63 AUGUST 2006 THE COMPETITION MASTER

REASONING ABILITY
TEST OF REASONING
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
on the basis of their positions in the English alphabet and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the
group?
(1) AZ (2) EV (3) BY (4) GT (5) DU
2. If $ means , # means , means and @
means + then what is the value of 204 # 6 15 $ 8 @ 88?
(1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 12 (5) None of these
3. If the position of the first and the sixth letters of
the word PRESCRIBED are interchanged, similarly position
of the second and the seventh letters are interchanged and
so on. Which letter will be fourth from the left end after the
rearrangement?
(1) E (2) S (3) B (4) D (5) None of these
4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the
word INTERNAL, each of which has as many letters between
them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two
(4) Three (5) None of these
5. In a certain code DIVERT is written as SCQHDU,
how is CONFER written in that code?
(1) QBDNEO (2) QDBNEM (3) QBDNEM
(4) QDBNEO (5) None of these

Qs. 6-10. In each question below is given a statement

followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A
course of action is a step or administrative decision to be
taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard
to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information
given in the statement, you have to assume everything in
the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested
courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Give answer (1) if only I follows.
Give answer (2) if only II follows.
Give answer (3) if either I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
Statement:
6. A country cannot develop without fast and easy
communication.
Courses of action:
I. Govt. should provide communication facilities to the
public at a cheaper rate.
II. More private companies should be permitted to enter
into f i e ld of communi cat ion to s t rengthen the
network.
Statement:
7. Due to availability of air tickets at cheaper rates
from various airlines large no. of people now a days prefer
to travel by air than travelling by train.

Courses of action:
I. Railway ministry has to put in its best efforts to
improve the quality of rail journey in respect of
facilities and also the punctuality.
II. Airlines should not be allowed to introduce various
schemes offering concessional fare.
Statement:
8. Continuous use of computers is affecting the
eyesights of many youth.
Courses of action:
I. All the establishments should permit the people
using computer to take a short break after every
hour of work on the computer.
II. Use of computers should be discouraged by the
managements of the establishments.
Statement:
9. Proportion of females compared to that of males in
the population of our country has drastically gone down in
the recent past.
Courses of action:
I. S o c i a l w o r k e r s s h o u l e t a k e u p t h e t a s k o f
emphasizing the importance of having atleast one
female child in each family in both rural and urban
areas of the counry.
II. Government should severely punish the persons
involved in the practice of female foeticide.

Statement:
10.Reading habits in the children of coming
generations is diminishing day by day.
Courses of action:
I. Ac c e s s t o v a r i o u s e l e c t ro n i c g a d g e t s s u c h a s
television, computer and particularly the internet
should be controlled.
II. Parents should ensure and cultivate reading habits
among their children.
Qs. 11-15. Study the following information carefully
to answer these questions.
Seven T.V. channels A, B, C, D, E, F and G telecast
different programmes P, Q, R, S, T, U and V on different
days of the week from Monday to Sunday, not necessarily in
Questions asked in UCO Bank P.O. Exam, held on January 29, 200664 AUGUST 2006 THE
COMPETITION MASTER
REASONING ABILITY
the same order.
Channel A telecast Programme T on Sunday. Channel
D does not telecast Programme P or U but telecasts on the
day just prior to Channel F. Channel C telecasts Programme
Q but not on Monday. Channel B telecasts Programme R on
Tuesday. Channel G telecasts Programme V but not on
Monday. Channel C telecasts on the next day of Channel G
and previous day of Channel D. Programme P is telecast
before Programme U.
11. Which programme is telecast on Thursday?

(1) P (2) S (3) R (4) U (5) None of these

12. Which of the following combination of daychannel-programme is correct?
(1) ThursdayCR (2) TuesdayCQ
(3) SaturdayEU (4) MondayEP
(5) None of these
13. Which channel telecasts on Wednesday?
(1) F (2) E (3) G
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
14. Channel C telecasts on which day of the week?
(1) Thursday (2) Tuesday (3) Friday
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
15. Which channel telecasts programme S?
(1) E (2) D (3) F (4) D or E (5) None of these
Qs. 16-20. In making decisions about important
questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between
strong arguments and weak arguments. Strong
arguments must be both important and directly related to
the question. Weak arguments may not be directly related
to the question and may be of minor importance or may be
related to the trivial aspects of the question.
Each question below is followed by two arguments
numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments
is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Give answer (1) if only argument I is strong.
Give answer (2) if only argument II is strong.
Give answer (3) if either argument I or II is strong.

Give answer (4) if neither argument I nor II is strong.

Give answer (5) if both arguments I and II are strong.
16. Should the re be a quota for unde rpr ivi l eged
categories and the minority communities for admissions into
the premier educational institutions in India?
Arguments:
I. No, admissions to the premier institutes should be
only on merit and there should be no system for any
special consideration.
II. No, this will put the deserving non-reserved category
students to disadvantage.
17. Can the total ban on dance bars across a State be
justified?
Arguments:
I. Yes, running of dance bars gives scope for various
illegal and criminal activities.
II. No, the livelihood of the families of bar-girls is totally
dependent on the dance bars.
18. Should the top officials and politicians detained
by the law enforcement agencies be given special treatment
in jails while under-trial?
Arguments:
I. No, there is no such need for any special treatment,
they should be treated like all other detainees.
II. Yes, it is necessary to take care of their special security
requirements.

19. Should stricter discipline be imposed upon all the

children by parents and teachers in view of the increasing
criminal cases among the youth?
Arguments:
I. Yes, too much freedom to the children is leading to
such cases of crime.
II. No, freedom to the children is necessary in the
changing social scenario.
20. Should the gende r- reas s ignment surge r i e s be
legally permitted?
Arguments:
I. Yes, it is the genuine need of the transsexuals.
II. No, people will take disadvantage of the facility since
i t i s di ff i cul t to judge the genuinene s s of the
requirement.
Q. 21-25. Below is given a passage followed by several
possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts
stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference
separately in the context of the passage and decide upon
its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer:
(1) if the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly
follows from the statement of facts given.
(2) if the inference is probably true though not
definitely true in the light of the facts given.
(3) if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given
you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be

true or false.
(4) if the inference is probably false though not
definitely false in the light of the facts given.
(5) if the inference is definitely false i.e. it cannot
pos s ibly be drawn f rom the fac t s given or i t
contradicts the given facts.
There has been a complete turnaround in global coal
markets over the last couple of years. While a booming
economy led China to turn from being a net coal exporter
into a net importer, Japanese nuclear closures contributed to
additional demand for steam coal imports. A weakening
USA dollar led exporters to further nudge prices northwards.
As a result, global coal prices jumped from about $25 per
tonne in 2003 to over $60 per tonne by July 2004. Above all
Chinese demand for commodities sent bulk cargo freight
rates to dizzying heights of $25-30 per tonne. While there
has been some moderation in coal prices, since July 2004,
prices effectively remained above $50 per tonne during the
first half of 2005. In the ensuing scenario, the rationale for
large scale imports of coal needs to be revisited. In fact,
citing high prices, utilities are shying away from importing
coal as per the schedule plan for 2005-06. This has led to
additional pressure on indigenous coal companies, already
stressed with enhanced production targets.
21. Japans nuclear closure did not have an effect on65 AUGUST 2006 THE COMPETITION
MASTER
REASONING ABILITY

the rise in coal prices worldwide.

