WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION

BOOK 1

1. Endodontic therapy is CONTRAINDICATED 5. Benzodiazepines have all of the following

in teeth with actions EXCEPT

A. inadequate periodontal support. A. muscle relaxation.

B. pulp stones. B. sedation.
C. constricted root canals. C. amnesia.
D. accessory canals. D. anticonvulsant action.
E. curved roots. E. analgesia.

2. After performing an apicoectomy, which of the 6. A patient presents with constant excruciating
following should be placed in the bony defect pain from a tooth that feels "long" and is
prior to suturing the flap? sensitive to pressure. The most likely diagnosis
would be a/an
A. Corticosteroids.
B. Antibiotic powder. A. acute pulpitis.
C. Oxidized cellulose. B. chronic abscess.
D. Bone wax. C. acute apical periodontitis.
E. Nothing. D. granuloma.

3. A primordial cyst 7. Having just completed endodontic treatment on

a maxillary central incisor, you are preparing
A. develops in place of a tooth. the canal for a post when you inadvertently
B. attaches to the apex of a tooth. perforate the labial surface of the root. You
C. attaches to the crown of a tooth. would
D. remains after the tooth is extracted.
A. extract the tooth.
B. cement the post using zinc-
oxyphosphate cement.
4. Radiographically, the lamina dura is a C. cement the post, then raise a flap and
seal the defect surgically with
A. thick layer of bone forming the inner amalgam.
surface of the alveolus. D. re-prepare the canal so the post is now
B. thin radiolucent line around the roots totally within the canal and cement the
of the teeth. post.
C. thick layer of cortical bone.
D. thin radiopaque line around the roots
of the teeth.
 WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK 1

8. In restoring occlusal anatomy, the protrusive 12. Twenty-four hours after placement of a Class
condylar path inclination has its primary II amalgam restoration, a patient returns
influence on the morphology of complaining of discomfort when "biting".
There are no other symptoms. It is most likely
A. cusp height. that the
B. anterior teeth only.
C. mesial inclines of maxillary cusps and A. pulp was exposed.
distal inclines of mandibular cusps. B. restoration is leaking.
D. mesial inclines of mandibular cusps C. restoration is in supra-occlusion.
and distal inclines of maxillary cusps. D. amount of base material is inadequate.

9. Which of the following is most often associated 13. For which of the following teeth is the risk of
with a non-vital tooth? root fracture increased if a rotational force is
used during extraction?
A. Periapical cyst.
B. Internal resorption. A. Upper canine.
C. Periapical cementoma. B. Lower canine.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis. C. Upper first bicuspid.
D. Lower first bicuspid.
E. Upper lateral incisor.

10. An ameloblastoma can develop from the

epithelial lining of which of the following cysts?
14. The most appropriate treatment following the
A. Periapical. extraction of a first primary molar in a 4-year
B. Dentigerous. old child is
C. Residual.
D. Lateral periodontal. A. regular assessment of arch
development.
B. to perform space analysis.
C. insertion of a space maintainer.
11. A patient with complete dentures complains of D. extraction of the contra-lateral molar.
clicking. The most common causes are E. extraction of the opposing molar.

A. reduced vertical dimension and

improperly balanced occlusion.
B. excessive vertical dimension and poor 15. A mucocele differs from a mucoepidermoid
retention. carcinoma because the mucocele
C. use of too large a posterior tooth and
too little horizontal overlap. A. contains mucus.
D. improper relation of teeth to the ridge B. affects young people.
and excessive anterior vertical overlap. C. occurs on the lower lip.
D. is caused by trauma.
 WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK 1

16. While the teeth are set in wax, dentures are 19. What clinical evidence would support a
tried in to diagnosis of acute dento-alveolar abscess?

A. verify the maxillomandibular records. 1. A negative reaction to the electric

B. verify the vertical dimension of vitality tester.
occlusion. 2. A positive reaction of short duration to
C. evaluate esthetics. cold.
D. All of the above. 3. A positive reaction to percussion.
4. Presence of a draining fistula.

