ISTQB ‘Foundation level’ sample questions with answers and detailed evaluation of

each option:

1. Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-

a) Breadth Test and Depth Test
b) Retesting
c) Confirmation Testing
d) Sanity Testing

Evaluating the options:

a) Option a: Breadth testing is a test suite that exercises the full functionality of a product
but does not test features in detail. Depth testing is a test that exercises a feature of a
product in full detail.
b) Option b: Retesting is part of regression
c) Option c: Confirmation testing is a synonym for retesting
d) Option d: Sanity testing does not include full functionality
Maintenance testing includes testing some features in detail (for e.g. environment) and
for some features detail testing is not required. It’s a mix of both breadth and depth
testing.

So, the answer is ‘A’

2. Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-

i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects

a) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false

b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false

Evaluating the options:

Consider the first point (i). This is true, Inspection is led by trained moderator. Hence we
can eliminate options (a) and (d). Now consider second point. In Inspection pre-meeting
preparation is required. So this point is false. Look for option where (i) is true and (ii) is
false.

The answer is ‘B’

3. The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the
correct order.

i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up

a) i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
b) vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
c) i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
d) i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi

Evaluating the options:

Formal review process is ’Inspection’. Planning is foremost step. Hence we can eliminate
option ’b’. Now we need to kickoff the process, so the second step will be Kick off.
That’s it we found the answer. Its ’C’

The answer is ’C’

4. Consider the following state transition diagram of a two-speed hair dryer, which
is operated by pressing its one button. The first press of the button turns it on to
Speed 1, second press to Speed 2 and the third press turns it off.

Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?
a. A,C,B
b. B,C,A
c. A,B,C
d. C,B,A

Evaluating the options:

In State transition testing a test is defined for each state transition. The coverage that is
achieved by this testing is called 0-switch or branch coverage. 0-switch coverage is to
execute each loop once (No repetition. We should start with initial state and go till end
state. It does not test ‘sequence of two state transitions’). In this case the start state is
‘OFF’, and then press of the button turns it on to Speed 1 (i.e. A). Second press turns it on
to Speed 2 (i.e. B) and the third press turns it off (i.e. C). Here we do not test the
combinations like what if the start state is ‘Speed 1’ or ‘Speed 2’ etc.

An alternate way of solving this is check for the options where it starts with ‘OFF’ state.
So we have options ‘a’ and ‘c’ to select from. As per the state diagram from ‘OFF’ state
the dryer goes to ‘Speed 1’ and then to ‘Speed 2’. So our answer should start with ‘A’ and
end with ‘C’.

The answer is ’C’

5. White Box Techniques are also called as :-

a) Structural Testing
b) Design Based Testing
c) Error Guessing Technique
d) Experience Based Technique

Evaluating the options:

I guess no evaluation is required here. It’s a straight answer. White box techniques are
also called as Structural testing. (as it is done using code)

The answer is ‘A’

6. What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?

a) A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
b) An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test
case
c) An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test
case
d) An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a
test case.

Evaluating the options:

Let’s recall the definition of equivalence partition. It is grouping inputs into valid and
invalid classes. Hence any one value from one particular class forms an input. For e.g.
input a valid class contains values from 3-5, then any value between 3-5 is considered as
an input. All values are supposed to yield same output. Hence one value in this range
becomes a test case.

The answer is ‘B’

7. The Test Cases Derived from use cases

a) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the
system
b) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the
system
c) Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of
the system
d) Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level

Evaluating the options:

Please refer to Use case related topic in the foundation level guide “Use cases describe
the “process flows” through a system based on its actual likely use” (actual likely use is
nothing but the real world use of the system). Use cases are useful for uncovering defects.
Hence we can eliminate options (c ) and (d). Use case uncovers defects in process flow
during real world use of the system.

The answer is ‘A’

8. Exhaustive Testing is
a) Is impractical but possible
b) Is practically possible
c) Is impractical and impossible
d) Is always possible

Evaluating the options:

From the definition given in the syllabus, Exhaustive testing is impossible. But it is
possible in trivial cases. Exhaustive testing is not always possible. So eliminate option
‘d’. It is not impossible also. So eliminate option ‘c’. But implementing is impractical.
Hence we can conclude that exhaustive testing is impractical but possible

The answer is ‘A’

9. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution
Phase
a) Creating test suites from the test cases
b) Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
c) Comparing actual results
d) Designing the Tests

Evaluating the options:

Please take care of the word ‘not’ in the question. Test implementation does include
Creating test suites, executing and comparing results. Hence eliminate options a, b and c.
The only option left is ‘D’. Designing activities come before implementation.

