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Magnetic vector potential When we derived the scalar electric potential we started with the relation ~ E ~ = 0 to conclude that

E ~ could be written as the gradient of a scalar r potential. That wonzt work for the magnetic eld (except where ~ j = 0); because ~ is not zero in general. Instead, the divergence of B ~ is zero. That the curl of B ~ may be written as the curl of a vector that we shall call A: ~ means that B ~ =r ~ A ~)r ~ B ~ =r ~ r ~ A ~ =0 B

Then the second equation becomes ~ B ~ =r ~ r ~ A ~ =r ~ r ~ A ~ r2 A ~=~ r 0j

~ = r ~ V is We had some exibility in choosing the scalar potential V because E ~ (constant) = 0: Similarly here, not changed if we add a constant to V; since r ~ the gradient of a scalar function, A ~2 = A ~1 + r ~ ; we have if we add to A ~2 = r ~ A ~2 = r ~ A ~1 + r ~ =r ~ A ~1 = B ~1 B ~ A ~ = 0: For suppose this is not true. With this exibility, we may choose r Then ~ A ~1 + r ~ =r ~ A ~ 1 + r2 = 0 r So we have an equation for the function ~ A ~1 r2 = r ~ 2 whose divergence is zero. Once we Once we solve this we will have a vector A ~ A ~ = 0 from the start. This is know that we can do this, we may just set r ~ is called the Coulomb gauge condition. With this choice, the equation for A ~ = 0~ r2 A j (1)

We may look at this equation one component at a time (provided that we use Cartesian components.) Thus, for the x component r2 Ax = 0 j x This equation has the same form as the equation for V r2 V = "0

and thus the solution will also have the same form: Z jx (~ r0 ) 0 Ax (~ r) = 0 d 4 R 1

and since we have an identical relation for each component, then ~ = 0 A 4 Z ~ 0 j (~ r) 0 d R (2)

Now remember that ~ j d corresponds to Id~ `; so if the current is con ned in wires, the result is Z 0 Id~ `0 ~ A= (3) 4 R

At this point we may stop and consider if there is any rule for magnetic eld analagous to our RULE 1 for electric elds. Since there is no magetic charge, there is no "point charge" eld. But we can use our expansion X (r0 )l 1 = P cos 0 l +1 l R r l= 0 where ~ r is on the polar axis. Then Z 0 X I l ~ (~ A r = rz ^) = 0 (r 0) Pl cos 0 d~ ` l +1 4 r
1

The l = 0 term is

Z ~ 0 = 0 I A d~ `0 4 r R 0 Since the current ows in closed loops, d~ ` = 0 : (This result is actually more ~ ~ general, because in a static situation r j = 0 ; and the lines of ~ j also form closed loops.) This is the result we expected. The next term is Z Z 0 I 0 I 0 0 ~0 ~ A1 = r cos d` = (~ r0 z ^) d~ `0 4 r2 4r 2 We can use Stokes theorem to evaluate this integral. Z Z ~ ~ ~ u d~ l= r u ^ n dA

Let ~ u =~ c where ~ c is a constant vector and is a scalar function. Then Z Z ~ ~ ~ c d~ l = r c n ^ dA Z h i ~ ~ = r c n ^ dA

We may re-arrange the triple scalar product Z Z ~ n ~ c d~ l = ~ c r ^ dA 2

This is true for an arbitrary constant vector ~ c; so, with = (~ r0 z ^) Z Z h i ~ 0 (~ (~ r0 z ^) d~ l0 = r r0 z ^) n ^ 0 dA0 Z h 0 i ~ ~ ~0 ~ = z r ^ r0 + z ^ r r0 ^ n0dA0 Z = (0 + z ^n ^ 0 ) dA0 Z Z 0 0 = ^ z n ^ dA = n0dA0 z ^ ^ Note that z ^ can come out of the integral because it is a constant. So Z 0 I 0 0 ~ A1 = n ^ 0 dA0 z ^= m ~ z ^= m ~ r ^ 2 2 4 r 4 r 4 r2 where m ~ =I Z n ^ 0 dA0

is the magnetic moment of the loop. The corresponding magnetic eld is h i ~1 = r ~ 0 m B ~ r ^ 2 4 r 0 3 1 ~ = 4^ r (m ~ ~ r) + 3 r (m ~ ~ r) 4 r r 0 3 1 ~ ~ ~ ~ = 3 [m ~ ^ r (m ~ ^ r)] + 3 m ~ r r+m ~ r r 4 r r 0 = ( 3 m ~ + 3~ r (m ~ r ^) m ~ + 3m ~) 4r 3 0 = [3~ r (m ~ ^ r) m ~] 4r 3 This is a dipole eld. Thus the magnetic equivalent of RULE 1 is : At a great distance from a current distribution, the magnetic eld is a dipole eld Here is another useful result: I Z Z ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ^ A d` = rA n ^ da = B n da = B
C S S

(4)

~ around a curve C equals the magnetic ux through Thus the circulation of A any surface S spanning the curve. ~ Boundary conditions for B We start with the Maxwell equations. Remember, if the equation has a divergence we integrate over a small volume (pillbox) that crosses the boundary. 3

But if the equation has a curl, we integrate over a rectangular surface that lies perpendicular to the surface. ~ B ~ =0 So we start with r Z I ~ ~ ~ dA ~ r Bd = 0 = B
S

But because we chose h d; the integral over the sides is negligible, and on ~ 2 = ^ the bottom side dA ndA; so we have ~1 B ~2 n B ^=0 (5) ~ is continuous. The normal component of B For the curl equation, we use the rectangle shown:

Then

Z
S

~ B ~ dA ~ = r I ~ d~ B ` =
C

~ 0~ j dA Z ^ dh w 0 ~ jN
S

~1 B ~ 2 ^ B t w ~1 B ~ 2 n ^ B ^N

= = 4

0 0

^ w ~ jdh N

~ N ^ 0 K

Rearrange the triple scalar product on the left to get h i ~1 B ~2 n ^ = 0 K ~ N ^ B ^ N ^ is any vector in the surface, we Since we may orient the rectangle so that N have ~1 B ~ 2 = 0 K ~ n ^ B (6) ~ has a discontinuity that depends on the Thus the tangential component of B ~ surface current density K: Crossing both sides with n ^ ; we get an alternate version: h i ~1 B ~2 n ~ ^ n ^ B ^ = 0 K n h i ~1 B ~2 ^ ~1 B ~2 ~ ^ B n n ^ B = 0 K n But now we may make use of (5) to obtain ~1 B ~2 = K ~ ^ B n 0 (7)

What about the vector potential? Remember that for the scalar potential V we were able to show that V is continuous across the surface (in most ~ we rst choose a gauge condition. The Coulomb gauge cases). When we nd A condition is ~ A ~=0 r and then we can use our usual pillbox trick to show that ~ n A ^ is continuous (8)

For the tangential component, we make use of equation (4). Then, using the rectangle, I ~ d~ ~ N ^ wh A ` = B = B ~1 A ~ 2 ^ A t w
C

~ N ^ wh ! 0 as h ! 0 B (9)

Thus we have

~^ A t is continuous

These two result taken together show that the vector potential as a whole is also continuous across the boundary. ~ into equation (6): Finally letzs put A ~ A ~1 A ~ 2 = 0 K ~ n r ^ 5

~ have a discontinuity. But which ones? Let zs expand So the derivatives of A ~ =n ~ A ~ = ni r ~ Ai n ~ A ~ n ^B ^ r ^r Then ~1 B ~ 2 = ni r ~ (Ai;1 Ai;2 ) n ~ ~1 A ~ 2 = 0 K ~ n ^ B ^r A (10)

~ is continuous at the surface. So But we have shown that each component of A the components of ~ (Ai;1 Ai;2 ) r

parallel to the surface must be zero. Thus only the normal derivatives remain. Then the normal component of equation (10) is identically zero, and the only non-zero components of the boundary condition are the tangential components ~ ~1 A ~2 ~ n ^r A = 0 K (11)
tan

~ satises Laplacezs equation with Now this is neat. Each component of A Neumann boundary conditions, and so it must have a unique solution, as we already proved for V: Magnetic scalar potential ~ B ~ = 0 and we may use a When we have the special case of ~ j 0; r magnetic scalar potenial ma g . This can be useful if the current is con ned to lines or sheets, because we can create a nice boundary-value problem for m ag : ~ = r ~ m ag B

Let zs use these boundary conditions to nd the potential due to a spinning spherical shell of charge. The current is con ned to the surface and has the value ~ = ~ ^ K v = ~ !~ r = !a sin where in the last expression put the z axis along the rotation axis. We will take to be a constant. The equation for m ag in the region entirely inside (or entirely outside) the sphere is (1 with ~ j = 0) r2 ma g = 0 and because we have azimuthal symmetry, the solution is of the form in ou t = =
1 X l=1

~ m ag is continuous Bn o rma l continuous ) ^ n r ~1 B ~2 = K ~ )n ~ (m ag 1 m ag 2 ) = K ~ n ^ B ^r 0 0

~ B ~ = 0 ) r2 m ag = 0 r

(12) (13) (14)

C l rl P l (cos )

1 X Dl P l (cos ) rl+ 1 l=1

We have omitted the l = 0 term because it contributes zero eld inside, and we know there can be no monopole term outside. What else do we know? At the boundary, from (13) @ m ag ,ou t @ m ag ,in = 0 @r @r
r =a r= a 1 X l =1

lCl al1 P l (cos ) = Cl =

1 X l=1

(l + 1)

Dl P l (cos ) al +2 l>0

Dl l + 1 a2l +1 l

(15)

and from (14). @ m ag, ou t @ m ag,in @ @ r =a 1 @ m ag, ou t @ m ag,in a sin @ @ r =a 1 a r=a


r =a

= 0 a! sin = 0

The last equation is automatically satis ed. Thus the nal condition we need to satisfy is
1 1 X X Dl @ @ P (cos ) C l al1 P l (cos ) = 0 a! sin l al+ 2 @ @ l =1 l=1 @ Now since P 1 (cos ) = cos and @ cos = sin ; the rst term in the sum is D1 C1 sin a3

so we may satisfy the boundary conditons by taking D1 C 1 = 0 a! a3 and all the other C l ; Dl = 0: Then equation (15) gives D1 D1 2 a4 ! + 3 = 0 a! ) D1 = 0 3 a a 1 3 and then C1 = 2 So m ag = giving a eld ~ = B ( 0 a! 3 inside outside )

2 a!r cos 3 0 1 2 a2 3 0 a ! r 2 cos


2

a 0 a! 3 r3

a! z ^ 3 0 2 cos r ^ + sin ^ 7

inside outside

Thus the eld inside is uniform and the eld outside is a pure dipole eld. The dipole moment is 4 4 m= a ! 3 The dimensions of m are charge (length) charge 2 = (length ) = current area area time time which is correct. You should verify that you get the same m by summing current loops. Compare this solution with Grithsz example 5.11. Which method do you think is easier?
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