MATH 425 HW SOLUTIONS, SEC.

2 HW 4

Note that these are not complete solutions. Most of the time the solution here is an outline, and to get full credit on a problem you must ll in most, if not all, of the details. The Inverse Function Theorem will be abbreviated as IFT.

1a. F is 1-to-1 on U since its derivative is strictly positive on U . Alternative, it passes the horizontal line test. Its inverse function is F 1 = arcsin(t), which is dened on F (U ) = (0, 1). Since F is continuous and continuously dierentiable (its derivative being cos(t)) it is C 1 . We already know that F (U ) is an open interval. Finally, F 1 is continuously dierentiable. (What is its derivative?) Therefore F gives a set of coordinates on U . Since F is C 1 on U and F = 0 on U , it satises the conditions of the IFT on all of U .

1b. Suppose that for some x, a > 0, y, b, we have (x2 , x + y ) = (a2 , a + b). Then x2 = a2 . But since x and a are positive we can take the square root of both sides of the equation and get x = a. Then by equating the second coordinate and setting a = x we obtain b = y . Hence F is 1-to-1 on U . On U , the derivative for F is DF = 2x 1 0 1 ,

the components of which are continuous everywhere on U . Hence F is C 1 on U . We have F (U ) = U open. An explicit calculation gives F 1 (x, y ) = ( (x), y x). Note that this is a well dened function as

(x, y ) F (U ) implies that x > 0. Its Jacobian on F (U ) is D(F 1 ) =

2 x 1

1 2 x

which is continuous in F (U ). So F 1 is C 1 and the function F gives a set of coordinates on U .

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For F to satisfy the conditions for the IFT, we need F to be C 1 (which we have on all of U ) and det DF = 0. Since det DF = 0 only when x = 0, F satises the conditions of the IFT on U .

2a. Let f (a) = m,

= m/2. Then by continuity there is some such that for any x (a , a + ) we

have f (x) (m + , m ) R+ . Let I = (a , a + ).

2b. By part a, there is some interval I such that a I and f (x) > 0 on I . Suppose for some x = y in this interval we have f (x) = f (y ). Then by the Mean Value Theorem we have f (z ) = 0 for some x (x, y ) I , which is a contradiction. So f is 1-to-1 on I .

2c. Yes it is. Show rst that there is an interval on which f (a) < 0 using an argument similar to the one used in part a. (Let = |m/2|.) Then show that f is injective on I .

3a. No credit is given for this problem unless the chain rule is used!

D(h(F (0, 1, 2))) = =

ex+y+z ex+y+z ex+y+z e5 e5 e5 1 1 1

DF (0, 1, 2) = y + z x + z x + y yz xz xy 1 1 1 = y+z x+z x+y yz xz xy

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D(h F ) = Dh(F )DF D(h F )(0, 1, 2) = Dh(F (0, 1, 2))DF (0, 1, 2) 1 1 1 5 5 5 = e e e 3 2 1 2 0 0 1 1 1 = e5 e5 e5 3 2 1 2 0 0 = 6e5 3e5 2e5

3b. We know that 1 1 1 , DF = y + z x + z x + y yz xz xy so computing its determinate we get det DF = (x + z )xy (x + y )xz (y + z )xy + (x + y )yz + (y + z )xz (x + z )yz = (x y )xy + (z x)xz + (y z )yz = x2 y xy 2 + z 2 x x2 z + y 2 z z 2 y Check that (x z )(z y )(y x) multiplies out to the expression above.

3c. Since DF is a matrix of polynomials it is continuous and dierentiable in R3 . All we need to check now is when det DF = 0. We know that det DF = (x z )(z y )(y x), hence det DF = 0 (and thus the conditions for the IFT are not satised) if x = y , y = z or x = z . Note not all three coordinates need to be equal for the determinate to be 0. In other words, the conditions are satised if all the coordinates are dierent.

3d. By part c we know that on (0, 1, 2) the IFT holds for F . Therefore there are some small nbd. V of F (0, 1, 2) = (3, 2, 0) and U of (0, 1, 2) such that we have F 1 : V U . Compose this F 1 with h to obtain = h F 1 . (Check that F = h. Also, why is unique?)
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3e. F F 1 = Id D(F F 1 ) = D(Id) DF (F 1 )D(F 1 ) = I, hence DF 1 (3, 2, 0) = DF (F 1 (3, 2, 0)) = (DF (0, 1, 2))1 . Recall = h F 1 , hence D(h F 1 )(3, 2, 0) = Dh(F 1 (3, 2, 0))D(F 1 )(3, 2, 0) = Dh(F (3, 2, 0))(DF (0, 1, 2))1 1 1 1 1 = e3 e3 e3 3 2 1 2 0 0 = 3e3 0 0

4. Let I be the n by n identity matrix. Using the chain rule: F F 1 = Id D(F F 1 ) = D(Id) DF (F 1 )DF 1 = I hence DF 1 (F ) is the inverse of DF . Note that the reason why this calculation makes sense (i.e., why we can dierentiate with the chain rule) is because F is a set of coordinates, and hence F 1 is actually dierentiable.

5. See separate le for solutions.