The answer is ‘D’

10. Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?

a) Statement Testing and coverage
b) Decision Testing and coverage
c) Condition Coverage
d) Boundary value analysis

Evaluating the options:

Please take care of the word ‘not’ in the question. We have to choose the one which is not
a part of white box technique. Statement, decision, condition are the terms used in white
box. So eliminate options a, b and c. Boundary value is part of black box.
The answer is ‘D’

11. A Project risk includes which of the following

a) Organizational Factors
b) Poor Software characteristics
c) Error Prone software delivered.
d) Software that does not perform its intended functions

Evaluating the options:

a) Option a: Organizational factors can be part of project risk.
b) Option b: Poor software characteristics are part of software. Its not a risk
c) Option c: Error prone software delivered. Again it’s a part of software.
d) Option d: Software that does not perform its intended functions. Again it’s a part of
software.

The answer is ‘A’

12. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :

i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project

a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False

b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

Evaluating the options:

a) Option a: Risks identified can be used to determine the test technique.
b) Option b: Risks can be used to determine the extent of testing required. For e.g. if there
are P1 bugs in a software, then it is a risk to release it. Hence we can increase the testing
cycle to reduce the risk
c) Option c: If risk areas are identified before hand, then we can prioritize testing to find
defects asap.
d) Option d: Risk does not determine the cost of the project. It determines the impact on
the project as a whole.
Check for the option where first 3 points are true. Its ‘B’

The answer is ‘B’

13. Which of the following is the task of a Tester?

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the
project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications

a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false

b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

Evaluating the options:

Not much explanation is needed in this case. As a tester, we do all the activities
mentioned in options (ii), (iii) and (iv).

The answer is ‘B’

14. The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :-

a) Explaining the objectives
b) Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations

Evaluating the options:

In this case, elimination will work best. Follow-up is not a planning activity. It’s a post
task. Hence eliminate option ‘b’. Individual meeting preparation is an activity for
individual. It’s not a planning activity. Hence eliminate option ‘d’. Now we are left with 2
options ‘a’ and ‘b’, read those 2-3 times. We can identify that option ‘b’ is most
appropriate. Planning phase of formal review does include selecting personnel and
allocation of roles. Explaining the objectives is not part of review process. (this is also
written in the FL syllabus)

The answer is ‘B’

15. A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were
identified during a formal review.
a) Moderator.
b) Scribe
c) Author
d) Manager

Evaluating the options:

I hope there is not confusion here. The answer is scribe.

The answer is ‘B’

16. Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-

i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder
iv. Assistant Manager

a) i,ii,iii,iv are true

b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

Evaluating the options:

The question is regarding formal review, means Inspection. First we will try to identify
the persons that we are familiar w.r.t Inspection. Manager, Moderator and Scribe are
involved in Inspection. So now we have only first 2 options to select from. (other 2
options are eliminated). There is no assistant manager in Inspection.

The answer is ‘B’

17. Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through

a) Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
b) Pre Meeting Preparations
c) Formal Follow Up Process
d) Includes Metrics

Evaluating the options:

Pre meeting preparation is part of Inspection. Also Walk through is not a formal process.
Metrics are part of Inspection. Hence eliminating ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.

The answer is ‘A’

18. What can static analysis NOT find?

a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations

Evaluating the options:

Static analysis cover all the above options except ‘Memory leaks’. (Please refer to the FL
syllabus. Its written clearly over there)

The answer is ‘C’

19. Incidents would not be raised against:

a) requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users
Evaluating the options:
The first three options are obvious options for which incidents are raised. The last option
can be thought as an enhancement. It is a suggestion from the users and not an incident.

The answer is ‘D’

20. A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to

detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.
a) Security Testing
b) Recovery Testing
c) Performance Testing
d) Functionality Testing

Evaluating the options:

The terms used in the question like detection of threats, virus etc point towards the
security issues. Also security testing is a part of Functional testing. In security testing we
investigate the threats from malicious outsiders etc.

The answer is ‘A’

21. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?

a) Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
b) Logging the outcome of test execution.
c) Assessing if more tests are needed.
d) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

Evaluating the options:

The question is about ‘not’ a major task. Option ‘a’ is a major task. So eliminate this.
Option ‘b’ is not a major task. (But yes, logging of outcome is important). Option ‘c’ and
‘d’ both are major tasks of Exit criteria. So eliminate these two.

