156-315 75

Checkpoint 156-315.
75
Check Point Security Expert R75
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Topic 1, Volume A
QUESTION NO: 1 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured? A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC. B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway C. They are secured by PPTP D. They are not secured. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2 If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal? A. Three B. Two C. Four D. One Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3 David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David use to accomplish his goal? A. SmartProvisioning B. SmartBlade C. SmartDashboard D. SmartLSM Answer: B Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 2
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
QUESTION NO: 4 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode B. Multicast mode C. Legacy mode D. Unicast mode Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL? A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway) B. Transparent failover in case of device failures C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization D. Transparent upgrades Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant? A. Load Sharing - Unicast B. Load Balancing - Forward C. High Availability
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D. Load Sharing - Multicast Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7 You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic? A. 80% B. 40% C. 100% D. 50% Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8 You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine? A. fw purge policy B. fw fetch policy C. fw purge active D. fw unloadlocal Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9 How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall? A. fw ctl get kernel B. fw ctl pstat "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 4
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. fw kernel D. fw ver -k Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10 The process ________________ compiles $FWDIR/conf/*.W files into machine language. A. fw gen B. cpd C. fwd D. fwm Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11 Which of the following is NOT part of the policy installation process? A. Code compilation B. Code generation C. Initiation D. Validation Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12 When, during policy installation, does the atomic load task run? A. It is the first task during policy installation. B. It is the last task during policy installation. C. Before CPD runs on the Gateway. D. Immediately after fwm load runs on the SmartCenter. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 5
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13 What process is responsible for transferring the policy file from SmartCenter to the Gateway? A. FWD B. FWM C. CPRID D. CPD Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14 What firewall kernel table stores information about port allocations for Hide NAT connections? A. NAT_dst_any_list B. host_ip_addrs C. NAT_src_any_list D. fwx_alloc Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15 Where do you define NAT properties so that NAT is performed either client side or server side? A. In SmartDashboard under Gateway setting B. In SmartDashboard under Global Properties > NAT definition C. In SmartDashboard in the NAT Rules D. In file $DFWDIR/lib/table.def Answer: B Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 6
QUESTION NO: 16 The process ___________ is responsible for all other security server processes run on the Gateway. A. FWD B. CPLMD C. FWM D. CPD Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17 The process ________ is responsible for GUIClient communication with the SmartCenter. A. FWD B. FWM C. CPD D. CPLMD Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18 The process ________ is responsible for Policy compilation. A. FWM B. Fwcmp C. CPLMD D. CPD Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19 The process ________ is responsible for Management High Availability synchronization. A. CPLMD B. FWM C. Fwsync D. CPD Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20 _________ is the called process that starts when opening SmartView Tracker application. A. logtrackerd B. fwlogd C. CPLMD D. FWM Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21 Anytime a client initiates a connection to a server, the firewall kernel signals the FWD process using a trap. FWD spawns the ________ child service, which runs the security server. A. FWD B. FWSD C. In.httpd D. FWSSD Answer: D Explanation:
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 22 Security server configuration settings are stored in _______________ . A. $FWDIR/conf/AMT.conf B. $FWDIR/conf/fwrl.conf C. $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf D. $FWDIR/conf/fwopsec.conf Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23 User definitions are stored in ________________ . A. $FWDIR/conf/fwmuser B. $FWDIR/conf/users.NDB C. $FWDIR/conf/fwauth.NDB D. $FWDIR/conf/fwusers.conf Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24 Jon is explaining how the inspection module works to a colleague. If a new connection passes through the inspection module and the packet matches the rule, what is the next step in the process? A. Verify if the packet should be moved through the TCP/IP stack. B. Verify if any logging or alerts are defined. C. Verify if the packet should be rejected. D. Verify if another rule exists. Answer: B Explanation:
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 25 Which of the following statements accurately describes the upgrade_export command? A. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, upgrade_export stores all object databases and the conf directories for importing to a newer version of the Security Gateway. B. Used when upgrading the Security Gateway, upgrade_export includes modified files, such as in the directories /lib and /conf. C. upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be included or excluded before exporting. D. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26 What are you required to do before running upgrade_export? A. Run a cpstop on the Security Gateway. B. Run cpconfig and set yourself up as a GUI client. C. Run a cpstop on the Security Management Server. D. Close all GUI clients. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27 A snapshot delivers a complete backup of SecurePlatform. The resulting file can be stored on servers or as a local file in /var/CPsnapshot/snapshots. How do you restore a local snapshot named MySnapshot.tgz? A. As Expert user, type command snapshot - R to restore from a local file. Then, provide the correct file name. B. As Expert user, type command revert --file MySnapshot.tgz. C. As Expert user, type command snapshot -r MySnapshot.tgz. D. Reboot the system and call the start menu. Select option Snapshot Management, provide the Expert password and select [L] for a restore from a local file. Then, provide the correct file name. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 10
QUESTION NO: 28 What is the primary benefit of using upgrade_export over either backup or snapshot? A. The commands backup and snapshot can take a long time to run whereas upgrade_export will take a much shorter amount of time. B. upgrade_export will back up routing tables, hosts files, and manual ARP configurations, where backup and snapshot will not. C. upgrade_export has an option to backup the system and SmartView Tracker logs while backup and snapshot will not. D. upgrade_export is operating system independent and can be used when backup or snapshot is not available. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29 Your R7x-series Enterprise Security Management Server is running abnormally on Windows Server 2003 R2. You decide to try reinstalling the Security Management Server, but you want to try keeping the critical Security Management Server configuration settings intact (i.e., all Security Policies, databases, SIC, licensing etc.) What is the BEST method to reinstall the Server and keep its critical configuration? A)
B)
C)
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D)
A. Exhibit A B. Exhibit B C. Exhibit C D. Exhibit D Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30 Your primary Security Management Server runs on SecurePlatform. What is the easiest way to back up your Security Gateway R75 configuration, including routing and network configuration files? A. Using the native SecurePlatform back up utility from command line or in the Web-based user interface. B. Using the command upgrade_export. C. Run the command pre_upgrade_verifier and save the file *.tgz to the directory c:/temp. D. Copying the directories $FWDIR/conf and $FWDIR/lib to another location. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31 You need to back up the routing, interface, and DNS configuration information from your R75 SecurePlatform Security Gateway. Which backup-and-restore solution do you use? A. SecurePlatform back up utilities B. Manual copies of the directory $FWDIR/conf C. Database Revision Control D. Commands upgrade_export and upgrade_import
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32 Which of the following methods will provide the most complete backup of an R75 configuration? A. Database Revision Control B. Policy Package Management C. Copying the directories $FWDIR\conf and $CPDIR\conf to another server D. upgrade_export command Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33 Which of the following commands can provide the most complete restore of an R75 configuration? A. upgrade_import B. fwm dbimport -p <export file> C. cpconfig D. cpinfo -recover Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34 When restoring R75 using the command upgrade_import, which of the following items are NOT restored? A. Global properties B. Route tables C. Licenses D. SIC Certificates Answer: B "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 13
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35 Your organization's disaster recovery plan needs an update to the backup and restore section to reap the benefits of the new distributed R75 installation. Your plan must meet the following required and desired objectives:
Upon evaluation, your plan: A. Meets the required objective and only one desired objective B. Meets the required objective and both desired objectives C. Meets the required objective but does not meet either desired objective D. Does not meet the required objective Answer: B Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 36 You are running a R75 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform. In case of a hardware failure, you have a server with the exact same hardware and firewall version installed. What backup method could be used to quickly put the secondary firewall into production?
A. upgrade_export B. manual backup C. snapshot D. backup Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37 Before upgrading SecurePlatform, you should create a backup. To save time, many administrators use the command backup. This creates a backup of the Check Point configuration as well as the system configuration. An administrator has installed the latest HFA on the system for fixing traffic problems after creating a backup file. There is a mistake in the very complex static routing configuration. The Check Point configuration has not been changed. Can the administrator use a restore to fix the errors in static routing? A. The restore is not possible because the backup file does not have the same build number (version). B. The restore is done by selecting Snapshot Management from the SecurePlatform boot menu. C. The restore can be done easily by the command restore and selecting the appropriate backup file. D. A back up cannot be restored, because the binary files are missing. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38 You intend to upgrade a Check Point Gateway from R65 to R75. To avoid problems, you decide to back up the Gateway. Which approach allows the Gateway configuration to be completely backed up into a manageable size in the least amount of time?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. snapshot B. database revision C. backup D. upgrade_export Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39 Your R75 enterprise Security Management Server is running abnormally on Windows 2008 Server. You decide to try reinstalling the Security Management Server, but you want to try keeping the critical Security Management Server configuration settings intact (i.e., all Security Policies, databases, SIC, licensing etc.) What is the BEST method to reinstall the Server and keep its critical configuration? A. 1. Create a database revision control backup using the SmartDashboard 2. Create a compressed archive of the *FWDlR*\ conf and FWDiR8\lib directories and copy them to another networked machine. 3. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot. 4. Install again as a primary Security Management Server using the R70 CD. 5. Reboot and restore the two archived directories over the top of the new installation, choosing to overwrite existing files. B. 1. Download the latest upgrade_export utility and run it from a c; \temp directory to export the configuration into a . tgz file 2. Skip any upgarde__verification warnings since you are not upgrading 3. Transfer the . tgz file to another networked machine 4. Download and run the cpclean utility and reboot 5. Use the R70 CD-ROM to select the uuarade import ootion to import the confiauration C. 1. Download the latest upqrade_expoct utility and run it from a \temp directory to export the configuration into a . tgz file 2. Perform any requested upgcade_veriiction suggested steps 3. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot 4. Use SmartUpdate to reinstall the Security Management Server and reboot 5. Transfer the tgz file back to the local \temp 6. Run upgrade__import to import the configuration D. 1. Insert the F70 CD-ROM, and select the option to export the configuration using the latest upgrade utilities 2. Perform any requested upgrade_verification suggested steps and re-export the configuration if needed 3. Save the export " tgz file to a local c: \temp directory 4. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot 5. Install again using the R70 CD-ROM as a primary Security Management Server and reboot 6. Run upgrade_import to import the configuration "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 16
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40 True or false? After creating a snapshot of a Windows 2003 SP2 Security Management Server, you can restore it on a SecurePlatform R75 Security Management Server, except you must load interface information manually. A. True, but only when the snapshot file is restored to a SecurePlatform system running R75.20. B. False, you cannot run the Check Point snapshot utility on a Windows gateway. C. True, but only when the snapshot file is restored to a SecurePlatform system running R75.10. D. False, all configuration information conveys to the new system, including the interface configuration settings. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41 Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend before major changes, such as upgrades? A. snapshot B. upgrade_export C. backup D. migrate export Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42 Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend every couple of months,
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam depending on how frequently you make changes to the network or policy? A. backup B. migrate export C. upgrade_export D. snapshot Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43 Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend anytime outside a maintenance window? A. backup B. migrate export C. backup_export D. snapshot Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44 Snapshot is available on which Security Management Server and Security Gateway platforms? A. Solaris B. Windows 2003 Server C. Windows XP Server D. SecurePlatform Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 18
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam The file snapshot generates is very large, and can only be restored to: A. The device that created it, after it has been upgraded B. Individual members of a cluster configuration C. Windows Server class systems D. A device having exactly the same Operating System as the device that created the file Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46 Restoring a snapshot-created file on one machine that was created on another requires which of the following to be the same on both machines? A. Windows version, objects database, patch level, and interface configuration B. Windows version, interface configuration, and patch level C. State, SecurePlatform version, and patch level D. State, SecurePlatform version, and objects database Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47 When restoring a Security Management Server from a backup file, the restore package can be retrieved from which source? A. HTTP server, FTP server, or TFTP server B. Disk, SCP server, or TFTP server C. Local folder, TFTP server, or FTP server D. Local folder, TFTP server, or Disk Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam When upgrading Check Point products in a distributed environment, in which order should you upgrade these components? 1 GUI Client 2 Security Management Server 3 Security Gateway A. 3, 2, 1 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 3, 1, 2 D. 2, 3, 1 Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49 When using migrate to upgrade a Secure Management Server, which of the following is included in the migration? A. SmartEvent database B. SmartReporter database C. classes.C file D. System interface configuration Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50 Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R75 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. When doing this, what is required of the two machines? They must both have the same: A. Products installed. B. Interfaces configured. C. State. D. Patch level.
