Accounting and Finance

1) The purpose of adjusting entries is to: A) Adjust the owners capital account for the revenue, expense and drawings recorded during the period B) Adjust daily balances in assets, liability, revenue, and expense account for the effects of business transactions C) Apply the realization principle and matching principle to transactions affecting two or more accounting periods D) Prepare revenue and expense accounts for recording the transactions of the next accounting period. 2) An investment opportunity in which investors directly acquires a claim on a security or property called: A) Direct investment C) Construction of portfolio B) Indirect investment D) None of the above 3) Which one of the following correctly identifies the activity categories found on a statement of cash flow? A) Operating, income statement, financing C) Financing, operating, income statement B) Investment, purchasing, operating D) Operating, investment, financing 4) Which one of the following methods is desirable if materials price decrease and company would like to pay low taxes? A) First in first out C) Highest in first out B) Last in first out D) None of the above 5) If 100% equity is employed in a firms capital structure then its
A) Return on equity will be equal to return on assets B) Return on equity will be less than return on assets C) Return on equity will be greater than return on assets D) None of the above

6) If a company using percentage of revenue method for estimation of bad debts then A) Existing balance of allowances for doubtful account (either debit or credit) should consider before preparing adjusting entry B) Ignore the existing balance of allowances for doubtful account (either debit or credit)while preparing adjusting entry C) Only debit balance of allowances for doubtful account consider before preparing adjusting entry D) Only credit balance of allowances for doubtful account consider before preparing adjusting entry 7) Which of the following statement is not consistent with generally accepted accounting principles relating to asset valuation? A) Assets are originally recorded in accounting records at their cost to the business entity. B) Subtracting total liabilities form total assets indicates what the owners equity in the business is worth under certain market conditions C) Accountants assumes that asset such as office supplies, land, and buildings will be used in business operations rather than sold at current market price D) Accountants prefer to base the valuation of assets upon objective, verifiable evidence rather than upon appraisals or personal opinion. 8) If beginning and ending merchandize inventories are $1000 and $2600 respectively, and the cost of goods sold is $3400, net purchases would be: A) $3700 C) $3400 B) $3100 D) None of the above 9) If a firm's total debt ratio is 35 percent, this means that ______ of the firm's assets are financed by equity financing. A) 55% C) 65% D) Not enough information to answer question B) 35% 10) A transaction causes $520,000 decrease in both assets and owners equity. This transaction would have been: A) Purchase of a delivery truck for $520,000 cash C) Repayment of a $520,000 bank loan B) An asset with a cost of $520,000 was destroyed by D) Collection of a $520,000 accounts receivable fire 11) Hercules Inc. presently has current assets totaling $600,000 and a current ratio of 2.5 to 1. Compute the current ratio immediately after Pisces pay $30,000 of its accounts payable. A) 3 to 1 C) 2.7 to 1 B) 3.3 to 1 D) 2.25 to 1 12) A firm has sales of $2.4 million and 10% of the sales are for cash. The year end accounts receivable balance is $180,000? What is the average collection period? (Use a 360-day year)

Comprehensive Examination March 2013 A) 40days B) 50days C) 60days D) None of the above

13) LBPL has assets of $1 Million and turns its assets 1.5 times per year. Return on assets is 12%. What is the profit margin? A) 6.67% C) 8%` B) 5.67% D) None of the above

14) Ms.Viny placed $100 in a saving account paying 8% interest compounded semi annually. How much money will be in the account at the end of 2 years? A) $161.07 C) $164.60 B) $116.64 D) $None of the above 15) Ms. Marcs has an opportunity to receive $3000 one-year from now. If she can earn 10% on her investments in the normal course of events what is the most she should pay now for this opportunity? A) $2727 C) $7277 B) $2772 D) None of the above
16) Jan Jacob can borrow $2000 to be repaid in equal annual end of year amounts of $514.14 for the next 5 years. She wants to find the interest rate on loan. A) 7% C) 9% B) 8% D) 6%

