4585653626432748 UCF EAS-Oracle Tech 2.

1 Manager

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1.

You are about to change the arguments of the CALC_TEAM_AVG function. Which dictionary view can you query to determine the names of the procedures and functions that invoke the CALC_TEAM_AVG function? a. b. c. d. a) USER_PROC_DEPENDS b) USER_DEPENDENCIES c) USER_REFERENCES d) USER_SOURCE

2.

DDL statements means a. b. c. d. a) Data definition language b) Data dictionary language c) Data driven language d) None of these

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4585653626432748 UCF EAS-Oracle Tech 2.1 Manager What part of a database trigger determines the number of times the trigger body executes? a. b. c. d. a) Trigger type b) Trigger body c) Trigger event d) Trigger timing

3.

4.

You want to create a cursor that can be used several times in a block. Selecting a different active set each time that it is opened. Which type of cursor do you create? a. b. c. d. a) A cursor FOR loop. b) A multiple selection cursor. c) A cursor for each active set. d) A cursor that uses parameters.

5.

Which two program declarations are correct for a stored program unit? A)CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE tax_amt (p_id NUMBER) RETURN NUMBER B)CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION tax_amt (p_id NUMBER) RETURN NUMBER C)CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION tax_amt (p_id NUMBER) RETURN NUMBER(10,2) D)CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE tax_amt (p_id NUMBER, p_amount OUT NUMBER(10, 2)) a. b. c. d. a) A&C b) B&D c) B&C d) A&D

6.

Which statements describe the state of a package variable after executing the package in which it is declared? a. b. c. d. a) It persists across transactions within a session. b) It persists from session to session for the same user. c) It does not persist across transaction within a session. d) It persists from user to user when the package is invoked.

7.

Which statement is true about EXISTS Usage? a. a) the outer query is executed first and then inner query is excecuted for each value of outer query

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4585653626432748 UCF EAS-Oracle Tech 2.1 Manager b. b) the inner query is executed first and then outer query is excecuted for each value of inner query c. c) exist is faster than IN usage d. d) Option 1,3

8.

Evaluate this PL/SQL block: for I in 1..5 LOOP IF i=1 THEN NULL; ELSIF i=3 THEN COMMIT; ELSIF i=5 THEN ROLLBACK; ELSE INSERT INTO test (results); VALUES(i); END IF; END LOOP; COMMIT; END; How many values will be permanently inserted into the TEST table? a. b. c. d. a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

9.

Which statement about implicit cursors is true? a. b. c. d. a) Implicit cursors are declared implicitly only for DML statements. b) Implicit cursors are declared implicitly for all the DML and SELECT statements. c) Programmers need to close all the implicit cursors before the end of the PL/SQL program. d) Programmers can declare implicit cursors by using the cursor type in the declaration section

10. Which PL/SQL method returns the index number that succeeds index n.
a. b. c. d. a) Extends(n) b) Prior(n) c) Next(n) d) Last(n)

11. Examine code: SET SERVEROUTPUT ON DECLARE v_name emp.ename%TYPE;

v_num NUMBER; v_sal NUMBER(8,2); BEGIN --- This code displays salaries if larger than 10,000. SELECT ename, sal INTO v_name, v_sal FROM emp WHERE empno=101; IF(v_sal.GT.10000) THEN DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(\'Salary is \'||\' v_sal || \'for employee\' || v_name); END IF; END; SET SERVEROUTPUT OFF This statement produces a compilation error when above PL/SQL block is executed at? a. b. c. d. a) v_num NUMBER; b) v_name emp.ename%TYPE; c) IF (v_sal.GT.10000) THEN d) This code displays salaries if larger than 10000.

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12. Which PL/SQL method is used to remove all elements from a collection
a. b. c. d. a) TRIM b) TRIM(n) c) DELETE d) DELETE(n)

13. LIMIT returns the maximum number of elements that the collection can contain for which Pl/SQL
collection type a. b. c. d. a) Nested tables b) Associative array c) Varrays d) None

14. You need to create a trigger on the EMP table that monitors every row that is changed and places
this information into the AUDIT_TABLE. What type of trigger do you create? a. b. c. d. a) FOR EACH ROW trigger on the EMP table. b) Statement-level trigger on the EMP table. c) FOR EACH ROW trigger on the AUDIT_TABLE table. d) Statement-level trigger on the AUDIT_TABLE table

15. The OLD and NEW qualifiers can be used in which type of trigger?
a. b. c. d. a) Row level DML trigger b) Row level application trigger c) Statement level DML trigger d) Row level system trigger

16. if we only want to delete the data inside the table, and not the table itself
a. b. c. d. a) DROP b) TRUNCATE c) REMOVE d) None of the above

17. Finding data in a range is done using

a. a) GROUP BY b. b) ORDER BY c. c) BETWEEN

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4585653626432748 UCF EAS-Oracle Tech 2.1 Manager d. d) AND

18. If I use BETWEEN x and y in the WHERE clause of a SELECT,

a. b. c. d. a) It includes both x and y b) It does not include x and y c) It includes x+1 till y d) None of the above

