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B Providing the best features in the marketplace at the lowest possible cost. C Reducing the number of defects in a production system to optimize profits. D Eliminating all defects in the production system.
2 B Lean requires greater mathematical sophistication compared to Six Sigma.
A True B False C D
3 D Six Sigma is about Quality, while Lean is about:
A Utilizing belts B Improving processes using statistical techniques C Thorough analysis of complex problems D Increasing speed and reducing complexity
4 D Continuous Improvement using Six Sigma methodologies requires the use of the _______________ process.
A continuous incremental improvement B Standardization of existing processes C Use of control charts D Increasing the capability index of a process
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6 A While the Traditional View of quality states that "Errors are inevitable", the Six Sigma view of quality states that "Errors can be _______________".
A All manufacturing employees are certified at least at a Six Sigma green belt equivalency. B They have a culture of practicing the scientific method at all levels of the workforce. C Production lines are constructed to remain flexible and responsive. D Processes remain flexible to allow variation in the ways suppliers and customers connect.
9 C Who is credited with inventing lean?
A Henrry Ford (Ford Motor Co.) B Jack Welch (GE) C Taiichi Ohno and Shigeo Shingo (Toyota) D Paul and Joseph Galvin (Motorola)
10 C The Analyze phase of the DMAIC process has the characteristic of:
A identifying the problem statement and creating a project charter B identifying the voice of the customer C quantifying relationships between the x's and y's D collecting data and checking if the current process is capable of meeting customer specifications
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11 B In addition to keeping the workplace clean in a lean organization, _______________ refers to keeping only the necessary items in a work area, that there is a place for everything, and that everything is in a constant state of readiness.
A Meeting customer requirements B Continuous improvement C Consistency/reliability D Adding features to a product or service
14 B Six Sigma uses DMAIC; Lean uses DMADV.
A True B False C D
15 D A ________________ is a notification system for communicating the need for additional parts to an internal or external supplier.
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16 A The 5 "S"s that are part of the Lean toolkit are:
A "Sort", "Straighten", "Shine", "Standardize", and "Sustain" B "Sort", "Straighten", "Shine", "Standardize", and "Sell" C "Sort", "Straighten", "Shine", "Standardize", and "Soften" D "Sort", "Straighten", "Shine", "Standardize", and "Simulate"
18 C
______________ brings action and intuition to the table, quickly attacking low hanging fruit with kaizen (continual improvement) events. ______________ uses statistical tools to uncover root causes and provide metrics as mile markers.
A Six Sigma, Lean B Lean, Kaizen C Lean, Six Sigma D Six Sigma, Six Sigma
19 B What is the key concept of the Six Sigma core philosophy?
A Six Sigma is a business improvement approach that seeks to perform the "5S"s B Six Sigma is a business improvement approach that seeks to find and eliminate causes of defects and errors C Six Sigma is a cost cutting approach that seeks to identify and eliminate unnecessary workers D Six Sigma is a revenue generating approach that seeks to find ways to produce in greater quantity
20 A From where did the term six sigma originate?
A It is based on a statistical measure that equates to 3.4 or fewer defects per million opportunities B IIt is based on a statistical measure that equates to 5% or fewer defects per million opportunities C It is based on a statistical measure that equates to 1% or fewer defects per million opportunities D It is based on a statistical measure that equates 0.26% or fewer defects per million opportunities
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21 C How the rules of the Toyota Production System (TPS) are transmitted can best be described as follows:
A Supervisors state the explicit rules repeatedly until the workers have them memorized. B Workers are required to read the TPS Manual and memorize the rules before the start of a new process. C Workers discover the rules as a consequence of solving problems facilitated by supervisors using the Socratic
method.
D Workers learn the system by visiting one of the training facilities in Japan.
22 C The Senior Manager responsible for the overall success of a Six Sigma project is the ________________________.
A Microsoft pioneered the concept of Six Sigma as an approach to measuring product and service quality. B Toyota pioneered the concept of Six Sigma as an approach to lean production C Ford pioneered the concept of Six Sigma as an approach to reaching their slogan of "Quality is job 1". D Motorola pioneered the concept of Six Sigma as an approach to measuring product and service quality.
24 A Lean addresses visible problems in processes, while Six Sigma is more concerned with less visible ones like variation in performance
A True B False C D
25 D When comparing TQM and Six Sigma,
A Only Six Sigma has a structured Tollgate process for moving from one phase to another B Only Six Sigma uses the DMAIC process to guide improvement projects C Only Six Sigma uses fulltime Black Belts to facilitate the process D All of the above
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26 C Which of the following is true of the role of a Black Belt in Lean Six Sigma?
A He/she is the senior manager that is responsible overall, including providing resources, aligning with mission B He/she works part time on LSS in his/her own work area C He/she is a full time LSS employee, responsible for coaching, tracking progress and mentoring D He/she is a subject matter expert
27 C In the Lean philosophy, overproduction, inventory, rework and motion away from the work area are examples of
A Defect reduction to 3.4 per million B Statistical Methods C Speed D All of the above
29 B TQM lacked the ________________ aspect of continuous improvement, leading to regression back to original problem states.
A Youre right. Most LSS projects fail. B Lean alone is better. C What would you rather do instead? D Six Sigma alone is better.
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31 B How is the application of Six Sigma to service industries different from manufacturing?
A There is no difference B The service processes are often invisible, complex, and not well defined or well documented. C Work in service businesses requires less human intervention D The culture of a service organization is usually more scientific.