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QUESTION NO: 51 Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R75 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. Both machines must have the same number of interfaces installed and configured before migration can be attempted. B. The new machine may not have more Check Point products installed than the original Security Management Server. C. All product databases are included in the migration. D. The Security Management Server on the new machine must be the same or greater than the version on the original machine. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52 Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R75 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. What is the correct order of the steps below to successfully complete this procedure? 1) Export databases from source. 2) Connect target to network. 3) Prepare the source machine for export. 4) Import databases to target. 5) Install new version on target. 6) Test target deployment. A. 6, 5, 3, 1, 4, 2 B. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6 C. 5, 2, 6, 3, 1, 4
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D. 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2 Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53 During a Security Management Server migrate export, the system: A. Creates a backup file that includes the SmartEvent database. B. Creates a backup file that includes the SmartReporter database. C. Creates a backup archive for all the Check Point configuration settings. D. Saves all system settings and Check Point product configuration settings to a file. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54 If no flags are defined during a back up on the Security Management Server, where does the system store the *.tgz file? A. /var/opt/backups B. /var/backups C. /var/CPbackup/backups D. /var/tmp/backups Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55 Which is NOT a valid option when upgrading Cluster Deployments? A. Full Connectivity Upgrade B. Fast path Upgrade C. Minimal Effort Upgrade D. Zero Downtime "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 22
QUESTION NO: 56 In a zero downtime firewall cluster environment what command do you run to avoid switching problems around the cluster. A. cphaconf set mc_relod B. cphaconf set clear_subs C. cphaconf set_ccp broadcast D. cphaconf set_ccp multicast Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57 In a "zero downtime" scenario, which command do you run manually after all cluster members are upgraded? A. cphaconf set_ccp broadcast B. cphaconf set clear_subs C. cphaconf set mc_relod D. cphaconf set_ccp multicast Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58 Which command provides cluster upgrade status? A. cphaprob status B. cphaprob ldstat C. cphaprob fcustat D. cphaprob tablestat
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QUESTION NO: 59 John is upgrading a cluster from NGX R65 to R75. John knows that you can verify the upgrade process using the pre-upgrade verifier tool. When John is running Pre-Upgrade Verification, he sees the warning message: Title: Incompatible pattern. What is happening? A. R75 uses a new pattern matching engine. Incompatible patterns should be deleted before upgrade process to complete it successfully. B. Pre-Upgrade Verification process detected a problem with actual configuration and upgrade will be aborted. C. Pre-Upgrade Verification tool only shows that message but it is only informational. D. The actual configuration contains user defined patterns in IPS that are not supported in R75. If the patterns are not fixed after upgrade, they will not be used with R75 Security Gateways. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60 Which command would you use to save the interface information before upgrading a SecurePlatform Gateway? A. netstat rn > [filename].txt B. ipconfig a > [filename].txt C. ifconfig > [filename].txt D. cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C [location] Answer: C Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 61 Which command would you use to save the routing information before upgrading a SecurePlatform Gateway? A. cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C [location] B. netstat rn > [filename].txt C. ifconfig > [filename].txt D. ipconfig a > [filename].txt Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62 Which command would you use to save the routing information before upgrading a Windows Gateway? A. ipconfig a > [filename].txt B. ifconfig > [filename].txt C. cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C [location] D. netstat rn > [filename].txt Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63 Which command would you use to save the interface information before upgrading a Windows Gateway? A. cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C [location] B. ipconfig a > [filename].txt C. ifconfig > [filename].txt D. netstat rn > [filename].txt Answer: B Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 64 When upgrading a cluster in Full Connectivity Mode, the first thing you must do is see if all cluster members have the same products installed. Which command should you run? A. fw fcu B. cphaprob fcustat C. cpconfig D. fw ctl conn a Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65 A Minimal Effort Upgrade of a cluster: A. Is only supported in major releases (R70 to R71, R71 to R75). B. Is not a valid upgrade method in R75. C. Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway. D. Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 66 A Zero Downtime Upgrade of a cluster: A. Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time. B. Is only supported in major releases (R70 to R71, R71 to R75). C. Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway. D. Is not a valid upgrade method in R75. Answer: A Explanation:
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A Full Connectivity Upgrade of a cluster: A. Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway. B. Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time. C. Is only supported in minor version upgrades (R70 to R71, R71 to R75). D. Is not a valid upgrade method in R75. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 68 A Fast Path Upgrade of a cluster: A. Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time. B. Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway. C. Is not a valid upgrade method in R75. D. Is only supported in major releases (R70 to R71, R71 to R75). Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 69 How does Check Point recommend that you secure the sync interface between gateways? A. Configure the sync network to operate within the DMZ. B. Secure each sync interface in a cluster with Endpoint. C. Use a dedicated sync network. D. Encrypt all sync traffic between cluster members. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70 How would you set the debug buffer size to 1024?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. Run fw ctl set buf 1024 B. Run fw ctl kdebug 1024 C. Run fw ctl debug -buf 1024 D. Run fw ctl set int print_cons 1024 Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 71 Steve is troubleshooting a connection problem with an internal application. If he knows the source IP address is 192.168.4.125, how could he filter this traffic? A. Run fw monitor -e "accept dsrc=192.168.4.125;" B. Run fw monitor -e "accept dst=192.168.4.125;" C. Run fw monitor -e "accept ip=192.168.4.125;" D. Run fw monitor -e "accept src=192.168.4.125;" Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72 Check Point support has asked Tony for a firewall capture of accepted packets. What would be the correct syntax to create a capture file to a filename called monitor.out? A. Run fw monitor -e "accept;" -f monitor.out B. Run fw monitor -e "accept;" -c monitor.out C. Run fw monitor -e "accept;" -o monitor.out D. Run fw monitor -e "accept;" -m monitor.out Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73 What is NOT a valid LDAP use in Check Point SmartDirectory?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. Retrieve gateway CRL's B. External users management C. Enforce user access to internal resources D. Provide user authentication information for the Security Management Server Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 74 There are several SmartDirectory (LDAP) features that can be applied to further enhance SmartDirectory (LDAP) functionality, which of the following is NOT one of those features? A. High Availability, where user information can be duplicated across several servers B. Support multiple SmartDirectory (LDAP) servers on which many user databases are distributed C. Encrypted or non-encrypted SmartDirectory (LDAP) Connections usage D. Support many Domains under the same account unit Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 75 Choose the BEST sequence for configuring user management in SmartDashboard, using an LDAP server. A. Configure a workstation object for the LDAP server, configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and enable LDAP in Global Properties. B. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and create an LDAP resource object. C. Enable LDAP in Global Properties, configure a host-node object for the LDAP server, and configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit. D. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and create an LDAP resource object. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam The User Directory Software Blade is used to integrate which of the following with a R75 Security Gateway? A. LDAP server B. RADIUS server C. Account Management Client server D. UserAuthority server Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 77 Your users are defined in a Windows 2008 Active Directory server. You must add LDAP users to a Client Authentication rule. Which kind of user group do you need in the Client Authentication rule in R75? A. LDAP group B. External-user group C. A group with a generic user D. All Users Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78 Which of the following commands do you run on the AD server to identify the DN name before configuring LDAP integration with the Security Gateway? A. query ldap name administrator B. dsquery user name administrator C. ldapquery name administrator D. cpquery name administrator Answer: B Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 79 In SmartDirectory, what is each LDAP server called? A. Account Server B. Account Unit C. LDAP Server D. LDAP Unit Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 80 What is the default port number for standard TCP connections with the LDAP server? A. 398 B. 636 C. 389 D. 363 Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 81 What is the default port number for Secure Sockets Layer connections with the LDAP Server? A. 363 B. 389 C. 398 D. 636 Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam When defining an Organizational Unit, which of the following are NOT valid object categories? A. Domains B. Resources C. Users D. Services Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 83 When defining SmartDirectory for High Availability (HA), which of the following should you do? A. Replicate the same information on multiple Active Directory servers. B. Configure Secure Internal Communications with each server and fetch branches from each. C. Configure a SmartDirectory Cluster object. D. Configure the SmartDirectory as a single object using the LDAP cluster IP. Actual HA functionality is configured on the servers. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84 The set of rules that governs the types of objects in the directory and their associated attributes is called thE. A. LDAP Policy B. Schema C. Access Control List D. SmartDatabase Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam When using SmartDashboard to manage existing users in SmartDirectory, when are the changes applied? A. Instantaneously B. At policy installation C. Never, you cannot manage users through SmartDashboard D. At database synchronization Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 86 Where multiple SmartDirectory servers exist in an organization, a query from one of the clients for user information is made to the servers based on a priority. By what category can this priority be defined? A. Gateway or Domain B. Location or Account Unit C. Location or Domain D. Gateway or Account Unit Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 87 Each entry in SmartDirectory has a unique _______________ ? A. Distinguished Name B. Organizational Unit C. Port Number Association D. Schema Answer: A Explanation:
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create R75 user definitions on a(n) _________ Server. A. SecureID B. LDAP C. NT Domain D. Radius Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 89 Which describes the function of the account unit? A. An Account Unit is the Check Point account that SmartDirectory uses to access an (LDAP) server B. An Account Unit is a system account on the Check Point gateway that SmartDirectory uses to access an (LDAP) server C. An Account Unit is the administration account on the LDAP server that SmartDirectory uses to access to (LDAP) server D. An Account Unit is the interface which allows interaction between the Security Management server and Security Gateways, and the SmartDirectory (LDAP) server. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 90 An organization may be distributed across several SmartDirectory (LDAP) servers. What provision do you make to enable a Gateway to use all available resources? Each SmartDirectory (LDAP) server must be: A. a member in the LDAP group. B. a member in a group that is associated with one Account Unit. C. represented by a separate Account Unit. D. represented by a separate Account Unit that is a member in the LDAP group. Answer: C Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 91 Which is NOT a method through which Identity Awareness receives its identities? A. GPO B. Captive Portal C. AD Query D. Identity Agent Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 92 If using AD Query for seamless identity data reception from Microsoft Active Directory (AD), which of the following methods is NOT Check Point recommended? A. Leveraging identity in Internet application control B. Identity-based auditing and logging C. Basic identity enforcement in the internal network D. Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users) Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 93 When using Captive Portal to send unidentified users to a Web portal for authentication, which of the following is NOT a recommended use for this method? A. Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users) B. For deployment of Identity Agents C. Basic identity enforcement in the internal network D. Leveraging identity in Internet application control Answer: C Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 35
QUESTION NO: 94 Identity Agent is a lightweight endpoint agent that authenticates securely with Single Sign-On (SSO). Which of the following is NOT a recommended use for this method? A. When accuracy in detecting identity is crucial B. Identity based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users) C. Protecting highly sensitive servers D. Leveraging identity for Data Center protection Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 95 Which of the following access options would you NOT use when configuring Captive Portal? A. Through the Firewall policy B. From the Internet C. Through all interfaces D. Through internal interfaces Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 96 Where do you verify that SmartDirectory is enabled? A. Global properties > Authentication> Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked B. Gateway properties > Smart Directory (LDAP) > Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked C. Gateway properties > Authentication> Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked D. Global properties > Smart Directory (LDAP) > Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 36
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 97 Remote clients are using IPSec VPN to authenticate via LDAP server to connect to the organization. Which gateway process is responsible for the authentication? A. vpnd B. cpvpnd C. fwm D. fwd Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 98 Remote clients are using SSL VPN to authenticate via LDAP server to connect to the organization. Which gateway process is responsible for the authentication? A. vpnd B. cpvpnd C. fwm D. fwd Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 99 Which of the following is NOT a LDAP server option in SmartDirectory? A. Novell_DS B. Netscape_DS C. OPSEC_DS D. Standard_DS
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QUESTION NO: 100 An Account Unit is the interface between the __________ and the __________. A. Users, Domain B. Gateway, Resources C. System, Database D. Clients, Server Answer: D Explanation:
Topic 2, Volume B
QUESTION NO: 101 Which of the following is a valid Active Directory designation for user John Doe in the Sales department of AcmeCorp.com? A. Cn=john_doe,ou=Sales,ou=acmecorp,dc=com B. Cn=john_doe,ou=Sales,ou=acme,ou=corp,dc=com C. Cn=john_doe,dc=Sales,dc=acmecorp,dc=com D. Cn=john_doe,ou=Sales,dc=acmecorp,dc=com Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 102 Which of the following is a valid Active Directory designation for user Jane Doe in the MIS department of AcmeCorp.com? A. Cn= jane_doe,ou=MIS,DC=acmecorp,dc=com B. Cn= jane_doe,ou=MIS,cn=acmecorp,dc=com C. Cn=jane_doe,ou=MIS,dc=acmecorp,dc=com
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D. Cn= jane_doe,ou=MIS,cn=acme,cn=corp,dc=com Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 103 Which utility or command is useful for debugging by capturing packet information, including verifying LDAP authentication? A. fw monitor B. ping C. um_core enable D. fw debug fwm Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 104 You can NOT use SmartDashboard's SmartDirectory features to connect to the LDAP server. What should you investigate?