19. How can you disable trigger

a. b. c. d. a) ALTER TRIGGER <NAME> DROP b) MODIFY TRIGGER <NAME> DISABLE c) ALTER TRIGGER <NAME> DISABLE d) MODIFY TRIGGER <NAME> DROP

20. Can a formula column be obtained through a select statement?

a. a) Yes b. b) No c. c) Not applicable

21. The trigger which commits first a form

a. b. c. d. a) KEY Commit b) b)Pre Commit c) c)On commit d) d)Post Form Commit

22. The library that contains the packages to control the Calendar in Oracle Application Forms is?
a. b. c. d. a) APPDAYPK b) VERT c) None of these d) C. None of these

23. The Block coordination property in Oracle Forms that defer fetching the detail records until the
operator navigates to the detail block a. b. c. d. a) Deffered with Auto Query b) b)Immediate c) C)Deferred with No Auto Query d) D)a and b

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24. How can we call a report from forms?

a. b. c. d. a) Exec_Prod b) Exec_Product c) Run_Product d) Run_prod

25. Can we have a form without a Canvas?

a. a) Yes b. b) No

26. What is the trigger associated with image items?

a. b. c. d. a) When-image-selected b) When-image-changed c) When-image-activated d) None of the above

27. What is more efficient : Maximum rows or Group Filter ?

a. a) Maximum rows b. b) Group Filter

28. A ______ canvas can be used to display large amount of data by breaking them into smaller logical
groups a. b. c. d. a) Stacked b) Content c) Toolbar Canvas d) Tab Canvas

29. _________are the minimum number of instances (records) that should appear on the logical page
where the repeating frame starts to print. a. b. c. d. a) Widow Lines b) Widow Records c) Widow Items d) None of the above

30. A ______ canvas that is not designed to display data but enhances the functionality of application
a. a) Stacked b. b) Content

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4585653626432748 UCF EAS-Oracle Tech 2.1 Manager c. c) Toolbar Canvas d. d) Tab Canvas

31. A _____ is an user interface object which enables the users to manipulate data
a. b. c. d. a) LOV b) Text item c) Display item d) None of the above

32. How many radio options can be placed under a radio group
a. b. c. d. a) 6 b) 10 c) 50 d) unlimited (actually unlimited but maximum of 6 radio options are preferred more then that we go for list items etc)

33. Name the triggers created for Master-Detail relationship - ISOLATED

a. b. c. d. a) On Clear Details and on populate details b) b)On Clear Details c) c)on check delete master and on populate details d) d)on check delete master

34. ______ is a form builder object that stores the values that are displayed by an LOV
a. b. c. d. a) Data Group b) Request Group c) Record Group d) None of the above

35. What is the outcome of the following command ls a

a. b. c. d. a) Lists all files and directories including hidden ones b) Lists all files and directories in reverse alphabetical order c) Lists all nonhidden files in the order they were last modified d) none of the above

36. which command is used to send file to host

a. a) get b. b) put c. c) mget

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4585653626432748 UCF EAS-Oracle Tech 2.1 Manager d. d) none of the above

37. What is the command used for compressing the files in Unix
a. b. c. d. a) gzip b) gunzip c) both a and b d) none of the above

38. The insertion of a new valid key flexfield combination into the combinations table from a form other
than the existing combinations is called ________. a. b. c. d. a) Static Insertion b) Dynamic Insertion c) All of the above d) None of the above

39. If you need to register a database package/procedure in AOL, enter the execution method in
concurrent program executable as ________. a. b. c. d. a) SQLPLUS b) Host c) Oracle Reports d) PLSQL Stored Procedure

40. API used to write to log file of concurrent program

a. b. c. d. a) fnd_file.log_out b) fnd_file.put_line c) fnd_file.log d) fnd_file.output

41. Is the below statement true or false?

You grant users of a resposibility access to reports through the request group a. a) True b. b) FALSE

42. Which is not a correct concurrent program status

a. b. c. d. a) Normal b) Warning c) Error d) Failure

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43. _________is a component of Concurrent processing that monitors and runs tasks
a. b. c. d. a) Concurrent Manager b) Concurrent Program c) Executable d) Function

44. Which of the following are valid phases of a concurrent program?

a. b. c. d. a) Inactive b) Running c) Pending d) all the above

45. New tables designed from customization need to be created in custom Oracle schema only. Is this
true? a. a) True b. b) FALSE

46. At which level Oracle Payables and Oracle Receivables are defined
a. b. c. d. a) Business Group b) Legal Entity c) Operating Unit d) Inventory Organization

47. Invoice status is approved after completion of

a. b. c. d. a) Invoice validation process b) Invoice Approval process c) Hold release process d) Importing into GL

48. An action on an order signifying that the order has all the necessary information to be a firm order
and be processed through its order cycle is called as a. b. c. d. a) Booking b) Entered c) Confirmed d) Approved

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49. What are the various security levels for accessing purchasing documents
a. b. c. d. a) public b) private c) purchasing d) All of the above

50. A statement of the price, terms, and conditions of sale a supplier offers you for an item or items is
called as a. b. c. d. a) Quotation b) Requisition c) Sale Deed d) Contract

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