32 A What are the four key measures of performance that must be examined when applying Six Sigma to services?
A Accuracy, Cycle Time, Cost, Customer Satisfaction B ROA, ROE, ROI, and Risk C Revenue, Cost, Quality, and Cycle Time D Accuracy, Revenue, Cost, and Customer Satisfaction
33 B Which of the following is NOT among the fourteen points suggested by Deming for Quality Management?
A Remove barriers that prevent pride of workmanship B Use exhortations and awards to motivate employees C Institute modern methods of training D Eliminate numerical quotas
34 A 3.4 Defects per million opportunities for 6-sigma quality assumes a 1.5 sigma shift.
A True B False C D
35 D Why should a business use Lean Six Sigma?
A eliminate defects B optimize process flow C utilize advanced statistical processes to achieve full potential D all of the above
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36 A TQM is based largely on worker empowerment and teams; Six Sigma is owned by business leader champions.
A True B False C D
37 A Fujio Cho, President of Toyota Motor Company, said that "... no mere process can turn a poor performer into a star. Rather, you have to address ____"
A employees' fundamental way of thinking B the training of employees in Six Sigma C political issues that get in the way D appropriate compensation for the best workers
38 A The Lean Six Sigma methodology helps an organization to_________________.
A develop their next generation of leaders. B keep their functions and locations working with separate vocabularies. C do things slower than their competition. D measure their processes only in a qualitative manner.
39 B Lean Six Sigma can only be applied to manufacturing companies.
A True B False C D
40 C Lean Six Sigma projects goals should be set based on the _____________ voice.
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41 D The combination of Lean and Six Sigma provides the tools to create _________________ business improvement.
A re-emergence of the TQM movement B emphasis on the impact of quality improvement on the bottom line results C emphasis on reengineering as opposed to continuous improvement D focus on making American companies as quality conscious as the Japanese
44 A TQM is focused on improvement with little financial accountability; Six Sigma requires a verifiable return on investment and focus on the bottom line.
A True B False C D
45 B TQM activities are truly crossfunctional; Six Sigma projects focus on a single functional area.
A True B False C D
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46 D If there are 50 defects out of 1000 opportunities, what is the value of dpmo?
A A typcial way that customers express their requirements B [Opportunities for Error] / 1,000,000 * [Defects per unit] C [Defects per unit] / 1,000,000 * [Opportunities for Error] D A measure of Six Sigma quality
48 C What is a defect?
A A part that is rejected because it does not meet customer standards B A product that is more than one standard deviation away from the process mean C Any mistake or error that is passed on to the customer D Anything that occurs once in a million opportunities
49 D During which phases of the Six Sigma process can you adjust the scope of the project?
A True B False C D
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51 A A metric is a verifiable measurement of some particular characteristic, stated either numerically (e.g., percentage of defects) or in qualitative terms (e.g., level of satisfaction poor or excellent).
A True B False C D
52 D Why are metrics vital to Six Sigma applications?
A because the metric system is now used worldwide for scientific applications B because it is a requirement of the Lean philosophy C because they guarantee an optimal solution to business problems D because they facilitate fact-based decisions.
53 A What is the DMAIC Process?
A define, measure, analyze, improve, control B decide, manage, authorize, instigate, critique C D
54 D discuss, moderate, advise, invest, counsel data study, mediate, assign, inform, centralize
A Identify customers and their priorities B Identify a project suitable for Six Sigma efforts C Identify CTQs D All of the above
55 B The goal of the Improve phase is to identify means to remove the causes of defects
A True B False C D
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56 B How does a process focus differ from a traditional organizations focus?
A The process focus emphasizes silos B The process focus adopts a cross-functional view C The process focus creates several layers of hierarchy D The process focus takes the "vertical" organization chart view of things
57 C The goal of the measure phase is to
A Identify CTQs that the customer considers to have the most impact on quality. B Understand why defects are generated by identifying the key variables C Identify the Xs in a process and collect data on them D Modify the process to stay within the acceptable range
58 D What is a process?
A any random sequence of activities B a set of rules that must be followed in order to communicate ideas C activities that reduce cost D a sequence of activities that is intended to achieve some result.
59 B The goal of the analyze phase is to
A Draw charts and graphs B Determine the most likely causes of defects C Identify means to remove the causes of the defects D Use the most advanced statistical methods possible
60 A The goal of the control phase is to determine how to maintain the improvements put in place
A True B False C D
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61 A __________ means doing the right things to create the most value for the company.
A historical picture of typical financial reporting measurements B how quickly your customer wants to receive your product or service C national economic indicators D employee healthcare programs
64 A Adding DSS to the Lean Six Sigma enables _______________ updating of decisions.
A True B False C D
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66 C What are the key determinants of profitability that underline Six Sigma?
A The Best Quality possible at any cost B The highest productivity at minimally acceptable quality standards C Productivity, Cost, and Quality that satisfies customers D The smallest workforce possible
67 A Value-creation processes (sometimes called core processes), are those which are most important to running the business and maintaining or achieving a sustainable competitive advantage.
A True B False C D
68 D Explain the role of quality in improving a firms profitability
A Differentiation from competitors, permitting higher prices, increasing revenue B Improves firm's reputation and perceived value of product, thus increasing sales and revenue C Saves on rework, scrap, warranty expenses, thus reducing costs D All of the above
69 A In total quality, individuals inside an enterprise can be viewed as suppliers who work for internal or external customers.
A True B False C D
70 A The ability to identify and transfer best practices within the organization is known as Internal Benchmarking.
A True B False C D
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71 B Distinguish betweeen descriptive and inferential statistics
A Descriptive statistics is graphical, inferential is not B Descriptive statistics summarize existing conditions, inferential helps make decisions about a population based on a
sample
C Descriptive statistics summarize existing conditions, inferential helps forecast the future D Descriptive statistics summarize existing conditions, inferential describes imaginary ones
72 A A population is a complete set or collection of objects of interest. A sample is a subset of objects taken from a population.
