IIT-JEE 2009 STS VI/MPC/P(II)/QNS

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IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2009

PAPER II MATHEMATICS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours

Maximum Marks: 243

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A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 24 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet. 3. This question paper contains 1 blank page for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work. 4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall. 5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet. 6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately. 7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. 8. Do not break the seals of the questions-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators. B. Filling the ORS 9. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else. 10. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and upper parts. 11. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet and put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS affirming that you have verified this. 12. IF THE CODES DO NOT MATCH, ASK FOR A CHANGE OF THE BOOKLET. C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet. D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.

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PART A : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. The integral values of x for which x + 5x + 8 is a perfect square are (A) 4 and 5 (B) 4 and 1 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 4 and 5
2

2. The probability that the length of a randomly chosen chord of a circle lies 1 4 between and of its diameter is 2 5 (A) 2 5
2

(B)

5 6

(C)

36 100

(D)

39 100

3. If , be the imaginary cube roots of unity, then (100 + 100 + 102 ) (50 + 55 + 50 ) is equal to (A) 61 (B) 0 (C) 61
2 26 23

(D) 16
2

4. The value of k if the equations x + 3x + 4k = 0 and 2x + 5x + 7k = 0 have a common root is (A) 1 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 2

5. In an A.P. of 93 terms, the 47th term is 25. Then the sum of series is (A) 6225 (B) 5065 (C) 9325 (D) 2325

6. In an examination there are 10 multiple choice questions and each question has 4 choices. Number of ways in which a student can fail to get all answers correct is (A) 11 2
4

(B) 4

10

(C) 10 1

(D) 10 4

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7. If P and Q are square matrices of same order such that (P + Q) = P + Q + 2PQ, then (A) P = Q (B) P = Q (C) PQ = QP (D) P = Q

8. If A, B, C be three equally and collectively exhaustive events and the odds are 5 : 2 against A, 7 : 3 against B, then the odds against C is (A) 41 : 29 (B) 53 : 70 (C) 41 : 70 y2
1

(D 23 : 70 x e tan
1 1

9. The solution of the differential equation 1

1

dy = 0 is dx

(A) x
tan (C) xe

2 = ke tan
1

(B) 2xe k

tan

= e2 tan = e tan
1

k k

= tan

2 tan (D) xe

SECTION II Reasoning Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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10. Statement 1:

There is no point of intersection of the curves arg (z 3i) = and arg (2z + 1 2i) = 4

3 4

and z Statement 2: 11. Statement 1: and Statement 2: The quadratic equation whose roots are reciprocal of the given equation can be obtained by interchanging the coefficient of x and constant term. 12. Statement 1: and Statement 2: The direction cosines of the line which is perpendicular to the lines whose direction cosines are proportional to (1, 1, 2) and (2, 1, 1) are 13. Statement 1: 1 35 , 5 35 , 3 35 .
2

If arg

2 1

z = , then arg z

= 2k where k I.

The equation whose roots are reciprocal of the roots of the equation x 3x + 2 = 0 is 2x 3x + 1 = 0
2 2

The lines x = ay + b, z = cy + d and x = ay + b, z = cy + d are perpendicular if aa + bb + 1 = 0

If a and b are unit vectors and is the angle between them, then a b = 2 sin 2

and Statement 2: If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, then the magnitude of their difference is 1. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION III Linked Comprehensive Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16 Let O be the orthocentre. Since AD BC, BE CA, and CF AB, then OA BC, OB CA and OC AB. Solving any two of these, we can get coordinates of O. If the sides of the triangle are given, then find the equations of the line perpendicular to these two sides and passing through the opposite vertices. Solve these equations to get the coordinates of the orthocentre and centroid divides the line joining the orthocentre and circumcentre in the ratio 2 : 1. 14. The coordinates of the orthocentre of the triangle having vertices (0, 0), (2, 1) and (1, 3) are (A) 1 2 , 5 5 (B) 3 6 , 5 5 (C) 6 3 , 5 5 (D) 2 1 , 5 5

15. The coordinates of the orthocentre of the triangle formed by the lines xy = 0 and y = 1 x are (A) (0, 0) (B) (2, 1) (C) ( 2, 1) (D) (1, 2) 5 7 , , then the 6 8

16. If a triangle has its orthocentre at (2, 3) and circumcentre at coordinates of the centroid of the triangle is (A) 12 , 9 (B) 9 , 12 (C) 19 11 , 12 9 (D) 11 19 , 9 12

