CSIRCSIR-UGC NET Model Questions PAPER I SECTION A

1. Effect of ozone layer on life on earth is: (A) Harmful because it cuts cosmic rays (B) Beneficial because it cuts down UV radiation (C) Prevention of mutation (D) Negligible 2.Age of the oldest rock on the earth is about (A) 4 billion years (B) 3 billion years (C) 2 billion years (D) 1 billion years

3. The land-sea breezes arise because (A) Land has a higher heat capacity than land (B) Ocean has higher heat capacity than land (C) Of a periodic variation in trade winds (D) Of rotation of the earth 4. According to current understanding, the Himalayas have resulted from: (A) Cometary impact on earth (B) Asymmetrical pull of the moon on earth (C) Uneven cooling of solidified magma (D) Collision of continents due to continental drift 5. The focal length of a convergant lens made of glass (refractive index n), have been measured for violet color and red color. If these are fv and fr respectively, which of the following statements is correct? fv = fr (B) fv < fr (C) fv > fr (D) fv = nfr
(A)

6. X-rays are electromagnetic radiations. They can therefore be deflected by (A) Electric and magnetic fields together
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(B) Electric fields only (C) Magnetic fields only (D) Neither electric nor magnetic fields 7. A porton is moving round in a circular path with a constant speed. From this one can infer that there must be an uniform (A) Electric field normal to the plane of the orbit (B) Electric field along the plane of the orbit (C) Magnetic field normal to the plane of the orbit (D) Magnetic fields along the plane of the orbits 8. A bat is using sound waves to scan its surroundings. The shortest wavelength it can emit in air is 0.3 cm. If the speed of sound is 360 m/s, the highest frequency the bat can use is (A) 1.2 x 105 hertz (B) 1.2 x 103 hertz (C) 3.6 x 105 hertz (D) 3.6 x 103 hertz 9. Predict which relation cannot occur? (A) Cu + 2HCl CuCl2 + H2 (B) H2 + CuO H2O + Cu (C) Mg + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2 (D) Zn + 2HCl ZnCl2 + h2 10. Which of the following aqueous solutions has pH eual to 7? (A) 0.01 M HCl (B) 0.01 M NaCl (C) 0.01 M NaCOOCH3 (D) 0.01 M NaOH 11.Which of the following is not correct? (A) Sucrose is a carbohydrate (B) Ribonuclease is an enzyme (C) C12H25 & C15H31 fraction of petroleum is kerosene oil (D) Cellulose is a lipid 12. The synthetic polymer nylon is obtained from the polymerization of
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(A) Phenol and formaldehyde (B) Adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine (C) Tetrafluroethylene (D) Vinylchloride 13. The number of isomers possible for the complex PtCl2 (NH3)2 is

14.Both mother and father are of AB blood type. The possible blood types of their children will be (A) AB only (B) AA only (C) AA and BB only (D) AA, BB and AB 15. Which among the following animals has the tongue fixed in front and free at the back? (A) Monkey (B) Rabbit (C) Cat (D) Frog 16. Rauwolfia serpentine is a (A) Helminth parasite (B) Causative organism of AIDS (C) Medicinal plant (D) Poisonous snake 17. Which of the following sets of substances are parts of the essential requirements for the growth of green plants? (A) Carbon dioxide, oxygen, sulfate (B) Nitrate, carbon dioxide, phosphate
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(C) Nitrate, vitamin B1, sulfate (D) ADP, carbon dioxide, nitrate 18.The roots of the equation x2 + kx + k= 0 are a and b. The real value of k for which a2 + b2 is minimum is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3 19. The number of real solutions of Cos x =x is (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) infinity 20.The average age of class is 13 years. If the average age of the taller 1/3rd of the class is 14 then the average age of the rate of the class (A) Cannot be found from the available information (B) 13 years (C) 12 years (D) 12 1/3 years 21. Which one of the following is not an electronic computer? (A) IBM-PC (B) ENIAC (C) PC-DOS (D) IBM-1620 22. A statement of the type 10 LET AS = $STRING$ is allowed in (A) FORTRAN (B) COBOL (C) C language (D) BASIC language 23. Integrated Circuits were first used in

