Instructions: The use of calculators, cell phones, PDAs or any other electronic device is not allowed.

This exam consists of 67 multiple-choice questions. Read each question carefully and choose the best answer. There is only one answer for each question. Do not mark multiple answers as they will be marked incorrect. Do your own work and think carefully about each question before answering.
1. Consider the following three statements about microevolution: I. Natural selection is the result of differential survival and reproduction. II. Natural selection requires genetic variation in a population. III. The capacity for excess reproduction is important to microevolution. A. I & II are true B. I & III are true C. II & III are true D. I, II & III are true E. none are true 2. If you have no children, but you have siblings who have children, then your evolutionary fitness is A. zero B. greater than zero C. less than zero D. impossible to know E. exactly the same as this years winner of the Iron Man Changes in allele frequency in a population over time A. can be due to natural selection B. can be due to migration C. can only be due to natural selection D. A & B are true E. none of the above The importance of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is that it A. describes the natural state of populations B. describes the state of a population not undergoing microevolutionary change C. predicts the precise amount of evolutionary change we can expect D. describes the state of a population that is undergoing microevolutionary change E. shows that mathematicians and biologists can get along The biological species concept defines species based on A. geographic isolation of populations B. similarities between individuals in a population C. reproductive isolation of a population D. the shared evolutionary history of a population E. the existence of a fossil record for a species

Final Exam Spring 10 Biology 002

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Two populations of beetles live in the same habitat. You think they are different species, but you are not sure as they share many morphological features. You observe that the females of each population have a different mating song that they use to attract males. From this you conclude that they are A. the same species and not likely reproductively isolated B. different species and they are isolated by a prezygotic mechanism C. different species and they are isolated by a postzygotic mechanism D. the same species, but they cannot interbreed E. undergoing rapid microevolution The bones in my forearm and the bones in the front forelimb of my cat are A. analogous structures that are similar solutions to the same evolutionary problem B. analogous structures inherited from the common ancestor to all mammals C. homologous structures inherited from the common ancestor to all mammals D. homologous structures that are similar solutions to the same evolutionary problem E. homologous structures that are not inherited We can see evidence for evolution in A. how all modern structures are perfectly adapted B. the striking imperfections apparent in some modern structures C. the existence of transitional forms in the fossil record D. both A & B E. both B & C The molecule ethane (C2H6) is A. polar B. a mixture of polar and nonpolar C. nonpolar D. impossible to predict E. potentially a tasty snack item

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10. A change from pH 6 to pH 5 A. is a 2X increase in [H+] B. is a 10X increase in [H+] C. makes the solution more acidic D. both A & C E. both B & C 11. Molecules may be able to form hydrogen bonds A. when they have hydrogen bound to C B. when they have hydrogen bound to O, or N C. only when they have hydrogen bound to C D. both A & B E. both B & C 12. The difference between fats, which are solid at room temperature, and oils, which are liquid at room temperature, is the A. presence of C=C double bonds in saturated fatty acids B. presence C=C double bonds in unsaturated fatty acids C. the number of fatty acids attached to glycerol D. number of OH groups on the fatty acids E. size of the phosphate groups 2