22. In the changing scenario Indian utility companies
are considering other options to coal for their energy
requirements.
23. Import of coal was a preferred option by the utility
companies prior to 2004.
24. China has become the largest coal importer in the
world.
25. Coal prices have increased by about 100% in the
recent past.
Qs. 26-30. In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should
come after the
problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
31. The average of five consecutive odd numbers is
21. Which is the lowest number of the five?
(1) 15 (2) 19 (3) 13
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
32. Vipul told Neha that a number when multiplied
by 5 and 7 gives two numbers with a difference of 300. What
is the number?
(1) 125 (2) 100 (3) 150
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
33. Rs 123 is accrued as compound interest on an
amount at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. after two years. How much
will be the compound interest at the end of three years?
(1) Rs 129.15 (2) Rs 189.15 (3) Rs 117.15
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

3 4 . Vi d y a b o u g h t a c u p f o r R s 8 0 a f t e r g e t t i n g
2
66 %
3
rebate on the printed price. What was the printed price?
(1) Rs 120 (2) Rs 140 (3) Rs 180
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
35. What will come in place of the question mark (?)
in the following series?
5 21 96 500 3030 ?
(1) 15175 (2) 18210 (3) 21252
(4) 18216 (5) None of these
36. Two-fifth of three-fourth of a number is 174. What
is the number?
(1) 232 (2) 326 (3) 435 (4) 480 (5) None of these
37. A train crosses a platform in 40 seconds. What is
the speed of the train in km/hr? In order to answer the
question, which of the following information is required?
(A) Length of the train.
(B) Length of the platform.
(C) The time, the train takes to cross a pole.
(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only

(3) A and C only

(4) Any two of A, B, C

(5) All the three A, B, C

Qs. 38-39. Study the following information to answer
the given questions.

Out of 6 men and 3 women, a committee of 4 is to be

formed. In how many different ways it can be done if the
committee must have:
38. At least 2 men
(1) 252 (2) 120 (3) 180 (4) 126 (5) None of these
39. 3 men and 1 woman
(1) 126 (2) 63 (3) 30 (4) 60 (5) None of these
12 3 4 5
12 3 4 5
12 3 4 5
CS S
S
SS SSS SS
Z
Z
ZZ
12 3 4 5
S
S
SS
Z
SSS
S
S
Z
12 3 4 5

S
S
Z
ZZ
SZ
S
ZS
SS S
ZZ
S
S
ZZ
Z
PROBLEM FIGURES ANSWER FIGURES66 AUGUST 2006 THE COMPETITION MASTER
REASONING ABILITY
40. When the numerator of a fraction is increased by
1, and the denominator is also increased by 1, the fraction
becomes
2
3
. What was the original fraction?
(1)
1
2
(2)
5

8
(3)
11
17
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Qs. 41-45. Study the following graph to answer the
given questions:
41. Which Company has shown steady increase in per
cent increase in exports from that of previous year over the
given years?
(1) B (2) C (3) A
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
42. For Company C, the exports in 2001 were at 950.
How much was the export in 2000?
(1) 980 (2) 997.5 (3) 1010 (4) 1002.5 (5) 990.2
43. For Company C, the exports in 1999 were at 1078.
How much was the export in 1998?
(1) 1078 (2) 1185.8 (3) 990 (4) 1000 (5) 980
44. For Company A, how much is the average of per
cent increase in exports for the given years?
(1) 60 (2) 45 (3) 40 (4) 36
2
3
(5) None of these
45. Which Company had the highest amount of export
in the year 2001?

(1) A (2) B (3) C

(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Qs. 46-50. Study the following table to answer the given
questions:
Number of Participants in different Programmes
(A, B, C, D, E, F) over the given years
(Number in hundreds)
46. For Programme B, which year was the per cent
inc r eas e in the numbe r f rom the pr e c eding year the
maximum?
(1) 2005 (2) 1999 (3) 2002
(4) 2004 (5) None of these
47. What is the difference in the total number of
participants in different programmes in the years 2003 and
2004?
(1) 2.4 (2) 3.75 (3) 345 (4) 240 (5) None of these
48. For Programme A, how much is the per cent
increase in the number from 2000 to 2001?
(1) 20 (2) 10 (3) 100 (4) 0.20 (5) None of these
49. For the given years, the total number of participants
for Programme D is what per cent of that of Programme E?
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 7.25 (4) 6.78 (5) None of these
50. For which programme was there an increase in
number from the previous year for all the given years?
(1) A and C only (2) A, C and D only
(3) B, C and D only (4) B, C and F only

(5) C, D and F only

ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
1. (5) Other pairs occupy the same place in alphabets from
A and Z.
2. (2) 204 6 15 8 + 88 = 34 120 + 88 = 2. (Apply
BODMAS)
3. (1) Left RIBEDPRESS Right
4. (4) IN, TR and NL.
5. (3) D I V E R T would be TDRIEV hence CONFER would
be RCEOFN. The preceding letter in alphabets is the
code.
6. (5) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (5) 10. (2)
11-15. Days Channel Programme
Mon F P
Tue B R
Wed G V
Thurs C Q
Fri D S
Sat E U
Sun A T
11. (5) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (2)
16. (1) 17. (5) 18. (3 19. (3) 20. (2)
21. (5) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (1)
26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (2) 29. (5) 30. (1)
31. (5) 17, 19, 21, 23, 25. 32. (3) 300 (7 5).
33. (2)

34. (5) Rs 240.

35. (3) 5 3 + 3 2 = 21; 21 4 + 3 4 = 96;

96 5 + 4 5 = 500; 500 6 + 5 6 = 3030;
3030 7 + 6 7 = 21252.
36. (5) Number is 580.
3
th
4
is 435 and its
2
th
5
= 174.
37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (1) 41. (1)
42. (2) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (2)
47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (1) 50. (5)
1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
80
90

Years
Per cent increase
Per cent increase in export of three companies A, B, C over the years
ABC
Programme A B C D E F
Year
2005 4.7 15 2.7 0.97 14 1.9
2004 4.5 14.5 2.4 0.95 14 1.8
2003 4.1 13 2 0.9 13 1.7
2002 4 13 1.9 0.8 13 1.6
2001 2.2 12 1.5 0.75 12 1.4
2000 2 11 1.3 0.65 12 1.3
1999 1.7 12 1.1 0.6 12 1.17
1998 2 10 1 0.5 12 1.08

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(Paper) COMPUTER BASED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR BANK PO

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Paper : COMPUTER BASED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR BANK PO
1. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT:
A. hackers.
B. spam.
C. viruses.
D. identity theft.
Answer: B
2. A process known as ____________ is used by large retailers to study trends.
A. data mining
B. data selection
C. POS
D. data conversion
Answer: A
3. ____________terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex
inventory and sales computer systems.
A. Data
B. Point-of-sale (POS)
C. Sales
D. Query
Answer: B
4. A(n) ____________ system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an items tag
and pulls up the current price (and any special offers) as you shop.
A. PSS
B. POS
C. inventory
D. data mining
Answer: A
5. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminals computer is an
example of a law enforcement specialty called:
A. robotics.
B. simulation.
C. computer forensics.
D. animation.
Answer: C
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?
A. gathering data
B. processing data into information
C. analyzing the data or information
D. storing the data or information
Answer: C
7. ____________ tags, when placed on an animal, can be used to record and track in a database all
of the animals movements.
A. POS

B. RFID
C. PPS
D. GPS
Answer: B
8. Surgeons can perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through computers instead of
manually. This technology is known as:
A. robotics.
B. computer forensics.
C. simulation.
D. forecasting.
Answer: A
9. Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to be:
A. proprietary.
B. open.
C. experimental.
D. in the public domain.
Answer: A
10. ____________ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to 100
nanometers.
A. Nanoscience
B. Microelectrodes
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Answer: A
11. ____________ is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of
intelligence that humans do.
A. Nanoscience
B. Nanotechnology
C. Simulation
D. Artificial intelligence (AI)
Answer: D
12. ____________ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion.
A. A process
B. Software
C. Storage
D. Information
Answer: D
13. The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called:
A. programming.
B. processing.
C. storing.
D. organizing.
Answer: B
14. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to ____________ data.
A. present
B. input
C. output

