Cell Biology / Cell Biochemistry BIOL 4374 / BCHS 4313 Exam 1 Feb 11, 2009 Read each question

carefully. Chose the single best answer to each of the following questions. In some cases, key words are emphasized in bold italics font. 1. Which category of molecules comprises the greatest percentage of the dry weight of a typical animal cell? a. Inorganic ions b. sugars and precursors c. nucleotides and precursors d. fatty acids and precursors e. macromolecules 2. Which of the following amino acids is uncharged at neutral pH? a. aspartate b. glutamate c. glutamine d. arginine e. lysine 3. Which enzyme cleaves phosphatidyl inositol (4,5) bisphosphate to yield two important signaling molecules? a. phospholipid hydrolase b. phosphoinositide hydrolase c. phospholipase C d. phospholipase A2 e. PI3 kinase 4. Which of the following statements regarding protein degradation in the 20S proteasome is false? a. the process requires ATP hydrolysis b. only proteins tagged with ubiquitin can gain access to the proteasome c. both the target protein and the ubiquitin are degraded in the proteasome d. this process plays an important role in many cell regulatory processes e. all of these statements are true 5. Which mode of representation of the tertiary structure of a protein provides the most about the location and orientation of secondary structural elements? a. alpha trace model b. schematic / ribbon model c. ball and stick model d. water accessible surface model information

6. In many globular proteins, amino acids with hydrophobic side chains are gathered together during the folding process to form ... a. a ligand binding domain b. a non-polar core c. the catalytic site d. a beta sheet e. none of the above 7. Elements of secondary structure are stabilized primarily by ... a. disulfide bonds b. hydrogen bonds c. ionic bonds d. van der Waals forces e. chaperones

8. Which of the following is false about the alpha helix? a. each turn of the helix involves 3.6 amino acid residues b. it is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between elements of the amino acid side chains c. the amino acid side chains are oriented outward from the axis of the helix d. some are amphipathic e. all of the above are true about the alpha helix 9. A group of secondary structural elements that fold together to form a spatially distinct tertiary conformation is called a ... a. module b. motif c. domain d. subunit e. globule 10. What is a molten globule? a. a partially folded protein b. a conformation obtained when a globular protein is warmed beyond the critical temperature c. a liposome composed of phospholipids with highly unsaturated fatty acid residues d. a globular integral membrane protein e. none of the above 11. Why are prions pathogenic? a. they join together to form large channels in the plasma membrane b. they are docking sites for viruses c. they catalyze the misfolding of specific proteins d. they are highly immunogenic, resulting in autoimmune diseases e. prions are not pathogenic 12. The src homology domain 2 (SH2 domain) binds which of the following with high affinity? a. phosphatidyl inositol b. phosphotyrosine residues c. phosphoserine residues d. ATP e. none of the above 13. All of the information required for the proper folding of proteins is contained in the ... a. 5 untranslated region of the DNA sequence that encodes the protein b. primary structure of the polypeptide c. primary structure of the chaperone protein d. the ribosome e. the endoplasmic reticulum 14. Which of the following is false regarding HSP70 chaperone proteins a. they assist in the proper folding of proteins b. they bind to the nascent polypeptide in the cytoplasm c. they bind to charged amino acids in the nascent polypeptide d. they require ATP hydrolysis to dissociate from the nascent polypeptide e. all of the above are true 15. Functional regions of proteins that are recombined through gene duplication to form proteins with new combinations of functionality are called ... a. cassettes b. domains c. motifs d. modules e. globules