The answer is ‘B’

22. Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to
measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the
test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.
a) Load Testing
b) Integration Testing
c) System Testing
d) Usability Testing

Evaluating the options:

Workloads, performance are terms that come under Load testing. Also as can be seen
from the other options, they are not related to load testing. So we can eliminate them.

The answer is ‘A’

23. Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the
interaction between integrated components is :-
a) System Level Testing
b) Integration Level Testing
c) Unit Level Testing
d) Component Testing

Evaluating the options:

We have to identify the testing activity which finds defects which occur due to interaction
or integration. Option ‘a’ is not related to integration. Option ‘c’ is unit testing. Option ‘d’
component is again a synonym for unit testing. Hence eliminating these three options.

The answer is ‘B’

24. Static analysis is best described as:

a) The analysis of batch programs.
b) The reviewing of test plans.
c) The analysis of program code.
d) The use of black box testing.

Evaluating the options:

In this case we have to choose an option, which ‘best’ describes static analysis. Most of
the options given here are very close to each other. We have to carefully read them.
a) Option a: Analysis is part of static analysis. But is not the best option which describes
static analysis.
b) Option b: Reviews are part of static analysis. But is not the best option which describes
static analysis.
c) Option c: Static analysis does analyze program code.
d) Option d: This option can be ruled out, as black box is a dynamic testing.

The answer is ‘C’

25. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric
values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class
a) BOOK
b) Book
c) Boo01k
d) book

Evaluating the options:

As we know, alpha numeric is combination of alphabets and numbers. Hence we have to
choose an option which has both of these.
a. Option a: contains only alphabets. (to create confusion they are given in capitals)
b. Option b: contains only alphabets. (the only difference from above option is that all
letters are not in capitals)
c. Option c: contains both alphabets and numbers
d. Option d: contains only alphabets but in lower case

The answer is ‘C’

26. Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Evaluating the options:

Test basis comprise of requirements, architecture, design, interfaces. By looking at these
words, we can straight away eliminate last two options. Now option ‘a’ is about test
analysis and design. This comes under test basis. Option ‘b’ is about implementation and
execution which come after the design process. So the best option is ‘a’.

The answer is ‘A’

27. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-

a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Evaluating the options:

Incident is reporting discrepancies, in other terms its defect/bug. We find defects while
execution cycle where we execute the test cases.

The answer is ‘B’

28. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?
a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement document

Evaluating the options:

We have to choose an option which does ‘not’ come under Configuration Management
(CM). CM is about maintaining the integrity of the products like components, data and
documentation.
a) Option a: maintaining the Operating system configuration that has been used in the test
cycle is part of CM.
b) Option b: Test documentation is part of CM
c) Option c: Data is part of CM. but here the option is ‘live data’ which is not part of CM.
The live data keeps on changing (in real scenario).
d) Option d: Requirements and documents are again part of CM
The only option that does not fall under CM is ‘c’

The answer is ‘C’

29. Handover of Test-ware is a part of which Phase

a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Evaluating the options:

Hand over is typically a process which is part of closure activities. It is not part of
analysis, design or planning activity. Also it is not part of evaluating exit criteria. After
closure of test cycle test-ware is handover to the maintenance organization.

The answer is ‘C’

30. The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is
turned on when the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalence values
which belong to the same class.
a) 12,16,22
b) 24,27,17
c) 22,23,24
d) 14,15,19

Evaluating the options:

Read the question carefully. We have to choose values from same class. So first divide
the classes. When temperature falls below 18 switch is turned off. This forms a class (as
shown below). When the temperature is more than 21, the switch is turned on. For values
between 18 to 21, no action is taken. This also forms a class as shown below.

Class I: less than 18 (switch turned off)

Class II: 18 to 21
Class III: above 21 (switch turned on)

From the given options select the option which has values from only one particular class.
Option ‘a’ values are not in one class, so eliminate. Option ‘b’ values are not in one class,
so eliminate. Option ‘c’ values are in one class. Option ‘d’ values are not in one class, so
eliminate. (please note that the question does not talk about valid or invalid classes. It is
only about values in same class)

The answer is ‘C’

About the Author:
“N. Sandhya Rani” is having around 4 years of experience in software testing mostly in
manual testing. She is helping many aspirant software testers to clear the ISTQB testing
certification exam by giving tips on how to solve the multiple choice questions correctly
with evaluating each option quickly.