D. store
Answer: B
15. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately, the actual print
of the picture is considered:
A. data.
B. output.
C. input.
D. the process.
Answer: B

16. Computers use the ____________ language to process data.

A. processing
B. kilobyte
C. binary
D. representational
Answer: C
17. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with:
A. multimedia.
B. words.
C. characters.
D. numbers.
Answer: D
18. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is
made up of a unique combination of:
A. eight bytes.
B. eight kilobytes.
C. eight characters.
D. eight bits.
Answer: D
19. The term bit is short for:
A. megabyte.
B. binary language.
C. binary digit.
D. binary number.
Answer: C

20. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a:

A. megabyte.
B. byte.
C. kilobyte.
D. gigabyte.
Answer: B
21. A ____________ is approximately one billion bytes.
A. kilobyte
B. bit
C. gigabyte

D. megabyte
Answer: C
22. A ____________ is approximately a million bytes.
A. gigabyte
B. kilobyte
C. megabyte
D. terabyte
Answer: C
23. ____________ is any part of the computer that you can physically touch.
A. Hardware
B. A device
C. A peripheral
D. An application
Answer: A

24. The components that process data are located in the:

A. input devices.
B. output devices.
C. system unit.
D. storage component.
Answer: C
25. All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a:
A. scanner.
B. mouse.
C. keyboard.
D. printer.
Answer: D
26. Which of the following is an example of an input device?
A. scanner
B. speaker
C. CD
D. printer
Answer: A
27. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT:
A. hard disk drives.
B. printers.
C. floppy disk drives.
D. CD drives.
Answer: B
28. The ____________, also called the brains of the computer, is responsible for processing
data.
A. motherboard
B. memory
C. RAM
D. central processing unit (CPU)
Answer: D
29. The CPU and memory are located on the:

A. expansion board.
B. motherboard.
C. storage device.
D. output device.
Answer: B
30. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are examples of:
A. application software.
B. system software.
C. operating system software.
D. platform software.
Answer: A
31. ____________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks.
A. An instruction
B. Software
C. Memory
D. A processor
Answer: B
32. System software is the set of programs that enables your computers hardware devices and
____________ software to work together.
A. management
B. processing
C. utility
D. application
Answer: D
33. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple Macintosh are examples of two different:
A. platforms.
B. applications.
C. programs.
D. storage devices.
Answer: A
34. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different ____________ to process data and different
operating systems.
A. languages
B. methods
C. CPUs
D. storage devices
Answer: C
35. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a:
A. network.
B. mainframe.
C. supercomputer.
D. client.
Answer: A
36. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing ____________ in many businesses.
A. supercomputers
B. clients
C. laptops
D. mainframes

Answer: D
37. ____________ are specially designed computers that perform complex calculations extremely
rapidly.
A. Servers
B. Supercomputers
C. Laptops
D. Mainframes
Answer: B
38. DSL is an example of a(n) ____________ connection.
A. network
B. wireless
C. slow
D. broadband
Answer: D
39. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this
access is known as the:
A. digital divide.
B. Internet divide.
C. Web divide.
D. broadband divide.
Answer: A
40. ____________ is the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on an
extremely small scale.
A. Nanotechnology
B. Micro-technology
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Answer: A
41. Which of the following is the correct order of the four major functions of a computer?
A. Process Output Input Storage
B. Input Output Process Storage
C. Process Storage Input Output
D. Input Process Output Storage
Answer: D
42. ____________ bits equal one byte.
A. Eight
B. Two
C. One thousand
D. One million
Answer: A
43. The binary language consists of ____________ digit(s).
A. 8
B. 2
C. 1,000
D. 1
Answer: B
44. A byte can hold one ____________ of data.

A. bit
B. binary digit
C. character
D. kilobyte
Answer: C
45. ____________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by
which users can interact with the computer.
A. The platform
B. The operating system
C. Application software
D. The motherboard
Answer: B
46. The operating system is the most common type of ____________ software.
A. communication
B. application
C. system
D. word-processing software
Answer: C
47. ____________ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as
your car or your electronic thermostat.
A. Servers
B. Embedded computers
C. Robotic computers
D. Mainframes
Answer: B
48. The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking an icon,
are called:
A. instructions.
B. the operating system.
C. application software.
D. the system unit.
Answer: A
49. The two broad categories of software are:
A. word processing and spreadsheet.
B. transaction and application.
C. Windows and Mac OS.
D. system and application.
Answer: D
50. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the:
A. system unit.
B. CPU.
C. mainframe.
D. platform.
Answer: A

Fill in the Blank:

51. Between PCs and Macs, the ____________ is the platform of choice for graphic design and
animation.
Answer: Mac
52. The ____________ is the program that manages the hardware of the computer system, including
the CPU, memory, storage devices, and input/output devices.
Answer: operating system
53. The type of operating system software you use depends on your computers ____________.
Answer: platform
54. ____________software helps you carry out tasks, such as typing a document or creating a
spreadsheet.
Answer: Application
55. ____________are the fastest and most expensive computers.
Answer: Supercomputers
56. A ____________ is approximately 1,000 bytes.
Answer: kilobyte
57. Input devices are used to provide the steps and tasks the computer needs to process data, and
these steps and tasks are called ____________.
Answer: instructions
58. A computer gathers data, processes it, outputs the data or information, and ____________ the
data or information.
Answer: stores
59. The binary language consists of two digits: ____________ and ____________.
Answer: 0 and 1
60. A string of ____________ 0s and 1s is called a byte.
Answer: eight (8)
61. The devices you use to enter data into a computer system are known as ____________ devices.
Answer: input
62. The devices on a computer system that let you see the processed information are known as
____________ devices.
Answer: output
63. ____________ is the set of computer instructions or programs that enables the hardware to
perform different tasks.
Answer: Software
64. When you connect to the ____________, your computer is communicating with a server at your
Internet service provider (ISP).
Answer: Internet
65. ____________ are computers that excel at executing many different computer programs at the
same time.
Answer: Mainframes
66. ____________is the application of computer systems and techniques to gather legal evidence.
Answer: Computer forensics
67. ____________ is the science that attempts to create machines that will emulate the human
thought process.
Answer: Artificial intelligence (AI)
68. Macintosh computers use the Macintosh operating system (Mac OS), whereas PCs generally run
____________ as an operating system.
Answer: Microsoft Windows

69. A process known as ____________ tracks trends and allows retailers to respond to consumer
buying patterns.
Answer: data mining
70. Hard disk drives and CD drives are examples of ____________ devices.
Answer: storage
71. You would use ____________ software to create spreadsheets, type documents, and edit photos.
Answer: application
72. ____________ are computers that support hundreds or thousands of users simultaneously.
Answer: Mainframes
73. ____________ is the term given to the act of stealing someones identity and ruining their
credit rating.
Answer: Identity theft
74. Surgeons are using ____________ to guide robots to perform delicate surgery.
Answer: computers
75. Patient ____________ are life-sized mannequins that have a pulse and a heartbeat and respond
to procedures just like humans.
Answer: simulators