17) If the goods purchased under the credit term 5/10 n/60 compute the annualized cost of giving up a cash discount. A) 33% C) 47.36% B) 36.73% D) 38%
18) Stocks 40,000 ($40 par); paid in capital in excess of par value common, $100,000; and retained earnings, $200,000. Assuming only one class of stock, the book value per share is: A) $340 C) $40 B) $140 D) None of the above 19) Uni Lever has issued its own $50,000, 90 day, non-interest bearing note to a bank. If the note is discounted at 9%, the proceeds to Allen are: A) 50,000 C) 45,550 B) 48875 D) None of the above

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Comprehensive Examination March 2013

Management and Marketing

1) Entrepreneurs can be best described as A) possessing managerial knowledge and experience. B) exhibiting moderate to high risk-taking behavior. C) focusing on the established present. D) displaying a low-to-medium tolerance for ambiguity. 2) Which function in the management process is commonly referred to as the primary management function? A) Organizing C) Controlling B) Staffing D) Planning 3) According to research, the typical manager's day is best described as A) rational and logical. C) carefully scheduled. B) consisting largely of reflective planning. D) consisting of constant interruptions. 4) Changing his major three times, Scott earned his college degree after retaking four classes and spending twice as much as his family had budgeted. In terms of the definition of management, Scott was A) effective but not efficient. C) both effective and efficient. B) partly effective and partly efficient. D) ineffective but efficient. 5) Which of the following are closely associated with TQM? A) Design-it-in and inspect-it-in B) Inspect-it-in and build-it-in C) Build-it-in and fix-it D) Build-it-in and design-it-in

6) Economics and management are closely related because of their common focus on A) employees. C) budgets. B) resources. D) profitability. 7) What is(are) always required by organizational objectives or goals? A) Management approval C) Job descriptions B) Financial resources D) Collective action 8) What is the process of working with and through others to achieve organizational objectives in a changing environment called? A) Controlling C) Leading B) Organizing D) Planning 9) Managerial _________ tell us what managers generally do, whereas managerial _________ tell us more precisely how managers carry them out. A) goals; desires C) visions; goals B) skills; functions D) functions; skills 10) The study of management and the study of _______ are closely related. A) economics C) philosophy B) sociology D) geography 11) Smart marketers recognize that marketing activities within the company can be as important as or even more important than marketing activities directed outside the company this refers to A) Relationship marketing C) Four Ps of marketing B) Internal marketing D) Societal marketing 12) The rationale of Niche marketing is one of following A) Identifying the larger market share of small market segment B) Identifying the smaller market share of large market segment C) Identifying the larger market share of large market segment D) Identifying the smaller market share of small market segment Page 3 of 16

Comprehensive Examination March 2013 13) In business markets system buying refers to buying one of the following A) Buying the computer system hardware B) Buying the computer system software C) Buying a total solution to a problem from a seller D) Buying single items from different suppliers 14) Demographic segmentation refers to segmentation based on one of the following variables A) Age C) Benefits B) Occasions D) Geographic area 15) The brand equity can be measured as
A) Market value minus financial value B) Financial value minus market value C) Financial value minus promotional cost D) Factory overhead cost minus marketing cost

16) Competitive advantage can be defined as A) Companys ability to produce products similar to competitors products B) Companys ability to produce substandard products C) Companys ability to perform in one or more ways that competitors cannot do D) All of above 17) In promotional campaigns changing the marketing communication programs for each local market is known as A) Sales promotion C) Communication adaptation B) Public relations D) Integrated marketing 18) Private label brand means A) Brands that producers develop for their products B) Brands that suppliers develop C) Brands that customers develop D) Brands that retailers and wholesalers develop 19) Skimming pricing strategy means
A) Adopting pricing above the competition B) Adopting pricing equal to the competition C) Adopting pricing below the competition D) Adopting pricing regardless of competition

20) When one channel members actions prevents the channel from achieving its goal, is known as A) Channel development C) Channel power B) Channel coordination D) Channel conflict

Research and Economics

1) Scientific Method of inquiry A) Uses observation and experiments. B) Depends on logical reasoning. C) Involves both observations and reasoning for seeking the truth. D) Uses existing theories for explanation and understanding of the real world problems. 2) Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific conclusion from a set of premises? A) rationalism C) inductive reasoning B) deductive reasoning D) probabilistic 3) What is the final step of a scientific investigation? A) Analyze data. B) Collect data. C) Report the findings.
D) Determine whether the hypothesis was supported.