A. (1) (2) (3)

17. Under normal conditions, the most definitive B. (1) and (3)
test to confirm the loss of pulp vitality is C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
A. applying warm gutta percha to the E. All of the above.
crown.
B. cutting into the dentin without
anaesthetic.
C. applying ethyl chloride to the crown. 20. Which of the following microorganisms are
D. performing a radiographic examination most frequently found in infected root canals?
of the tooth.
E. performing an electric pulp test. A. Streptococcus viridans.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Lactobacilli.
D. Enterococci.
18. For which of the following pathological E. Staphylococcus albus.
conditions would a lower central incisor tooth
be expected to respond to heat, cold and
electric pulp test?
21. In the mandibular first premolar, the occlusal
A. Apical cyst. dovetail of an ideal disto-occlusal amalgam
B. Acute apical abscess. preparation is usually not extended into the
C. Periapical osteofibrosis. mesial fossa because of the
D. Chronic apical periodontitis.
A. small lingual lobe.
B. large buccal cusp.
C. large buccal pulp horn.
D. prominent transverse ridge.
 WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK 1

22. When removal of carious dentin results in an 26. Which of the following conditions is most likely
exposure of non-vital pulp, the treatment of to be associated with a draining fistula?
choice is to
A. Chronic periapical periodontitis.
A. institute endodontic treatment. B. Reversible pulpitis.
B. cap the exposed pulp horn with C. Hypercementosis.
calcium hydroxide. D. Traumatic bone cyst.
C. occlude the cavity with a light packing
of cotton moistened with eugenol.
D. place a temporary restoration and
observe. 27. Contraction of the external (lateral) pterygoid
muscle pulls the disc of the temporomandibular
joint

23. The initial treatment of choice for a 16-year old A. forward and medially.
patient, who presents with multiple extensive B. backward and medially.
carious lesions, is to place the patient on a C. forward and laterally.
preventive regime and to D. backward and laterally.
E. None of the above.
A. place amalgam restorations over the
next few months.
B. excavate caries and place temporary
restorations within the next few weeks. 28. Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia,
C. delay any treatment until the hygiene increased mitosis, intact basal cell layer and
improves. chronic inflammatory cells are histologic
D. restore all teeth with composite resin features that may be found in
over the next few months.
A. squamous cell carcinoma.
B. carcinoma in situ.
C. papillofibroma.
24. A protective mechanism of the dental pulp to D. endothelioma.
external irritation or caries is the formation of

A. pulp stones.
B. secondary dentin. 29. Osteomyelitis of the mandible may follow
C. secondary cementum.
D. primary dentin. 1. radiotherapy.
2. dentoalveolar abscess.
3. fracture.
4. Vincent’s angina.
25. Condensing osteitis in the periapical region is
indicative of a/an A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
A. acute inflammation of the pulp. C. (2) and (4)
B. pulpal abscess. D. (4) only
C. chronic inflammation of the pulp. E. All of the above.
D. early apical abscess formation.
E. None of the above.
 WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK 1

30. Which of the following is/are associated with

an unerupted tooth? 34. A decrease of which of the following is
indicative of hypoparathyroidism?
1. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor.
2. Periapical cemental dysplasia. A. Serum phosphorus.
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic B. Serum calcium.
tumor. C. Thyroid activity.
4. Cementoblastoma. D. Serum alkaline phosphatase.

A. (1) (2) (3)

B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) 35. The microscopic appearance of the central
D. (4) only giant cell granuloma of the jaws is similar to
E. All of the above. that of lesions which occur in

A. hyperparathyroidism.
B. Paget's disease.
31. A 15-year old presents with hypoplastic enamel C. cleidocranial dysplasia (dysostosis).
on tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This D. hyperpituitarism.
was most probably caused by a/an

A. vitamin D deficiency.
B. generalized calcium deficiency.
C. high fever encountered by the patient 36. A patient who uses nitroglycerine has
when he had measles at age 3.
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the A. rheumatic heart disease.
development of tooth 1.5. B. asthma.
E. hereditary factor. C. coronary artery disease.
D. high blood pressure.
E. cardiac arrhythmia.

32. The greatest single factor in reducing radiation

exposure in dentistry is
37. The normal white cell differential count for
A. higher kVp. neutrophils is
B. proper filtration.
C. high speed film. A. 10-19%.
D. collimation of the X-ray beam. B. 20-29%.
C. 30-39%.
D. 40-65%.
E. 66-90%.
33. Which of the following sites for squamous cell
carcinoma has the best prognosis?