13. Polar molecules are ______________ and nonpolar molecules are __________________. A. hydrophilic/hydrophobic B. hydrophobic/hydrophilic C. covalent/ionic D. ionic/covalent E. large/small 14. Features that are found in prokaryote cells include: A. smooth but not rough endoplasmic reticulum B. ribosomes to synthesize proteins C. rough but not smooth endoplasmic reticulum D. both A & B E. both B & C 15. A protein that is to be exported from the cell will be A. synthesized on the RER B. processed in the Golgi and packaged into a vesicle for exocytosis C. processed in the SER and packaged into a vesicle for exocytosis D both A & B E. both A & C 16. Eukaryotic cells are characterized by the presence of a nuclear envelope consisting of A. a single phospholipid bilayer B. two phospholipid bilayers C. a single phospholipid bilayer that is covered with a protein layer on the outside D. a network of proteins including nuclear laminins E. cross-linked carbohydrate chains 17. Phospholipids spontaneously form a bilayer because A. they are hydrophobic B. they are hydrophilic C. they have a hydrophobic portion that can interact with water and a hydrophilic portion that excludes water D. they have a hydrophilic portion that can interact with water and a hydrophobic portion that excludes water E. they are both acidic and basic 18. A cell is immersed in a solution of glucose where there is more glucose outside the cell than inside. You observe that glucose transport occurs such that it enters the cell until there is an equal concentration of glucose inside and outside. From this you conclude that the glucose A. was transported by active transport through a carrier protein, and the cell transported glucose until it ran out of ATP B. was transported by facilitated diffusion through a carrier protein in the plasma membrane C. was transported by simple diffusion through the plasma membrane D. was transported by active transport through a carrier protein in the plasma membrane until there was no more concentration gradient to drive transport E. moved by osmosis until the concentration of water was equal inside and out

19. The two strands of a double-stranded DNA molecule are A. complementary: each strand can base pair with the other B. the same: each strand can base pair with the other C. antiparallel: the two strands have opposite polarity D. both A & C E. both B & C 20. Avery, McCarty and Macleod analyzed the transforming principle identified by Griffith. They found an extract of virulent Pneumococcus treated with DNAase would A. no longer transform a nonvirulent strain to make it virulent B. still transform a nonvirulent strain to make it virulent C. transform a virulent strain to nonvirulent D. transform a virulent strain but not a nonvirulent one E. not taste quite as good 21. All DNA polymerases A. synthesize DNA in a 5' to 3' direction B. require a primer to extend C. can synthesize DNA in either the 5' to 3' or 3' to 5' directions D. both A & B E. both B & C 22. DNA replication is semiconservative. This means that the products of replication consist of A. one newly replicated DNA molecule with two new strands and the original DNA molecule with two old strands B. two newly replicated DNA molecules each consisting of two new strands C. two molecules each consisting of one old strand and one newly synthesized strand D. two molecules that each consist of two strands of mixed new and old strands E. one molecule that is entirely new and one molecule that is mixed old and new strands 23. DNA is replicated during A. Mitosis B. G1 C. S D. G2 E. cytokinesis 24. Consider the following statements about mitosis: I. There is one round of DNA replication for every round of cytokinesis II. During anaphase, sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles III. During prophase, homologous chromosomes pair A. I & II are true B. I & III are true C. II & III are true D. I, II & III are true E. none are true

25. ATP's role in biological systems is to A. act as an electron carrier that carries energetic electrons B. absorb energy from cellular exergonic reactions C. provide an immediate source of energy to drive endergonic processes D. speed up reactions by lowering the activation energy E. provide a source of long-term energy storage 26. The synthesis of proteins requires an input of roughly 3 ATP for each amino acid added. From this we can conclude that the overall process A. is exergonic B. is endergonic C. is spontaneous D. both A & C E. both B & C 27. The process of glycolysis produces A. a total of 4 ATP B. 2 NADH carrying electrons that can be used for electron transport C. a net yield of 2 ATP D. all of the above E. only B & C 28. During the complete oxidation of glucose, glucose is A. oxidized to CO2, and O2 is reduced to H2O B. reduced to CO2, and O2 is oxidized to H2O C. oxidized to O2, and CO2 is reduced to H2O D. oxidized to H2O, and O2 is reduced to CO2 E. reduced to O2, and CO2 is oxidized to H2O 29. The process of electron transport should cause the pH of the intermembrane space to A. increase B. decrease C. remain the same D. increase as electrons pass through the first complex, then decrease as they pass through the next 2 complexes E. decrease as electrons pass through the first complex, then increase as they pass through the next 2 complexes 30. The enzyme ATP synthase, and the main complexes of the electron transport chain are all found A. in the cytoplasm B. in the mitochondrial matrix C. in the intermembrane space D. in the inner mitochondrial membrane E. none of the above 31. The lining of the stomach and the small intestine have evolved to have very different structures. These structures are adapted for their respective functions such that A. the stomach has infoldings and projections to maximize surface area B. the small intestine has infoldings and projections to maximize surface area C. the stomach has gastric pits that secrete enzymes, mucus and acid D. both A & B E. both B & C 5