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 105 If you are experiencing LDAP issues, which of the following should you check? A. Secure Internal Communications (SIC)
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam B. Domain name resolution C. Overlapping VPN Domains D. Connectivity between the R75 Gateway and LDAP server Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 106 How are cached usernames and passwords cleared from the memory of a R75 Security Gateway? A. By using the Clear User Cache button in SmartDashboard B. By retrieving LDAP user information using the command fw fetchldap C. Usernames and passwords only clear from memory after they time out D. By installing a Security Policy Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 107 When an Endpoint user is able to authenticate but receives a message from the client that it is unable to enforce the desktop policy, what is the most likely scenario? A. The user's rights prevent access to the protected network. B. A Desktop Policy is not configured. C. The gateway could not locate the user in SmartDirectory and is allowing the connection with limitations based on a generic profile. D. The user is attempting to connect with the wrong Endpoint client. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 108 When using a template to define a SmartDirectory, where should the user's password be defined? In the:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. Template object B. VPN Community object C. User object D. LDAP object Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 109 When configuring an LDAP Group object, which option should you select if you want the gateway to reference the groups defined on the LDAP server for authentication purposes? A. All Account-Unit's Users B. Only Group in Branch C. Group Agnostic D. OU Accept and select appropriate domain Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 110 When configuring an LDAP Group object, which option should you select if you do NOT want the gateway to reference the groups defined on the LDAP server for authentication purposes? A. OU Accept and select appropriate domain B. Only Sub Tree C. Only Group in Branch D. Group Agnostic Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 111 When configuring an LDAP Group object, which option should you select if you want the gateway to reference the groups defined on the LDAP server for authentication purposes?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. Only Group in Branch B. Only Sub Tree C. OU Auth and select Group Name D. All Account-Unit's Users Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 112 The process that performs the authentication for SmartDashboard is: A. fwm B. vpnd C. cvpnd D. cpd Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 113 The process that performs the authentication for Remote Access is: A. cpd B. vpnd C. fwm D. cvpnd Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 114 The process that performs the authentication for SSL VPN Users is: A. cvpnd B. cpd "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 42
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. fwm D. vpnd Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 115 The process that performs the authentication for legacy session authentication is: A. cvpnd B. fwm C. vpnd D. fwssd Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 116 While authorization for users managed by SmartDirectory is performed by the gateway, the authentication is mostly performed by the infrastructure in which of the following? A. ldapd B. cpauth C. cpShared D. ldapauth Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 117 When troubleshooting user authentication, you may see the following entries in a debug of the user authentication process. In which order are these messages likely to appear? A. make_au, au_auth, au_fetchuser, au_auth_auth, cpLdapCheck, cpLdapGetUser B. cpLdapGetUser, au_fetchuser, cpLdapCheck, make_au, au_auth, au_auth_auth "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 43
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. make_au, au_auth, au_fetchuser, cpLdapGetUser, cpLdapCheck, au_auth_auth D. au_fetchuser, make_au, au_auth, cpLdapGetUser, au_auth_auth, cpLdapCheck Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 118 Which of the following is NOT a ClusterXL mode? A. Multicast B. Legacy C. Broadcast D. New Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 119 In an R75 Cluster, some features such as VPN only function properly when: A. All cluster members have the same policy B. All cluster members have the same Hot Fix Accumulator pack installed C. All cluster members' clocks are synchronized D. All cluster members have the same number of interfaces configured Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 120 In ClusterXL R75; when configuring a cluster synchronization network on a VLAN interface what is the supported configuration? A. It is supported on VLAN tag 4095 B. It is supported on VLAN tag 4096 C. It is supported on the lowest VLAN tag of the VLAN interface "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 44
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D. It is not supported on a VLAN tag Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 121 Which process is responsible for delta synchronization in ClusterXL? A. fw kernel on the security gateway B. fwd process on the security gateway C. cpd process on the security gateway D. Clustering process on the security gateway Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 122 Which process is responsible for full synchronization in ClusterXL? A. fwd on the Security Gateway B. fw kernel on the Security Gateway C. Clustering on the Security Gateway D. cpd on the Security Gateway Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 123 Which process is responsible for kernel table information sharing across all cluster members? A. fwd daemon using an encrypted TCP connection B. CPHA using an encrypted TCP connection C. fw kernel using an encrypted TCP connection D. cpd using an encrypted TCP connection
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QUESTION NO: 124 By default, a standby Security Management Server is automatically synchronized by an active Security Management Server, when: A. The user data base is installed. B. The standby Security Management Server starts for the first time. C. The Security Policy is installed. D. The Security Policy is saved. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 125 The ________ Check Point ClusterXL mode must synchronize the physical interface IP and MAC addresses on all clustered interfaces. A. New Mode HA B. Pivot Mode Load Sharing C. Multicast Mode Load Sharing D. Legacy Mode HA Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 126 __________ is a proprietary Check Point protocol. It is the basis for Check Point ClusterXL intermodule communication. A. HA OPCODE B. RDP C. CKPP D. CCP "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 46
QUESTION NO: 127 After you add new interfaces to a cluster, how can you check if the new interfaces and the associated virtual IP address are recognized by ClusterXL?
A. By running the command cphaprob state on both members B. By running the command cpconfig on both members C. By running the command cphaprob -I list on both members D. By running the command cphaprob -a if on both members Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 128 Which of the following is a supported Sticky Decision Function of Sticky Connections for Load Sharing? "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 47
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. Multi-connection support for VPN-1 cluster members B. Support for all VPN deployments (except those with third-party VPN peers) C. Support for SecureClient/SecuRemote/SSL Network Extender encrypted connections D. Support for Performance Pack acceleration Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 129 Included in the customer's network are some firewall systems with the Performance Pack in use. The customer wishes to use these firewall systems in a cluster (Load Sharing mode). He is not sure if he can use the Sticky Decision Function in this cluster. Explain the situation to him. A. Sticky Decision Function is not supported when employing either Performance Pack or a hardware-based accelerator card. Enabling the Sticky Decision Function disables these acceleration products. B. ClusterXL always supports the Sticky Decision Function in the Load Sharing mode. C. The customer can use the firewalls with Performance Pack inside the cluster, which should support the Sticky Decision Function. It is just necessary to enable the Sticky Decision Function in the SmartDashboard cluster object in the ClusterXL page, Advanced Load Sharing Configuration window. D. The customer can use the firewalls with Performance Pack inside the cluster, which should support the Sticky Decision Function. It is just necessary to configure it with the clusterXL_SDF_enable command. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 130 A connection is said to be Sticky when: A. The connection information sticks in the connection table even after the connection has ended. B. A copy of each packet in the connection sticks in the connection table until a corresponding reply packet is received from the other side. C. A connection is not terminated by either side by FIN or RST packet. D. All the connection packets are handled, in either direction, by a single cluster member. Answer: D Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 48
QUESTION NO: 131 How does a cluster member take over the VIP after a failover event? A. Broadcast storm B. iflist -renew C. Ping the sync interface D. Gratuitous ARP Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 132 Check Point Clustering protocol, works on: A. UDP 500 B. UDP 8116 C. TCP 8116 D. TCP 19864 Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 133 A customer is calling saying one member's status is Down. What will you check? A. cphaprob list (verify what critical device is down) B. fw ctl pstat (check sync) C. fw ctl debug -m cluster + forward (forwarding layer debug) D. tcpdump/snoop (CCP traffic) Answer: A Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 134 A customer calls saying that a Load Sharing cluster shows drops with the error First packet is not SYN. Complete the following sentence. I will recommend: A. turning on SDF (Sticky Decision Function) B. turning off SDF (Sticky Decision Function) C. changing the load on each member D. configuring flush and ack Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 135 Which of the following commands can be used to troubleshoot ClusterXL sync issues? A. fw debug cxl connections > file_name B. fw tab -s -t connections > file_name C. fw tab -u connections > file_name D. fw ctl -s -t connections > file_name Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 136 Which of the following commands shows full synchronization status? A. fw hastat B. cphaprob -i list C. cphaprob -a if D. fw ctl iflist Answer: B Explanation:
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Which of the following commands shows full synchronization status? A. cphaprob -a if B. fw ctl iflist C. fw hastat D. fw ctl pstat Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 138 John is configuring a new R71 Gateway cluster but he can not configure the cluster as Third Party IP Clustering because this option is not available in Gateway Cluster Properties.
What's happening?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. Third Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways. B. John is not using third party hardware as IP Clustering is part of Check Point's IP Appliance. C. ClusterXL needs to be unselected to permit 3rd party clustering configuration. D. John has an invalid ClusterXL license. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 139 In ClusterXL, _______ is defined by default as a critical device. A. fwd B. fwm C. assld D. cpp Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 140 In ClusterXL, _______ is defined by default as a critical device. A. fw.d B. protect.exe C. PROT_SRV.EXE D. Filter Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 141 Refer to Exhibit below:
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Match the ClusterXL modes with their configurations. A. A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1 B. A - 2, B - 3, C - 1, D - 4 C. A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1 D. A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4 Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 142 When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements is NOT true? A. The state of connections using resources is maintained by a Security Server, so these connections cannot be synchronized. B. In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite a properly working synchronization. C. Only cluster members running on the same OS platform can be synchronized. D. Client Authentication or Session Authentication connections through a cluster member will be lost if the cluster member fails. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 143 When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements is NOT true? "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 53
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. User Authentication connections will be lost by the cluster. B. An SMTP resource connection using CVP will be maintained by the cluster. C. In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite a properly working synchronization. D. Only cluster members running on the same OS platform can be synchronized. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 144 When a failed cluster member recovers, which of the following actions is NOT taken by the recovering member? A. It will try to take the policy from one of the other cluster members. B. It will not check for any updated policy and load the last installed policy with a warning message indicating that the Security Policy needs to be installed from the Security Management Server. C. If the Security Management Server has a newer policy, it will be retrieved, else the local policy will be loaded. D. It compares its local policy to the one on the Security Management Server. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 145 Organizations are sometimes faced with the need to locate cluster members in different geographic locations that are distant from each other. A typical example is replicated data centers whose location is widely separated for disaster recovery purposes. What are the restrictions of this solution? A. There are no restrictions. B. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 150 ms latency (ITU Standard G.114). C. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100 ms latency. D. There are two restrictions: 1. The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100ms latency and no more than 5% packet loss. 2. The synchronization network may only include switches and hubs. Answer: D "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 54
QUESTION NO: 146 You are the MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of two cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is behaving strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster synchronization cluster link (cross-over cable). Which of the following commands is the best for testing the connectivity of the crossover cable? A. telnet <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member> B. ifconfig -a C. ping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member> D. arping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member> Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 147 You have a High Availability ClusterXL configuration. Machines are not synchronized. What happens to connections on failover? A. Connections cannot be established until cluster members are fully synchronized. B. It is not possible to configure High Availability that is not synchronized. C. Old connections are lost but can be reestablished. D. Old connections are lost but are automatically recovered whenever the failed machine recovers. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 148 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member? A. fw ctl syncstat stop B. fw ctl setsync off "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 55
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. fw ctl setsync 0 D. fw ctl syncstat off Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 149 When using ClusterXL in Load Sharing, what is the default method? A. IPs, Ports, SPIs B. IPs C. IPs, Ports D. IPs, SPIs Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 150 If ClusterXL Load Sharing is enabled with state synchronization enabled, what will happen if one member goes down? A. The connections are dropped as Load Sharing does not support High Availability. B. The processing of all connections handled by the faulty machine is dropped, so all connections need to be re-established through the other machine(s). C. There is no state synchronization on Load Sharing, only on High Availability. D. The processing of all connections handled by the faulty machine is immediately taken over by the other member(s). Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 151 In the following cluster configuration; if you reboot sglondon_1 which device will be active when sglondon_1 is back up and running? Why?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. Sglondon_1, because it is up again, sglondon_2 took over during reboot B. Sglondon_2 because I has highest IP C. Sglondon_2 because it has highest priority D. Sglondon_1 because it the first configured object with the lowest IP Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 152 What is a "sticky" connection? A. A Sticky Connection is one in which a reply packet returns through the same gateway as the original packet. B. A Sticky Connection is a VPN connection that remains up until you manually bring it down. C. A Sticky Connection is a connection that remains the same. D. A Sticky Connection is a connection that always chooses the same gateway to set up the initial connection. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 153 Your network includes ClusterXL running Multicast mode on two members, as shown in this topology: Your network is expanding, and you need to add new interfaces: 10.10.10.1/24 on Member A, and 10.10.10.2/24 on Member B. The virtual IP address for interface 10.10.10.0/24 is 10.10.10.3. What is the correct procedure to add these interfaces? A. 1. Use the ifconfig command to configure and enable the new interface. 2. Run cpstop and cpstart on both members at the same time. 3. Update the topology in the cluster object for the cluster and both members. 4. Install the Security Policy. B. 1. Disable "Cluster membership" from one Gateway via cpconfig. 2. Configure the new interface via sysconfig from the "non-member" Gateway. 3. RE. enable "Cluster membership" on the Gateway. 4. Perform the same step on the other Gateway. 5. Update the topology in the cluster object for the cluster and members. 6. Install the Security Policy. C. 1. Run cpstop on one member, and configure the new interface via sysconfig. 2. Run cpstart on the member. Repeat the same steps on another member. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 57
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam 3. Update the new topology in the cluster object for the cluster and members. 4. Install the Security Policy. D. 1. Use sysconfig to configure the new interfaces on both members. 2. Update the topology in the cluster object for the cluster and both members. 3. Install the Security Policy. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 154 Match the Best Management High Availability synchronization-status descriptions for your Security Management Server (SMS):
A. A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 4 B. A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2 C. A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2 D. A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4 Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 155 Review the R75 configuration.