4) A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n): A) Categorical variable. C) Independent variable. B) Dependent variable. D) Intervening variable. Page 4 of 16

Comprehensive Examination March 2013 5) If a baseball coach calculates batting averages, what scale would be used? A) Interval scale C) Nominal scale B) Ratio scale D) Ordinal scale 6) What is the problem(s) with this set of response categories to the question What is your current age? i) 1-10 11-20 21-30 31-40 More than 40 B) The categories are not mutually exclusive C) The categories are not exhaustive D) Both a and b are problems E) There is no problem with the above set of response categories 7) When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected, this is called: A) A nonrandom sampling method C) A snowball sample B) A quota sample D) An Equal probability selection method 8) _____________ results if you fail to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is actually false. A) Type I error C) Type III error B) Type II error D) Type IV error 9) Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at an earlier time by a different person for a different purpose? A) Primary data C) Experimental data B) Secondary data D) Field notes 10) Ex post facto research is A) About something related with future. B) For the events currently taking place. C) About the events took place in past. D) Related with non-living objects only.

11) The law of demand states that: A) as the quantity demanded rises, the price rises B) as the price rises, the quantity demanded rises C) as the price rises, the quantity demanded falls D) as supply rises, the demand rises 12) The price elasticity of demand is the A) percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price B) percentage change in price divided by the percentage change in quantity demanded C) dollar change in quantity demanded divided by the dollar change in price D) percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in quantity supplied 13) The law of diminishing (marginal) returns states that as more of a variable factor is added to a certain amount of a fixed factor, above some point: A) Total physical product begins to fall B) The marginal physical product rises C) The marginal productivity falls D) The average physical product falls 14) Which of the following is a characteristic of pure monopoly A) single seller of the product C) close substitute products B) low barriers to entry D) perfect information

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Comprehensive Examination March 2013

15) Which of the following best defines price discrimination A) charging different prices on the basis of race B) charging different prices for goods with different costs of production C) charging different prices based on cost-of-service differences D) selling a certain product at different prices to different buyers 16) Immediately after a trough, we would expect to have a A) Peak B) Recession 17) Disposable personal Income is equal to: A) National Income B) Real GDP C) Personal Income Minus Taxes D) personal Income Minus Taxes Plus Transfer payments 18) The monetary base is composed of A) gold and silver B) currency only 19) Subsidy is the tool of A) Monetary policy B) Fiscal policy 20) Phillip curve shows negative relationship between A) Inflation and unemployment B) Inflation and employment C) currency and reserves D) currency and checkable deposits C) Foreign reserves D) Imports C) Price and demand D) Price and supply. C) Recovery D) another trough

Section II
Please answer the following questions: Q. 1. Comprehensively describe the emerging industries to focus for rapid and sustainable growth of our country. Highlight their potential areas and prospects. Human resource management is an important

Q. 2.

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Comprehensive Examination March 2013

Section III
Finance (Specialization)
1) What are the financial statements provided in an annual report? A) Balance sheet and income statement. B) Statement of financial earnings and statement of owners equity. C) Balance sheet, income statement, and statement of cash flows. D) Balance sheet, income statement, statement of cash flows, and statement of changes in equity. 2) What items are included in Notes to the accounts? A) Summary of accounting policies. B) Detail about particular accounts. C) Notice of annual general meeting. D) Both (a) and (b).