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(A) First generation system (B) Second generation system (C) Third generation system (D) Fourth generation system 24. Microcomputer application software is usually written in (A) Multiprogramming environment (B) Timesharing environment (C) User friendly environment (D) Network Environment 25. The UNIX operating system has been written in (A) Machine language (B) C language (C) Assembly language (D) PASCAL language 26. Indicate which one of the software requires a COMPILER for execution (A) SPSS (B) LOTUS (C) COBOL (D) ORACLE 27. A Hexadigit can be represented by (A) Three binary consecutive bits (B) Four binary consecutive bits (C) Eight binary consecutive bits (D) Sixteen binary consecutive bits

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Model Questions Paper I section B

1. Outer membrane proteins (OMP) are present in (A) Gram-positive bacteria (B) Gram negative bacteria (C) Mycoplasmal membranes (D) Tonoplast membranes 2. 9 + 2 fibrillar arrangement is present in (A) Bacterial flagella (B) Bacterial fimbriae (C) Eukaryotic flagella (D) T4 bacteriaophag 3. Coated vesicles in the cell gives rise to (A) Endosome (B) Microsome (C) Ribosome (D) Episome 4. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are suggested to have evolved from symbiotic prokaryotes present in primitive eukaryotic cells. One evidence for this is that (A) These organelles contain cristae or thylakoids (B) These organelles contain electron transport chain (C) The ribosome in these organelles share properties with those of prokaryotes (D) The genetic code in these organelles is same as in all organisms 5. A genetic region found in all humans whose products are primarily responsible for the rejection of grafts between individuals, is called (A) Junctional (B) Diversity (C) Major histocompatibility complex (D) Fc 6. Chiasmata are formed during meiosis (A) Before metaphase I (B) After metaphase (C) During prophase (D) During metaphase II 7. In animals differentiation of cells is mostly due to

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(A) Cell type specific mutations (B) Deletion of specific DNA sequence in specific cell types (C) Specific gene repression and expression (D) Regulated expression of mitochondria DNA 8. Button like points of intercellular contact that serve as anchoring sites of intermediate filaments and help to hold adjacent cells together are called (A) Gap junctions (B) Connexons (C) Cadherins (D) Desmosomes 9. DNA duplication occurs in (A) Mitosis only (B) Meiosis only (C) meiosis-I and mitosis (D) meiosis II and mitosis 10. The (OH-) concentration of a 0.01 N HCl solution is (A) 1 x 10-8 g mol per liter (B) 1 x 10-10 g mol per liter (C) 1 x 10-12 g mol per liter (D) 1 x 10-14 g mol per liter 11. In a first order enzyme reaction 30% of the substrate is converted into product in one minute. The value of the velocity constant (at one minute) of the reaction is (A) 0.124 (B) 0.356 (C) 0.431 (D) 0.893 12. Infant suffering from galactosemia are unable to utilize normal milk because they (A) Lack the enzyme glucokinase in the liver (B) Are unable to hydrolyse lactose (C) Lack the enzyme glactose-1-phosphate uridylyl transferase (D) Accumulate the sugar alcohol 13. The number of high energy phosphate bonds in ATP is (A) 1
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(B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0 14. Which bond has the minimum length? (A) C = C (B) C = C (C) C C (D) C = O 15. The Tm of DNA can be calculated using the formula: Tm = 69.1 + 0.41 (GC), where GC is the per cent of guanine + cytosine. A double stranded DNA has 27% adenine. Its Tm is (A) 79oC (B) 80.37oC (C) 95.40oC (D) 88oC 16. Intron is a region of the chromosomal DNA (A) Which is a part of a gene that is transcribed but is removed during maturation of the transcript (B) Which is a part of a gene that is transcribed and persists in the mature mRNA (C) That is located between two adjacent genes (D) That is located at the centromere 17. The characteristics of a weak acid is (A) high Ka (B) low pKa (C) high pKa (D) none of these 1. A 22% aqueous solution of sodium chloride (molecular weight 56) corresponds to a concentration (A) 1 M (B) 2.2 M (C) 5.6 M (D) 4 M 2. One of the following enzymes is involved in translation step in protein biosynthesis
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(A) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase (B) RNA polymerase (C) Ribozyme (D) Reverse transcriptase 3. The sites of O2 evolution and photophosphorylation in chloroplast are (A) Grana stacks (B) Matrix (C) inner wall of chloroplast (D) surface of chloroplast 4. Photophosphorylation in chloroplasts requires movement of (A) Electrons across the membrane (B) ons across the membrane (C) Protons across the membrane (D) Electrons and protons across the membrane 5. Bacterial sporulation is induced in response to (A) Starvation of nutrients (B) Change in temperatre (C) Change in pH (D) change in light intensity 6. Fixation of one molecules of 14CO2 by photosynthesis will yield (A) One molecule of 14C-phosphoglyceric acid (B) Two molecule of 14C-phosphoglyceric acid (C) Three molecule of 14C-acetate (D) One molecule of 14C-glucose 7. Pick out from the following the mammalian stress hormone (A) Glucocorticosteriods (B) Estrogen (C) Growth hormone (D) Relaxin 8. Solar tracking is exhibited by (A) Helianthus annuus (B) Arabidopsis thaliana (C) Mimosa pudica (D)