True and False

76. Currently, the performance of tasks by robots is based on preprogrammed algorithms.
Answer: True
77. Data can be a number, a word, a picture, or a sound.
Answer: True
78. Strictly defined, a computer is a data processing device.
Answer: True
79. The discrepancy between the haves and have-nots with regard to computer
technology is commonly referred to as the digital society.
Answer: False (digital divide)
80. One of the benefits of becoming computer fluent is being a savvy computer user and consumer
and knowing how to avoid viruses, the programs that pose threats to computer security.
Answer: True
81. Trend-spotting programs, developed for business, have been used to predict criminal activity.
Answer: True
82. Employers do not have the right to monitor e-mail and network traffic on employee systems used
at work.
Answer: False
83. Clicking on an icon with the mouse is a form of giving an instruction to the computer.
Answer: True
84. Output devices store instructions or data that the CPU processes.
Answer: False (memory)
85. The CPU and memory are located on a special circuit board in the system unit called the
motherboard.
Answer: True
86. Nanostructures represent the smallest human-made structures that can be built.
Answer: True
87. The main difference between a supercomputer and a mainframe is that supercomputers are

designed to execute a few programs as quickly as possible, whereas mainframes are designed to
handle many programs running at the same time (but at a slower pace).
Answer: True
88. Being computer fluent means that you should be able to build a computer yourself.
Answer: False
89. Embedded computers are self-contained computer devices that have their own programming and
do not receive input.
Answer: True
90. A Web browser is a special device that is installed in your computer that allows it to communicate
with other devices on a network.
Answer: False (network adapter)
91. With a wireless network, it is easier to relocate devices.
Answer: True
92. The most common type of memory that the computer uses to process data is ROM.
Answer: False (RAM)

Matching:
93. Match the following terms with their approximate size:
I. kilobyte A. one million bytes
II. byte B. eight bits
III. gigabyte C. one thousand bytes
IV. megabyte D. one billion bytes
V. terabyte E. one trillion bytes
Answer: C, B, D, A, E
94. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. printer A. storage device
II. scanner B. output device
III. RAM C. input device
IV. CPU D. a type of memory
V. CD drive E. processor
Answer: B, C, D, E, A
95. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. mainframe A. the most expensive computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly
II. supercomputer B. a computer that provides resources to other computers connected to a network
III. embedded computer C. a large, expensive computer that supports hundreds or thousands of users
simultaneously
IV. PDA D. a self-contained computer device that usually performs preprogrammed functions such as
temperature control
V. server E. a small mobile computing device
Answer: C, A, D, E, B
96. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. software A. transforming data into information
II. hardware B. data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion
III. operating system C. any part of the computer that you can physically touch
IV. processing D. a set of computer programs that enables hardware to perform different tasks

V. information E. the most common type of system software, it controls the way in which the
computer system functions
Answer: D, C, E, A, B
97. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. system software A. the set of programs that enables computer hardware devices and application
software to work together
II. application software B. the kind of operating system software you will use depends on this
III. platform C. operating system software generally used on PCs
IV. Microsoft Windows D. a set of programs used to accomplish a specific task
V. Mac OS E. operating system software used on the Apple Macintosh
Answer: A, D, B, C, E
98. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. data A. the main circuit board in the system unit
II. memory B. the representation of a fact or idea (unprocessed information)
III. output C. processed data or information
IV. storage D. holds instructions or data that the CPU processes
V. motherboard E. data or information that can be accessed again
Answer: B, D, C, E, A
99. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. bit A. the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on an extremely small
scale
II. binary language B. the case that contains the system components
III. instructions C. consists of 0s and 1s
IV. system unit D. short for binary digit
V. nanotechnology E. steps and tasks necessary to process data into usable information
Answer: D, C, E, B, A

100. Match the following fields to the related computer technology:

I. medicine A. Internet research and virtual tours
II. business B. data mining
III. law enforcement C. robotics and simulation
IV. education D. computer forensics
V. archeology E. digital recreations of ruins
Answer: C, B, D, A, E

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YOUR EMAIL A SUBMIT

(Paper) Bank Test Paper Pattern - Marketing Knowledge

Submitted by IASguru on Tue, 2008-09-02 14:31

in

Papers

Bank
Paper : Bank Tests-Marketing Knowledge
1.Regulations that arise to ensure that firms take responsibility for the social costs
of their products or production processes stem from which reason for government
legislation of business?
(a) To protect companies from each other
(b) To protect consumers from unfair business practices
(c) To protect the interests of society
(d) To protect businesses from unfair consumer demands
Ans:- C
2.A "three-day cooling off period" in which buyers can cancel a contract after rethinking it is to protect the consumer from:
(a) creative selling (b) high pressure selling (c) detail selling (d) hard core selling
Ans:- B
3.One of the most promising developments in multivariable segmentation is called
_____ where a host of demographic and socioeconomic factors are used
(a) terragraphic segmentation (b) fermagraphic segmentation
(c) geothermy segmentation (d) geodemographic segmentation
Ans:- D
4.One of the most common problems with using internal database information is
that:
(a) since it was probably collected for some other purpose, it may be incomplete or wrong.
(b) it is usually expensive to retrieve.
(c) top executives are usually unwilling to relinquish data, therefore, the data has limits.
(d) the data is almost always unsecured and therefore, suspect as to reliability
Ans:- A
5.The last stage in the selling process is the _____ stage.
(a) approach (b) handling objections (c) closing (d) follow-up
Ans:- D
6.When Coca-Cola and Nestle formed a joint venture to market a ready-to-drink

coffee and tea worldwide, the type of marketing system that was formed would
best be described as being a(n):
(a) vertical marketing system (b) parallel marketing system
(c) diversified marketing system (d) horizontal marketing system
Ans:- D
7.The major advantage of survey research is its:
(a) simplicity (b) structure (c) organization (d) flexibility
Ans:- D
8.The _____ holds that consumers will favor products that are available and highly
affordable (therefore, work on improving production and distribution efficiency)
(a) product concept (b) production concept
(c) production cost expansion concept (d) marketing concept
Ans:- B
9.A ____ is any activity or benefit offered for sale that is essentially intangible and
does not result in the ownership of anything
(a) demand (b) basic staple (c) product (d) service
Ans:- D
10._____ is a person's distinguishing psychological characteristics that lead to
relatively consistent and lasting responses to his or her own environment
(a) Psychographics (b) Personality (c) Demographics (d) Lifestyle
Ans:- B
11.The place in the business buying behavior model where interpersonal and
individual influence might interact is called the
(a) environment (b) response (c) stimuli (d) buying center
Ans:- D
12.The course of a product's sales and profits over its lifetime is called
(a) the sales chart (b) the dynamic growth curve
(c) the adoption cycle (d) the product life cycle
Ans:- D
13.When companies make marketing decisions by considering consumer's wants
and the long-run interests of the company, consumer, and the general population,
they are practicing which of the following principles?
(a) Innovative marketing (b) Consumer-oriented marketing
(c) Value marketing (d) Societal marketing
Ans:- D
14.All of the following are thought to be sources if new product ideas EXCEPT.
(a) internal sources (b) customers (c) competitors (d) the local library
Ans:- D
15.If Honda uses its company name to cover such different products as its

automobiles, lawn mowers, and motorcycles, it is practicing which of the following

strategies?
(a) new brand strategy (b) line extension strategy
(c) multibrand strategy (d) brand extension strategy
Ans:- D
16.If a company (considering its options on the product/market expansion grid)
chooses to move into different unrelated fields (from what it has ever done
before) with new products as a means to stimulate growth, the company would be
following which of the following general strategies?
(a) market penetration (b) market development
(c) product development (d) diversification
Ans:- D
17.When a marketing research organization chooses a segment of the population
that represents the population as a whole, they have chosen a _____
(a) group (b) bi-variant population (c) sample (d) market target
Ans:- C
18.Joining with foreign companies to produce or market products and services is
called
(a) direct exporting (b) indirect exporting (c) licensing (d) joint venturing
Ans:- D
19.If advertising constantly sends out messages about materialism, sex, power,
and status, which of the following categories of social criticism most closely
matches this problem?
(a) Too much advertising (b) Too few social goods
(c) Cultural pollution (d) Too much political power
Ans:- C
20.A(n) ____ is a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of these
that identifies the marker or seller of a product or service.
(a) product feature (b) sponsorship (c) brand (d) logo
Ans:- C
21.If an advertiser wants flexibility, timeliness, good local market coverage, broad
acceptability and high believability, the advertiser will probably choose which of
the following mass media types?
(a) Newspapers (b) Television (c) Direct Mail (d) Radio
Ans:- A
22.When producers, wholesalers, and retailers as a unified system, they comprise
a
(a) conventional marketing system (b) power-based marketing system (c) horizontal
marketing system (d) vertical marketing system
Ans:- D