A True B False C D
73 A Statistics is the science concerned with the collection, organization, analysis, interpretation, and presentation of data.
A True B False C D
74 A Which of the following is true regarding the Balanced Scorecard
A It is a measurement system that looks at the organization from different perspectives. B It is a measurement system that emphaizes a balance between increasing revenue and reducing costs. C It is a statistical tool to improve the quality of a process. D Is a qualitative tool that assumes that measurement is overrated, and intuitive decisions are the best.
75 A 3.4 defects per million opportunities, which we normally define as 6 sigma, really corresponds to a sigma value of 4.5, to account for a 'drift' of 1.5 sigma.
A T B F C D
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Define
76 B When using the Normal Probability Plot to check for normality in a data set, what should the analyst look for?
A data points that fall within the two outer blue lines on the Minitab chart and p-values that are relatively low B data points that fall witih the two outer blue lines on the Minitab chart and p-values that are relatively high C data points that follow a symmetrical bell-shape - ignore p values D data points clustered at one end of the plot - ignore p values
77 B Six Sigma is about analysis, and corporate culture is an irrelevant issue where Six Sigma is concerned.
A True B False C D
78 A Data are collected on several variables at one point in time. This is an example of
A communicate visually what would otherwise be difficult to do B show data in at least 3 colors and no more than 5 C display data in a 3-dimensional image D impress a client with the capability of the software package
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81 B Assuming normal distribution, Mean = 80 and Std deviation = 10, approximately ______________% of the data will fall between 60 and 100.
A There are too many observations B There are outliers in the data C The data are normally distributed D The population standard deviation is known
83 C The interquartile range is equal to
A The distance between two consecutive quartiles B The distance between the largest and the smallest number in the sample C The distance between quartile 1 and quartile 3 D A quarter of the distance between the largest and the smallest number
84 A The standard deviation is
A a standardized measure of the deviation from the mean B The square of the variance; it is measured in squared units C It is identical to the interquartile range D It is equal to 68% of the range
85 D Consider the following 13 observations: 5, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 14, 15, 15, 16, 17, 20, 23; The median value is equal to:
A 10 B 17 C 15 D 14
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86 B If the mean of a normal distribution is 30 and the standard deviation is 5, then 95% of the observations lie between 25 and 35.
A True B False C D
87 C If you needed to analyze the number of phone calls a crisis hotline center received throughout a 24 hour period in order to determine staffing needs, which of the following would you use to graphically represent your findings?
A 5 B 23 C 18 D 15
90 B On a given box plot, what does the box itself represent?
A the box represents one standard deviation from the mean B the box represents the interquartile range C the box represents half of the interquartile range D the box represents all observations that are not outliers
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91 B Which of the following measures is often misleading because of skewness?
A 6 B 6.5 C 7 D 7.5
93 B If the left tail of a distribution is more pronounced than the right, the function is said to have positive Skewness.
A True B False C D
94 C ______________ analysis means looking at data one variable at a time.
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96 C What is the difference between a Pareto Chart and a Histogram?
A There is no difference B A histogram is used for nominal data, Pareto chart for continuous data C Pareto charts are used for finding the most significant items, histograms to look at a distribution D Histograms group the data in a sequence from largest frequency to the smallest, Pareto charts go from smallest to
largest 97 A Skewness is the degree of asymmetry of a distribution
A True B False C D
98 A A scatter plot helps visualize relationships between variables
A True B False C D
99 A If there are outliers on the high side in a set of data, then the mean will be greater than the median.
A True B False C D
100 D Which of the following characterize(s) a good graphic?
A having something to say B multidimensional data (or at least enough data in one dimension) C putting data in context D All of the above.
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101 A A distribution with a higher Kurtosis measure is more peaked.
A True B False C D
102 D In samples where there is a regular (timed) pattern in the data outside the normal trend, we must adjust for _______________________.
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106 D The ___________ penalizes larger errors more heavily than smaller errors, and is similar to variance.
A the means show no trend B any curvature in the plot of the means must be predictable within a specified range C standard deviation is used in forecasting process averages D both a and b
108 C A seasonal index of 1.2 means that
A The observations for that season are 1.2 times the value for the previous season B The observations for that season grew at a rate of 20% each year C The observations for that season are 20% above the expectation based on the underlying trend D The observations for that season are 120% of the season with the lowest index
109 B Time series forecasting helps determine the root causes of the variation in Y
A True B False C D
110 B If the seasonal indices for quarters 1, 2, and 3 are 1.20, 1.05, and 1.00 respectively, what can you say about the seasonal index for quarter 4?
A It will be greater than 1 B It will be less than 1 C It will be equal to 1 D There is insufficient data to conclude anything
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111 A Which of the following statement is true regarding Bias and MAD from a time series forecast?
A MAD is always greater than or equal to the BIAS B BIAS tells you the magnitude of error, while MAD tells you the direction C MAD can sometimes be negative D MAD can never be greater than the Bias
112 C For a certain set of time series data, forecasts were done using a moving average. The Bias is - 4.00. If every single error term is negative, which of the following can you say with certainty?