A. Lower lip.
B. Retromolar area.
C. Gingiva.
D. Buccal mucosa.
E. Hard palate.
 WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK 1

38. The benign neoplasm that originates from 42. Intensifying screens are used when exposing
squamous epithelium is called a/an extra-oral radiographic films to

A. adenoma. A. improve detail.

B. choriocarcinoma. B. decrease exposure time.
C. chondroma. C. decrease scatter radiation.
D. lipoma. D. increase the quantity of X-rays
E. papilloma. necessary to produce a certain
photographic effect on silver.
E. None of the above.

39. A decrease in the neutrophil count is present in

A. granulocytopenia (agranulocytosis). 43. An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat

B. iron deficiency anemia. oral malignancies is
C. myeloid leukemia.
D. leukocytosis. A. deformity of the jaws.
E. thrombocytopenic purpura. B. reduced vascularity of the jaws.
C. increased vascularity of the jaws.
D. increased brittleness of the jaws.
E. none of the above.
40. The apical region of a non-vital tooth with a
deep carious lesion may radiographically show

1. widening of the periodontal space. 44. Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for
2. loss of lamina dura. dental films is influenced by
3. a circumscribed radiolucency.
4. calcification of the periodontal A. line voltage fluctuation.
membrane. B. diameter of the primary beam of
radiation.
A. (1) (2) (3) C. type of timer.
B. (1) and (3) D. tissue density.
C. (2) and (4) E. filter thickness.
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

45. A radiopaque area within the alveolar process

41. Which of the following combinations of containing several rudimentary teeth suggests
milliamperage and kilovoltage will give X- a/an
radiation with the maximum penetration?
A. periapical cemental dysplasia.
A. 10kVp - 65ma B. ameloblastoma.
B. 85kVp - 5ma C. compound odontoma.
C. 90kVp - 10ma D. complex odontoma.
D. 65kVp - 15ma E. Pindborg tumor.
E. 75kVp - 40ma
 WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK 1

46. A patient complains of acute pain 24 hours 49. Which therapeutic agent is absolutely
after the insertion of a restoration in a tooth CONTRAINDICATED in the treatment of
with no pre-existing periapical pathology. The herpes simplex?
tooth is vital and tender to percussion. The
radiograph will show A. Vitamin C.
B. Acetylsalicylic acid.
A. an apical radiolucency. C. Antibiotics.
B. acute osteitis. D. Corticosteroids.
C. root resorption. E. Local anesthetics.
D. condensing osteitis.
E. none of the above.

50. Basal cell carcinoma

47. Radiographically, the opening of the incisive A. metastasizes to the submental lymph
canal may be misdiagnosed as a nodes.
B. metastasizes to the submaxillary lymph
1. branchial cyst. nodes.
2. nasopalatine cyst. C. metastasizes to the cervical lymph
3. nasolabial cyst. nodes.
4. radicular cyst. D. metastasizes to the pre-auricular lymph
nodes.
A. (1) (2) (3) E. does not normally metastasize.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. 51. In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be
differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess
by

48. On a bitewing radiograph of posterior teeth, A. pain.

which of the following is most likely to be B. type of exudate.
misdiagnosed as proximal caries? C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical
A. Cemento-enamel junction. stimulation.
B. Marginal ridge. E. radiographic examination.
C. Carabelli cusp.
D. Calculus.
E. Cemental tear.
52. In the presence of an acute bacterial infection,
laboratory tests will show an increase in

A. polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
B. plasma cells.
C. lymphocytes.
D. monocytes.
E. eosinophils.
 WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK 1

53. A patient presents with apparent paralysis of 56. Which gingival manifestation(s) would be
one side of the face which appeared the day expected in a patient with a blood dyscrasia?
before. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Enlargement.
A. Glossodynia. 2. Bleeding.
B. Bell's palsy. 3. Ulceration.
C. Myasthenia gravis. 4. Atrophy.
D. Trigeminal neuralgia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
54. Which of the following tumors has the best D. (4) only
prognosis in terms of patient survival? E. All of the above.

A. Osteosarcoma.
B. Melanoma.
C. Ameloblastoma. 57. Mucoceles are most commonly found in the
D. Adenocarcinoma.
A. upper lip.
B. lower lip.
C. tongue.
55. Signs and symptoms of diabetic patients D. buccal mucosa.
include E. soft palate.