23.The type of trade-promotion discount in which manufacturers agree to reduce

the price to the retailer in exchange for the retailer's agreement to feature the
manufacture's products in some way is called
(a) discount (b) allowance (c) premium (d) rebate
Ans:- B
24.The study of human populations in terms of size, density, location, age, gender,
race, occupation, and other statistics is called:
(a) Geothermy (b) Demography (c) Ethnography (d) Hemos-popography
Ans:- B
25.Today, advertising captures about ___ percent of total promotion spending
(a) 15 (b) 23 (c) 29 (d) 33
Ans:- B
26.The process that turns marketing strategies and plans into marketing actions in
order to accomplish strategic marketing objectives is called:
(a) Marketing strategy (b) Marketing control
(c) Marketing analysis (d) Marketing implementation
Ans:- D
27.The goal of the marketing logistics system should be to provide:
(a) a targeted level of promotional support.
(b) a targeted level of customer service at the least cost.
(c) a targeted level of transportation expense ratio.
(d) a targeted level of field support.
Ans:- B
28.The practice of going after a large share of a smaller market or subsets of a few
markets is called:
(a) undifferentiated marketing (b) differentiated marketing
(c) concentrated marketing (d) turbo marketing
Ans:- C
29.The shrinking of distances due to technological advance such as computer and
fax connections by telephone, are one characteristic of what new challenge to
marketing?
(a) Rapid globalization
(b) The changing world economy
(c) The call for more socially responsible marketing
(d) The micro-chip revolution
Ans:- A
30.If Mark Mars pays Hershey Foods Corporation for the right to use their name on
his line of T-shirts, then Mr. Mars is using which type of branding?
(a) Licensed brand (b) Manufacturer's brand
(c) Private brand (d) Co-brand
Ans:- A

31.If your company were to make light bulbs to be used in photocopies, you would
most likely be selling to a ______ market.
(a) reseller (b) business (c) government (d) service
Ans:- B
32._____ has the advantage of being high in selectivity; low cost, immediacy, and
interactive capabilities
(a) Direct Mail (b) Outdoor (c) Online (d) Radio
Ans:- C
33.If your company were to make a product such as a suit of clothes and sold that
product to a retailer, your company would have sold to the _______market.
(a) reseller (b) business (c) government (d) service
Ans:- A
34.In 1985, the Coca-Cola Company made a classic marketing blunder with its
deletion of its popular Coca-Cola product and introduction of what it called New
Coke. Analysts now believe that most of the company's problems resulted from
poor marketing research. As the public demanded their "old Coke" back, the
company relented and reintroduced Coca-Cola Classic (which has regained and
surpassed its former position) while New Coke owns only 0.1 percent of the
market. Which of the following marketing research mistakes did coca-Cola make?
(a) They did not investigate pricing correctly and priced the product too high.
(b) They defined not investigate dealer reaction and had inadequate distribution.
(c) They defined their marketing research problem too narrowly
(d) They failed to account for the Pepsi challenge taste test in their marketing efforts
Ans:- C
35.Marketers are sometimes accused of deceptive practices that lead consumers
to believe they will get get more value than they actually do. ____ includes
practices such as falsely advertising "factory" or "wholesale" prices or a large
price reduction from a phony high retail price.
(a) Deceptive promotion (b) Deceptive packaging
(c) Deceptive pricing (d) Deceptive cost structure
Ans:- C
36.The advantages of audience selectivity, no ad competition and personalization
apply to which type of media?
(a) Newspapers (b) Television (c) Direct Mail (d) Radio
Ans:- C
37.The first modern environmental movement in the United States began in the:
(a) 1940s (b) 1950s (c) 1960s and 1970s (d) mid 1980s
Ans:- C
38.Costs that do not vary with production or sales levels are called:
(a) fixed costs (b) variable costs

(c) standard costs (d) independent costs

Ans:- A
39.Each salesperson is assigned to an exclusive area in which to sell the
company's full line of products or services in which type of sales force structure?
(a) Territorial sales force (b) Product sales force
(c) Customer sales force (d) Hybrid sales force
Ans:- A
40.Techonological advances, shifts in consumer tastes, and increased competition,
all of which reduce demand for a product are typical of which stage in the PLC?
(a) decline stage (b) introduction stage
(c) growth stage (d) maturity stage
Ans:- A
41.Setting the promotion budget so as to match the budgets of the competition is
characteristic of which of the following budget methods?
(a) Affordable method (b) Percentage-of-Sales method
(c) Competitive-and-parity method (d) Objective -and-task method
Ans:- C
42.____ is screening new-product ideas in order to spot good ideas and drop poor
ones as soon as possible.
(a) Idea generation (b) Concept development and testing
(c) Idea screening (d) Brainstorming
Ans:- C
43.The type of sales force structure in which the sales force sells along product
lines is called a
(a) territorial sales force (b) product sales force
(c) customer sales force (d) retail sales force
Ans:- B
44.A company is in the _____ stage of the new product development process
when the company develops the product concept into a physical product in order
to assure that the product idea can be turned into a workable product.
(a) product development (b) commercialization
(c) marketing strategy (d) business analysis
Ans:- A
45.When personal interviewing involves inviting six to ten people to gather for a
few hours with a trained interviewer to talk about a product, service, or
organization, the method is called:
(a) selective sponsorship (b) probing
(c) focus group interviewing (d) the Delphi method
Ans:- C
46.All of the following factors can affect the attractiveness of a market segment

EXCEPT:
(a) the presence of many strong and aggressive competitors
(b) the likelihood of government monitoring
(c) actual or potential substitute products
(d) the power of buyers in the segment
Ans:- B
47.If a government uses barriers to foreign products such as biases against a
foreign company's bids, or product standards that go against a foreign company's
product features, the government is using
(a) protectionism (b) exchange controls
(c) exchange facilitators (d) non-tariff trade barriers
Ans:- D
48.The choice between high markups and high volume is part of which of the
following retailer marketing decisions?
(a) Target market decisions
(b) Product assortment and services decisions
(c) Pricing decisions
(d) Promotion decisions
Ans:- C
49.One common misuse of marketing research findings in contemporary business
is the tendency for marketing research to:
(a) become a vehicle for pitching the sponsor's products
(b) become a vehicle for discriminating in the marketplace
(c) become a means for raising prices
(d) become a means for unfair competition
Ans:- A
50.The most logical budget setting method is found in the list below. Which is it?
(a) Affordable method (b) Percentage-of-Sales method
(c) Competitive-parity method (d) Objective-and-task method
Ans:- D
maths

1. Let R = qs4. When s=8, R=16. When s=10, R is equal toa. 11b. 14c. 20d. 21
Answer-d
3. If 272/3 81-1/2 = 3x, the value of x isa. -1b. 0c. 1d. 2
Answer -b
4. 0.333 .... 0.444 .... is equal to a. 0.148148148 ....b. 0.777 ....c.
0.121212 ....d. 1.333 ....