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Is it correct for Management High Availability?
A. No, the Security Management Servers must reside on the same network. B. No, the Security Management Servers must be installed on the same operating system. C. No, the Security Management Servers do not have the same number of NICs. D. No, a R71 Security Management Server cannot run on Red Hat Linux 9.0. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 156 Check Point New Mode HA is a(n) _________ solution. A. primary-domain B. hot-standby C. acceleration D. load-balancing Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 157 What is the behavior of ClusterXL in a High Availability environment? A. The active member responds to the virtual address and is the only member that passes traffic. B. The active member responds to the virtual address and, using sync network forwarding, both members pass traffic. C. Both members respond to the virtual address but only the active member is able to pass traffic. D. Both members respond to the virtual address and both members pass traffic. Answer: A Explanation:
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Review the cphaprob state command output from one New Mode High Availability ClusterXL cluster member.
Which member will be active after member 192.168.1.2 fails over and is rebooted?
A. 192.168.1.2 B. Both members' state will be in collision. C. 192.168.1.1 D. Both members' state will be active. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 159 Review the cphaprob state command output from a New Mode High Availability cluster member.
Which machine has the highest priority?
A. 192.168.1.2, because its state is active B. 192.168.1.1, because its number is 1 C. 192.168.1.1, because it is <local> D. This output does not indicate which machine has the highest priority. Answer: B Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 160 By default Check Point High Availability components send updates about their state every: A. 5 seconds. B. 0.5 second. C. 0.1 second. D. 1 second. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 161 You have just upgraded your Load Sharing gateway cluster (both members) from NGX R65 to R75. cphaprob stat shows:
Which of the following is not a possible cause of this? A. You have a different number of cores defined for CoreXL between the two members B. Member 1 has CoreXL disabled and member 2 does not C. Member 1 is at a lower version than member 2 D. You have not run cpconfig on member 2 yet. Answer: D Explanation:
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam In Management High Availability, what is an Active SMS? A. Active Security Master Server B. Active Smart Management Server C. Active Security Management Server D. Active Smart Master Server Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 163 For Management High Availability, if an Active SMS goes down, does the Standby SMS automatically take over? A. Yes, if you set up ClusterXL B. Yes, if you set up SecureXL C. No, the transition should be initiated manually D. Yes, if you set up VRRP Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 164 For Management High Availability synchronization, what does the Advance status mean? A. The peer SMS has not been synchronized properly. B. The peer SMS is properly synchronized. C. The active SMS and its peer have different installed policies and databases. D. The peer SMS is more up-to-date. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 165 Which of the following would be a result of having more than one active Security Management "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 62
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Server in a Management High Availability (HA) configuration? A. The need to manually synchronize the secondary Security Management Server with the Primary Security Management Server is eliminated. B. Allows for faster seamless failover: from active-to-active instead of standby-to-active. C. An error notification will popup during SmartDashboard login if the two machines can communicate indicating Collision status. D. Creates a High Availability implementation between the Gateways installed on the Security Management Servers. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 166 You want to verify that your Check Point cluster is working correctly. Which command line tool can you use? A. cphastart -status B. cphainfo -s C. cphaprob state D. cphaconf state Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 167 How can you view the virtual cluster interfaces of a Cluster XL environment? A. cphaprob -ia if B. cphaprob -a if C. cphaprob -a list D. cphaprob -ia list Answer: B Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 168 How can you view the critical devices on a cluster member in a Cluster XL environment? A. cphaprob -ia list B. cphaprob -a if C. cphaprob -a list D. cphaprob -ia if Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 169 When Load Sharing Multicast mode is defined in a ClusterXL cluster object, how are packets being handled by cluster members? A. All members receive all packets. The Security Management Server decides which member will process the packets. Other members delete the packets from memory. B. All cluster members process all packets and members synchronize with each other. C. All members receive all packets. All members run an algorithm which determines which member processes packets further and which members delete the packet from memory. D. Only one member at a time is active. The active cluster member processes all packets. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 170 Which of the following does NOT happen when using Pivot Mode in ClusterXL? A. The Security Gateway analyzes the packet and forwards it to the Pivot. B. The packet is forwarded through the same physical interface from which it originally came, not on the sync interface. C. The Pivot's Load Sharing decision function decides which cluster member should handle the packet. D. The Pivot forwards the packet to the appropriate cluster member. Answer: A Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 171 When distributing IPSec packets to gateways in a Load Sharing Multicast mode cluster, which valid Load Sharing method will consider VPN information? A. Load Sharing based on IP addresses, ports, and serial peripheral interfaces B. Load Sharing based on SPIs C. Load Sharing based on ports, VTI, and IP addresses D. Load Sharing based on IP addresses, ports, and security parameter indexes Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 172 By default, the Cluster Control Protocol (CCP) uses this to send delta sync messages to other cluster members. A. Broadcast B. Unicast C. Multicast D. Shoutcast Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 173 To configure the Cluster Control Protocol (CCP) to use Broadcast, the following command is run: A. set_ccp cpcluster broadcast B. ccp broadcast C. clusterconfig set_ccp broadcast D. cphaconf set_ccp broadcast Answer: D Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 65
QUESTION NO: 174 What cluster mode is represented in this case? 1). (local) 172.168.1.1 100$ active 2). 172.14*.1.2 0$ standby
A. Load Sharing (multicast mode) B. HA (New mode). C. 3rd party cluster D. Load Sharing Unicast (Pivot) mode Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 175 What cluster mode is represented in this case?
A. 3rd party cluster B. Load Sharing (multicast mode) C. Load Sharing Unicast (Pivot) mode D. HA (New mode) Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 176 Which of the listed load-balancing methods is NOT valid? A. Random B. Domain "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 66
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. They are all valid D. Round Trip Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 177 Which method of load balancing describes "Round Robin"? A. Assigns service requests to the next server in a series. B. Assigns service requests to servers at random. C. Measures the load on each server to determine which server has the most available resources. D. Ensures that incoming requests are handled by the server with the fastest response time. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 178 In New Mode HA, the internal cluster IP VIP address is 10.4.8.3. The internal interfaces on two members are 10.4.8.1 and 10.4.8.2. Internal host 10.4.8.108 Pings 10.4.8.3, and receives replies.
Review the ARP table from the internal Windows host 10.4.8.108. According to the output, which member is the standby machine? A. 10.4.8.3 B. The standby machine cannot be determined by this test.
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. 10.4.8.1 D. 10.4.8.2 Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 179 In New Mode HA, the internal cluster IP VIP address is 10.4.8.3. An internal host 10.4.8.108 successfully pings its Cluster and receives replies. Review the ARP table from the internal Windows host 10.4.8.108. Based on this information, what is the active cluster member's IP address?
A. The active cluster member's IP address cannot be determined by this ARP cache. B. 10.4.8.3 C. 10.4.8.1 D. 10.4.8.2 Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 180 State Synchronization is enabled on both members in a cluster, and the Security Policy is successfully installed. No protocols or services have been unselected for selective sync. Review the fw tab -t connections -s output from both members.
Is State Synchronization working properly between the two members? A. Members A and B are not synchronized, because #VALS in the connections table are not "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 68
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam close. B. Members A and B are not synchronized, because #PEAK for both members is not close in the connections table. C. Members A and B are synchronized, because #SLINKS are identical in the connections table. D. Members A and B are synchronized, because ID for both members is identical in the connections table. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 181 You have two IP Appliances: one IP565 and one IP395. Both appliances have IPSO 6.2 and R75 installed in a distributed deployment. Can they be members of a Gateway Cluster? A. No, because the Security Gateways must be installed in a stand-alone installation. B. No, because IP does not have a cluster option. C. Yes, as long as they have the same IPSO and Check Point versions. D. No, because the appliances must be of the same model (both should be IP565 or IP395). Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 182 You want to upgrade a cluster with two members to VPN-1 NGX. The SmartCenter Server and both members are version VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG FP3, with the latest Hotfix. What is the correct upgrade procedure? 1. Change the version, in the General Properties of the gateway-cluster object. 2. Upgrade the SmartCenter Server, and reboot after upgrade. 3. Run cpstop on one member, while leaving the other member running. Upgrade one member at a time, and reboot after upgrade. 4. Reinstall the Security Policy. A. 3, 2, 1, 4 B. 2, 4, 3, 1 C. 1, 3, 2, 4 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 69
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D. 2, 3, 1, 4 E. 1, 2, 3, 4 Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 183 Included in the client's network are some switches, which rely on IGMP snooping. You must find a solution to work with these switches. Which of the following answers does NOT lead to a successful solution? A. Set the value of fwha_enable_igmp_snooping module configuration parameter to 1. B. Configure static CAMs to allow multicast traffic on specific ports. C. ClusterXL supports IGMP snooping by default. There is no need to configure anything. D. Disable IGMP registration in switches that rely on IGMP packets Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 184 The customer wishes to install a cluster. In his network, there is a switch which is incapable of forwarding multicast. Is it possible to install a cluster in this situation? A. Yes, you can toggle on ClusterXL between broadcast and multicast by setting the multicast mode using the command cphaconf set_ccp multicast onoff. The default setting is broadcast. B. Yes, you can toggle on ClusterXL between broadcast and multicast using the command cphaconf set_ccp broadcast/multicast. C. No, the customer needs to replace the switch with a new switch, which supports multicast forwarding. D. Yes, the ClusterXL changes automatically to the broadcast mode if the multicast is not forwarded. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 185
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam What could be a reason why synchronization between primary and secondary Security Management Servers does not occur? A. You did not activate synchronization within Global Properties. B. You are using different time zones. C. You have installed both Security Management Servers on different server systems (e. g. one machine on HP hardware and the other one on DELL). D. If the set of installed products differ from each other, the Security Management Servers do not synchronize the database to each other. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 186 What is the proper command for importing users into the R75 User Database? A. fwm dbimport B. fwm importusrs C. fwm import D. fwm importdb Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 187 In a R75 Management High Availability (HA) configuration, you can configure synchronization to occur automatically, when: 1. The Security Policy is installed. 2. The Security Policy is saved. 3. The Security Administrator logs in to the secondary SmartCenter Server, and changes its status to active. 4. A scheduled event occurs. 5. The user database is installed.