1. polyuria.
2. polydipsia.
3. glycosuria. 58. The main purpose of collimation of an x-ray
4. dysphagia. beam is to

A. (1) (2) (3) A. permit the use of lower kilovoltage

B. (1) and (3) during exposure.
C. (2) and (4) B. filter out useless short rays.
D. (4) only C. permit use of the long cone technique.
E. All of the above. D. reduce the diameter of the primary
beam.
E. reduce exposure time.

59. Multiple supernumerary teeth are most

commonly found in

A. cherubism.
B. cretinism.
C. hypothyroidism.
D. cleidocranial dysplasia.
E. Down's syndrome.
 WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK 1

60. Which of the following results from a necrotic

pulp? 65. Excessive formation of scar tissue beyond the
wound margin is called
A. Dentigerous cyst.
B. Lateral periodontal cyst. A. a fibroma.
C. Dental granuloma. B. a keloid.
D. Pulp polyp. C. a fibro-epithelial polyp.
E. Periapical osteofibrosis. D. epithelial hyperplasia.

66. Median palatine cysts are classified as

61. Mottled enamel is a/an
A. developmental.
A. form of enamel hypoplasia. B. residual.
B. manifestation of fluorosis. C. idiopathic.
C. enameloma. D. odontogenic.
D. side effect of tetracycline therapy. E. none of the above.

62. A 12-year old boy has a history of severe sore 67. In radiography, minimum magnification and
throat followed by migratory arthralgia and maximum definition are achieved by
swollen joints of the extremities. This history
is suggestive of A. minimum OFD (object-film distance)
and minimum FFD (focal-film
A. gout. distance).
B. osteoarthritis. B. minimum OFD (object-film distance)
C. Still's disease. and maximum FFD (focal-film
D. rheumatic fever. distance).
E. rheumatoid arthritis. C. maximum OFD (object -film distance)
and maximum FFD (focal-film
distance).
D. maximum OFD (object-film distance)
63. Myxoedema is associated with and minimum FFD (focal-film
distance).
A. insufficient parathyroid hormone.
B. excessive parathyroid hormone.
C. insufficient thyroid hormone.
D. excessive thyroid hormone. 68. Ankylosis is commonly

A. associated with a non-vital pulp.

B. the result of a root fracture.
64. The finding of “acid-fast” microorganisms in C. associated with a root penetrating
sputum suggests the presence of cavity.
D. resulting in a submerged tooth, out of
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. occlusion.
B. Diplococcus pneumoniae. E. found in permanent teeth.
C. Streptococcus pyogenes.
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
 WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK 1

69. An ameloblastoma is most frequently found in 73. Which one of the following would be of
greatest value in determining the etiology of an
A. the anterior region of the maxilla. oral ulceration?
B. the mandible, near the junction of the
body and the ramus. A. History of the oral lesion.
C. the posterior region of the maxilla. B. Cytological smear.
D. in the anterior region of the mandible C. Systemic evaluation.
near the midline. D. Laboratory tests.

70. Intermittent painful swelling in the 74. Which of the following will impede healing
submandibular region that increases at following the surgical closure of an oro-antral
mealtime is indicative of fistula?

A. a ranula. 1. Poor flap design.

B. a blockage of Wharton's duct. 2. Excessive tissue tension.
C. Ludwig's angina. 3. Blowing the nose.
D. a blockage of Stensen's duct. 4. Sinus infection.
E. an epidemic parotitis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
71. Which of the following is/are NOT usually D. (4) only
affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia? E. All of the above.

A. Salivary glands.
B. Teeth.
C. Sweat glands. 75. The most likely complication associated with
D. Hair. the extraction of an isolated maxillary second
E. Fingernails. molar is

A. a dry socket.
B. nerve damage.
72. Which of the following histopathological C. fracture of the malar ridge.
features would be the most reliable indicator of D. fracture of the tuberosity.
the malignancy of a neoplasm?

A. Hyperchromatism.
B. Pleomorphism. 76. A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a
C. Encapsulation.
D. Invasion. A. fracture of the zygomatic arch.
E. Degeneration. B. horizontal fracture of the maxilla.
C. fracture of the malar complex
involving the floor of the orbit.
D. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla.
E. cranio-facial dysjunction.
 WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK 1

77. An examination of a patient who has fallen on 80. In an acute upper airway obstruction, the entry
their chin and fractured the right subcondylar to the airway on an emergency basis should be
region would reveal made at the

1. trismus. A. cricoid cartilage.