Answer-a
9. On converting the following base-2 numeral in base ten, 1101101, we geta.
96b. 104c. 108d. 109
Answer-d
10. The number of prime factors of (6)10(7)17(55)27 a. 54b. 64c. 81d. 91
Answer-d
11. A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds, while it crosses 100 meter long
platform in 25 seconds. The length of the train is -a. 125mb. 135 mc. 159 md.
175 m
Answer-c
12.Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively.
If both the taps are opened simultaneously and the tap A is closed after 3
minutes, then how much more time will it take to fill the tank by tap B?a. 7
min & 15 secb. 7 min & 45 secc. 8 min & 5 secd. 8 min & 15 sec
Answer-d
13. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3
respectively. In what ratio, the liquids be mixed in both the vessels so that the
new liquid contains half milk and half water?a. 7:5b. 1:2c. 2:1d. 6:5
Answer-a
14.A car covers a distance of 715 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the
car would have been 10 km/hr more, then it would have taken 2 hours less to
cover the same distance. What is the original speed of the car?a. 45 km/hrb. 50
km/hrc. 55 km/hrd. 65 km/hr
Answer-c
15.A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half of the work done by A and B together.
If C alone does the work in 40 days, then A, B and C together can do the work
in
Answer-a
16. A person covered some distance in 12 hours. He covered half the distance
by rail @ 75 km per hour and the rest by car @ 45 km/hr. The total distance
covered by him wasa. 450 kmb. 675 kmc. 337.5 kmd. 1350 km
Answer-b

17. A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3
times A's share, 4 times B's share and 7 times C's share are all equal. The share
of C isa. Rs. 84b. Rs. 147c. Rs. 196d. Rs. 240
Answer-a
18. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 12000 and Rs. 9000
respectively. After 3 months C also joined them with a capital of Rs. 15000.
The share of C in the half yearly profit of Rs. 9500 isa. Rs. 3500b. Rs. 3000c.
Rs. 2500d. Rs. 4000
Answer-c
19.A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do it in 18 days. They started
the work together but A left 3 days before the completion of the work. The
total number of days to complete the work is
Answer-b
20.The ratio of income of A and B is 5:4 and their expenditure is as 3:2. If at
the end of the year, each saves Rs. 800, then the income of A is a. Rs. 1700b.
Rs. 1800c. Rs. 2000d. Rs. 2200
Answer-c
21.A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked at it for 10 days
together and then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 30 more
days. B alone can finish the work in a. 48 daysb. 60 daysc. 75 daysd. 90 days
Answer-d
22.The ratio between the curved surface area and the total surface area of a
right circular cylinder is 1:2. If the total surface is 616 sq. cm, the volume of
the cylinder isa. 1848 cm3b. 1232 cm3c. 1078 cm3d. 980 cm3
Answer-c
23.A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of a rectangle
whose sides are in the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle isa. 30
cmb. 60 cmc. 72 cmd. 108 cm
Answer-b
24.A man walking at the rate of 6km per hour crosses a square field diagonally
in 9 seconds. The area of the field is-a. 125 sq. cmb. 112.5 sq. cmc. 110 sq.
cmd. 1002 sq. m
Answer-b
25.A rectangular carpet has an area of 240 sq. cm. If its diagonal and the

longer side are together equal to five times the shorter side, the length of the
carpet is -a. 10 cmb. 24 cmc. 26 cmd. 27.5 cmAnswer-b26.The ratio of 435 : 25
is same asa. 4 : 1b. 2 :1c. 7 : 5d. 7 :10
Answer-a
27. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of
the sphere to that of the cube isa. : 6b. : 6c. : 3d. 6 :
Answer-d
28.The marked price of a table is Rs. 3000 and is available at successive
discounts of 20% and 10% respectively. If there is an additional discount of 5%
on cash payment, then what is the cash price of the table?a. Rs. 2400b. Rs.
2160c. Rs. 2100d. Rs. 2052
Answer-d
29.A trader marks his goods 25% above the C.P. but discounts 15% on the
marked price. His gain percent in the deal isAnswer-b
30. A certain sum becomes Rs. 5290 in 2 years and Rs. 6083.50 in 3 years at C.I.
The rate of interest per annum is -a. 10%b. 12%c. 15%d. 16 %
Answer-c
31.A person borrowed Rs. 500@ 3% per annum S.I and Rs. 600 @4% per
annum on the agreement that the whole amount will be returned only when
the total interest becomes Rs. 126. The number of years, after which the
borrowed sum is to be returned, isa. 2b. 3c. 4d. 5
Answer-b
32.A sum of Rs. 12,000 doubles in 5 years at C.I. What will be the amount after
20 years?a. Rs. 1,20,000b. Rs. 1,92,000c. Rs. 1,24,000d. Rs. 96,000
Answer-b
33. A person sold 320 mangoes for the C.P. of 400 mangoes. His gain percent
isa. 10%b. 15%c. 12%d. 25%
Answer-d
34.On selling each of the rwo radios for Rs. 5000, a person neither gained nor
lost. If he had sold one radio at 25% gain, then at what percent loss did he sell
the other radio?
Answer-a

35. A person bought some oranges @ Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same
amount of oranges @ Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges @ Rs. 11 per dozen
and gained Rs. 120. The total number of oranges bought by him was -a. 30
dozenb. 40 dozenc. 50 dozend. 60 dozen
Answer-d
36.On selling a certain commodity for Rs. 425, there is as much gain as loss on
selling it for Rs. 355. The C.P. of the commodity isa. Rs. 370b. Rs. 385c. Rs.
390d. Rs. 400
Answer-c
37.A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of
interest is increased by 5% then the amount will increase toa. Rs. 950b. Rs.
980c. Rs. 1010d. Rs. 1040
Answer-d
38.Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third.
If the average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number isa. 24b. 36c.
17d. 72
Answer-d
39.A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would
require 25 kg of paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is
available in 2kg tins, the number of tins required for painting the house is -a.
15b. 12c. 10d. 20
Answer-a
40.Price of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by
15%. If the ratio of an employee's expenditure on food grains and other items is
2:5, by how much should his salary be increased so that he may maintain the
same level of consumption as before, assuming that his present salary is Rs.
3500?a. Rs. 300b. Rs. 350c. Rs. 375d. Rs. 475
Answer-d

PAPER : NUMERICAL ABILITY : BANK PO

Directions(Q. 1 to 2) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following questions ?

1. 73% of 8523 + 32% of 6245 = ?

(A) 804221 (B) 813628
(C) 862535 (D) 822019
(E) None of these

2. 8226 15 5 = ?
(A) 2156 (B) 10968
(C) 18556 (D) 2742
(E) None of these

3. 1 9 48 260 1590 ?
(A) 11130 (B) 11172
(C) 11135 (D) 11137
(E) None of these

4. 4 10 33 136 685 ?
(A) 3430 (B) 4110
(C) 4116 (D) 3435
(E) None of these

5. 25 27 30 34 39 ?
(A) 45 (B) 44
(C) 47 (D) 43
(E) None of these

Directions(Q. 6 to 10) What approximate value should come in place of the question
mark (?) in the following questions ?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
6. 182225 21652 33584 = ?
(A) 132507 (B) 149428
(C) 120426 (D) 106438
(E) 112642

7. 635% of 89242 + ?% of 53244 = 68275862

(A) 36 (B) 22
(C) 17 (D) 31
(E) 9

8. 11/7 + 22/3 + 18/5 = ?

(A) 21 (B) 8
(C) 25 (D) 13
(E) 30

9. (9%of86) X (6.5%of144) =?
A) 340.1664
B) .325.1664
C) 3.333.3333
D) 4.328.0065
E).None of these

10. 9546324 4584 = ?

(A) 2149 (B) 1986
(C) 2083 (D) 2247
(E) 1805

Directions(Q. 11 to 15) Study the information carefully and answer the questions that
follow
A school has a total of 1200 students. The ratio of girls to boys in the school is 3 : 2. All
the students have enrolled in hobby classes viz. Singing, Dancing, Martial Arts and
Cooking. One-twelfth of the boys have enrolled in only cooking classes.