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Select the BEST response for the synchronization trigger. A. 1, 2, 4 B. 1, 2, 3, 4 C. 1, 2, 5 D. 1, 3, 4 Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 188 What is a requirement for setting up R75 Management High Availability? A. All Security Management Servers must have the same number of NICs. B. All Security Management Servers must have the same operating system. C. State synchronization must be enabled on the secondary Security Management Server. D. All Security Management Servers must reside in the same LAN. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 189 You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use three machines with the following configurations:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment? A. No, the Security Gateway cannot be installed on the Security Management Server. B. No, the Security Management Server is not running the same operating system as the cluster members. C. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment. D. No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 190 You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use four machines with the following configurations: Cluster Member 1: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: QuadCard, memory: 1 GB, Security Gateway only, version: R75 Cluster Member 2: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: 4 Intel 3Com, memory: 1 GB, Security Gateway only, version: R75 Cluster Member 3: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: 4 other manufacturers, memory: 512 MB, Security Gateway only, version: R75 Security Management Server: MS Windows 2003, NIC. Intel NIC (1), Security Gateway and primary Security Management Server installed, version: R75 Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment? A. No, the Security Gateway cannot be installed on the Security Management Pro Server. B. No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory. C. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment. D. No, the Security Management Server is not running the same operating system as the cluster members. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 191
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam You are establishing a ClusterXL environment, with the following topology:
External interfaces 192.168.10.1 and 192.168.10.2 connect to a VLAN switch. The upstream router connects to the same VLAN switch. Internal interfaces 172.16.10.1 and 172.16.10.2 connect to a hub. 10.10.10.0 is the synchronization network. The Security Management Server is located on the internal network with IP 172.16.10.3. What is the problem with this configuration? A. Cluster members cannot use the VLAN switch. They must use hubs. B. The Cluster interface names must be identical across all cluster members. C. There is an IP address conflict. D. The Security Management Server must be in the dedicated synchronization network, not the internal network. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 192 What is the reason for the following error?
A. A third-party cluster solution is implemented. B. Cluster membership is not enabled on the gateway. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 74
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. Objects.C does not contain a cluster object. D. Device Name contains non-ASCII characters. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 193 You find that Gateway fw2 can NOT be added to the cluster object. What are possible reasons for that?
A. (i) or (ii) B. (ii) or (iii) C. (i) or (iii) D. All Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 194 In which ClusterXL Load Sharing mode, does the pivot machine get chosen automatically by ClusterXL? A. Hot Standby Load Sharing B. Unicast Load Sharing C. Multicast Load Sharing D. CCP Load Sharing Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 195 What configuration change must you make to change an existing ClusterXL cluster object from Multicast to Unicast mode?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. Reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) on the cluster-member objects. Reinstall the Security Policy. B. Run cpstop and cpstart, to re-enable High Availability on both objects. Select Pivot mode in cpconfig. C. Change the cluster mode to Unicast on the cluster object. Reinstall the Security Policy. D. Change the cluster mode to Unicast on each of the cluster-member objects. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 196 In a R75 ClusterXL Load Sharing configuration, which type of ARP related problem can force the use of Unicast Mode (Pivot) configuration due to incompatibility on some adjacent routers and switches? A. Multicast MAC address response to a Unicast IP request B. Unicast MAC address response to a Multicast IP request C. Multicast MAC address response to a RARP request D. MGCP MAC address response to a Multicast IP request Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 197 In Load Sharing Unicast mode, the internal cluster IP address is 10.4.8.3. The internal interfaces on two members are 10.4.8.1 and 10.4.8.2. Internal host 10.4.8.108 Pings 10.4.8.3, and receives replies. The following is the ARP table from the internal Windows host 10.4.8.108.
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Review the exhibit and identify the member serving as the pivot machine. A. 10.4.8.3 B. 10.4.8.2 C. The pivot machine cannot be determined by this test. D. 10.4.8.1 Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 198 Which of the following commands will stop acceleration on a Security Gateway running on SecurePlatform? A. splat_accel off B. perf_pack off C. fw accel off D. fwaccel off Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 199 How do new connections get established through a Security Gateway with SecureXL enabled? A. New connections are always inspected by the firewall and if they are accepted, the subsequent packets of the same connection will be passed through SecureXL B. The new connection will be first inspected by SecureXL and if it does not match the drop table of SecureXL, then it will be passed to the firewall module for a rule match. C. New connection packets never reach the SecureXL module. D. If the connection matches a connection or drop template in SecureXL, it will either be established or dropped without performing a rule match, else it will be passed to the firewall module for a rule match. Answer: D Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 200 Which of the following commands can be used to bind a NIC to a single processor when using a Performance Pack on SecurePlatform?
A. sim affinity B. splat proc C. set proc D. fw fat path nic Answer: A Explanation:
Topic 3, Volume C
QUESTION NO: 201 Review the Rule Base displayed.
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam For which rules will the connection templates be generated in SecureXL? A. Rule nos. 2 and 5 B. Rule no. 2 only C. All rules except rule no. 3 D. Rule nos. 2 to 5 Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 202 Your customer asks you about the Performance Pack. You explain to him that a Performance Pack is a software acceleration product which improves the performance of the Security Gateway. You may enable or disable this acceleration by either: 1) The command cpconfig
2) The command fwaccel onoff What is the difference between these two commands? A. Both commands function identically. B. The fwaccel command determines the default setting. The command cpconfig can dynamically change the setting, but after the reboot it reverts to the default setting. C. The command cpconfig works on the Security Platform only. The command fwaccel can be used on all platforms. D. The cpconfig command enables acceleration. The command fwaccel can dynamically change the setting, but after the reboot it reverts to the default setting. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 203 Your customer complains of the weak performance of his systems. He has heard that Connection Templates accelerate traffic. How do you explain to the customer about template restrictions and how to verify that they are enabled?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to "group together" all connections that match a particular service and whose sole discriminating element is the source port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fwaccel stat. B. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to "group together" all connections that match a particular service and whose sole discriminating element is the destination port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fwacel templates. C. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to "group together" all connections that match a particular service and whose sole discriminating element is the destination port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fw ctl templates. D. To enhance connection-establishment acceleration, a mechanism attempts to "group together" all connections that match a particular service and whose sole discriminating element is the source port. To test if connection templates are enabled, use the command fw ctl templates. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 204 Frank is concerned with performance and wants to configure the affinities settings. His gateway does not have the Performance Pack running. What would Frank need to perform in order configure those settings? A. Edit $FWDIR/conf/fwaffinity.conf and change the settings. B. Edit affinity.conf and change the settings. C. Run fw affinity and change the settings. D. Run sim affinity and change the settings. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 205 You are concerned that the processor for your firewall running NGX R71 SecurePlatform may be overloaded. What file would you view to determine the speed of your processor(s)? A. cat /etc/cpuinfo B. cat /proc/cpuinfo C. cat /var/opt/CPsuite-R71/fw1/conf/cpuinfo D. cat /etc/sysconfig/cpuinfo Answer: B "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 80
QUESTION NO: 206 Which of the following is NOT a restriction for connection template generation? A. SYN Defender B. ISN Spoofing C. UDP services with no protocol type or source port mentioned in advanced properties D. VPN Connections Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 207 In CoreXL, what process is responsible for processing incoming traffic from the network interfaces, securely accelerating authorized packets, and distributing non-accelerated packets among kernel instances? A. NAD (Network Accelerator Daemon) B. SND (Secure Network Distributor) C. SSD (Secure System Distributor) D. SNP (System Networking Process) Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 208 Due to some recent performance issues, you are asked to add additional processors to your firewall. If you already have CoreXL enabled, how are you able to increase Kernel instances? A. Once CoreXL is installed you cannot enable additional Kernel instances without reinstalling R75. B. In SmartUpdate, right-click on Firewall Object and choose Add Kernel Instances. C. Use cpconfig to reconfigure CoreXL. D. Kernel instances are automatically added after process installed and no additional configuration "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 81
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam is needed. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 209 Which of the following platforms does NOT support SecureXL? A. Power-1 Appliance B. IP Appliance C. UTM-1 Appliance D. UNIX Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 210 Which of the following is NOT supported by CoreXL? A. SmartView Tracker B. Route-based VPN C. IPS D. IPV4 Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 211 If the number of kernel instances for CoreXL shown is 6, how many cores are in the physical machine? A. 6 B. 8 C. 4 D. 12 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 82
QUESTION NO: 212 Which of the following is NOT accelerated by SecureXL? A. Telnet B. FTP C. SSH D. HTTPS Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 213 To verify SecureXL statistics you would use the command ________? A. fwaccel stats B. fw ctl pstat C. fwaccel top D. cphaprob stat Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 214 How can you disable SecureXL via the command line (it does not need to survive a reboot)? A. cphaprob off B. fw ctl accel off C. securexl off D. fwaccel off Answer: D Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 83
QUESTION NO: 215 Which of these is a type of acceleration in SecureXL? A. FTP B. connection rate C. GRE D. QoS Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 216 The CoreXL SND (Secure Network Distributor) is responsible for: A. distributing non-accelerated packets among kernel instances B. accelerating VPN traffic C. shutting down cores when they are not needed D. changing routes to distribute the load across multiple firewalls Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 217 How can you verify that SecureXL is running? A. cpstat os B. fw ver C. fwaccel stat D. securexl stat Answer: C Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 218 Which of the following services will cause SecureXL templates to be disabled? A. TELNET B. FTP C. HTTPS D. LDAP Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 219 How do you enable SecureXL (command line) on SecurePlatform? A. fw securexl on B. fw accel on C. fwaccel on D. fwsecurexl on Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 220 The following graphic illustrates which command being issued on SecurePlatform?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. fwaccel stats B. fw accel stats C. fw securexl stats D. fwsecurexl stats Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 221 After Travis added new processing cores on his server, CoreXL did not use them. What would be the most plausible reason why? Travis did not: A. edit the Gateway Properties and increase the kernel instances. B. run cpconfig to increase the number of CPU cores. C. edit the Gateway Properties and increase the number of CPU cores. D. run cpconfig to increase the kernel instances. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 222 Steve tries to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the Match column does not have the option to see the Directional Match. Steve sees the following screen. What is the problem?
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A. Steve must enable directional_match(true) in the objects_5_0.C file on SmartCenter Server. B. Steve must enable Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway. C. Steve must enable VPN Directional Match on the VPN Advanced screen, in Global properties. D. Steve must enable a dynamic routing protocol, such as OSPF, on the Gateways. E. Steve must enable VPN Directional Match on the gateway object's VPN tab. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 223 A SmartProvisioning Gateway could be a member of which VPN communities?
(i) Center In Star Topology (ii) Satellite in Star Topology (iii) Carter in Remote Access Community (iv) Meshed Community A. (ii) and (iii) "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 87
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam B. All C. (i), (ii) and (iii) D. (ii) only Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 224 What process manages the dynamic routing protocols (OSPF, RIP, etc.) on SecurePlatform Pro? A. gated B. There's no separate process, but the Linux default router can take care of that. C. routerd D. arouted Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 225 What is the command to enter the router shell? A. gated B. routerd C. clirouter D. router Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 226 Which statement is TRUE for route-based VPN's? A. Route-based VPN's replace domain-based VPN's. B. Route-based VPN's are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain. C. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 88
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each Gateway. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 227 VPN routing can also be configured by editing which file? A. $FWDIR\conf\vpn_route.c B. $FWDIR\bin\vpn_route.conf C. $FWDIR\conf\vpn_route.conf D. $FWDIR\VPN\route_conf.c Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 228 If both domain-based and route-based VPN's are configured, which will take precedence? A. Must be chosen/configured manually by the Administrator in the Policy > Global Properties B. Must be chosen/configured manually by the Administrator in the VPN community object C. Domain-based D. Route-based Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 229 Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)? A. They are only supported on the IPSO Operating System. B. VTIs cannot be assigned a proxy interface. C. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback. D. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.
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QUESTION NO: 230 Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)? A. VTIs must be assigned a proxy interface. B. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback. C. VTIs are only supported on SecurePlatform. D. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 231 Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)? A. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured B. VTI specific additional local and remote IP addresses are not configured C. VTIs are only supported on SecurePlatform D. VTIs cannot be assigned a proxy interface Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 232 Which of the following is TRUE concerning numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)? A. VTIs are assigned only local addresses, not remote addresses B. VTIs are only supported on IPSO C. VTIs cannot share IP addresses D. VTIs cannot use an already existing physical-interface IP address Answer: D Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 90
QUESTION NO: 233 Which of the following is TRUE concerning numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)? A. VTIs can use an already existing physical-interface IP address B. VTIs cannot share IP addresses C. VTIs are supported on SecurePlatform Pro D. VTIs are assigned only local addresses, not remote addresses Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 234 When configuring numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) in a clustered environment, what issues need to be considered?