2. deflection of the mandible to the left B. thyroid notch.
on opening. C. thyroid membrane.
3. pain and tenderness. D. cricothyroid membrane.
4. paresthesia of the right lower lip. E. first tracheal ring.

A. (1) (2) (3)

B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) 81. Ludwig's angina may cause death by
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. A. heart failure.
B. asphyxia.
C. convulsions.
D. paralysis of muscles of respiration.
78. A patient presents with pain in the maxilla E. pyemia.
following a severe cold. The teeth react
normally to pulp tests and there is no clinical or
radiographic evidence of caries or other
pathosis. The patient probably has 82. If an odontogenic infection involves the
pterygomandibular space, the most obvious
A. atypical facial neuralgia. clinical sign will be
B. pulpitis.
C. sinusitis. A. trismus.
D. trigeminal neuralgia. B. facial swelling.
C. swelling in the submandibular area.
D. rise in body temperature above 39°C
(102ºF).
79. Which of the following features would be most
indicative of a cracked tooth?

A. Periapical radiolucency. 83. It is difficult to obtain satisfactory anesthesia in

B. Hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli. the presence of infection near the injection site
C. Pain upon pressure. because
D. Absent vitalometric response.
A. the swelling causes increased pressure
on the nerves.
B. increased blood supply carries the
anesthetic solution away too fast.
C. acidity of the infected tissue inhibits
action of the anesthetic agent.
D. alkalinity of the infected tissue inhibits
action of the anesthetic agent.
 WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK 1

84. A patient who is jaundiced because of liver 88. The therapeutic index of a drug is the ratio of
disease has an increased risk of
A. the effective dose to the toxic dose.
A. postextraction bleeding. B. half the toxic dose to half the effective
B. cardiac arrest. dose.
C. postoperative infection. C. the maximum tolerated dose to the
D. anaphylactic shock. minimum effective dose.
E. pulmonary embolism. D. the lethal dose for 50% of animals to
the effective dose for 50% of animals.

85. Which of the following antibiotics may be

cross-allergenic with penicillin? 89. Tetracyclines

A. Neomycin. 1. have no side effects.

B. Cephalexin. 2. may increase susceptibility to
C. Clindamycin. superinfections.
D. Erythromycin. 3. are safe to use during pregnancy.
E. Tetracycline. 4. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial
activity.

A. (1) (2) (3)

86. Immediately following a posterior superior B. (1) and (3)
alveolar block injection, the patient's face C. (2) and (4)
becomes quickly and visibly swollen. The D. (4) only
immediate treatment should be to E. All of the above.

A. use pressure followed by cold packs

over the swelling.
B. use hot packs over the swelling. 90. Which of the following drugs has/have
C. refer the patient to a hospital. antisialagogue properties?
D. administer 100mg hydrocortisone
intravenously. 1. Codeine.
E. administer diphenhydramine 2. Atropine.
hydrochloride (Benadryl) 50mg 3. Acetylsalicylic acid.
intravenously. 4. Methantheline.

A. (1) (2) (3)

B. (1) and (3)
87. Which of the following local anesthetics is C. (2) and (4)
subject to inactivation by plasma esterases? D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
A. Procaine.
B. Lidocaine.
C. Prilocaine.
D. Mepivacaine.
E. Bupivacaine.
 WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK 1

91. Which valve is most commonly affected by 95. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
rheumatic heart disease? (AIDS) may be characterized by

A. Aortic. 1. candidiasis.
B. Pulmonary. 2. rapid weight loss and night sweats.
C. Tricuspid. 3. extreme malaise, fever or chills.
D. Mitral. 4. a smooth and red tongue.

A. (1) (2) (3)

B. (1) and (3)
92. Trismus is most frequently caused by C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
A. tetanus. E. All of the above.
B. muscular dystrophy.
C. infection.
D. mandibular fracture.
96. During drug-receptor interaction, local
anaesthetics interfere with the transport of
which of the following ions?
93. Acetaminophen in therapeutic doses
A. Sodium.
1. retards platelet function. B. Calcium.
2. has strong anti-inflammatory C. Chloride.
properties. D. Potassium.
3. produces CNS stimulation. E. Magnesium.
4. has antipyretic properties.