Xanthium strumarium
9. Which of the following compounds have been reported to accumulate in a plant in large amounts as a result of water stress?
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(A) Aspartic acid (B) Proline (C) Citric acid (D) Indoleacetic acid 10. Inhibition of photosynthesis by oxygen is called as (A) Emerson effect (B) Warburg effect (C) Pasteur effect (D) Red drop phenomenon 11. Tetrodoxin is used as a (A) K channel blocker (B) Na channel broker (C) Ca channel broker 12. 1-amino-cyclopropane-1-carboxylic acid is the precursor of (A) Auxin (B) Gibberellin (C) Ethylene (D) Abscisic acid 13. Cytoplasmic male sterility in maize is due to (A) Absence of mitochondrial genome (B) Absence of plastid genome (C) Deletions in plastid genome (D) Alteration(s) in the mitochondrial genome 14. In a typical Mendelian population, individuals carrying gene a in homozygous condition suffer from phenylketonurea. Those with A in homozygous condition are normal. Others, who are heterozygotic with Aa, are carriers. If the frequency of a in a population is 0.005 what is the percentage of carriers in the population? (A) 10.0 (B) 1.0 (C) 0.1 (D) 90.0 15. The rate of occurrence, per generation, of spontaneous mutations in all living organisms is (A) 10-2 to 10-4 (B) (B) 10-5 to 10-7 (C) 10-10 to 10-15
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(D) 10-20 to 10-30 16. Chromatid-type breaks occur during the cell cycle in the (A) S-phase (B) G1-phase (C) G2-phase (D) Mitosis 17. After digestion of chromatin for a short time with micrococcal nuclease, DNA fragments of this size are obtained (A) 100 base pairs (B) Variable length (C) 200 base pairs (D) 146 base pairs 18. Which one of the following is not true for a disease inherited as a sex-linked dominant in humans? (A) All daughters of an affected male will inherit the disease (B) Sons will inherit the disease, only if their mother has the diseases (C) Daughters will inherit the disease, only if their father has the diseases (D) Both affected males and affected heterozygous females will pass the trait to half their children 19. Frame shift mutations occur following (A) Tautomeric shifts (B) base substitutions (C) Dimer formation (D) Insertion/deletion of single base 20. Genetic element in bacteria that can replicate in the cytoplasm or can integrate into the bacterial chromosome and replicate with the host chromosome (A) Retrovirus (B) Plasmid (C) Episome (D) Plastome 21. Hypophosphatemia is caused by an X-linked dominant gene in humans, if a hypophosphatemic man marries a normal woman, which of their children will have Hypophosphatemia? (A) All daughters (B) half of their daughters (C) All of the sons
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(D) half of their sons 22. The most common cause of the pleiotropic effect of gene is due to (A) The same product of the given gene being involved in different metabolic pathways (B) The gene making very different products in different cell types (C) The DNA sequence of the gene getting changed in cell specific manner (D) The gene not functioning in some cells 23. Life is believed to have originated on earth (A) 3.6 billion years ago (B) 3.6 million years ago (C) 4.5 billion years ago (D) 4.5 million years ago