3) What does an unqualified auditors report indicate? A) The financial statements unfairly and inaccurately present the companys financial position for the accounting period. B) The financial fairly the financial position, the results of operations, and the changes in cash flows and equity for the company statements present. C) There are certain factors that might impair the firms ability to continue as a going concern. D) Certain managers in the firm are unqualified and are not fairly representing the interest of the shareholders. 4) The statement of cash flows reports a firms cash flows segregated into what categorical order? A) Operating, investing, and financing. C) Financing, operating, and investing. B) Investing, operating, and financing. D) Financing, investing, and operating. 5) Why is the quick ratio a more rigorous test of short term solvency than current ratio? A) The quick ratio considers only cash and marketable securities as current assets. B) The quick ratio eliminates prepaid expenses for the numerator. C) The quick ratio eliminates prepaid expenses for the denominator. D) The quick ratio eliminates inventories from the numerator. 6) The gross profit margin is unchanged, but the net profit margin declined over the same period. This could have happened if __________. A) cost of goods sold increased relative to sales C) the govt. increased the tax rate B) sales increased relative to expenses D) dividends were decreased 7) In conducting a horizontal common-size analysis every balance sheet item is divided by __________ and every income statement is divided by __________. A) its corresponding base year balance sheet item; its corresponding base year income statement item B) its corresponding base year income statement item; its corresponding base year balance sheet item C) net sales or revenues; total assets. D) total assets; net sales or revenues 8) Which group of ratios relate profits to sales? A) Liquidity ratios. B) Debt ratios. C) Coverage ratios. D) Profitability ratios.

9) 9. If the intrinsic value of a stock is greater than its market value, which of the following is a reasonable conclusion? A) The stock has a low level of risk. B) The stock offers a high dividend payout ratio. C) The market is undervaluing the stock. D) The market is overvaluing the stock. 10) If an investor may have to sell a bond prior to maturity and interest rates have risen since the bond was purchased, the investor is exposed to Page 7 of 16

Comprehensive Examination March 2013 A) the coupon effect. B) interest rate risk. C) a perpetuity. D) an indefinite maturity.

11) Interest rates and bond prices A) move in the same direction. B) move in opposite directions. C) sometimes move in the same direction, sometimes in opposite directions. D) have no relationship with each other (i.e., they are independent). 12) According to the efficient market hypothesis, there should be ______ overpriced and ______ underpriced securities. A) no, no C) some, no B) no, some D) some, some 13) You short-sell 200 shares of Tuckerton Trading Co., now selling for $50 per share. You also place a stop-buy order at $60. What is your maximum possible loss? A) $50 C) $2,000 B) $150 D) Unlimited 14) The over-the-counter securities market is a good example of __________. A) an auction market C) a dealer market B) a brokered market D) a direct search market 15) The term "hedge" refers to an investment that ________________. A) is entered into primarily for tax purposes B) is entered into to mitigate specific financial risks C) is entered into to conceal one's true investment strategy from other market participants D) none of the above Answers are correct. 16) High P/E ratios tend to indicate that a company will _______, ceteris paribus. A) grow quickly B) grow at the same speed as the average company C) grow slowly D) none of the above 17) ________ are analysts who use information concerning current and prospective profitability of a firm to assess the firm's fair market value. A) Credit analysts C) Systems analysts B) Fundamental analysts D) Technical analysts 18) Investors who wish to liquidate their holdings in a closed-end fund may ___________________. A) sell their shares back to the fund at a discount B) sell their shares back to the fund at net asset value C) sell their shares on the open market D) None of the above 19) The value of a call option increases with increase in ___________. A) stock price C) volatility B) time to maturity D) All of the above 20) Purchases of new issues of stock take place __________. A) at the desk of the Fed C) in the secondary market B) in the primary market D) none of the above

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Comprehensive Examination March 2013

Marketing (Specialization)
1) Marketing Strategy during a recession should be: A) A reduction in the number of sales person. B) A reduction in the expenditure of new product development. C) A reduction in advertisement. D) An increase in promotional efforts that promote the product/service value & utilities. E) An increase in the expenditure for marketing operations. 2) Why marketers are more interested in disposal income of the consumers? A) It accurately represents consumer future buying power. B) It is ready source of buying power. C) It increases current buying power. D) It is what is left after paying taxes to buy luxuries. E) It is essential for forecasting future business trends.