A. (1) (2) (3)

B. (1) and (3) 97. A positive Nikolsky's sign is a diagnostic
C. (2) and (4) feature of
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. A. lichen planus.
B. erythema multiforme.
C. pemphigus.
D. chronic marginal gingivitis.
94. Short-acting barbiturates are metabolized E. lupus erythematosus.
mainly in the

A. liver.
B. kidneys. 98. Which properties increase the tendency of a
C. small intestine. drug to cross membranes?
D. pancreas.
E. spleen. A. Non-ionized and high lipid solubility.
B. Non-ionized and low lipid solubility.
C. Ionized and low lipid solubility.
D. Ionized and water solubility.
 WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION
BOOK 1

99. Which of the following would you prescribe for 103. The most logical explanation for causing
an anxious dental patient with a peptic ulcer? swelling beneath the eye caused by an
abscessed maxillary canine is that the
A. Reserpine.
B. Scopolamine. A. lymphatics drain superiorly in this
C. Silica gel. region.
D. Diazepam. B. bone is less porous superior to the root
E. Calcium carbonate. apex.
C. infection has passed into the angular
vein which has no valves.
D. the root apex lies superior to the
100. Which of the following drugs is used in the attachment of the caninus and levator
treatment of MILD allergic reactions? labii superioris muscles.

A. Isoproterenol.
B. Meperidine hydrochloride.
C. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride. 104. A patient presents with a non-healing lesion on
D. Propoxyphene. the side of the nose. It has a rolled border and
has been increasing in size. The most likely
diagnosis is

101. A 4-year old child has a normal complement of A. a sebaceous cyst.

deciduous teeth, but in appearance they are B. a basal cell carcinoma.
grayish and exhibit extensive occlusal and C. lupus erythematosus.
incisal wear. Radiographic examination D. verruca vulgaris.
indicates some extensive deposits of secondary E. an epulis.
dentin in these teeth. This condition is typical
of

A. cleidocranial dysplasia (dysostosis). 105. Which of the following statements is/are true
B. amelogenesis imperfecta. regarding diazepam?
C. neonatal hypoplasia.
D. dentinogenesis imperfecta. 1. Its long duration of action is partly due
to active metabolites.
2. It does not produce antianxiety effects
after intramuscular administration.
102. Which of the following is NOT a sign or 3. Intravenous administration is more
symptom of the myofascial pain dysfunction reliable than oral.
syndrome? 4. Its sedative effect can be reversed by
naloxone.
A. Pain.
B. Muscle tenderness. A. (1) (2) (3)
C. Limitation of jaw motion. B. (1) and (3)
D. "Clicking" or "popping" noise in the C. (2) and (4)
joints. D. (4) only
E. Radiographic changes of the joint. E. All of the above.
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BOOK 1

106. In a standard inferior alveolar nerve block, 110. In the treatment of an acute anaphylactic
which muscle is penetrated by the needle? reaction, the first drug that should be
administered is
A. Buccinator.
B. Mylohyoid. A. hydroxyzine.
C. Superior constrictor. B. epinephrine.
D. Masseter. C. hydrocortisone.
E. Medial (internal) pterygoid. D. diphenhydramine.

107. Epinephrine should NOT be used as a 111. In a Factor VIII hemophiliac, which of the
vasoconstrictor for patients with uncontrolled following laboratory findings is typical?

A. hyperthyroidism. A. Prolonged clotting time.

B. hyperparathyroidism. B. Prolonged bleeding time.
C. myxoedema. C. Abnormally low blood platelet count.
D. asthma. D. Prothrombin time 30% of normal.

108. Which of the following is the strongest stimulus 112. An acute periapical abscess originating from a
to respiration? mandibular third molar generally points and
drains in the
A. Decrease in arterial pH.
B. Increase in arterial oxygen. A. submandibular space.
C. Decrease in arterial oxygen. B. pterygomandibular space.
D. Increase in arterial carbon dioxide. C. buccal vestibule.
E. Decrease in arterial carbon dioxide. D. buccal space.