A The MAD value will be greater than +4.00 B The MAD value will be less than -4.00 C The MAD value will be exactly + 4.00 D The MAD value will be between -4.00 and +4.00
113 C Sales for the past 4 quarters are (in $ million): 5, 8, 7, 12. A 3-period moving average forecast for period 5 sales is:
A 8 B 12 C 9 D 10.66
114 C Six Sigma quality is reflected by a process capability index that is
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116 A A product specification is 24.00 + or - 0.03. The process mean is 24.0014, with a standard deviation of 0.00967. What is the Cpk value? [you should be able to answer such questions with numbers changed]
A Defining the beginning and end of a process B The process of aligning the project to the company's mission C The process of deciding on the team members for the project D The process of expanding the scope of a project based on new information
119 B Financial return should not be a factor in choosing a Six Sigma project. The focus should only be on quality.
A True B False C D
120 B Probability of success is not an issue one should consider when choosing a Six Sigma project
A True B False C D
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122 A
What is a team?
A A small number of people with complementary skills, committed to a common purpose B A minimum of 10 people from a department C A large number (typically more than 25) of individuals from across the organization D A legal entity that has its own rights and previleges within an organization
123 C The ______________ establishes the preliminary objectives of a Six Sigma project.
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126 A The project chosen should have a fit with the strategy of the firm
A True B False C D
127 A The purpose of a Gantt Chart is to:
A Track the scheduling of the project phases B Create a communication channel with suppliers and customers. C Track the roles and responsibilitites of the team members D Map a process from beginning to end
128 D What are the steps in the Project Planning process?
A project initiation, deployment, control B creation of plan, execution C definition, execution, tracking D project definition, resource planning, scheduling, tracking/control
129 C During the Define phase of a six sigma project, the following problem statement was formed. "During the last 12 months, the time to process customer x's invoices has been too long." This problem statement:
A is inappropriate as a Six Sigma project B is easy to tie to a goal statement C lacks specificity D contains all the elements of the SMART checklist
130 C _____________ is a technique for including customer input in the design process of a product or service.
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131 A In addition to external customers, every employee also has an _____________ who receives goods or services within the company. For example, manufacturing is a _______________ of purchasing, and a nursing unit is a ____________ of a hospital laundry.
A Internal customer, customer, customer B Internal supplier, supplier, supplier C External supplier, supplier, supplier D External supplier, customer customer
132 A Inputs and outputs of a process are identified in the following stage of a Six Sigma process:
A CTQs come from detailed engineering analysis, hence are more important than any other design issues B CTQs determine the cost of the project, and minimizing cost is the most important goal C Incorporating the Voice of the Customer in the design stage is the best way to satisfy a customer D The Voice of the Employees determines what goes into the design, and treating employees well is important
134 B The House of Quality helps to:
A provide a single quality metric for the organization B prioritize areas for improvement C implement the results of a Six Sigma project D clarify the costs associated with quality
135 A According to Kano Analysis, "Dissatisfiers" are
A aspects of the product that are taken for granted; if absent, they cause dissatisfaction B features of the product that help you stand out from the competition C negative aspects of a product; when removed, they delight your customers D the presence of features on a product that the customer did not ask for
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136 A SIPOC is a high-level process map that defines the boundaries of a Six Sigma project
A True B False C D
137 C The PIMS model of Customer Satisfaction looks for customer feedback on the following dimensions
A Quality and Performance B Performance and Cost C Performance and Importance D Cost and Quality
138 C Kano analysis is a way to prioritize customer requirements based on their impact on:
A show the relationship between dependent and independent variables B organize data into logical categories C show which data is most important for the project D map a process from beginning to end
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141 C A SIPOC diagram is used to
A standardize the inputs and outputs of a process. B create a communication channel with suppliers and customers. C identify the relevant elements of a process improvement project. D visualize quantitative data regarding inputs and outputs of a process.
142 C What are CTQs?
A They are key characteristics of products or processes that cannot be measured. B They are the Cost to Quality ratios of competing alternatives for improvement of a process in order to satisfy the
customer.
C They are key measurable characteristics whose specifications must be met to satisfy the customer. D They are characteristics of a product or service that are least important to the customer, and should be ignored.
143 A ______________ is a graphic tool for defining the relationship between customer desires and the firm/product capabilities in meeting them.
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149 C Focusing on one single measurement of a process is likely to promote
A good decisions B value-added behavior C dysfunctional behavior D the benefits of Lean Six Sigma
150 D Distinguish between a process map and a value stream map
A A value stream map highlights only non-value added activities, a process map highlights the value added ones B A value stream map highlights all activities, a process map shows the times that activities take. C A process map highlights all activities, and the times that activities take, a value stream map does not D A value stream map highlights all activities, and the times that activities take, a process map does not
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151 D Which of the four types of Costs of Quality will have the greatest negative impact?
A It measures only prevention costs, ignoring all others B It measures the cost of external failure, but ignores internal failure costs C It only measures a company's costs, not the customer's. D It measures costs in Yen instead of Dollars.
154 A Dissatisfiers are qualities expected in a product. Their absence causes dissatisfaction.
A True B False C D
155 C Service Family Analysis may be conducted to determine if:
A Different families of customers should receive different service B The family of services offered will meet customer specifications C Processes are similar enough to be flowcharted and analyzed together D Which process control charts are appropriate for a given project
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156 D The goal(s) of getting the Voice of the Process is (are):
A Eliminate blame/fear B See if process is predictable C Identify causes of problems D All of the Above
157 B __________________________is a visual tool that helps identify, demonstrate, and hence help decrease the waste in a process.