16. Intramolecular disulfide bonds between non-adjacent cysteine residues are common in integral membrane proteins to stabilize the conformation of ... a. extracellular domains b. transmembrane domains c. cytoplasmic domains d. all of the above e. disulfide bonds are not present in integral membrane proteins 17. In the light microscope, the condenser lens group is a. between the ocular and objective lenses b. between the specimen and the objective lenses c. between the light source and the specimen d. between a rock and a hard place 18. In light microscopy, the limit of spatial resolution is determined by all of the following variables except a. wavelength of light b. refractive index of the medium c. magnification of the objective d. angular aperture of the objective 19. Fluorescence microscopy is based on the ability of certain molecules to a. continuously emit light of a constant wavelength. b. absorb light of many different wavelengths. c. absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a longer wavelength. d. absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a shorter wavelength. 20. Unstained, living cells are best observed using which of the following microscopic techniques? a. confocal microscopy b. differential interference contrast c. scanning electron microscopy d. atomic force microscopy 21. The numerical aperture describes what characteristic of a lens? a. the magnification b. the light gathering ability c. the number of elements in the lens group d. the amount of image distortion 22. The illusion that the path of light is bent at the interface between air and a body of water is called a. gravitation b. diffraction c. reflection d. refraction e. relaxation 23. The tertiary structure of proteins is stabilized primarily by ... a. hydrophobic bonds b. disulfide bonds c. hydrogen bonds d. covalent bonds 24. The spiral association of two amphipathic alpha helices is called a ... a. coiled-coil domain b. globular domain c. helix-loop-helix domain d. anti-parallel helix domain e. transmembrane domain

25. Endosymbiosis refers to a hypothetical evolutionary relationship between ... a. procaryotes and eucaryotes b. the nucleus and the cytoplasm c. mitochondria and eucaryotes d. viruses and host cells 26. Detergents are required to isolate integral membrane proteins because ... a. integral proteins are highly charged and become associated with phospholipid head groups. b. integral proteins contain hydrophobic regions that associate with the fatty acid tails of membrane phospholipids c. integral proteins are heavily glycosylated d. the detergents protect the proteins from proteolytic degradation 27. The observation that plasma membrane proteins mix after cell fusion provides evidence for a. The lateral movement of plasma membrane proteins. b. The rotational movement of plasma membrane proteins c. The interaction between plasma membrane proteins d. The social nature of macromolecules 28. Membrane phospholipids ... a. include phosphoglycerides and sphingolipids b. undergo rapid lateral diffusion c. frequently flip-flop across to the opposite leaflet d. all of the above e. two of the above 29. Which phospholipid is negatively charged at neutral pH? a. phosphatidyl choline b. phosphatidyl serine c. phosphatidyl ethanolamine d. sphingomyelin 30. A cluster of amphipathic transmembrane alpha helices would most likely form a(n).. a. alpha barrel channel b. beta barrel channel c. hydrophobic channel d. hydrophilic channel 31. Which of the following are arranged in order of increasing permeability (i.e., lowest to highest) to a phospholipid bilayer? a. O2 < H2O < ethanol < Na+ b. H2O < ethanol < Na+ < O2 c. ethanol < Na+ < O2 < H2O d. Na+ < ethanol < H2O < O2 32. Which of following modifications would result in increased membrane fluidity? a. increased cholesterol content b. increased chain length of the fatty acid tails c. increased unsaturation of fatty acid tails d. increased protein content 33. The FRAP (Fluorescence Recovery After Photobleaching) technique would be most useful for measuring which of the following? a. lateral motion of proteins within the plasma membrane b. lateral motion of cholesterol within the plasma membrane c. flip-flop of proteins across the plasma membrane d. flip-flop of lipids across the plasma membrane

34. Glycolipids are found ... a. exclusively on the extracellular leaflet of the plasma membrane b. exclusively on the intracellular leaflet of the plasma membrane c. on both sides of the plasma membrane d. exclusively in the Golgi apparatus e. none of the above 35. Which of the following is false regarding the sodium-potassium ATPase a. It is a P-class ATP-powered pump b. It is inhibited by ouabain c. It pumps 2 sodium ions out and 3 potassium ions in for each ATP hydrolyzed d. It is electrogenic e. all of these statements are true 36. During transport of calcium ions by the calcium ATPase, which event happens first? a. 2 calcium ions are reversibly bound to the alpha subunit b. a phosphate from ATP is transferred to an aspartate residue on the alpha subunit c. a phosphate from ATP is transferred to an aspartate residue on the beta subunit d. a conformational change translocates 2 calcium ions across the lipid bilayer 37. The ATP-dependent pump that maintains the low cytoplasmic concentration of calcium in skeletal muscle is a(n) a. P-class pump b. V-class pump c. L-class pump d. ABC pump 38. All of the following are ABC pumps except a. MDR proteins b. bacterial plasma membrane permeases c. Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Regulator Protein d. phospholipid flippases e. all of the above are ABC proteins 39. All of the following, transport monovalent cations along their concentration gradient except a. Sodium-calcium antiporter b. Sodium-glucose symporter c. Sodium-potassium ATPase d. Potassium channels 40. Transport of ions across cell membranes occurs most rapidly through a. P-class pumps b. V-class pumps c. ABC transporters d. Ion channels 41. Which of the following optical techniques employs a pinhole to restrict light detection to photons originating from the focal plane? a. confocal microscopy b. deconvolution microscopy c. differential interference microscopy d. fluorescence microscopy e. none of the above 42. Which of the following is/are true about phospholipid flippases? a. they are P type ATPases b. they are localized to the endoplasmic reticulum c. they are responsible for the establishment of phospholipid asymmetry in the plasma membrane d. all of the above e. none of the above