109. A 57-year old man received 10mg of diazepam 113. During extraction of a maxillary third molar,
intravenously. He becomes unresponsive to the tuberosity is fractured. The tooth with the
verbal stimuli, and his respirations are tuberosity remains attached to the surrounding
depressed to 10 per minute. Appropriate soft tissue. You should
treatment is to
A. remove both and suture.
A. administer ephedrine. B. leave both and stabilize, if possible.
B. observe the patient. C. remove both, fill the defect with
C. force the patient to drink coffee. Gelfoam and suture.
D. support respiration with oxygen. D. reflect the mucoperiosteum, remove
the tooth, leaving the tuberosity in
place and suture.
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114. When sutures are used to reposition tissue over 117. After an inferior alveolar nerve block injection,
extraction sites, they should be a patient would develop seventh nerve
paralysis if the injection was made into the
1. placed over firm bone where possible.
2. interrupted, 15mm apart. A. internal maxillary artery.
3. firm enough to approximate tissue B. retroparotid space.
flaps without blanching. C. internal pterygoid muscle.
4. tight enough to produce immediate D. retromandibular vein.
hemostasis. E. pterygoid plexus of veins.

A. (1) (2) (3)

B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4) 118. A known insulin dependent diabetic patient
D. (4) only feels unwell following the administration of a
E. All of the above. local anesthetic and becomes pale and sweaty.
This condition does not respond to placing the
patient in a supine position. The most likely
cause is
115. What is the maximum number of cartridges
(1.8ml) of a 2% local anesthetic solution that A. syncope.
can be administered without exceeding a total B. adrenal insufficiency.
dose of 300mg? C. hyperglycemia.
D. hypoglycemia.
A. 2 E. carotid sinus reflex.
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. 10 119. A 5-year old child presents with yellow
pigmentation of the deciduous teeth which
under ultraviolet light gives a bright yellow
fluorescence. This is diagnostic of
116. Procaine (Novocaine) is an example of a local
anaesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. tetracycline pigmentation.
B. pigmentation associated with
A. amide. chromogenic bacteria.
B. ester. C. amelogenesis imperfecta.
C. aldehyde. D. enamel hypoplasia.
D. ethamine.
E. aminide.

120. The facial and lingual walls of the occlusal

portion of a Class II cavity preparation for an
amalgam in deciduous teeth should

A. be parallel to each other.

B. diverge toward the occlusal surface.
C. converge toward the occlusal surface.
D. not follow the direction of the enamel
rods.
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124. In a 4-year old child, the primary central

121. A radiographic examination of a 10-year old incisor has discolored following a traumatic
child reveals retention of deciduous teeth and injury. The treatment of choice is
presence of many unerupted supernumerary
teeth. This is characteristic of A. pulpotomy.
B. pulpectomy.
A. cleidocranial dysplasia. C. observation.
B. ectodermal dysplasia. D. extraction.
C. dentinogenesis imperfecta.
D. congenital hypothyroidism.

125. In a normal eruption pattern, the last primary

tooth to be lost is the
122. Which of the following patients should be
referred for orthodontic treatment to close a A. maxillary canine.
diastema between maxillary central incisors? B. mandibular canine.
C. maxillary first molar.
1. An 8-year old with no abnormal oral D. mandibular second molar.
habits. E. maxillary second molar.
2. A 14-year old with no abnormal oral
habits.
3. A 3-year old with a 4mm overjet.
4. An 8-year old with a previous thumb 126. Mandibular growth
habit.
A. is sustained over a longer period of
A. (1) (2) (3) time in girls.
B. (1) and (3) B. is sustained over a longer period of
C. (2) and (4) time in boys.
D. (4) only C. occurs at the same chronologic age in
E. All of the above. both sexes.
D. occurs two years earlier in boys than in
girls.

123. A 12-year old child presents with characteristic

tetracycline discolouration of the maxillary and
mandibular incisors and permanent first molars. 127. Hypothyroidism affects the dental
The probable age at which this child received developmental pattern by
tetracycline therapy was
A. interfering with jaw growth.
A. 6 years. B. delaying the eruption timetable.
B. 4 years. C. causing sclerotic bone to form over the
C. 1 year. occlusal surface of erupting teeth.
D. before birth. D. accelerating the eruption timetable.
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128. The roots of primary molars in the absence of 131. Bacterial infection may be confirmed by
their permanent successors
1. white blood cell count.
1. sometimes are partially resorbed and 2. hemoglobin level.
become ankylosed. 3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
2. may remain for years with no 4. platelet count.
significant resorption.
3. may remain for years partially A. (1) (2) (3)
resorbed. B. (1) and (3)
4. are always resorbed. C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
A. (1) (2) (3) E. All of the above.
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. 132. Gigantism is caused by

A. a hyperactive thyroid.
B. atrophy of the posterior pituitary.
129. A disease of childhood characterized by mental C. hyperplasia of the anterior pituitary.
retardation, delayed growth and delayed tooth D. hyperplasia of the parathyroids.
eruption may be caused by deficient E. None of the above.