A. 1, 3, and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1, 2, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 235 How do you verify a VPN Tunnel Interface (VTI) is configured properly?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. vpn shell display <VTI name> detailed B. vpn shell show <VTI name> detailed C. vpn shell show interface detailed <VTI name> D. vpn shell display interface detailed <VTI name> Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 236 What is used to validate a digital certificate? A. S/MIME B. CRL C. IPsec D. PKCS Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 237 Which statement defines Public Key Infrastructure? Security is provided: A. by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and two-way symmetric-key encryption. B. by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and public key encryption. C. via both private and public keys, without the use of digital Certificates. D. by authentication. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 238 Match the VPN-related terms with their definitions:
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A. A-3,B-2, C-1, D-4 B. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 C. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 D. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 239 You want to establish a VPN, using certificates. Your VPN will exchange certificates with an external partner. Which of the following activities should you do first? A. Manually import your partner's Access Control List. B. Manually import your partner's Certificate Revocation List. C. Exchange exported CA keys and use them to create a new server object to represent your partner's Certificate Authority (CA). D. Create a new logical-server object to represent your partner's CA. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 240 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the traffic to exit the Security Gateway bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access Communities. How should you configure the VPN match rule? A. Communities > Communities B. internal_clear > All_GwToGw C. internal_clear > All_communities D. Internal_clear > External_Clear "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 93
QUESTION NO: 241 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding OSPF configuration on SecurePlatform Pro? A. router ospf 1 creates the Router ID for the Security Gateway and should be the same ID for all Gateways. B. router ospf 1 creates the Router ID for the Security Gateway and should be different for all Gateways. C. router ospf 1 creates an OSPF routing instance and this process ID should be different for each Security Gateway. D. router ospf 1 creates an OSPF routing instance and this process ID should be the same on all Gateways. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 242 If you need strong protection for the encryption of user data, what option would be the BEST choice? A. When you need strong encryption, IPsec is not the best choice. SSL VPN's are a better choice. B. Use Diffie-Hellman for key construction and pre-shared keys for Quick Mode. Choose SHA in Quick Mode and encrypt with AES. Use AH protocol. Switch to Aggressive Mode. C. Disable Diffie-Hellman by using stronger certificate based key-derivation. Use AES-256 bit on all encrypted channels and add PFS to QuickMode. Use double encryption by implementing AH and ESP as protocols. D. Use certificates for Phase 1, SHA for all hashes, AES for all encryption and PFS, and use ESP protocol. Answer: D Explanation:
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Review the following list of actions that Security Gateway R75 can take when it controls packets. The Policy Package has been configured for Simplified Mode VPN. Select the response below that includes the available actions: A. Accept, Drop, Encrypt, Session Auth B. Accept, Drop, Reject, Client Auth C. Accept, Hold, Reject, Proxy D. Accept, Reject, Encrypt, Drop Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 244 Your organization maintains several IKE VPN's. Executives in your organization want to know which mechanism Security Gateway R75 uses to guarantee the authenticity and integrity of messages. Which technology should you explain to the executives? A. Digital signatures B. Certificate Revocation Lists C. Key-exchange protocols D. Application Intelligence Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 245 There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can: A. Probe links for availability. B. Use links based on Day/Time. C. Assign links to specific VPN communities. D. Use links based on authentication method. Answer: A Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 246 There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can: A. Assign links to use Dynamic DNS. B. Use links based on authentication method. C. Use links based on Day/Time. D. Use Load Sharing to distribute VPN traffic. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 247 There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can: A. Assign links to specific VPN communities. B. Assign links to use Dynamic DNS. C. Use links based on services. D. Prohibit Dynamic DNS. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 248 There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can: A. Use links based on Day/Time. B. Set up links for Remote Access. C. Assign links to specific VPN communities. D. Assign links to use Dynamic DNS. Answer: B Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 249 What type of object may be explicitly defined as a MEP VPN? A. Mesh VPN Community B. Any VPN Community C. Remote Access VPN Community D. Star VPN Community Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 250 MEP VPN's use the Proprietary Probing Protocol to send special UDP RDP packets to port ____ to discover if an IP is accessible. A. 259 B. 256 C. 264 D. 201 Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 251 Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN's? A. State synchronization between Secruity Gateways is required. B. MEP VPN's are not restricted to the location of the gateways. C. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the first connection fail. D. MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers. Answer: B Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 252 Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN's? A. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the first connection fail. B. MEP Security Gateways can be managed by separate Management Servers. C. MEP VPN's are restricted to the location of the gateways. D. State synchronization between Secruity Gateways is required. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 253 Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN's? A. State synchronization between Security Gateways is NOT required. B. MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers. C. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the first connection fail. D. MEP VPN's are restricted to the location of the gateways. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 254 Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN's? A. MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers. B. MEP VPN's are restricted to the location of the gateways. C. The VPN Client selects which Security Gateway takes over, should the first connection fail. D. State synchronization betweened Secruity Gateways is required. Answer: C Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 255 You need to publish SecurePlatform routes using the ospf routing protocol. What is the correct command structure, once entering the route command, to implement ospf successfully? A. Run cpconfig utility to enable ospf routing B. ip route ospf ospf network1 ospf network2 C. Enable Configure terminal Router ospf [id] Network [network] [wildmask] area [id] D. Use DBedit utility to either the objects_5_0.c file Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 256 At what router prompt would you save your OSPF configuration? A. localhost.localdomain(config)# B. localhost.localdomain(config-if)# C. localhost.localdomain# D. localhost.localdomain(config-router-ospf)# Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 257 What is the router command to save your OSPF configuration? A. save memory B. write config C. save D. write mem Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 258 What is the command to show OSPF adjacencies? A. show ospf interface B. show ospf summary-address C. show running-config D. show ip ospf neighbor Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 259 A VPN Tunnel Interface (VTI) is defined on SecurePlatform Pro as: vpn shell interface add numbered 10.10.0.1 10.10.0.2 madrid.cp What do you know about this VTI? A. 10.10.0.1 is the local Gateway's internal interface, and 10.10.0.2 is the internal interface of the remote Gateway. B. The peer Security Gateway's name is madrid.cp. C. The VTI name is madrid.cp. D. The local Gateway's object name is madrid.cp. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 260 Which of the following operating systems support numbered VTI's? A. SecurePlatform Pro B. Solaris "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 100
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. IPSO 4.0 + D. Windows Server 2008 Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 261 Which type of routing relies on a VPN Tunnel Interface (VTI) to route traffic? A. Domain-based VPN B. Route-based VPN C. Subnet-based VPN D. Host-based VPN Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 262 You have installed SecurePlatform R75 as Security Gateway operating system. As company requirements changed, you need the VTI features of R75. What should you do? A. Only IPSO 3.9 supports VTI feature, so you have to replace your Security Gateway with Nokia appliances. B. In SmartDashboard click on the OS drop down menu and choose SecurePlatform Pro. You have to reboot the Security Gateway in order for the change to take effect. C. Type pro enable on your Security Gateway and reboot it. D. You have to re-install your Security Gateway with SecurePlatform Pro R75, as SecurePlatform R75 does not support VTIs. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 263 Which operating system(s) support(s) unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) for route-based VPN's?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. Solaris 9 and higher B. IPSO 3.9 and higher C. Red Hat Linux D. SecurePlatform for NGX and higher Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 264 You have three Gateways in a mesh community. Each gateway's VPN Domain is their internal network as defined on the Topology tab setting All IP Addresses behind Gateway based on Topology information. You want to test the route-based VPN, so you created VTIs among the Gateways and created static route entries for the VTIs. However, when you test the VPN, you find out the VPN still go through the regular domain IPsec tunnels instead of the routed VTI tunnels. What is the problem and how do you make the VPN use the VTI tunnels? A. Domain VPN takes precedence over the route-based VTI. To make the VPN go through VTI, remove the Gateways out of the mesh community and replace with a star community B. Route-based VTI takes precedence over the Domain VPN. Troubleshoot the static route entries to insure that they are correctly pointing to the VTI gateway IP. C. Route-based VTI takes precedence over the Domain VPN. To make the VPN go through VTI, use dynamic-routing protocol like OSPF or BGP to route the VTI address to the peer instead of static routes D. Domain VPN takes precedence over the route-based VTI. To make the VPN go through VTI, use an empty group object as each Gateway's VPN Domain Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 265 When configuring a Permanent Tunnel between two gateways in a Meshed VPN community, in what object is the tunnel managed? A. VPN Community object B. Each participating Security Gateway object C. Security Management Server "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 102
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D. Only the local Security Gateway object Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 266 Which of the following commands would you run to remove site-to-site IKE and IPSec Keys? A. vpn tu B. ikeoff C. vpn export_p12 D. vpn accel off Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 267 Which of the following log files contains information about the negotiation process for encryption? A. ike.elg B. iked.elg C. vpnd.elg D. vpn.elg Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 268 Which of the following log files contains verbose information regarding the negotiation process and other encryption failures? A. iked.elg B. ike.elg C. vpn.elg D. vpnd.elg "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 103
QUESTION NO: 269 What is the most common cause for a Quick mode packet 1 failing with the error "No Proposal Chosen" error? A. The OS and patch level of one gateway does not match the other. B. The previously established Permanent Tunnel has failed. C. There is a network connectivity issue. D. The encryption strength and hash settings of one peer does not match the other. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 270 Which component receives events and assigns severity levels to the events; invokes any defined automatic reactions, and adds the events to the Events Data Base? A. SmartEvent Analysis DataServer B. SmartEvent Client C. SmartEvent Correlation Unit D. SmartEvent Server Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 271 The ______________ contains the Events Data Base. A. SmartEvent Client B. SmartEvent Correlation Unit C. SmartEvent DataServer D. SmartEvent Server
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QUESTION NO: 272 The SmartEvent Correlation Unit: A. adds events to the events database. B. assigns a severity level to an event. C. analyzes each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server. D. displays the received events. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 273 The SmartEvent Server: A. analyzes each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server. B. displays the received events. C. forwards what is known as an event to the SmartEvent Server. D. assigns a severity level to an event. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 274 The SmartEvent Client: A. analyzes each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server. B. displays the received events. C. adds events to the events database. D. assigns a severity level to an event. Answer: B Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 105
QUESTION NO: 275 The SmartEvent Correlation Unit: A. adds events to the events database. B. displaya the received events. C. looks for patterns according to the installed Event Policy. D. assigns a severity level to an event. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 276 The SmartEvent Correlation Unit: A. adds events to the events database. B. assigns a severity level to an event. C. forwards what is identified as an event to the SmartEvent server. D. displays the received events. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 277 The SmartEvent Server: A. displays the received events B. adds events to the events database C. invokes defined automatic reactions D. analyzes each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server Answer: C Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 278 What are the 3 main components of the SmartEvent Software Blade?