32. You see a new diet drug advertised that guarantees to "block absorption of food molecules." For such a drug to be effective, it would need to A. have a global effect on cells in the stomach, as this is where absorption occurs B. have a global effect on cells in the small intestine, as this is where absorption occurs C. have a global effect on cells in the large intestine, as this is where absorption occurs D. affect only a small number of cells in the small intestine as the relevant surface area is small E. cause mass hallucinations in the public resulting in huge sales 33. Blood in the veins of your pulmonary circuit A. is oxygenated B. is deoxygenated C. is in the same state of oxygenation as arteries in the systemic circuit D. both A & C E. both B & C 34. The limited solubility for O2 in aqueous solution is overcome by A. chemical reactions to convert it to a more soluble form B. binding to CO2, which is soluble C. binding to soluble oxygen carriers such as hemoglobin D. binding to soluble nonspecific proteins in the blood E. binding to soluble carbohydrates such as glucose 35. Your body takes advantage of the equilibrium between CO2 and carbonic acid. In your lungs A. CO2 diffuses into blood adding to the reactant side, pushing equilibrium towards bicarbonate B. CO2 diffuses out of blood removing reactants, pushing equilibrium towards bicarbonate C. CO2 diffuses out of blood removing reactants, pushing equilibrium towards CO2 D. CO2 diffuses into blood adding to the reactant side, pushing equilibrium towards CO2 E. CO2 diffuses out of blood adding to the reactant side, pushing equilibrium towards CO2 36. The deep medulla of the kidney has very high osmolarity. The collecting duct runs through this region on its way to the ureter. If the wall of the collecting duct is permeable to water, then A. water will enter the collecting duct leading to less concentrated urine B. water will enter the collecting duct leading to more concentrated urine C. water will not enter or leave the collecting duct as it is isotonic to the deep medulla D. water will leave the collecting duct leading to less concentrated urine E. water will leave the collecting duct leading to more concentrated urine 37. The concentration of several important ions are kept out of equilibrium in neurons. The concentration of Na+ and K+ are maintained such that A. the concentration of Na+ is high outside, and the concentration of K+ is high inside B. the concentration of Na+ is high inside, and the concentration of K+ is high outside C. the concentration of Na+ is high outside, and the concentration of K+ is high outside D. the concentration of Na+ is high inside, and the concentration of K+ is high inside E. there is no concentration difference inside/outside for Na+, but K+ is high inside

38. Diuretics are drugs that result in increased volume of urine. One category of such drugs affects the proximal tubule acting to reduce Na+ transport out of this section of the tubule system. This causes diuresis because A. inhibiting Na+ transport out of the PCT also reduces osmotic movement of water out of the PCT B. inhibiting Na+ transport out of the PCT also increases osmotic movement of water out of the PCT C. inhibiting Na+ transport out of the PCT also reduces osmotic movement of water into the PCT D. inhibiting Na+ transport out of the PCT also increases osmotic movement of water into the PCT E. it will increase reabsorption of water from the collecting duct 39. The shape of an action potential is caused by a A. rapid, transient influx of K+ followed by a rapid, transient efflux of Na+ B. rapid, transient influx of Na+ followed by a rapid, transient efflux of K+ C. rapid, sustained influx of K+ followed by a rapid, sustained efflux of Na+ D. rapid, sustained influx of Na+ followed by a rapid, sustained efflux of K+ E. rapid, transient influx of Na+ followed by a rapid, transient influx of K+ 40. Consider the following statements about events that occur at the neuromuscular junction and lead to muscle contraction I. Acetylcholine binding to its receptors causes the muscle cell membrane to depolarize II. Depolarization of the membrane causes myosin to hydrolyze ATP and thus causes muscle contraction III. Depolarization of the muscle cell membrane causes voltage-gated Ca++ in the ER to open releasing Ca++ into the cytoplasm A. I is true B. II is true C. III is true D. I & II are true E. I & III are true 41. A single muscle cell A. contains multiple nuclei B. contains many bundled myofibrils consisting of bundled actin and myosin fibers C. contains a single myofibril consisting of bundled actin and myosin fibers D. both A & B are true E. both A & C are true 42. A critical distinction between meiosis and mitosis is that in meiosis A. sister chromatids disjoin in anaphase II and in mitosis homologues disjoin B. homologues disjoin in anaphase II and in mitosis sister chromatids disjoin C. homologues disjoin in anaphase I and in mitosis sister chromatids disjoin D. meiosis always produces 4 equal-sized cells and mitosis produces 2 cells E. the two homologues of a homologous pair behave independently