3) A small hardware store whose only competitor is a huge discount store would be least likely to use which marketing competitive tool? A) Services D) Promotion B) Price E) Product Offering C) Distribution 4) The three psychographic dimensions most commonly used in market segmentation are;
A) Personality, Perception and Learning B) Personality, Perception and Behavior C) Motives, Attitude and Lifestyle D) Personality, Motives and Lifestyle

5) The Marketing Managers at Millat Tractors Limited are involved in establishing marketing performance standards, evaluating performance, and reducing the differences between actual and desired performance. These Marketing Managers are engaged in; A) The Marketing Control Process C) The Marketing Audit B) The Marketing system Design D) Marketing Evaluation 6) The channel that includes both manufacturers agent and industrial distributor may be appropri ate under which of the following circumstances? A) When the firm specialized personnel to follow up the work of the sales force B) When the marketers wishes to enter a new geographic market but does not wish to expand the existing sales force C) When only one or two channels of distribution are available for products D) When the sales force is large and the marketer is thinking of cutting it down 7) To expand the number of retail outlets in Pakistan, the Symantec Inc. merged with many small and local software houses. This type of marketing integration is called; A) Vertical C) Backward B) Horizontal D) Forward 8) One distinguishing factor between a brand name and trade mark is that a brand name; A) Creates Customer Loyalty B) Consist of Words C) Identifies only one items in the product mix D) Implies an organizations name 9) When a firm uses one of its existing brand names as part of brand name for an improved or new product, the branding is called; A) Individual Branding C) Line Family Branding B) Family Branding D) Brand Extension Branding

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Comprehensive Examination March 2013 10) Which type of wholesaler not only provides transportation and delivers products to retailers, but also provides the services of placing products on retailers shelves? A) Truck Wholesalers C) Cash & Carry Wholesalers B) Rack Jobbers D) Drop Shippers 11) The postmodern marketing environment is best defined as; A) Composed of controllable variables B) Composed of variables independent to each others C) An indirect influence on marketing D) Dynamic, flexible and changing 12) The last people to adopt a new product and who tend to be suspicious of new products are called; A) Late adopters C) Late Majority B) Laggards D) Final targets 13) A consumer context is an example of? A) Personal Selling B) Advertisement C) Sales Promotion D) Indirect Selling E) Public Relations

14) A consumer buying decisions are affected in part by the people around him or her. These people and the forces they exert on a buyer are called; A) Social Factors C) Personality Influences B) Motivational Influences D) Cultural Influences 15) A marketing practice unique to organizational sales in which two organizations agree to buy from each other; A) A source loyal purchase C) A Modified Re-buy Purchase B) A Straight Re-buy D) A Reciprocity Purchase 16) Which of the following is an example of a problem that may arise in the implementation of the marketing concept; A) By satisfying one segment in society, a firm contributes to the dissatisfaction of the others segment. B) Consumers do not understand what the marketing concept is. C) Dealers do not support the marketing concepts. D) A product may fit the needs of too many segments. 17) All of the following are marketing management task except; A) Marketing Planning B) Organizing Marketing Activities 18) Satisfying customers in every hemisphere is an example of; A) Globalization B) Customization

C) Coordinating Marketing Activities D) Project Development & Analysis

C) Internationalization D) Re-organization

19) The strategy of identifying an attractive market segment and serving it in a way that differentiates the retailers from others in consumers minds is termed; A) Product Positioning C) Niche Retailing B) Retail Positioning D) Merchandize Policy 20) Price is a key element in marketing because it relates directly to; A) The size of the sales force B) The speed of an exchange C) Brand Image D) The generation of total revenue. Page 10 of 16