A. i. ii. iii B. iv, v, vi C. i, iv, v D. i, iii, iv Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 279 How many Events can be shown at one time in the Event preview pane? A. 5,000 B. 30,000 C. 15,000 D. 1,000 Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 280 You are reviewing computer information collected in ClientInfo. You can NOT: A. Enter new credential for accessing the computer information. B. Save the information in the active tab to an .exe file. C. Copy the contents of the selected cells. D. Run Google.com search using the contents of the selected cell. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 107
QUESTION NO: 281 Which of the following is NOT a SmartEvent Permission Profile type? A. Events Database B. View C. No Access D. Read/Write Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 282 What is the SmartEvent Correlation Unit's function? A. Assign severity levels to events. B. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy. C. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns. D. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 283 What is the SmartEvent Analyzer's function? A. Assign severity levels to events. B. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns. C. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy. D. Generate a threat analysis report from the Analyzer database. Answer: A Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 108
QUESTION NO: 284 What is the SmartEvent Client's function? A. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy. B. Generate a threat analysis report from the Reporter database. C. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database. D. Assign severity levels to events. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 285 A tracked SmartEvent Candidate in a Candidate Pool becomes an Event. What does NOT happen in the Analyzer Server? A. SmartEvent provides the beginning and end time of the Event. B. The Correlation Unit keeps adding matching logs to the Event. C. The Event is kept open, but condenses many instances into one Event. D. SmartEvent stops tracking logs related to the Candidate. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 286 How many pre-defined exclusions are included by default in SmartEvent R75 as part of the product installation? A. 3 B. 0 C. 5 D. 10 Answer: A Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 109
QUESTION NO: 287 What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions included with SmartEvent R75? A. To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition; a scenario that may occur in deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R71. B. To allow SmartEvent R75 to function properly with all other R71 devices. C. To give samples of how to write your own exclusion. D. As a base for starting and building exclusions. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 288 What is the benefit to running SmartEvent in Learning Mode? A. There is no SmartEvent Learning Mode B. To run SmartEvent with preloaded sample data in a test environment C. To run SmartEvent, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup purposes D. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 289 ______________ is NOT an SmartEvent event-triggered Automatic Reaction. A. SNMP Trap B. Mail C. Block Access D. External Script Answer: C Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 290 For best performance in Event Correlation, you should use: A. IP address ranges B. Large groups C. Nothing slows down Event Correlation D. Many objects Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 291 What access level cannot be assigned to an Administrator in SmartEvent? A. No Access B. Write only C. Read only D. Events Database Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 292 _______________ manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic uploads of reports to a central FTP server. A. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator B. SmartReporter C. Security Management Server D. SmartReporter Database Answer: B Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 293 _____________ generates a SmartEvent Report from its SQL database. A. SmartEvent Client B. Security Management Server C. SmartReporter D. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 294 Which SmartReporter report type is generated from the SmartView Monitor history file? A. Custom B. Express C. Traditional D. Standard Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 295 Which Check Point product is used to create and save changes to a Log Consolidation Policy? A. SmartReporter Client B. Security Management Server C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator D. SmartEvent Server Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 296
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Which Check Point product implements a Consolidation Policy? A. SmartReporter B. SmartView Monitor C. SmartLSM D. SmartView Tracker Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 297 You have selected the event Port Scan from Internal Network in SmartEvent, to detect an event when 30 port scans have occurred within 60 seconds. You also want to detect two port scans from a host within 10 seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this? A. Define the two port-scan detections as an exception. B. Select the two port-scan detections as a new event. C. Select the two port-scan detections as a sub-event. D. You cannot set SmartEvent to detect two port scans from a host within 10 seconds of each other. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 298 When do modifications to the Event Policy take effect? A. When saved on the Correlation Units, and pushed as a policy. B. As soon as the Policy Tab window is closed. C. When saved on the SmartEvent Client, and installed on the SmartEvent Server. D. When saved on the SmartEvent Server and installed to the Correlation Units. Answer: D Explanation:
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam To back up all events stored in the SmartEvent Server, you should back up the contents of which folder(s)? A. $FWDIR/distrib B. $FWDIR/distrib_db and $FWDIR/events C. $RTDIR/distrib and $RTDIR/events_db D. $RTDIR/events_db Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 300 To clean the system of all events, you should delete the files in which folder(s)? A. $RTDIR/distrib and $RTDIR/events_db B. $RTDIR/events_db C. $FWDIR/distrib_db and $FWDIR/events D. $FWDIR/distrib Answer: A Explanation:
Topic 4, Volume D
QUESTION NO: 301 What SmartConsole application allows you to change the Log Consolidation Policy? A. SmartDashboard B. SmartReporter C. SmartUpdate D. SmartEvent Server Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 302
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Where is it necessary to configure historical records in SmartView Monitor to generate Express reports in SmartReporter? A. In SmartView Monitor, under Global Properties > Log and Masters B. In SmartReporter, under Express > Network Activity C. In SmartDashboard, the SmartView Monitor page in the R75 Security Gateway object D. In SmartReporter, under Standard > Custom Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 303 In a UNIX environment, SmartReporter Data Base settings could be modified in: A. $FWDIR/Eventia/conf/ini.C B. $RTDIR/Database/conf/my.cnf C. $CPDIR/Database/conf/conf.C D. $ERDIR/conf/my.cnf Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 304 In a Windows environment, SmartReporter Data Base settings could be modified in: A. %RTDIR%\Database\conf\my.ini B. $ERDIR/conf/my.cnf C. $CPDIR/Database/conf/conf.C D. $FWDIR/Eventia/conf/ini.C Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 305 Which specific R75 GUI would you use to view the length of time a TCP connection was open? "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 115
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. SmartView Tracker B. SmartView Status C. SmartReporter D. SmartView Monitor Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 306 SmartReporter reports can be used to analyze data from a penetration-testing regimen in all of the following examples, EXCEPT: A. Possible worm/malware activity. B. Analyzing traffic patterns against public resources. C. Analyzing access attempts via social-engineering. D. Tracking attempted port scans. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 307 What is the best tool to produce a report which represents historical system information? A. SmartView Tracker B. Smartview Monitor C. SmartReporter-Standard Reports D. SmartReporter-Express Reports Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 308 If Jack was concerned about the number of log entries he would receive in the SmartReporter system, which policy would he need to modify?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. Consolidation Policy B. Log Consolidator Policy C. Log Sequence Policy D. Report Policy Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 309 Your company has the requirement that SmartEvent reports should show a detailed and accurate view of network activity but also performance should be guaranteed. Which actions should be taken to achieve that? (i) Use same hard driver for database directory, log files and temporary directory (ii) Use Consolidation Rules (iii) Limit logging to blocked traffic only (iv) Using Multiple Database Tables A. (i) and (ii) B. (ii) and (iv) C. (i), (ii) and (iv) D. (i), (iii) and (iv) Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 310 To help organize events, SmartReporter uses filtered queries. Which of the following is NOT an SmartEvent event property you can query? A. Event: Critical, Suspect, False Alarm B. TimE. Last Hour, Last Day, Last Week C. StatE. Open, Closed, False Alarm D. TypE. Scans, Denial of Service, Unauthorized Entry
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QUESTION NO: 311 When migrating the SmartEvent data base from one server to another, the first step is to back up the files on the original server. Which of the following commands should you run to back up the SmartEvent data base? A. migrate export B. snapshot C. backup D. eva_db_backup Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 312 When migrating the SmartEvent data base from one server to another, the last step is to save the files on the new server. Which of the following commands should you run to save the SmartEvent data base files on the new server? A. cp B. migrate import C. eva_db_restore D. restore Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 313 How could you compare the Fingerprint shown to the Fingerprint on the server?
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A. Run cpconfig, select the Certificate's Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint B. Run cpconfig, select the GUI Clients option and view the fingerprint C. Run cpconfig, select the Certificate Authority option and view the fingerprint D. Run sysconfig, select the Server Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 314 Which file defines the fields for each object used in the file objects.C (color, num/string, default value)? A. $FWDIR/conf/classes.C B. $FWDIR/conf/scheam.C C. $FWDIR/conf/table.C D. $FWDIR/conf/fields.C Answer: A Explanation: New Questions
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 315 Which procedure creates a new administrator in SmartWorkflow? A. Run cpconfig, supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions. B. In SmartDashboard, click SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow and the Enable SmartWorkflow wizard will start. Supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions when prompted. C. On the Provider-1 primary MDS, run cpconfig, supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions. D. In SmartDashboard, click Users and Administrators right click Administrators / New Administrator and supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 316 When you check Web Server in a host-node object, what happens to the host? A. The Web server daemon is enabled on the host. B. More granular controls are added to the host, in addition to Web Intelligence tab settings. C. You can specify allowed ports in the Web server's node-object properties. You then do not need to list all allowed ports in the Rule Base. D. IPS Web Intelligence is enabled to check on the host. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 317 Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN? A. LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID B. DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS C. LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID D. LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID Answer: B "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 120
QUESTION NO: 318 Which of the following commands can be used to stop Management portal services? A. fw stopportal B. cpportalstop C. cpstop / portal D. smartportalstop Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 319 Which of the following manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic uploads of reports to a central FTP server? A. Smart Dashboard Log Consolidator B. Security Management Server C. Smart Reporter Database D. Smart Reporter Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 320 What is a task of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit? A. Add events to the events database. B. Look for patterns according to the installed Event Policy. C. Assign a severity level to an event D. Display the received events. Answer: B Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 121
QUESTION NO: 321 Based on the following information, which of the statements below is FALSE? A DLP Rule Base has the following conditions: Data Type =Password Protected File Source=My Organization Destination=Outside My Organization Protocol=Any Action=Ask User Exception: Data Type=Any, Source=Research and Development (R&D) Destination=Pratner1.com Protocol=Any All other rules are set to Detect. UserCheck is enabled and installed on all client machines. A. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with a password protected PDF file as an attachment to xyz@partner1 .com, he will be prompted by UserCheck. B. When a user from Finance sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to. He will be prompted by UserCheck. C. Another rule is added: Source = R&D, Destination = partner1.com, Protocol = Any, Action = Inform. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to, he will be prompted by UserCheck. D. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to , he will NOT be prompted by UserCheck. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 322 You use the snapshot feature to store your Connectra SSL VPN configuration. What do you "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 122
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam expect to find? A. Nothing; snapshot is not supported in Connectra SSL VPN. B. The management configuration of the current product, on a management or stand-alone machine C. A complete image of the local file system D. Specified directories of the local file system. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 323 When running DLP Wizard for the first time, which of the following is a mandatory configuration? A. Mail Server B. E-mail Domain in My Organization C. DLP Portal URL D. Active Directory Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 324 When using Connectra with Endpoint Security Policies, what option is not available when configuring DAT enforcement? A. Maximum DAT file version B. Maximum DAT file age C. Minimum DAT file version D. Oldest DAT file timestamp Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 325
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Which specific R71 GUI would you use to view the length of time a TCP connection was open? A. SmartReporter B. SmartView Monitor C. SmartView Status D. SmartView Tracker Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 326 What is not available for Express Reports compared to Standard Reports? A. Filter B. Period C. Content D. Schedule Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 327 Based on the following information, which of the statements below is TRUE? A DLP Rule Base has the following conditions: Data Type = Large file (> 500KB) Source = My Organization Destination = Free Web Mails Protocol = Any Action = Ask User All other rules are set to Detect. UserCheck is enabled and installed on all client machines. A. When a user uploads a 600 KB file to his Yahoo account via Web Mail (via his browser), he will "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 124
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam be prompted by UserCheck B. When a user sends an e-mail with a small body and 5 attachments, each of 200 KB to, he will be prompted by UserCheck. C. When a user sends an e-mail with an attachment larger than 500 KB to, he will be prompted by UserCheck. D. When a user sends an e-mail with an attachment larger than 500KB to, he will be prompted by UserCheck. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 328 Which of the following statements is FALSE about the DLP Software Blade and Active Directory (AD) or LDAP? A. When a user authenticates in the DLP Portal to view all his unhandled incidents, the portal authenticates the user using only AD/LDAP. B. Check Point UserCheck client authentication is based on AD. C. For SMTP traffic, each recipient e-mail address is translated using AD/LDAP to a user name and group that is checked vs. the destination column of the DLP rule base. D. For SMTP traffic, the sender e-mail address is translated using AD/LDAP to a user name and group that is checked vs. the source column of the DLP rule base. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 329 You are running R71 and using the new IPS Software Blade. To maintain the highest level of security, you are doing IPS updates regularly. What kind of problems can be caused by the automatic updates? A. None; updates will not add any new security checks causing problematic behaviour on the systems. B. None, all new updates will be implemented in Detect only mode to avoid unwanted traffic interruptions. They have to be activated manually later. C. None, all the checks will be activated from the beginning, but will only detect attacks and not disturb any non-malicious traffic in the network. D. All checks will be activated from the beginning and might cause unwanted traffic outage due to false positives of the new checks and non-RFC compliant self-written applications. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 125
QUESTION NO: 330 Which of the following deployment scenarios CANNOT be managed by Check Point QoS? A. Two lines connected to a single router, and the router is connected directly to the Gateway B. Two lines connected to separate routers, and each router is connected to separate interfaces on the Gateway C. One LAN line and one DMZ line connected to separate Gateway interfaces D. Two lines connected directly to the Gateway through a hub Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 331 Given the following protection detailed and the enforcing gateways list, is the Tool many DNS queries with the RD flag set protection enabled on the Gateway R71?