25 per cent of the girls have enrolled in Cooking and Singing classes to-gether. Number
of boys enrolled in only Martial Arts classes is 150 per cent of the number of girls
enrolled in the same. Number of students enrol-led in only Dancing is 26 per cent of the
total number of students. 5 per cent of the girls have enrolled in only Martial Arts classes.
One-third of the boys enrolled in only Dancing classes. 35 per cent of the girls enrolled in
Singing, Dancing and Martial Arts together and the remaining enrolled in only Cooking.
15 percent of the boys enrolled in Cooking and Singing classes together and the
remaining enrolled in Singing, Dancing and Martial Arts classes together.

11. Number of boys enrolled in Cooking and Singing classes together is what per
cent of the girls enrolled in the same ?
(A) 48 (B) 36
(C) 20 (D) 25
(E) None of these

12. What is the total number of students learning Martial Arts ?

(A) 90 (B) 496
(C) 342 (D) 128
(E) None of these

13. How many girls are enrolled in only Cooking classes ?

(A) 280 (B) 252
(C) 154 (D) 100
(E) None of these

14. How many boys learn Singing ?

(A) 226 (B) 184
(C) 72 (D) 96
(E) None of these

15. What is the respective ratio of girls to boys enrolled in only Dancing classes ?
(A) 8 : 7 (B) 14 : 17
(C) 19 : 20 (D) 12 : 7
(E) None of these
16. 4 men, 5 women and 3 children together can complete a piece of work in 16 days.
In how many days can 10 women alone com-plete the piece of work if 10 men alone
complete the work in 24 days ?
(A) 18
(B) 15
(C) 12
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

17. What will be the difference bet-ween the simple interest and compound interest
earned on a sum of Rs. 985 @ 14 p.c.p.a. at the end of two years ?
(A) Rs. 16408
(B) Rs. 14214
(C) Rs. 19218
(D) Rs. 17405
(E) None of these

Directions(Q. 18 and 19) Study the information carefully to answer the questions that
follow
A basket contains 3 blue, 2 green and 5 red balls.
18. If three balls are picked at random, what is the probability that at least one is red ?
(A) 1/2 (B) 7/12
(C) 11/12 (D) 1/5
(E) None of these

19. If four balls are picked at random, what is the probability that two are green
and two are blue ?
(A) 1/8 (B) 1/70
(C) 3/5 (D) 1/2
(E) None of these

20. In how many different ways can the letters of the word FLEECED
be arranged ?
(A) 840 (B) 2520
(C) 1680 (D) 49
(E) None of these

ANSWERS :

1. (D 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (E) 12. (A) Total
no. of students learning Martial Arts = 36 + 54 = 90 13. (E) No. of girls enrolled in
only Cooking classes = 468 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (E) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (A)

Paper : Maths Practice Questions For Forthcomming Exam

[For: Bank PO , Bank Clerk, MBA ,CAT, UPSC,RRB TC/ CC]

1. How long will Lucy have to wait before for her $2,500 invested at 6% earns $600

in simple interest?
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years

E. 6 years
2. Grace has 16 jellybeans in her pocket. She has 8 red ones, 4 green ones, and 4
blue ones. What is the minimum number of jellybeans she must take out of her

pocket to ensure that she has one of each color?

A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 13

E. 16
3. If r = 5 z then 15 z = 3 y, then r =
A. y
B. 2 y
C. 5 y
D. 10 y

E. 15 y
4. What is 35% of a number if 12 is 15% of a number?
A. 5
B. 12
C. 28
D. 33

E. 62
5. A computer is on sale for $1600, which is a 20% discount off the regular price.

What is the regular price?

A. $1800
B. $1900
C. $2000

D. $2100

E. $2200
6. A car dealer sells a SUV for $39,000, which represents a 25% profit over the cost.

What was the cost of the SUV to the dealer?

A. $29,250
B. $31,200
C. $32,500
D. $33,800

E. $33,999
7. After having to pay increased income taxes this year, Edmond has to sell his BMW.
Edmond bought the car for $49,000, but he sold it for a 20% loss. What did Edmond

sell the car for?

A. $24,200
B. $28,900
C. $35,600
D. $37,300

E. $39,200
8. If Sam can do a job in 4 days that Lisa can do in 6 days and Tom can do in 2 days,

how long would the job take if Sam, Lisa, and Tom worked together to complete it?
A. 0.8 days
B. 1.09 days
C. 1.23 days
D. 1.65 days

E. 1.97 days
9. Find 0.12 12
A. 100
B. 10
C. 1
D. 0.01

E. 0.001
10. Divide x5 by x2
A. x25
B. x10
C. x7
D. x3

E. x2.5
11. Which of the following numbers could be described in the following way: an

integer that is a natural, rational and whole number?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2.33
D. -3

E. none of the above

12. Find the mode of the following list of numbers: 2, 4, 6, 4, 8, 2, 9, 4, 3, 8

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

E. 6
13. In the fraction 3/x, x may not be substituted by which of the following sets?
A. {1, 2, 4}
B. {-2,-3,-4}
C. {1, 3, 7}
D. {0, 10, 20}

E. {1.8, 4.3}
14. Sarah needs to make a cake and some cookies. The cake requires 3/8 cup of
sugar and the cookies require 3/5 cup of sugar. Sarah has 15/16 cups of sugar.

Does she have enough sugar, or how much more does she need?
A. She has enough sugar.
B. She needs 1/8 of a cup of sugar.
C. She needs 3/80 of a cup of sugar.
D. She needs 4/19 of a cup of sugar.

E. She needs 1/9 of a cup of sugar.

15. At a company fish fry, 1/2 in attendance are employees. Employees' spouses are
1/3 of the attendance. What is the percentage of the people in attendance who are

not employees or employee spouses?

A. 10.5%
B. 16.7%
C. 25%
D. 32.3%

E. 38%
16. In a college, some courses contribute more towards an overall GPA than other
courses. For example, a science class is worth 4 points; mathematics is worth 3
points; History is worth 2 points; and English is worth 3 points. The values of the
grade letters are as follows, A= 4, B=3, C=2, D=1, F=0. What is the GPA of a student
who made a C in Trigonometry, a B in American History, an

A in Botany, and a B in Microbiology?

A. 2.59
B. 2.86
C. 3.08
D. 3.33

E. 3.67
17. There are 8 ounces in a pound. How many ounces are in 7 3/4 lbs?
A. 12 ounces
B. 86 ounces
C. 119 ounces
D. 124 ounces
E. 138 ounces

18. If the value of x and y in the fraction XZ/Y are both tripled, how does the value

of the fraction change?

A. increases by half
B. decreases by half
C. triples
D. doubles

E. remains the same

19. What is the next number in the following pattern? 1, 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, ___
A. 1/10
B. 1/12
C. 1/14
D. 1/15

E. 1/16
20. Of the following units which would be more likely used to measure the amount of

water in a bathtub?
A. kilograms
B. liters
C. milliliters
D. centigrams

E. volts
21. If a match box is 0.17 feet long, what is its length in inches the most closely

comparable to the following?

A. 5 1/16 inch highlighter
B. 3 1/8 inch jewelry box
C. 2 3/4 inch lipstick
D. 2 3/16 inch staple remover

E. 4 1/2 inch calculator

22. Which of the following fractions is the equivalent of 0.5%?
A. 1/20
B. 1/200
C. 1/2000
D. 1/5

E. 1/500
23. In the graph below, no axes or origin is shown. If point B's coordinates are
(10,3), which of the following coordinates would most likely be A's?