Comprehensive Examination March 2013

Human Resource Management (Specialization)

1) The knowledge, education, skills, and expertise of workers is collectively known as: A) Demographics. C) Human resources. B) Human capital. D) Human diversity. 2) A company's _____ is its plan for balancing internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats. A) Demographics. C) Strategy. B) Diversity. D) None of the above. 3) Formulating and executing HR systems that produce employee competencies and behaviors needed to achieve the company's strategic aims is (are): A) HR strategies. C) Strategy execution. B) Strategic HR management. D) Strategic implementation. 4) Basic components of a value-creating strategy-oriented HR process are: A) HR professionals. C) Employee behaviors and competencies. B) HR system. D) All of the above. 5) The metrics in an HR Scorecard are measurements of: A) Employee behaviors. B) Organizational outcomes. C) HR activities. D) All of the above.

6) HR's basic challenges in formulating strategies include(s): A) Need to support corporate productivity and performance improvement efforts. B) Employees playing an expanded role in performance improvement efforts. C) Being more involved in designing the company's strategic plan. D) All of the above. 7) A successful orientation should accomplish all the following except: A) B) C) D) Make the employee feel welcome. Understand the organization in a broad sense. Constitute an employment contract. Employee should be clear about what is expected in terms of work and behavior.

8) Verifying that a performance deficiency exists and identifying the means for correcting it is done through: A) Training. C) Performance analysis. B) Task analysis. D) Needs analysis. 9) Advantages of on-the-job training include the following except: A) It is expensive. C) Trainees get quick feedback. B) No need for off-site facilities. D) Trainees learn by doing. 10) With _____ training, people become skilled workers through a combination of classroom instruction and OJT. A) Programmed C) Apprenticeship B) Job instruction D) Simulated 11) Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills is: A) Succession planning. C) Coaching. B) Action learning. D) Management development. 12) To bring about organizational change, managers must understand: A) How to overcome resistance to change. C) How to use organizational development. B) How to lead organizational change. D) All of the above. Page 11 of 16

Comprehensive Examination March 2013 13) Frederick Herzberg declared in his Hygiene-Motivator theory that the best way to motivate someone is to: A) B) C) D) Arrange the job so it helps satisfy higher-level needs. Add more incentives to the job. Distinguish between financial rewards and non-financial programs. Ensure employees know they can do the job.

14) The extent to which less powerful members of institutions accept and expect an unequal distribution of power is (are): A) Power distance. C) Legal and industrial factors. B) Culture. D) Codetermination 15) The increased threat of terrorism has resulted in: A) Employers instituting more comprehensive safety plans. B) Reluctance of employees to accept foreign assignments. C) Difficulty in importing and exporting workers. D) All of the above. 16) Advantage(s) of a centralized recruitment function include: A) Easier to apply strategic priorities. B) Easier to spread technology cost among departments. C) Easier to identify recruitment results. D) The greatest good to the greatest number of people. 17) Managers must assess the numbers of applicants attracted as well as: A) Quality. C) Selectivity. B) Costs. D) Location 18) A firm's best source of candidates for a vacant position usually is: A) Private employment agencies. C) Rehires. B) The Internet. D) Current employees. 19) With respect to compensation, _____ refers to how a job's pay rate in one company compares to the job's pay rate in other companies. A) External equity C) Procedural equity B) Internal equity D) Individual equity 20) A job evaluation committee should be appointed to perform the actual evaluation because: A) Members will have different perspectives regarding the nature of the job. B) Employee will more readily accept the results. C) Job must be ranked for pay purposes. D) 1 and 2

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Comprehensive Examination March 2013

Information Technology (Specialization)

