyruvate kinase 3. pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase, lactate dehydrogenase, glucose 6-phosphatase 4. phosphofructokinase, pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase, glucose 6-phosphatase 5. glucose 6-phosphatase, fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase, pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase Which statement is TRUE? 1. Normal blood glucose is around 80 grams/decilitre. 2. Glucagonstimulates muscles to store glucose. 3. Epinephrine stimulates glycogen breakdown by activating adenylate kinase. 4. Lactate is not a substrate for gluconeogenesis. 5. Mammalian red blood cells have mitochondria.

Which statement is TRUE of photosynthesis? 1. When chlorophyll absorbs light it becomes excited and gains an electron. 2. The Calvin cycle produces oxygen. 3. The cytochromecomplex moves four protons into the thylakoid space. 4. Photosystem I is before Photosystem II in the light reaction of photosynthesis. 5. Chlorophyll a absorbs visible light most strongly at 520 nm. Inside a light exposed chloroplast electrons flow along which pathway? 1. H2O P700 plastocyanin Ferredoxin plastoquinone P680 cytochrome complex NADP+ reductase NADP+ 2. H2O P680 plastoquinone cytochrome complex plastocyanin P700Ferredoxin NADP+ reductase NADP+ 3. H2O P680 plastocyanin cytochrome complex plastoquinone P700 Ferredoxin NADP+ reductase NADP+ 4. NADP+ P700 plastocyanin Ferredoxin plastoquinone P680 cytochromecomplex NADP+ reductase H2O 5. H2O P700 plastocyanin cytochrome complex plastoquinone P680 Ferredoxin NADP+ reductase NADP+ What statement is NOT true for the Calvin cycle? 1. NADPH transfers electrons to the Calvin cycle. 2. Six CO2 molecules are required to make one glucose molecule. 3. The product of the Calvin cycle is glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate. 4. Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase oxygenase (RuBisCo) binds CO2. 5. Two glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate molecules are used to make one ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate molecule. QUESTION/ANSWER SHEETS FOLLOW
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Question 45:

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FOR OFFICIAL USE

SECTION C

EVOLUTION

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

(30 marks) (Recommended time 30 minutes) NOTE: Answer ALL questions.

46.

Who is most closely associated with these concepts?

(5 marks total)

Select name(s) from the following list and enter the name next to the appropriate concept. Malthus, Plato, Lamarck, Socrates, Hutton, Mayr, Mendel, Fitzroy, Aristotle, Darwin, Lyall, Cuvier, Linnaeus, Haldane, Weinberg, Galileo, Wallace CONCEPT (a) Essentialism (b) Teleology (c) Natural selection (d) Transformationism (e) Gradualism (f) Binomial nomenclature (g) Catastrophism (h) Biological species concept (i) Laws of inheritance (j) Exponential increase in populations
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Person(s)

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BIOSCI 101

The cladogram below represents the phylogenetic relationships among six extant species and five ancestral species (and an outgroup). The numbered horizontal bars indicate the evolution of characters present in the taxa above the bar. (8 marks total)

This cladogram represents a single Order defined by the character #1. Within this Order are two (and only two) monophyletic Families. (a)

Circle the groups of species most likely to be included in each of the two Families. (2 marks)

(b)

Label the two Families (as #I and or #II) in the diagram and identify the character that defines each Family (2 marks) Family #I, character ___________________ (c) Family #II, character ___________________

Which species has diverged the most from the ancestral species A? (1 mark) ________________________________________________________________

(d) Which species has diverged the least from the ancestral species A? (1 mark) ________________________________________________________________ (1 mark)
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(e) What species is the common ancestor of I and K?

________________________________________________________________ (1 mark)

(f) What character is likely the result of Convergent Evolution?

________________________________________________________________
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In the table below list the most likely force resulting in the observed pattern or change to a population. (1 mark each) SCENARIO There are five unrelated species of anteaters that have evolved independently in different parts of the world. An albino calf is observed in a large, unexploited population of whales. Prior to this sighting, there were no albino individuals in this population. The adults of a certain species of land snail are found as either a light cream color or a solid brown color. Intermediate adults are relatively rare. A nocturnal species of moth found in sympatry with bats (Microchiroptera) is sensitive to high frequency sound. A related species of moth that is diurnal is not sensitive to high frequency sound. Only male beaked whales have emergent teeth (in the form of tusks) and only males are covered with scars from these tusks. Force

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

(f) Male humpback whales on the winter breeding grounds sing an elaborate song that seems to attract females. (g) Genetic samples collected from the critically endangered Mauis dolphin of the North Island show far lower diversity than samples collected from the more abundant Hectors dolphin of the South Island. (h) A single breeding pair of takahe, a New Zealand endemic bird, is translocated to an island sanctuary. The pair is very successful at raising young and the colony grows over the first generation. During the subsequent generations, however, the number of chicks that survives to fledging declines.
marks

(i) Two populations of kiwi became isolated by a busy motorway and genetic monitoring indicated that diversity was being lost in both populations. A series of tunnels were constructed to allow kiwis to disperse under the road. Subsequent monitoring showed that diversity was restored.