11 19

11 19

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19 Integrals of the form f x , a x2 bx c dx can be evaluated with the help of the Euler s substitutions. There are normally 3 Euler s substitutions.
2 1. First Euler s substitution: If a > 0, we put a x

bx

c=tx a

or ax + bx + c = t + ax 2t x a or bx

c = t 2 2t x a. bx c = tx c

2 2. Second Euler s substitution: If c > 0, we put a x

or ax + b = t x 2t c. 3. Third Euler s substitution: If the trinomial ax + bx + c has real roots and

2 that is ax + bx + c = a (x ) (x ), then we put a x or (x )t.

bx

c= x

17. To evaluate the integral (A) t 4x

x x

dx 4x
2

, a good substitution is 4x2 2x 8 (D) t 32x is 6x x 1 1 2 1 x 5 x x 5 5

2x

8 =

(B) t 8x

(C) t 2x dx 1 (B) x
2

18. The value of the integral

(A)

1 2 1 x

x 1 x 5

5 x

(C)

(D)

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19. If f(x) = 2 (A) 0

x 1

2 x

is an antiderivative, then the limit Lim

x2

sin f x 2 x

(x < 2) is

(B) 1

(C) 2 SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type

(D) Not finite

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows:

20. The letters of the word BREAKAGE are to be jumbled. The number of ways of arranging them so that Column I (A) The two A s are not together (B) The two E s are together but not two A s (C) Neither the two A s nor the two E s are together (D) The vowels are not together SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Column II (p) 1800 (q) 5760 (r) 720 (s) 7560

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21.

Column I (A) The area of the parallelogram whose diagonals are given by the vectors 5 i is 3j 2k and 2 i 3j 4k

Column II (p) 263.25

(B) The perimeter of the triangle whose vertices have the position vectors i 4i j k is 2j k , i j 3k

(q)

33

(C) If a , b , c are three vectors such that a = 1, b = 2, c = 3 and a , b , c are perpendicular to b c, c a, a b respectively, then a b c is

(r)

14

(D) The vectors AB = 3 i 4k and AC = 5 i 2 j 4k are the sides of a triangle ABC, the length of the median through A is 22. Column I (A) In the expansion of (5x + 11) , the coefficient of the middle term is
10

(s)

13

Column II
8

(p) 5376

(B) Constant term in the expansion of x

5 x
9

is

(q) 540

(C) The term independent of x in 4x

1 x
6

is

(r) 640543750

(D) The coefficient of x in

x5

3 x
3

is

(s) 787500

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PART B : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 23. An airplane is flying in a horizontal circle at a speed of 540 km/h. Banked for this turn, the wings of the plane are tilted at an angle 45 from the horizontal. Assume that a lift force acting perpendicular to the wings holds the aircraft in the sky. The radius of the circle in which the plane is flying is (Take g = 10 m/s ) (A) 1000 m (B) 2250 m (C) 500 m
14 2

(D) 4500 m

24. The ratio of number of atoms of 1.3 10

12

C to

12

C in living matter is measured to be

14

at the present time. A 12 g sample of carbon produces 180 decays/min

14

due to the small amount of [1 year = 3.15 10 s] (A) 574 years

7

C in it. The half-life of

C is nearly

(B) 5740 years

(C) 2870 years

(D) 287 years

25. A rocket is in outer space, far from any planet, when the rocket engine is turned on. In the first second of firing, the rocket ejects 1 of its mass with a relative 120 speed of 2400 m/s. The rockets initial acceleration is (A) 20 m/s
2

(B) 30 m/s

(C) 40 m/s

(D) 50 m/s

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26. Two square conducting plates with sides of length L are separated by a distance D. A dielectric slab with constant k with dimensions L L D is inserted a distance x into the space between the plates. A constant potential difference V between the plates is maintained by connecting a battery to the plates. If the dielectric is inserted an additional distance dx into the space between the plates, the change in stored energy is V dx (A)
0 2

k L V dx (B)
0

2 1 L V dx
0

2D k 1 V L dx
0 2

k (C)

(D)

2D

27. Two point charges q1 = 2 C and q2 = 2 C are located at x = 0, y = 0.3 m and x = 0, y = 0.3 m respectively. The net electric force on a third point charge Q = 4 C at x = 0.4 m, y = 0 is (A) (0.46 N) i (C) (0.34 N) j (B) (0.34 N) (D) ( 0.46 N) i j

28. A diverging lens and an object are positioned as shown in the Figure at left. Which of the rays a, b, c and d could emanate from point Q at the top of the object ? (A) a, b and c (C) a and b (B) a and c (D) all SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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29. The intensity at any point in the interference pattern is I = I0

9 9 where is the phase difference between the two waves as measured at a particular point on the screen and I0 is the maximum intensity in the pattern. Then the ratio of the amplitudes of the wave from the two slits is (A) 5 4 or 5 4 (B) 1 3 or 3 (C) 2 or 1 2 (D) 1 5 or 5

cos ,

30. A piano tuner stretches a steel piano wire with a tension of 800 N. The steel wire is 0.4 m long and has a mass 2 g. The number of the highest harmonic that could be heard by a person who is capable of hearing frequencies up to 10 Hz is (A) 100 (B) 150 (C) 50 (D) 20
4