A A Frequency Histogram B Value Stream Mapping C House of Quality Mapping D Designing for Six Sigma
158 A According to Prof. Kano's definitions, a radio in an automobile should be classified as:
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161 A At a fast food restaurant, food is safe to eat. This characteristic would be classified by Prof. Kano as:
A Prevention Cost B Appraisal Cost C Activity Based Cost D External Failure Cost
163 D Which of the following is true about Employee Suggestion Systems used to get the Voice of the Employee?
A They are useless in practice, and should never be used. B They should be used to make employees feel better, even if you have no intention of implementing their suggestions. C They will succeed only if the CEO reads and ensures that every suggestion is implemented without fail. D They can work in a culture open to suggestions and where employees are told if a suggestion cannot be implemented.
164 D Which of the following is (are) true about a Black Belt in Six Sigma?
A They are fully trained experts who perform much of the technical analyses in Six Sigma B They help mentor the green belts C They have advanced knowledge of the tools and DMAIC methods, and can apply them D All of the above
165 A A Green Belt in Six Sigma is typically a functional employee trained in introductory methods and works on proojects on a part-time basis.
A True B False C D
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166 A The stages that teams typically go through in their life cycle are called Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing.
A True B False C D
167 C Input variables in a decision support system or model can be described as
A environmental only B exogenous and endogenous C environmental and decision D decision only
168 B Which is not true about historical data (information from the past)?
A For short-term decision-making, historical data is frequently all we need. B Without historical data we cannot create a model. C Historical data are experiences that are quantified. D There is no uncertainty about the past.
169 B Which statement is true about the modeling process for LSSG
A Outputs are defined in the Measure stage of the DMAIC process B An influence diagram construction process may reveal additional inputs not previously considered. C External inputs are identified in the Measure stage, and decision inputs are identified in the Define stage. D The Control step is a nice-to-have but not always necessary in the LSSG version of the DMAIC process.
170 C Which is the best example of a problem statement?
A Shipping costs contribute 20% to the cost of the product. B The number one customer complaint is product not meeting customer criteria, resulting in large volume of re-work each
year.
C Transaction errors cause $400,000 in wasted cost each year. D Budget variance is $1,450,553 annually. A significant contributor to this is raw material variability.
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171 B A characteristic whose value depends on the values of independent variables is a:
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176 D Give an example of a discrete variable and a continuous random variable, in that order.
A Age in years, Temperature categorized as above or below 100 degrees. B Number of defects, Number of parts produced C Weight of a part, Number fo defects D True/False, Pressure
177 B What is the difference between a discrete and a continuous measure?
A Discrete measures are done in secret; Continuous ones are open for all to see B Discrete measures are countable; Continuous ones have infinite possible values C Discrete measures are for samples; Continuous ones are for populations D There is no difference - these are synonymous terms
178 C You measure age as Under 30 or Over 30. What type of data scale is that?
A nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio B nominal, interval, ordinal, ratio C ratio, nominal, ordinal, interval D ratio, ordinal, interval, nominal
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Measure
181 C A Gage R & R value of under 10% of the process variation indicates that:
A The gage needs repair B The gage may or may not be working well, depending on several factors C The gage does not require recalibration D The operators need training
182 A Acceptance sampling differs from Statistical Process Control (SPC) in that:
A Acceptance Sampling is used to inspect a batch after a process; SPC checks if the process is in control during the
process.
B Acceptance Sampling is used to inspect a batch during a process; SPC checks if the process is in control after
completion.
C Acceptance Sampling is used to measure process capability; SPC checks if the process is in control during the process. D Acceptance Sampling is used to inspect a batch before a process; SPC is used to inspect a batch after the process.
183 B The primary application of a control chart is to determine process capability.
A True B False C D
184 C A process that is governed only by common cause variation
A is out of control B should be stopped and investigated for assignable causes C is predictable within established statistical limits D is not stable
185 A Before calculating process capability, assignable (special cause) variation should be identified and removed if possible.
A True B False C D
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186 C The control chart used to analyze attribute data is:
A True B False C D
189 A A C chart is used for count data with a constant number of units inspected
A True B False C D
190 D A process is out of control when a control chart shows
A at least 3 points are outside of the control limits B Four consecutive points are on the same side of the center line C The points are all too close to the Mean (center line of the chart) D One or more points are outside the control limits.
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191 A Despite computational difficulty, the s chart is used in place of the R chart sometimes when
A A large sample size is available, and there is no need to use the range to estimate the standard deviation B The sample size is small, making the range meaningless C Observations are recorded indirectly D When there is a greater amount of measurement error suspected
192 C Automated inspection allows for every item produced to be inspected in some cases. The control chart appropriate in such cases is the
A True B False C D
195 A A process is said to be in control when variations in the process are due only to common causes
A True B False C D
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196 B If a process is in control, it is also capable
A True B False C D
197 B Which of the following is true regarding defects and defectives?
A A part with any defect is considered defective B A defective part is one that has one or more defects in it. C Both A and B are true. D Neither A nor B is true.
198 C Why are histograms alone inadequate to study process capability?
A Histograms are totally irrelevent to process capability B Histograms do not show the proportion that falls within the specification limits C Histograms do not show a time-sequenced progression of data D Histograms are limited to count data only
199 B Assume a process has a mean of 101.00 and a variance of 3.5. The customer specification is 102 plus or minus 3. What is the Cpk and can the process be brought into compliance by simply recentering?
A 0.356 and yes B 0.356 and no C 0.712 and yes D 0.712 and no
200 A ______________________________ shows if the process is able to meet the customers' specifications.
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201 D There are 3 processes, Process A with Std Dev = .40, Process B with Std Dev = .04 and Process C with Std Dev = .80. Which process has the best capability ?