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Figure 3 49. The phylogenetic tree above (Figure 3) represents one of the current hypotheses about the pattern and timing of human evolution and related outgroups. Referring to this tree, indicate the most likely time point (node) or interval (branch) for the origin of the following characters or events in the evolution of hominins using the labeled nodes as reference points (for example, at node A or between nodes B and C). (8 marks total) (a) the first upright walking ape ____________________________________ (b) tool use ___________________________________________________ (c) the first migration of Homo out of Africa __________________________ (d) symbolic representations ______________________________________ (e) migration of modern humans from Africa _________________________ (f) What species is represented by node I? ___________________________ (g) What is the approximate date of node G?__________________________ (h) What species is represented by F? ________________________________ (i) What is the approximate date of node A? __________________________
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SECTION D

BIOCHEMISTRY

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

(25 marks) (Recommended time 30 minutes) NOTE: Answer ALL questions.

50. The above schematic is an overview of cellular respiration. In the spaces provided below, name the metabolic pathways, molecules and processes labelled A-J. (Do NOT label the diagram). (5 marks total) A: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark) B: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark) C: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark) D: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark) E: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark) F: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark) G: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark) H: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark) I: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark) J: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark)
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51.

The following question relates to glucose homeostasis in humans. (5 marks total) During starvation blood glucose levels are maintained through a range of mechanisms. Five phases have been allocated to describe the processes of how the body derives and allocates glucose. Complete the table below, identifying the origin(s) of blood glucose and the fuel(s) used by the brain during the five phases.

Note: there may be more than one origin of glucose and more than one fuel used by the brain in each phase.

Phase 1 ~0-4 hrs Origin(s) of blood glucose

Phase 2 ~5-16 hrs

Phase 3 ~16-36 hrs

Phase 4 ~2-24 days

Phase 5 beyond 24 days

2.5

Major fuel(s) used by the brain

2.5

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52.

The above schematic is a comparison of chemiosmosis in mitochondria and chloroplasts. (a) Identify the cellular compartments labelled A-D in these organelles: A: _____________________________________________________ (1/2 mark) B: _____________________________________________________ (1/2 mark) C: _____________________________________________________ (1/2 mark) D: _____________________________________________________ (1/2 mark) (b) Explain, in three to four sentences, how electron transport is coupled to oxidative phosphorylation in plant and animal cells (3 marks)

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53: The following question relates to the Calvin cycle. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word(s) or numbers to complete the paragraph. (5 marks total) The Calvin cycle occurs in the __________ of chloroplasts. The reactions have historically been referred to as the ______________________of photosynthesis. The Calvin cycle is dependent on upstream light reactions that supply ATP and NADPH, which are generated by a complex pathway with the final reaction steps catalysed by the enzymes ___________________ and ______________________, respectively. These energy-rich molecules are then used to fix carbon into simple carbohydrates by the stepwise addition of three atmospheric CO2 molecules into three molecules of ____________________ in the carbon fixation phase of the Calvin cycle. This step is catalysed by ______________________, a highly abundant enzyme in the biosphere. Molecules containing six carbon atoms are then formed, and these are then rearranged and cleaved to produce six molecules of ______________________, a product of the Calvin cycle which is also an intermediate of the______________________ pathway. Only one of these three carbon molecules is extracted for each set of three CO2 molecules consumed, while the remaining five molecules continue in the Calvin cycle. Two of these molecules are required to combine to make glucose. In theory the energetic inputs to produce the two molecules used to make glucose equates to ____molecules of ATP and ____molecules of NADPH. (1 mark) (1/2 mark) (1/2 mark) (1/2 mark) (1/2 mark) (1/2 mark) (1/2 mark) (1/2 mark) (1/2 mark)

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QUESTION/ANSWER SHEET FIRST NAME: ................................. FAMILY NAME: ....................................................... ID NO: ...................................................... (5 marks total)

54: Write short notes on ONE (1) of the following topics.

EITHER: (a) The transport of glucose across the cell membrane and its retention in the cell OR: (b) Lactate production under anaerobic conditions and the Cori cycle

Write your answer in the box provided below. Diagrams with explanatory notes are acceptable. Please circle question attempted: a or b

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