A. (17, -2)
B. (10, 6)
C. (6, 8)
D. (-10, 3)

E. (-2, -17)
24. Over the course of a week, Fred spent $28.49 on lunch. What was the average

cost per day?

A. $4.07
B. $3.57
C. $6.51
D. $2.93

E. $5.41
25. Of the following units, which would be most likely to measure the amount of

sugar needed in a recipe for 2 dozen cookies?

A. degrees Celsius
B. milliliters
C. quarts
D. kilograms

E. cups
26. Jim has 5 pieces of string. He needs to choose the piece that will be able to go
around his 36-inch waist. His belt broke, and his pants are falling down. The piece
needs to be at least 4 inches longer than his waist so he can tie a knot in it, but it
cannot be more that 6 inches longer so that the ends will not show from under his

shirt. Which of the following pieces of string will work the best?
A. 3 4/5 feet
B. 3 2/3 feet
C. 3 3/8 feet
D. 3 1/4 feet
E. 2 1/2 feet

27. After purchasing a flat screen television for $750, John realizes that he got a
great deal on it and wishes to sell it for a 15% profit. What should his asking price

be for the television?

A. $800.30
B. $833.60
C. $842.35
D. $862.50

E. $970.25
28. If 300 jellybeans cost you x dollars. How many jellybeans can you purchase for

50 cents at the same rate?

A. 150/x
B. 150x
C. 6x
D. x/6

E. 1500x
29. If 6 is 24% of a number, what is 40% of the same number?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

E. 25
30. Lee worked 22 hours this week and made $132. If she works 15 hours next week

at the same pay rate, how much will she make?

A. $57
B. $90
C. $104
D. $112

E. $122
31. The last week of a month a car dealership sold 12 cars. A new sales promotion
came out the first week of the next month and the sold 19 cars that week. What was
the percent increase in sales from the last week of the previous month compared to

the first week of the next month?

A. 58%
B. 119%
C. 158%
D. 175%

E. 200%
32. If 8x + 5x + 2x + 4x = 114, the 5x + 3 =
A. 12
B. 25
C. 33
D. 47
E. 86

33. If two planes leave the same airport at 1:00 PM, how many miles apart will they
be at 3:00 PM if one travels directly north at 150 mph and the other travels directly

west at 200 mph?

A. 50 miles
B. 100 miles
C. 500 miles
D. 700 miles

E. 1,000 miles
34. What is the cost in dollars to steam clean a room W yards wide and L yards long

it the steam cleaners charge 10 cents per square foot?

A. 0.9WL
B. 0.3WL
C. 0.1WL
D. 9WL

E. 3WL
35. Find 8.23 x 109
A. 0.00000000823
B. 0.000000823
C. 8.23
D. 8230000000

E. 823000000000
36. During a 5-day festival, the number of visitors tripled each day. If the festival

opened on a Thursday with 345 visitors, what was the attendance on that Sunday?
A. 345
B. 1,035
C. 1,725
D. 3,105

E. 9,315
37. Which of the following has the least value?
A. 0.27
B. 1/4
C. 3/8
D. 2/11

E. 11%
38. How many boys attended the 1995 convention?

A. 358
B. 390
C. 407
D. 540

E. 716
39. Which year did the same number of boys and girls attend the conference?
A. 1995
B. 1996
C. 1997
D. 1998

E. None
40. Which two years did the least number of boys attend the convention?
A. 1995 and 1996
B. 1995 and 1998
C. 1996 and 1997
D. 1997 and 1994
E. 1997 and 1998

Answer Key
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. E 8. B 9. D 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. C 17.
D 18. E 19. E 20. B 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. E 26. C 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. B 31. A
32. C 33. C 34. A 35. D 36. E 37. E 38. A 39. A 40. A

Reasoning Test : Paper For Bank PO, Bank Clerk, S.S.C., RRB TC, ASM, B.ED Exam
Reasoning :
Directions-(Q.1-7) In each of the following questions a series is given. Which one of the alternatives
will replace the question-mark (?) ?
1. CG, GH, LJ, RM, ?
(A) ZR
(B) YR
(C) ZQ
(D) YQ
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
2. FRP, HPQ. JNS, LLV, ?
(A) PKZ
(B) NJZ
(C) OJZ
(D) MKZ
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. Z15A, W13C, ?, Q9G, N7I.
(A) T12F
(B) R11F
(C) T11E
(D) R13D
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
4. MN, NM, MNO, ONM, MNOP, ?
(A) NPOM
(B) POMN
(C) MOPN
(D) PONM
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
5. CVD, CTE, DQE, DMF, EHF, ?
(A) ECG
(B) FCG
(C) EBG
(D) FBG
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. JKL, LKJ, JKLM, MLKJ, JKLMN, ?
(A) LMJKN
(B) NLMKJ
(C) NMUK

(D) NMLKJ
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
7. 7T19, 9Q16, 11N13, 13K10, 15H7, ?
(A) 17E4
(B) 18F5
(C) 17E3
(D) 18D4
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions (Q.8-10) In each of the following questions one number-series is given in which one term
is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
8. 5, 7, 11, 20, 35, 67.
(A) 11
(B) 20
(C) 35
(D) 67
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. 4, 11, 21, 34, 49, 69,91.
(A) 34
(B) 69
(C) 49
(D) 21
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
10. 5, 12, 19, 33, 47, 75, 104.
(A) 33
(B) 47
(C) 75
(D) 104
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions(Q.11-15) In each of the following questions a number-sereis is given. Which one of the
alternatives will replace the question mark (?) ?
11. 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ?
(A) 169
(B) 159
(C) 119
(D) 139
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. 0, 7, 26, 65, 124, 215, ?
(A) 305
(B) 295

(C) 342
(D) 323
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. 4, 7, 10, 10, 16, 13, ?
(A) 19
(B) 23
(C) 21
(D) 22
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
14. 7, 12, 19, 28, 39, ?
(A) 52
(B) 50
(C) 51
(D) 48
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
15. 2, 11, 47, 191, 767, ?
(A) 2981
(B) 3068
(C) 3081
(D) 3058
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
Directions(Q.16-20) In each of the following questions a letter-series is given, in which some letters
are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find the
correct alternative.
16. mnopnopnopm.
(A) opmno
(B) pmomn
(C) pmmpn
(D) nmopo
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
17. baababbbaaba.
(A) abab
(B) aabb
(C) baab
(D) bbaa
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
18. accacccaaccccaaa.
(A) caac
(B) ccaa

(C) acca
(D) caaa
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
19. mnmmnmmn.
(A) nmnn
(B) nmnm
(C) mmmn
(D) nmnm
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. accabbacaabaacac.
(A) acbc
(B) abca
(C) bacb
(D) acbb
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
21. If the position of Raja is 15th from one end and 13th from the other end in his class, what is the
total number of students in his class? .
(A) 28
(B) 24
(C) 27
(D) 29
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
22. The position of Satyam is 13th from the last. If there are 21 students in all in his class, what is his
position from the beginning?
(A) 8th
(B) 9th
(C) 7th
(D)) 10th
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
23. In the class of 40 students, if Sangita is at 30th place from one end, what is his position from the
other end?
(A) 9th
(B) 12th
(C) 10th
(D) 11th
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. In a row of girls, Neelam is 15th from the left and Vinita is 23rd from the right. If they interchange
their positions, then Neelam becomes 18 th from the left. Then at what position will Vinita be from the
right?

(A) 25th
(B) 24th
(C) 26th
(D) 20th
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
25. In a row of ladies Manokamana is 20th from the right and Kamala is 10th from the left. When they
interchange their positions Manokamana becomes 25th from the right. What is the total number of
ladies in the row ?
(A) 35
(B) 34
(C) 44
(D) 24
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)