A customer requirements, process variations B process variations, customer requirements C common cause variations, special cause variations D None of the above
203 B Rolled Throughput Yield is another way of measuring the ____________ of a process.
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206 C A correlation between Y and X of -0.92 means that
A There is no relationship between the variables B There is a direct linear relationship between variables C There is an inverse linear relationships between variables D All of the above
207 A A correlation of 1 indicates that two varibles are perfectly correlated with each other.
A True B False C D
208 C Correlation coefficients can range from
A 0 to 1 B 0 to 100 C -1 to +1 D -1 to 0
209 B If X and Y have a strong significant correlation, then we can conclude that X causes Y.
A True B False C D
210 A Correlation is measure of a linear relationship between two variables, while Regression analysis is a tool for building statistical models that characterize relationships between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables.
A True B False C D
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211 D Multi-collinearity exists when:
A the correlation between the independent and dependent variables is high B the correlation between the independent and dependent variables is low C the correlation between two or more independent variables is low D the correlation between two or more independent variables is high
212 A A regression with independent variables X1 and X2 yields a coefficient of 3.0 for X1. This can be interpreted as:
A Assuming X2 is constant, for a unit increase in X1, Y will increase on average by 3 units. B For a unit increase in X1, Y will increase on average by 3 units, regardless of changes in X2. C Assuming X2 is constant, for a unit increase in X1, Y will increase by exactly 3 units everytime. D Assuming X2 is constant, for a 3 unit increase in X1, Y will increase on average by 1 unit.
213 D A regression line is fitted on to a set of points on a scatterplot. The vertical distance between the line and a point is called the
A True B False C D
215 B A regression with several explanatory variables is called
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216 B Which of the following independent variable can be assumed to be a reliable predictor with at least 95% confidence?
A Variable with p-value of 0.059 B Variable with p-value of 0.001 C Variable with p-value of 0.540 D Variable with p-value of 0.070
217 A Scatterplots are one tool that can be used for identifying outliers before doing a regression.
A True B False C D
218 A The standard error of estimate in a regression is essentially the standard deviation of the residuals.
A True B False C D
219 A Regression analysis can be applied to both cross-sectional and time series data.
A True B False C D
220 C Which of the following is true of the regression line?
A It is line with the highest slope B It is the line with no slope C It is the line with the least squared errors D It is the line with the sum of squared errors equal to 0.
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221 A Comparing the Standard Errors of estimate is a good way to evaluate multiple regression models against each other
A True B False C D
222 D In Regression analysis, an R-squared value of 0.84 means that
A There is a 0.84 correlation between Y and one of the Xs B There is a relationship between Y and the Xs 84% of the time C We have 84% confidence that a relationship exists between Y and the Xs. D 84% of the variation in Y is explained by the Xs.
223 C When we add extra explanatory variables to an equation and if these variables have no conceptual relationship to the response variable, then the impact on R-squared is that:
A Adjusted R-square will increase B R-square will decrease C Adjusted R-square will decrease D R-square will remain constant
224 C Which of these statements about regression analysis is FALSE?
A It can be applied to a wide variety of fields B It can help with root cause analysis C It does not need quantitative data D It helps predict the values of a variable of interest
225 B What is multicollinearity?
A Lack of correlation among any of the variables. B Strong correlation among 2 or more independent variables. C Strong correlation between a Y and an X variable. D Strong correlation between a Y and an X, and a weak correlation between 2 Xs.
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226 C The amount (in inches) by which a steel cable elongates when a weight (in pounds) is hung on one end is given by Y (predicted) = 0.01 X, where X is the weight and Y is the elongation. The 0.01 can be interpreted as:
A The calbe elongates a total of 0.01 inches before it breaks. B The cable elongates 1 inch for every 0.01 pounds of weight applied, on average. C The cable elongates 0.01 inches per pound of weight applied, on average. D None of the above
227 A A simple regression equation is Y-hat = 5 + 2 X. When X = 3, Y-hat is
A 11 B 6 C 3 D 5
228 D The purpose of a fishbone diagram (Ishikawa diagram) is to:
A see the process flow B perform measurement systems analysis C discover the interactions between various causes of the effect one is studying D Identify and organize the possible causes of the issue one is studying
229 C ____________________________ is the language that gives clarity to vague concepts.
A Satisfaction construct is measured poorly B Incorrect quality dimensions included in survey C Comparison to leading competitors is lacking D All of the above
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231 D Which of the following is (are) meaningful basic questions to ask before collecting data?
A What questions are we trying to answer? B What type of data will we need to answer the questions? C Where can we find the data? D All of the above
232 A If an outlier is caused by a one-time error in measurement, it is permissible to eliminate that value from analysis, since it does not reflect the true nature of the data.
A True B False C D
233 A You wish to conduct a survey to estimate the proportion of customers that are satisfied with your product. You want a 95% confidence level, and a margin of error of + or - 0.02. What sample size do you need (assume p=0.5)? Assume Z = 1.96 for 95% confiden
A for scheduling work and allocating capacity B for creating a baseline for improvement C for determining requirements for outsourcing processes D All of the above
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238 D
A Observed time / (1 + Performance Rating) B Observed time / Performance Rating C Observed time (1 - Performance Rating) D Observed time (1 + Performance Rating)
239 D An acceptable measurement system should have a Gage R&R that is no more than what percentage of total variability?
A 5 B 15 C 25 D 30
240 D In Measurement Systems Analysis (MSA) the two major types of measurement error that can occur are
A repeatability and accuracy B reproducibility and accuracy C precision and reproducibility D precision and accuracy
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241 B Repeatability is the ability of a gage to
A consistently give the same measurement no matter how many different operators perform that measurement B consistently give the same measurement no matter how many times the same operator performs that measurement C consistently give the same measurement as that obtained from another gage by the same operator D consistently give the same measurement as that obtained from another gage by a different operator