1) A useful language that delivers only the software functionality needed for the specific task is: A) C++ C) XML B) Pascal D) RSL 2) What DBMS component contains facilities to help you develop transaction-intensive applications? A) DBMS engine C) Application generation subsystem B) Data definition subsystem D) Data administration subsystem 3) The database personnel whose duties fall into the areas of planning, implementation, operation, and security are the: A) data administrators. C) database programmers. B) database administrators. D) end users 4) In Website that offers multiple services of different categories including buying and selling, chatting, email, searching, auctions and community building etc. is known as: A) Web Portal C) Search Engine B) Entertainment Website D) Blog 5) In an organization, when information technologies are collecting, processing, storing and producing information without producing any documents, the organization is known as A) Prototype C) Paperless B) Scribe D) None of the above 6) A model of data communication that works on structured elements arranged in 7 layer is called A) TDM Model C) ISO Model B) OSI Model D) SMO Model 7) When every non-primary-key attributes is fully functionally dependent on the primary key then the database is fulfilling the normalization rule: A) 1NF C) 3NF B) 2NF D) 4NF 8) includes conditions along with operators such as AND, OR, and NOT A) Arithmetic Operations C) Comparison Operations B) Logical Operations D) None of the Above 9) Jennifer has decided to make her online purchase from a particular retailer because their site is easy to use and she can order quickly. What decision criteria is she using? A) Personal Service C) Online Service B) Convenience D) Purchasing Cost 10) The Database made up of a set of tables where a common field in any two tables creates a relationship between the tables is A) Flat-File Database C) Relational Database B) Networked Database D) Object-Oriented Databases 11) A session is a lengthy, structured, group meeting in which users and IT professionals work together to design or develop an application A) Request for proposal C) Request for quotation (RFQ) B) Joint-application design (JAD) D) Data-flow Design (DFD) 12) An OOP language is which means an OOP language program checks for and response to events such as pressing or typing a key Page 13 of 16

Comprehensive Examination March 2013 A) Event based B) Event driven C) Compiled D) Interpreted

13) A is characterized by the production of routine reports that managers use for structured and routine tasks A) Expert Systems C) Transaction Processing Systems B) Decision Support Systems D) Management Information Systems 14) The Top-level DFD (Data-Flow Diagram) known as a identifies only the major processes A) Project Directory C) Data Store B) Level-1 Data Flow D) Context Diagram 15) A is a special series of bits that function like a ticket, enabling a device to transmit data cover a network. A) Bus C) Peer B) Token D) Star 16) Many companies elevate the importance of IT by including a executive position that reports to the CEO A) Chief Information Officer C) Chief MIS Manager B) Chief Technology Manager D) Chief Security Officer 17) The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database tasks is referred to as: A) QBE. C) OLAP. B) SQL. D) Sequel Server. 18) The most profitable Internet-related companies are: A) e-tailers that sell books, music, and entertainers B) Internet auction companies 19)

C) e-tailers that sell gifts D) business-to-business e-commerce specialists

How did the concept of the virtual office get its start? A) Teleprocessing C) Hoteling B) Telecommuting D) Office automation

20) refers to the automation of anything that humans do to develop systems A) CASE Tools C) Analysis Tools B) Prototyping D) None of the above

Page 14 of 16

Comprehensive Examination March 2013

MBA (Executive) Specialization

1) What are the financial statements provided in an annual report? A) Balance sheet and income statement. B) Statement of financial earnings and statement of owners equity. C) Balance sheet, income statement, and statement of cash flows. D) Balance sheet, income statement, statement of cash flows, and statement of changes in equity. 2) What items are included in Notes to the accounts? A) Summary of accounting policies. B) Detail about particular accounts. C) Notice of annual general meeting. D) Both (a) and (b).