A. thyroid hormone.
B. testicular hormone.
C. posterior pituitary hormone. 133. Alveolar bone is undergoing remodeling
D. anterior pituitary growth hormone.
A. through the primary dentition.
B. until the end of mixed dentition.
C. until the complete eruption of
130. A patient is not able to close her left eye, permanent teeth.
wrinkle her forehead or smile on the left side. D. throughout life.
The most likely diagnosis is

A. contralateral subarachnoid
hemorrhage. 134. In children, the most common cause of a
B. fracture of the base of the skull. fistula is
C. Horner's syndrome.
D. acute mastoiditis. A. an acute periapical abscess.
E. facial nerve paralysis (Bell's palsy). B. a chronic periapical abscess.
C. an acute periodontal abscess.
D. a dentigerous cyst.
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135. A 3-year old requires the extraction of a 139. Epidemiology of disease is best described as
maxillary deciduous second molar. The local the
anaesthetic technique of choice is
A. data obtained from sickness surveys.
A. a posterior superior alveolar block. B. usual low level of disease normally
B. buccal and palatal infiltration. found within a population.
C. a tuberosity block plus subperiosteal C. control of disease.
infiltration of the mesio-buccal root. D. study of disease patterns in a
D. an infra-orbital block. population.

136. The causative organism in most acute alveolar 140. With the development of gingivitis, the sulcus
infections is becomes predominantly populated by

A. staphylococcus. A. gram-positive organisms.

B. lactobacillus. B. gram-negative organisms.
C. streptococcus. C. diplococcal organisms.
D. candida albicans. D. spirochetes.
E. actinomyces.

141. A characteristic of the periodontium which

137. The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the allows safe temporary separation of the teeth is
shape and proportions of bone throughout its the
growth period is called
A. nature of acellular cementum.
A. remodeling. B. elasticity of bone.
B. cortical drift. C. modified continuous eruption of the
C. area relocation. teeth.
D. translatory growth. D. passive eruption.

138. Which of the following foods is the most 142. Deposition of plaque on teeth occurs in
cariogenic?
A. less than 24 hours.
A. Cheese. B. 24 to 48 hours.
B. Dark chocolate. C. 2 to 4 days.
C. Jam. D. 5 to 7 days.
D. Toffee.
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143. Chronic periodontitis is characterized as 147. During tooth development, vitamin A

deficiency may result in
A. inflammatory.
B. irreparable. A. peg-shaped teeth.
C. atrophic. B. partial anodontia (hypodontia).
D. hyperplastic. C. Hutchinson's incisors.
E. none of the above. D. enamel hypoplasia.
E. dentinogenesis imperfecta.

144. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage

can be expected from tissue that is 148. Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in

A. fibroedematous. A. abnormal formation of osteoid.

B. edematous. B. osteitis fibrosa cystica.
C. fibrotic. C. Paget's disease.
D. formed within an infrabony pocket. D. myositis ossificans.
E. associated with exudate formation. E. osteogenesis imperfecta.

145. Antibiotic coverage should be provided when 149. The major stimulator of respiration is
performing subgingival curettage for patients
with A. low blood pressure.
B. high percentage of blood oxygen.
A. myocardial infarction. C. low percentage of blood carbon
B. dental implants. dioxide.
C. valvular heart disease. D. high percentage of blood carbon
D. coronary artery disease. dioxide.

146. In a 10-year old child with a normal mixed 150. Calculus contributes to gingival inflammation
dentition and healthy periodontal tissues, by
removal of the labial frenum (frenectomy) is
indicated when A. having a porous surface.
B. having cytotoxic bacterial products.
A. the frenum is located at the C. favouring bacterial colonization.
mucogingival junction. D. all of the above.
B. a diastema is present but the papilla
does not blanch when tension is placed
on the frenum.
C. the frenum is located on the attached
gingiva.
D. None of the above.