43. A membrane protein that can be isolated from the membrane under relatively mild conditions (e.g., pH, ionic strength, etc) is most likely a(n) a. integral membrane protein b. peripheral membrane protein c. lipid anchored proten d. transmembrane protein e. none of the above 44. What is facilitated diffusion? a. co-transport of a solute molecule against its concentration gradient, and an ion along its concentration gradient in the same direction across the plasma membrane b. co-transport of a solute molecule against its concentration gradient, and an ion along its concentration gradient in opposite directions across the plasma membrane c. ATP-dependent transport of an ion against its concentration gradient d. transport of a solute molecule against its concentration gradient by a carrier protein e. transport of a solute molecule along its concentration gradient by a carrier protein 45. An antiporter mediates which of the following processes? a. co-transport of a solute molecule against its concentration gradient, and an ion along its concentration gradient in the same direction across the plasma membrane b. co-transport of a solute molecule against its concentration gradient, and an ion along its concentration gradient in opposite directions across the plasma membrane c. ATP-dependent transport of an ion against its concentration gradient d. transport of a solute molecule against its concentration gradient by a carrier protein e. transport of a solute molecule along its concentration gradient by a carrier protein 46. Which of the following events occurs first during ion transport by the sodium-potassium ATPase? a. binding of potassium ions to high affinity sites on the transporter b. dissociation of sodium ions from low affinity sites on the transporter c. phosphorylation of a critical aspartate residue on the transporter d. dissociation of inorganic phosphate from the transporter e. a conformational change in the transporter protein that carries sodium ions across the plasma membrane 47. During solute transport by an ABC translocator, which event occurs immediately after ATP binding? a. association of the cytoplasmic globular domains b. association of the extracellular globular domains c. binding of the solute molecule(s) d. dissociation of the solute molecule(s) e. ATP hydrolysis 48. What is (are) the hypothetical function(s) of ABC translocator proteins in eucaryotic cells? a. the development of drug resistance b. the transport of nutrients into the cell c. the removal of toxic materials from the cell d. the transport of growth factors into the cell e. all of the above 49. In gram negative bacteria, ABC translocators are found principally in the ... a. inner (plasma) membrane b. outer membrane c. periplasmic space d. cytoplasm e. nucleus

50. The characteristic, biconcave shape of red blood cells is maintained by which of the following? a. unusually high cholesterol content b. a network of protein filaments including spectrin c. a network of lipid rafts d. a dense glycocalyx e. none of the above 51. Which of the following transport proteins is restricted to the apical membrane of epithelial cells? a. sodium-glucose symporter b. sodium-glucose antiporter c. glucose uniporter d. sodium uniporter e. sodium-potassium ATPase 52. Which of the following phospholipids is found in lowest abundance in most biomembranes? a. phosphatidyl inositol b. phosphatidyl choline c. phosphatidyl ethanolamine d. phosphatidyl serine e. sphingomyelin 53. Which of the following statements regarding ubiquitylation of proteins is false? a. Ubiquitin is an abundant carbohydrate that tags proteins for degradation b. A three enzyme complex mediates the ubiquitylation of proteins c. Ubiquitin is attached to the e amino acid of a lysine side chain on the target proteins d. Long chains of ubiquitin increase the probability of degradation of a target protein by the 20S proteasome. e. all of these statements are true