3) What does an unqualified auditors report indicate? A) The financial statements unfairly and inaccurately present the companys financial position for the accounting period. B) The financial fairly the financial position, the results of operations, and the changes in cash flows and equity for the company statements present. C) There are certain factors that might impair the firms ability to continue as a going concern. D) Certain managers in the firm are unqualified and are not fairly representing the interest of the shareholders. 4) The statement of cash flows reports a firms cash flows segregated into what categorical order? A) Operating, investing, and financing. C) Financing, operating, and investing. B) Investing, operating, and financing. D) Financing, investing, and operating. 5) Why is the quick ratio a more rigorous test of short term solvency than current ratio? A) The quick ratio considers only cash and marketable securities as current assets. B) The quick ratio eliminates prepaid expenses for the numerator. C) The quick ratio eliminates prepaid expenses for the denominator. D) The quick ratio eliminates inventories from the numerator. 6) The gross profit margin is unchanged, but the net profit margin declined over the same period. This could have happened if __________. A) cost of goods sold increased relative to sales C) the govt. increased the tax rate B) sales increased relative to expenses D) dividends were decreased 7) In conducting a horizontal common-size analysis every balance sheet item is divided by __________ and every income statement is divided by __________. A) its corresponding base year balance sheet item; its corresponding base year income statement item B) its corresponding base year income statement item; its corresponding base year balance sheet item C) net sales or revenues; total assets. D) total assets; net sales or revenues 8) Which group of ratios relate profits to sales? A) Liquidity ratios. B) Debt ratios. C) Coverage ratios. D) Profitability ratios.

9) 9. If the intrinsic value of a stock is greater than its market value, which of the following is a reasonable conclusion? A) The stock has a low level of risk. B) The stock offers a high dividend payout ratio. C) The market is undervaluing the stock. D) The market is overvaluing the stock. 10) If an investor may have to sell a bond prior to maturity and interest rates have risen since the bond was purchased, the investor is exposed to A) the coupon effect. C) a perpetuity. B) interest rate risk. D) an indefinite maturity. Page 15 of 16

Comprehensive Examination March 2013 11) Marketing Strategy during a recession should be: A) A reduction in the number of sales person. B) A reduction in the expenditure of new product development. C) A reduction in advertisement. D) An increase in promotional efforts that promote the product/service value & utilities. E) An increase in the expenditure for marketing operations. 12) Why marketers are more interested in disposal income of the consumers? A) It accurately represents consumer future buying power. B) It is ready source of buying power. C) It increases current buying power. D) It is what is left after paying taxes to buy luxuries. E) It is essential for forecasting future business trends. 13) A small hardware store whose only competitor is a huge discount store would be least likely to use which marketing competitive tool? A) Services C) Promotion B) Distribution D) Product Offering 14) The three psychographic dimensions most commonly used in market segmentation are;
A) Personality, Perception and Learning B) Personality, Perception and Behavior C) Motives, Attitude and Lifestyle D) Personality, Motives and Lifestyle

15) The Marketing Managers at Millat Tractors Limited are involved in establishing marketing performance standards, evaluating performance, and reducing the differences between actual and desired performance. These Marketing Managers are engaged in; A) The Marketing Control Process C) The Marketing Audit B) The Marketing system Design D) Marketing Evaluation 16) The channel that includes both manufacturers agent and industrial distributor may be appropriate under which of the following circumstances? A) When the firm specialized personnel to follow up the work of the sales force B) When the marketers wishes to enter a new geographic market but does not wish to expand the existing sales force C) When only one or two channels of distribution are available for products D) When the sales force is large and the marketer is thinking of cutting it down 17) To expand the number of retail outlets in Pakistan, the Symantec Inc. merged with many small and local software houses. This type of marketing integration is called; A) Vertical C) Backward B) Horizontal D) Forward 18) One distinguishing factor between a brand name and trade mark is that a brand name; A) Creates Customer Loyalty C) Identifies only one items in the product mix B) Consist of Words D) Implies an organizations name 19) When a firm uses one of its existing brand names as part of brand name for an improved or new product, the branding is called; A) Individual Branding C) Line Family Branding B) Family Branding D) Brand Extension Branding 20) Which type of wholesaler not only provides transportation and delivers products to retailers, but also provides the services of placing products on retailers shelves? A) Truck Wholesalers C) Cash & Carry Wholesalers B) Rack Jobbers D) Drop Shippers

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