31. The engine of a sports car takes in air at 27C and 1 atmosphere and compresses it adiabatically to 0.09 times the original volume. The air may be treated as an ideal gas with = 1.5. The final temperature of the gas is (A) 1000 K (B) 900 K (C) 300 K SECTION II Reasoning Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (D) 100 K

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32. Statement 1: and Statement 2: 33. Statement 1: and

Cyclotron frequency does not depend on speed of charged particle

Kinetic energy of charged particle in cyclotron is independent of its charge. According to Lenz s law of electromagnetic induction, the induced e.m.f is in the direction opposing the change in magnetic flux

d Statement 2: If the flux is increasing so or current is negative. 34. Statement 1: and Statement 2: 35. Statement 1: and Statement 2:

is positive, then the induced e.m.f

dt In Young s double slit interference pattern the fringe width is a universal constant

The fringe width can be changed either by changing the wavelength or by changing the separation between the two slits. The angular momentum of an electron moving in a stable orbit around the nucleus is quantised

Each electron in an atom will exist only with certain specific value of energy. SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38 An elevator of 2000 kg with broken cables is falling at 4 m/s and it is stopped by a spring at the bottom of the shaft. The spring is supposed to stop the elevator, compressing 2 m. During the motion a safety clamp applies a constant 17000 N frictional force to the elevator.

36. Initial total mechanical energy is (A) 21.2 10 J (C) 18 10 J

3 3

(B) 16 10 J (D) 16 10 J
3

37. The force constant of the spring is nearly (A) 10 N/m

4

(B) 10 N/m

(C) 10 N/m

(D) 10 N/m

38. If there is no safety clamp at the bottom, then which of the following statement is wrong ? (A) There must be a net upward force 1600 N on the elevator. (B) The elevation would bounce back upward. (C) There must be a net downward force 1600 N on the elevator. (D) There is no energy loss due to frictional force. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41 An object 8 cm high is placed 12 cm to the left of a converging lens of focal length 8 cm. A second converging lens of focal length 6 cm is placed 36 cm to the right of the first lens. Both lenses has the same optic axis.

39. The final image formed by the two lenses in combination is (A) real, erect and at 12 cm to the right of second lens (B) virtual, erect and at 12 cm to the left of second lens (C) virtual, inverted and at 48 cm to the right of first lens (D) real, inverted and at 48 cm to the left of first lens 40. The size of the image formed is (A) 8 cm (B) 12 cm (C) 16 cm (D) 24 cm

41. If the side of second lens which is not facing first lens is silvered and the refractive index of material of second lens is 1.5, the final image formed is (A) 1.5 cm to the left of silvered lens (B) 12 7 cm to the left of silvered lens

(C) 1.5 cm to the right of silvered lens (D) 12 7 cm to the right of silvered lens SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 42. Column I (A) Electrostatic field (B) Induced electric field (C) Magnetic field (D) Electromagnetic field 43. Column I (A) A solid cylinder is rolling down an inclined plane of inclination (B) A block is sliding down an inclined plane of inclination p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s Column II (p) Conservative field (q) Lines of force open (r) Non-conservative field (s) Lines of force closed Column II (p) the frictional force is dissipative

(q) the frictional force is zero

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(C) A solid cylinder is rolling without slipping in the horizontal surface

(r) the frictional force will aid rotation but hinder translation

(D) A solid ring is rolling on the horizontal (s) the frictional force is changed if surface and external force F is applied angle of plane is changed at the topmost of a ring 44. A wire along the x-axis carries a current of 2 A in the negative direction. The force on 1 cm section of the wire exerted by these magnetic fields (a) B =
1

0.8 T j T, 0.3 j 0.3 k T

(b) B = 0.2 i
2

(c) B = 0.8 j
3

0.4 k T

(d) B = 0.4 i T
4

are F , F , F and F respectively.