242 C Which of the following is TRUE ?
A Precise but not accurate means low variation, but off-center B Accurate but not precise means high variation, but centered C Both A and B D None of the above
243 B An inaccurate measurement tool is:
A a clock not having any minute markings requiring approximate time readings B measurements that center around the correct value, but have a high degree of variation C an instrument that consistently has a very small variance from the mean value D a car's speedometer always showing the car going at 30 mph
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247 A A clock without any markings cause times to be noted approximately, creating greater variation. Such errors are called
Analyze
248 A Pareto found that:
A 20% of the causes are responsible for 80% of the results. B 80% of the causes are responsible for 20% of the results. C 60% of the causes are responsible for 20% of the results D 20% of the causes are responsible for 60% of the results.
249 B Pareto analysis helps with
A Project timelines B Prioritization of Inputs and Outputs C Calculation of Correlation Coefficient D Displaying interactions among variables
250 B If there are 480 minutes in a shift and the workers take two 30 minute breaks during this shift, then what is the takt time if the demand is 210 units/shift?
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251 B The pace of customer demand in a Lean process is the _________________.
A ANOVA is a methodology for drawing conclusions about equality of means of 2 or fewer samples B ANOVA is a methodology for drawing conclusions about equality of variances of multiple populations C ANOVA is a methodology for drawing conclusions about the equality of means of multiple populations D ANOVA is a methodology for forecasting the means of multiple populations for 3 or more time periods into the future
253 A In a test of normality, one typically wants to see a high p-value, as it indicates that there is no difference between the distribution at hand and the normal distribution.
A True B False C D
254 A A One Way ANOVA compares means of observed responses of several different levels of a single factor
A True B False C D
255 A If you pick a sample of 100 from a population whose mean is 60.0 and standard deviation is 7.0, then the sample mean is likely to be
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256 C Assume n=64, Sample Mean = 80, and Population Standard Deviation = 8. The 95% confidence interval for the population mean (assume Z=1.96) is:
A True B False C D
258 B From a sample of 200 items, 10 are found defective. The point estimate of the population proportion defective is:
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261 C If you pick a sample of 100 from a population whose mean is 60.0 and standard deviation is 7.0, then the sample standard deviation is likely to be
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266 D If you pick thousands of samples of size 100 from a population whose mean is 60.0 and standard deviation is 7.0, then the standard error of the sampling distribution will be
A 60 B 7 C 100 D 0.7
267 B Other things being equal, if you increase the confidence level, the margin of error in a confidence interval will
A True B False C D
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272 A To compute the p-value, it is unnecessary to know the level of significance, alpha.
A True B False C D
273 A A test for the difference between paired samples works essentially like the test for a single sample where the measurement is the difference between the samples.
A True B False C D
274 B Statistical inference uses ___________statistics to estimate parameters of the ________________________.
A No, CLT claims that the mean of sampling distribution is larger B Yes, CLT claims that the mean of the sampling distribution is smaller C No, CLT claims that the means of the sampling distribution and the population are equal D CLT does not address this issue at all
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276 A According to the Central Limit theorem, the larger the sample size, the more the sampling distribution of the mean approaches the normal distribution.
A True B False C D
277 A The standard deviation is a measure of variability within a population, whereas the standard error of the mean is a measure of the standard deviation of means within the sampling distribution
A True B False C D
278 C The following two statements can be evaluated as follows: 1. A type I error occurs when one rejects the null hypothesis when it is true. 2. A type II error occurs when one fails to reject the null hypothesis when the alternative hypothesis is true.
A The standard error of the mean is the term used for standard deviation of the population. B The standard deviation is the standard error of the mean divided by the square root of n. C The standard error of the mean is the standard deviation of the population multiplied by the square root of n. D The standard error of the mean is the standard deviation of the population divided by the square root of n.
280 B p-value is the probability that assumption of the test (the null hypothesis, which you wish to disprove) is _____________.
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282 A If one switches to a different way of doing things believing it to be better when in fact the current way is better, the error would be a
A Type I error B Type II error C Type III error D None of the above
283 C The alpha value in a hypothesis test is called the
A It is the probability of making a type I error. B It is the probability that the null hypotheses is actually correct, given the sample statistic obtained. C It is the likelihood that we might be mistaken in accepting the alternate hypothesis in favor of the null. D All of the above
285 A Choosing a low alpha value (like 0.01) makes it harder to reject the null hypothesis.
A True B False C D
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286 A The alpha value in a hypothesis test is chosen by the researcher, whereas the p-value is computed from the sample.
A True B False C D
287 A The null and alternate hypostheses are set up in such a way that
A Exactly one hypothesis must be true B Both hypotheses must be true C It is possible for both hypotheses to be true D It is possible for neither hypothesis to be true
288 B The null hypothesis usually represents the:
A preconceived ideas of the researcher B status quo C perceptions of the sample population D theory the researcher would like to prove
289 B Smaller p-values indicate more evidence in favor of the
A Null Hypothesis B Alternate Hypothesis C Either of the above D None of the above
290 A ANOVA assumes that the samples are independent, randomly selected from populations with equal variances, and normally distributed.
A True B False C D
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291 A If a hypothesis is significant at the 0.01 level, it is also significant at the 0.05 level.