43. The events of meiosis II are A. essentially the same as the events of meiosis I B. essentially the same as mitosis C. completely different from both meiosis I and mitosis D. the same as meiosis I except that they produce 4 cells instead of 2 E. the same as meiosis I except that they require DNA replication to occur 44. A man who is a carrier for the autosomal recessive genetic disease Tay Sachs marries a woman who also is a carrier for Tay Sachs. As this disease results in lethality at a young age, they want to know both the probability of unaffected offspring, and also the probability of their offspring being carriers. These probabilities are: A. 3/4 unaffected; 1/4 carriers B 3/4 unaffected; 1/2 carriers C. 3/4 unaffected; 3/4 carriers D. 1/4 unaffected; 1/2 carriers E. 1/2 unaffected; 1/4 carriers 45. A true-breeding purple flower, wrinkled seed plant is crossed to a true-breeding white flower round seed plant resulting in an F1 that is all purple round. When this F1 is selfcrossed, the phenotypic ratio in the F2 will be: A. 9 purple wrinkled:3 purple round:3 white wrinkled:1 white round B. 9 purple wrinkled:3 purple round:3 white round:1 white wrinkled C. 1 purple wrinkled:1 purple round:1 white round:1 white wrinkled D. 9 purple round:3 purple wrinkled:3 white round:1 white wrinkled E unpredictable 46. True-breeding round seed peas are crossed to true-breeding wrinkled seed plants. The F1 is all round. This F1 is crossed back to the wrinkled parent. This should result in a phenotypic ratio of A. 3 round:1 wrinkled B. 3 wrinkled:1 round C. 1 wrinkled:1 round D. all round E. all wrinkled 47. The process of independent assortment can be explained by the independent behavior of A. sister chromatids during meiosis I B. different homologous chromosome pairs during meiosis I C. different homologous chromosome pairs during meiosis II D. sister chromatids during meiosis II E. egg and sperm nuclei during fertilization 48. Incomplete dominance and codominance are similar in that in each case A. the phenotypes of the heterozygote is intermediate between the phenotype of the two homozygotes B. the phenotype of the heterozygote can be distinguished from the homozygous recessive, but not the homozygous dominant C. the phenotype of the heterozygote can be distinguished from the two homozygotes D. the phenotype of the heterozygote resembles both homozygotes E. the heterozygote is always larger than either homozygote