1 2 3 4

Then match Column I with those in Column II. Column I (A) F3 (B) F
4

Column II (p) 0.2 10

2

3 j j j

5k 3k 2k N

(q) 0.2 10 (r) 8 10

(C) Force due to all magnetic fields B1, B2, B3 and B4, F (D) Force due to magnetic fields B1 and B2, F

(s) zero

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PART C : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 45. The pH at which Mg(OH) 1 10
3 2

starts precipitating from a solution containing

11

M Mg

2+

ions is (Ksp Mg(OH)2 = 1 10 (C) 6.9

) (D) 10

(A) 3.8

(B) 9.0

46. In a redox reaction one molecule of KNO gains 3 electrons. The product will be 3 (A) NO2 (B) N2O5 (C) N2O (D) NO

47. Consider the reaction: 2N2O5 4NO2 + O2. The rate constant for the reaction is 3.2 10 s . The rate of the reaction is 2.4 10 concentration of N2O5 is (A) 0.875 (B) 0.75 (C) 0.4375
5 1 5

mol L

s . The molar

(D) 0.375

48. The product P in the reaction,

is

(A) (+) 2-Bromosuccinic acid (C) () Dibromosuccinic acid

(B) Meso-dibromosuccinic acid (D) () 2-Bromosuccinic acid

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49. (CH3)3 CMg Br + D2O Product. The product is (A) (CD3)3 C OD (C) (CH ) CD 33 (B) (CD3)3 CD (D) (CH3)3 C OD

50. Nucleophilic addition is most favoured in (A) CH3 CHO (B) CH3 CH2 CHO

(C)

(D)

51. O3 (I); N O (II); CO2 (III); N (IV) 3

2

Among the above species, those having similar shape are (A) (I) and (II) (C) (I), (II) and (III) (B) (III) and (IV) (D) (II), (III) and (IV)

52. The correct decreasing order of bond energy among halogens is (A) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (C) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (B) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 (D) Cl2 > F2 > I2 > Br2

53. The correct increasing order of bond angle is (A) ClO2 < OF2 < Cl2O < H2O (C) OF2 < H2O < Cl2O < ClO2 (B) ClO2 < Cl2O < H2O < OF2 (D) OF2 < Cl2O < H2O < ClO2

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SECTION II Reasoning Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 54. Statement 1: and Statement 2: 55. Statement 1: and Statement 2: 56. Statement 1: and Statement 2: 57. Statement 1: and Statement 2: I is a weaker nucleophile and a better leaving group than Cl . SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
3+

The complex [Co(NH3)6]

will be paramagnetic.

Cobalt (Z = 27) has an odd number of electrons in its d sub shell. During isothermal expansion of an ideal gas into vacuum, heat absorbed is zero. Ideal gas molecules occupy zero volume. For many reactions, the rate of the reaction doubles for every 10C rise of temperature. The energy of activation rapidly decreases with rise of temperature. Hydrolysis of R Cl is slow but takes place faster in presence of a little quantity of added KI.

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SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60

58. Compound p is (A) CH3 CHBr CHBr CH3 (B) CH3 CH2 CBr2 CHBr2 (C) CH3 CBr3 (D) CH3 CH2 CBr2 CH3

59. The reagent r used in the sequence of reactions is (A) H2/Pd, BaSO4 in quinoline (C) aluminium isopropoxide 60. The product s in the reaction is (A) meso-2, 3-dihydroxybutane (B) butanone-2 (C) racemic-2, 3-dihydroxybutane (D) butane-2, 3-dione SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (B) Na, liquid NH3 (D) HI, red phosphorus

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63 For the reaction, 2A + B2 2AB, the following data were obtained. Experiment 1 2 3 [A] mol L 0.50 0.50 1.00
1

[B ] mol L
2

Initial Rate 1.75 10 3.5 10 3.5 10

3

0.50 1.00 1.00

3 3

61. Order with respect to A and B2 are, respectively (A) 2, 1 (B) 1, 1 (C) 0, 1 (D) 1, 0

62. Rate constant for the reaction is (A) 1.75 10

3 4

(B) 3.5 10

3 4 1

(C) 1.75 10

(D) 3.5 10

63. Initial rate if the concentration of A is 2 mol L 2 mol L

1

and concentration of B2 is
4

is
3

(A) 3.5 10

(B) 1.75 10

(C) 7.0 10 SECTION IV

(D) 3.5 10

Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 64. Column I (A) XeF4 (B) I3 (C) XeF
2

q q q q q

r r r r r

s s s s s Column II (p) sp d (q) sp d (r) 2 lone pairs on central atom (s) 3 lone pairs on central atom Column II (p) Z 1 (q) P(V nb) = nRT (r) Strong intermolecular attractive forces (s) PV = nRT Column II (p) Glycosidic linkage (q) Reducing (r) Non-reducing (s) Natural polymer
3 3 2

p p p p

(D) BrF 65.

Column I (A) SO2 at 0.5 atm and 0C (B) NH3 at 0.001 atm and 1000C (C) He gas at P 0, 0C (D) He gas at P = 200 atm, 0C

66.

Column I (A) Sucrose (B) Maltose (C) Starch (D) Protein

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Name: .

Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format: 13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A : Mathematics, Part B: Physics and Part C: Chemistry). Each part has 4 sections. 14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section. D. Marking scheme: 18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.

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