A True B False C D
295 A
Monte-Carlo simulation can be used in Six Sigma to analyze and understand the effects of uncertainty on the performance of processes and product designs
A True B False C D
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296 A Monte-Carlo simulation is based on repeated sampling from probability distributions of model inputs to characterize the distributions of model outputs
A True B False C D
297 B The two types of inputs (or variables) that have an effect on outcomes are ________________ and ____________________.
A We may test the sensitivity of the output due to changes in environmental variables B We may determine potential outputs from a variety of scenarios (different combinations of environmental inputs) C We may simulate a range of environmental inputs and determine the range of outputs resulting from these inputs D We may optimize environmental inputs based on information from DSS optimization modeling.
300 C Determining how a change in one x (independent) variable affects one y (dependent) variable is usually addressed by using the following analytical technique:
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301 A Why is it recommended to conduct univariate analysis prior to conducting other tests on your data?
A univariate analysis provides insight into your data, and helps ensure that it is 'clean' B often the primary driver to the dependent variable can be determined with simple univariate tests C it is a requirement of the six sigma DMAIC process D without it, regression analysis cannot be performed
302 C The rate at which items are completed for some process stage defines the
A Are the steps in a logical sequence? B Do all steps add value? C Are there bottlenecks? D All of the Above
304 A The time for an item to pass through the entire transformation process in an operation is called
A True B False C D
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306 C Task 2 comes after Task 1 in a process, and sits idle while Task 1 is completed. Task 2 is said to be:
Improve
307 C What is the Deming Cycle?
A Plan, Do, Study, Summarize B Plan, Act, Control, Study C Plan, Do, Study, Act D Act, Plan, Study, Do
308 D Which of the following is (are) part of Kaizen philosophy?
A Improvement in all aspects of a business - cost, delivery schedules, supplier relations - not just product quality B Continuous improvement - small improvements over time, rather than drastic measures C Minimal financial investment, participation by everyone in the process D All of the Above
309 A In Kaizen philosophy, improvements should take place in all aspects of a business, not just product quality
A True B False C D
310 B The Kaizen philosophy relies on radical technological change to make improvements.
A True B False C D
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311 D Poka-yokes are designed to prevent errors of this type:
A Task errors - incorrect work, work in wrong sequence, slow work B Treatment errors - errors in contact with customer, such as lack of courtesy, inappropriate reactions C Tangible errors - unclean facilities, dirty uniforms, inappropriate temperature D All of the Above
312 B In Six Sigma terminology, the approach to mistake-proofing is called
A True B False C D
314 A Poka-yoke is about recognizing that an error can occur in a situation, and providing a warning, or detecting an error and stopping the process.
A True B False C D
315 D Service recovery is a very important activity because of all of these reasons, EXCEPT:
A It can turn a negative experience into a positive B It reduces stress in the workplace C It lowers the cost of remedies by planning appropriate responses D it enables workers to obtain timely and effective assistance from managers to resolve customer problems when they
occur
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316 D All of these tools are similar, EXCEPT
A 4 B 8 C 16 D 32
319 A Design of Experiments helps us to determine the levels of controllable factors to produce the best results.
A True B False C D
320 D In a regression, a significant interaction between variables X1 and X2 implies that
A X1 and X2 are correlated with each other B The effect of X1 on Y is twice that of X2 on Y C There is multicollinearity present, and neither X1 nor X2 is related to Y D The impact of X1 on Y is different for different levels of X2
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321 C What is a shortcoming of DOE?
A The experiments are generally expensive, requiring significant setup time B They have to be done off-line, not during production C Both A and B are true. D Neither A nor B is true.
324 B What is a 2**K factorial experiment?
A An experiment with 2 factors, each one measured K times B An experiment with K factors, each varied at 2 levels C An experiment with 2K factors, with any number of measurements D An experiment with K/2 factors, each at 2 levels
Control
325 A The 3 components of a control system are: setting of a standard, measurement of the actual results, and comparison of results to the standard.
A True B False C D
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326 D In order to make change in corporate philosophy meaningful to all, management must _________________________.
A Demand participation from all company staff. B Create a revised employee handbook and require all staff to sign off on changes. C Send an e-mail memo to all participating personnel. D Enroll employees and process owners.
327 D For an operator to truly be responsible for controlling a process, management must do the following:
A Tell all the operators that they are empowered from that day onwards. B Create the right hierarchy of supervisors to whom the operator can go to for help whenever there is any error. C Create a suggestion box that the operator can use to provide detailed feedback to management on the week's
activities.
D Give clear specifications, tools and training for measurement, and empower to correct errors when detected.
328 B A process is said to be in control when at least 68% of the parts meet customer specifications
A True B False C D
329 A An advantage of using statistical process control is
A To immediately identify a defective process B Identification by QC personnel to reject or rework a batch C Defects are identified by the customer D All of the above
330 C Statistical Process Control is a methodology to assist operators / managers to
A monitor the output from a process to identify and eliminate workers not doing their job correctly B monitor the output from a process to identify and eliminate common causes of variation C monitor the output from a process to identify and eliminate special causes of variation D None of the above
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Summary
331 C Process Re-engineering using Six Sigma methodologies requires the use of the _______________ process.
A approach, deployment, results B audits, process control, rework C TQ, TQC, ASQC membership D inspection, analysis, action
333 A Approval at each phase of the project, modifications to project scope, and continuous updates to management are all part of the ___________________.
A Role of Tollgates B Selection of the project Champion C Define Phase of Six Sigma D Purpose of lean
334 A To implement lean, you should work with vendors to do which of the following?
A Reduce lead times with vendors B Increase frequency of delivery with vendors C Decrease the number of setups/changeovers D Reduce the time for setups/changeovers
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