49. Red-on-green color-blindness in humans is caused by the recessive allele of a sex-linked gene. This means that A. for a woman to be color blind, her father must be color blind B. for a woman to be color blind, her mother must be color blind C. for a woman to be color blind, her mother must be a carrier or color blind D. both A & B E. both A & C 50. Assume two genes A, and B, are next to each other on a chromosome. Consider meiosis in a heterozygote resulting from a cross of a true-breeding strain showing both dominant phenotypes, and a true-breeding strain showing both recessive phenotypes. This heterozygote should produce A. only A B and a b gametes B. only A b and a B gametes C. A B, A b, a B, and a b gametes D. only A A and B B gametes E. only a a and b b gametes 51. There are several different types of RNA involved in gene expression including A. mRNA, which contains the information in a gene B. tRNA, which is part of the ribosome C. rRNA, which interacts with mRNA and amino acids D. all of the above E. only A & B 52. The process of gene expression involves A. transcription to produce an mRNA followed by translation of the rRNA B. translation to produce an mRNA followed by transcription of this mRNA C. transcription to produce an mRNA followed by translation of this mRNA D. transcription to produce an rRNA followed by translation of the mRNA E. translation to produce an rRNA followed by transcription of this rRNA 53. The process of translation is complex and energy expensive. Steps that are energy requiring include: A. the tRNA charging reaction B. getting the charged tRNA to the ribosome C. peptide bond formation D. all of the above E. only A & B 54. During translation charged tRNAs interact with A. the ribosome with their anticodons base pairing with codons in the rRNA B. the mRNA with their anticodons base pairing with a codon in the mRNA C. other tRNAs with base pairing between adjacent anticodons D. one amino acid on the acceptor stem, and one amino acid on the anticodon E. the mRNA with the acceptor stem base pairing with a codon in the mRNA 55. We know that the lac operon is controlled by a negative regulator because A. the level of enzymes increases when lactose is added to the medium B. the level of enzymes is constant over time C. it is not possible to isolate mutants that affect regulation D. regulatory mutants show a phenotype of no expression E. regulatory mutants show a phenotype of continuous expression 9

56. The control of gene expression involves regulatory proteins that bind to A. specific sites on mRNA and control translation B. specific sites on mRNA and control transcription C. specific sites on DNA and control transcription D. random sites on DNA and control transcription E. the ribosome to control translation 57. Fertilization triggers immediate events that A. prevent polyspermy B. prevent fusion of egg and sperm nucleus C. cause the completion of meiosis in the sperm nucleus D. lead to a rapid cell division before the fusion of egg and sperm nucleus E. prevent the fusion of egg and sperm nucleus unless they are from the same species 58. The process of gastrulation A. involves changes in cell shape that lead to the ectoderm rolling into a tube from anterior to posterior B. converts a single cell into a ball of cells without changing the overall size of the embryo C. involves massive cell migration that forms the basic body plan D. forms most of the major organs E. requires the participation of embryonic stem cells 59. The first "decision" made during mammalian development is the segregation into A. inner cell mass, which will become extraembryonic structures, and trophectoderm, which will become the embryo B. trophectoderm, which will become extraembryonic structures, and inner cell mass, which will become the embryo C. ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm D. endoderm and ectoderm E. ectoderm and mesoderm 60. In logistic growth, A. exponential growth is limited by carrying capacity B. linear growth is limited by carrying capacity C. exponential growth switches to linear at high population density D. linear growth switches to exponential at high population density E. populations show unlimited exponential growth 61. In the barnacle example in class, competition resulted in A. the distribution of a species being determined by the presence or absence of a second species B. the exclusion of a species from a favorable habitat by competition C. partitioning of resources by the different species D. both A & B E. both B & C 62. There are a number of forces that can change allele frequencies in populations, including A. natural selection B. migration C. assortative mating D. all of the above E. A & B above 10

63. Consider the following statements about community ecology: I. New nitrogen is made available to ecosystems by nitrogen fixation: the conversion of ammonia to nitrate II. The cycling of carbon involves the inverse processes of photosynthesis and cellular respiration III. The abiotic reservoir for oxygen is O2, which is incorporated into tissues by cellular respiration A. I is true B. II is true C. III is true D. I & II are true E. I, II & III are true 64. If a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, and the frequency of the dominant allele is 0.6, then the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype in the population would be A. 0.6 B. 0.4 C. 0.36 D. 0.16 E. 0.48 65. In allopatric speciation, A. reproductive isolation is not necessary B. geographic isolation precedes reproductive isolation C. speciation occurs when species are in the same habitat D. reproductive isolation is always prezygotic E. reproductive isolation is always postzygotic 66. If fossils of modern primates were found in the same strata as fossil dinosaurs, this would A. be strong evidence against macroevolution B. be conveniently ignored by paleontologists C argue for the more ancient origin for primates D. not argue against macroevolution E. both C & D

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