24. The evolutionary divergence of higher taxonomic groups is due to (A) Adaptive radiations (B) Anagenesis (C) Cladogenesis (D) Stasigenesis 25. Molecular drive, which is associated with the origin of biological discontinuities, is the consequence of (A) Unequal crossing over, gene conversion and DNA transposition (B) Environmental control of gene expression (C) Selection (D) DNA methylation 26. The process that led to the evolution of the common bread wheat from its progenitors is (A) Triploidy (B) Aneuploidy (C) Introgression (D) Hybridization followed by doubling of the chromosomes 27. The hypothesis of Oparin and Haldane regarding origin of life is called as
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(A) Autotroph hypothesis (B) Heterotroph hypothesis (C) Chemotroph hypothesis (D) biogenesis hypothesis 28. Ribosomal RNAs are better molecules for phylogenetic studies because (A) Antiquity of protein synthesizing process, and moderately well conserved (B) They can be easily sequenced (C) They are present in 70 S and 80 S ribosomes (D) None of the above 29. The chemical evolution preceding biological evolution during origin of life was initiated through formation of (A) Condensing agents, e.g. cyanogens (B) ATP and other triphosphates (C) Both A and B (D) Pre-biotic catalyst-like compounds 30. The evolutionary process involving long periods of stasis interrupted by short periods of rapid speciation is called (A) Quantum evolution (B) Punctual equilibria (C) Macroevolution (D) Irregular modes 31. The nature of the pre-biotic environment on the earth was (A) Reducing (B) Oxidizing (C) Nitrifying (D) Rich in ozone 32. The condition which leads to a reduction in population to only a few individuals is called (A) Population oscillation (B) Migration (C) Population crash (D) Bottleneck phenomenon 33. Acid rain is caused by (A) CO and CO2 (B) CO2 and O2 (C) O2 and CO
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(D) SO2 and NO2 34. CO2 present in the atmosphere (A) Helps in stopping the sun radiation reaching the earth surface (B) Works only as insulator protecting the earth from cooling (C) Merely gives life to plants (D) Absorbs and reradiates some of the longer-wave length infra-red radiation that otherwise would be transmitted back into the space from the surface of the earth 35. The most productive ecosystem in the biosphere is (A) Desert (B) Open ocean (C) Estuary (D) Tundra 36. Biodegradable plastics are made using the following bacterial compounds (A) Proteins (B) Lipids (C) Poly -hydroxy alconates (D) Alkaloids 37. Population of plants within a species adapted genetically to a particular habitat but able to cross freely with other plants of the same species is called (A) Ecophene (B) Ecad (C) Ecotype (D) Ecotone 38. Biotic potential of a species is (A) Intrinsic rate of natural increase (B) Theoretical maximum production of new individuals (C) Difference between the intrinsic rate and the rate that occurs in an actual field condition (D) Instantaneous coefficient of population growth 39. Maximum stratospheric ozone concentration occurs above (A) Equator
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(B) temperate latitudes (C) Poles (D) Subtropical latitudes 40. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is measure of (A) Amount of dissolved oxygen present in a water body (B) The rate anaerobic decomposition of organic matter (C) The amount of dissolved oxygen required to oxidize the organic matter present in the water by aerobic decomposers (D) The rate of consumption of dissolved oxygen by aerobic decomposers for decomposing the organic matter present in the water body 41. The intrinsic rate of population increase is high (A) For a population consisting of more juveniles (B) For a population consisting of more reproductive females (C) For a population consisting of more reproductive males (D) For a population consisting of more senescent individuals 42. Chronologic ordering of species is based on (A) Electrophoretic mobility of protein (B) Molecular weights of proteins (C) Number of amino acids substituted in a protein molecule (D) 2-D analysis of proteins 43. The correct sequence of taxonomic hierarchy in eukaryotes is (A) Phylum class order family genus - species (B) Class order phylum family genus species (C) Phylum order class family genus species (D) Phylum family class order genus - species

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44. A classic example of utilization of biodiversity in green revolution is (A) Cryopreservation of germplasm (B) in vitro regeneration of somatic hybrids (C) Photoperiod insensitivity (D) Use of frozen gametes

45. The species replacement that occurs over very large geographic region is described as (A) Alpha diversity (B) Beta diversity (C) Gamma diversity (D) Point diversity 46. The total number of species of living organisms on the earth is of the order of (A) 0.01 million (B) 1 million (C) 10 million (D) 1 billion 47. Populations that are morphologically similar but do not interbreed for physiological or behavioral reasons are grouped as (A) Races (B) Varieties (C) Sub-species (D) Sibling species 48. Which is the hot-spot for biodiversity in India? (A) Western ghats (B) Eastern ghats (C) Central ghats (D) Upper Gangetic ghats 49. When all the original material collected by the author who described a new species, is lost, the specimen designated to serve as nomenclatural type is (A) Neotype (B) Lecotype (C) Isotype (D) Holotype 50. In a stable ecosystem the food chain mostly contains (A) Three to five links (B) Two links (C) Six links (D) Seven links
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51. A predation series linking animals to ultimate plant food is called (A) Food web (B) Tropic level (C) Food cycle (D) Food chain

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