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Please choose the answer with the correct justification. A. yes because it is set to prevent on the Default_Protrction, which R71 gateway has applied. B. No because the protection is only supported on IPS-1 Sensor C. No enough information to determine one way or other D. No, because the Too many DNS queries with the flag set protection is not a valid protection in R71 Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 332 Which technology is responsible for assembling packet streams and passing ordered data to the protocol parsers in IPS? A. Pattern Matcher B. Content Management Infrastructure C. Accelerated INSPECT D. Packet Streaming Layer Answer: D Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 333 You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an H.323 rule with a weight of 10, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. The H.323 rule includes a per-connection guarantee of 384 Kbps. and a per-connection limit of 512 Kbps. The per-connection guarantee is for four connections, and no additional connections are allowed in the Action properties. If traffic is passing through the QoS Module matches both rules, which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Each H.323 connection will receive at least 512 Kbps of bandwidth. B. The H.323 rule will consume no more than 2048 Kbps of available bandwidth. C. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the Default Rule. D. Neither rule will be allocated more than 10% of available bandwidth. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 334 Which of the following is the default port for Management Portal? A. 4434 B. 443 C. 444 D. 4433 Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 335 How is SmartWorkflow enabled? A. In SmartView Monitor, click on SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow. The Enabling SmartWorkflow wizard launches and prompts for SmartWorkflow Operation Mode. Once a mode is selected, the wizard finishes. B. In SmartView Tracker, click on SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow. The Enabling SmartWorkflow wizard launches and prompts for SmartWorkflow Operation Mode Once a mode is selected, the wizard finishes. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 128
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. In SmartDashboard, click on SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow The Enabling SmartWorkflow wizard launches and prompts for SmartWorkflow Operation Mode. Once a mode is selected, the wizard finishes. D. In SmartEvent, click on SmartWorkflow/ Enable SmartWorkflow. The Enabling SmartWorkflow wizard launches and prompts for SmartWorkflow Operation Mode. Once a mode is selected, the wizard finishes. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 336 What could the following regular expression be used for in a DLP rule? \$([0-9]*,[0-9] [0-9] [0-9]. [0-9] [0-9] Select the best answer A. As a Data Type to prevent programmers from leaking code outside the company B. As a compound data type representation. C. As a Data Type to prevent employees from sending an email that contains a complete price-list of nine products. D. As a Data Type to prevent the Finance Department from leaking salary information to employees Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 337 Exhibit:
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UserA is able to create a SmartLSM Security Cluster Profile , you must select the correct justification. A. False. The user must have at least Read permissions for the SmartLSM Gateways Database B. True Only Object Database Read/Write permissions are required to create SmartLSM Profiles C. False The user must have Read/Write permissions for the SmartLSM Gateways Database. D. Not enough information to determine. You must know the user's Provisioning permissions to determine whether they are able to create a SmartLSM Security Cluster Profile Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 338 Which Check Point QoS feature is used to dynamically allocate relative portions of available
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam bandwidth? A. Guarantees B. Weighted Fair Queuing C. Low Latency Queuing D. Differentiated Services Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 339 John is the MegaCorp Security Administrator, and is using Check Point R71. Malcolm is the Security Administrator of a partner company and is using a different vendor's product and both have to build a VPN tunnel between their companies. Both are using clusters with Load Sharing for their firewalls and John is using ClusterXL as a Check Point clustering solution. While trying to establish the VPN, they are constantly noticing problems and the tunnel is not stable and then Malcolm notices that there seems to be 2 SPIs with the same IP from the Check Point site. How can they solve this problem and stabilize the tunnel? A. This can be solved by running the command Sticky VPN on the Check Point CLI. This keeps the VPN Sticky to one member and the problem is resolved. B. This is surely a problem in the ISPs network and not related to the VPN configuration. C. This can be solved when using clusters; they have to use single firewalls. D. This can easily be solved by using the Sticky decision function in ClusterXL. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 340 Laura notices the Microsoft Visual Basic Bits Protection is set to inactive. She wants to set the Microsoft Visual Basic Kill Bits Protection and all other Low Performance Impact Protections to Prevent. She asks her manager for approval and stated she can turn theses on. But he wants Laura to make sure no high Performance Impacted Protections are turned on while changing this setting.
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Using the out below, how would Laura change the Default_Protection on Performance Impact Protections classified as low from inactive to prevent until meeting her other criteria? A. Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and uncheck Do not activate protections with performance impact to medium or above B. Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to low or above C. Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to medium or above D. Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and uncheck Do not activate protections with performance impact to high or above Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 341 The following graphic illustrates which command being issued on SecurePlatform? A. The administrator will have to open the old session and make the changes, no note is added automatically, however, the manager adds his notes stating the changes required.
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam B. The same session is modified with a note automatically added stating under repair. C. The old status is removed and a new session is created with the same name, but with a note stating new session after repair. D. A new session is created by the name Repairing Session <old id> and the old session status is updated to Repaired with a note stating Repaired by Session < new id> Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 342 Refer to the to the network topology below.
You have IPS software Blades active on security Gateways sglondon, sgla, and sgny, but still experience attacks on the Web server in the New York DMZ. How is this possible?
A. All of these options are possible. B. Attacker may have used a touch of evasion techniques like using escape sequences instead of clear text commands. It is also possible that there are entry points not shown in the network layout, like rouge access points. C. Since other Gateways do not have IPS activated, attacks may originate from their networks without any noticing D. An IPS may combine different technologies, but is dependent on regular signature updates and well-turned automatically algorithms. Even if this is accomplished, no technology can offer 100% "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 133
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam protection. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 343 How is change approved for implementation in SmartWorkflow? A. The change is submitted for approval and is automatically installed by the approver once Approve is clicked B. The change is submitted for approval and is automatically installed by the original submitter the next time he logs in after approval of the 3nge C. The change is submitted for approval and is manually installed by the original submitter the next time he logs in after approval of the change. D. The change is submitted for approval and is manually installed by the approver once Approve is clicked Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 344 Provisioning Profiles can NOT be applied to: A. UTM-1 EDGE Appliances B. UTM-1 Appliances C. IP Appliances D. Power-1 Appliances Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 345 What is the lowest possible version a Security Gateway may be running in order to use it as an LSM enabled Gateway?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. NG-AI R55 HFAJ7 B. NGX R60 C. NGXR65HFA_50 D. NGX R71 Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 346 One profile in SmartProvisioning can update: A. Potentially hundreds and thousands of gateways. B. Only Clustered Gateways. C. Specific gateways. D. Profiles are not used for updating, just reporting. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 347 Check Point recommends deploying SSL VPN: A. In parallel to the firewall B. In a DMZ C. In front of the firewall with a LAN connection D. On the Primary cluster member Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 348 What are the SmartProvisioning Provisioning Profile indicators? A. OK, Needs Attention, Uninitialized, Unknown B. OK, Needs Attention, Agent is in local mode, Uninitialized, Unknown "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 135
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. OK, Waiting, Unknown, Not Installed, Not Updated, May be out of date D. OK, In Use. Out of date, not used Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 349 Which of the following can NOT be modified by editing the cp_httpd_admin.conf file? A. Toggling HTTP or HTTPS protocol use B. The web server port C. Modifying Web server certificate attributes D. Administrative Access Level Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 350 SmartWorkflow has been enabled with the following configuration: If a security administrator opens a new session and after making changes to policy, submits the session for approval will be displayed as: A. Approved B. In progress C. Not Approved D. Awaiting Approval Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 351 If traffic requires preferential treatment by other routers on the network, in addition to the QoS module, which Check Point QoS feature should be used?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. Guarantees B. Differentiated Services C. Weighted Fair Queuing D. Low Latency Queuing Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 352 In Company XYZ, the DLP Administrator defined a new Keywords Data Type that contains a list of secret project names; i.e., Ayalon, Yarkon, Yarden. The threshold is set to At least 2 keywords or phrases. Based on this information, which of the following scenarios will be a match to the Rule Base? A. A PDF file that contains the following text Yarkon1 can be the code name for the new product. Yardens list of protected sites B. An MS Excel file that contains the following text Mort resources for Yarkon project.. Are you certain this is about Yarden? C. A word file that contains the following text will match: Ayalon ayalon AYALON D. A password protected MS Excel file that contains the following text Ayalon Yarkon Yarden Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 353 Which Name Resolution protocols are supported in SSL VPN? A. DNS, hosts, Imhosts, WINS B. DNS, hosts, Imhosts C. DNS, hosts, WINS D. DNS, hosts Answer: D "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 137
QUESTION NO: 354 Which statement about LDAP and Active Directory (AD) with SSL VPN is TRUE? A. SSL VPN does not support LDAP password remediation. B. SSL VPN is capable of administering or creating users and groups directly on an LDAP server. C. SSL VPN never stores the user records of LDAP/AD groups. D. By default. SSL VPN sends username and password credentials to LDAP servers in UTF-8 encoding Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 355 Which Check Point QoS feature marks the ToS byte in the IP header? A. Differentiated Services B. Guarantees C. Weighted Fair Queuing D. Low Latency Queuing Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 356 How does ClusterXL Unicast mode handle new traffic? A. All members receive all packets. The Security Management Server decides which member will process the packets. Other members delete the packets from memory. B. The pivot machine receives and inspects all new packets then synchronizes the connections with other members C. The pivot machine receives all the packets and runs an algorithm to determine which member should process the packets D. All cluster members process all packets and members synchronize with each other. The pivot "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 138
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam is responsible for the master sync catalog Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 357 Which of the following explains Role Segregation? A. Administrators have different abilities than managers within SmartWorkflow. B. Different tasks within SmartDashboard are divided according to firewall administrator permissions. C. Changes made by an administrator in a SmartWorkflow session must have managerial approval prior to commitment. D. SmartWorkflow can be configured so that managers can only view their assigned sessions Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 358 A user cannot authenticate to SSL VPN. You have verified the user is assigned a user group and reproduced the problem, confirming a failed-login session. You do not see an indication of this attempt in the traffic log. The user is not using a client certificate for login. To debug this error, where in the authentication process could the solution be found? A. apache B. admin C. cvpnd D. cpauth Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 359 Which Protection Mode does not exist in IPS?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. Allow B. Detect C. Prevent D. Inactive Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 360 Using SmartProvisioning Profiles, which of the following could be configured for both SecurePlatform AND UTM-1 Edge devices? (i) Backup (ii) Routing (iii) Interfaces (iv) Hosts (v) NTP server (vi) DNS A. (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi) B. (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi) C. none of these options are available for both. D. (i), (ii) and (iv) Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 361 Which of the following actions is most likely to improve the performance of Check Point QoS? A. Put the most frequently used rules at the bottom of the QoS Rule Base. B. Define Check Point QoS only on the external interfaces of the QoS Module. C. Turn per rule limits into per connection limits D. Turn per rule guarantees into per connection guarantees.
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QUESTION NO: 362 Where is the encryption domain for a SmartLSM Security Gateway configured in R71? A. Inside the SmartLSM Security Gateway object in the SmartDashboard GUI B. Inside the SmartLSM Security Gateway profile in the SmartProvisioning GUI C. Inside the SmartLSM Security Gateway object in the SmartProvisioning GUI D. Inside the SmartLSM Security Gateway profile in the SmartDashboard GUI Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 363 John is the MultiCorp Security Administrator. If he suggests a change in the firewall configuration, he must submit his proposal to David, a security manager. One day David is out of the office and john submits his proposal to peter. Surprisingly, Peter is not able to approve the proposal because the system does not permit him to do so?
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Both David and Peter have accounts as administrators in the Security Management server and both have the Read/Write ALL permission. What is the reason for this difference? A. There were some Hardware/Software issues at Security Management server on the first day. B. Peter was no logged on to system for a longer time C. The attribute Manage Administrator was not assigned to Peter D. The specific SmartWorkflow read/Write permission were assigned to David only. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 364 What is NOT true about Management Portal? A. Choosing Accept control connections in Implied Rules includes Management Portal access B. Management Portal requires a license C. Default Port for Management Portal access is 4433 D. Management Portal could be reconfigured for using HTTP instead of HTTPS Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 365 Mark the configuration options that are available for Data Loss Prevention in R71.
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. The DLP Gateway running only the Management Server on the same machine. B. The DLP Gateway running only the Firewall Software Blade C. The DLP as an integrated software blade which can be enabled on a Check Point Security Gateway running other software blades such as firewall, IPS and Management. D. A Dedicated DLP Gateway running only the DLP Software Blade. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 366 What is the advantage for deploying SSL VPN in a DMZ, versus a LAN? A. SSL VPN adds another layer of access security to internal resources, when it resides in a DMZ. B. SSL Network Extender is ineffective in a LAN deployment. C. Traffic is in clear text when forwarded to internal servers, but the back connection is encrypted for remote users D. Traffic is authenticated without hiding behind Connectra's IP address Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 367 Management Portal should be installed on: (i) Management Server (ii) Security Gateway (iii) Dedicated Server A. All are possible solutions B. (ii) only C. (iii) only D. (i) or (ii) only Answer: D Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 368 To change the default port of the Management Portal: A. Edit the masters. conf file on the Portal server. B. Modify the file cp_httpd_admin .conf. C. Run sysconfig and change the management interface D. Re-initialize SIC Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 369 What port is used for Administrator access for your SSL VPN? A. 80 B. 4433 C. 4434 D. 443 Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 370 Math the SmartDashboard session status icons with the appropriate SmartWorkflow session status:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E B. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-E, 5-C C. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D, 5-E D. 1-E, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B, 5-A Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 371 What is the command to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (Al) R55 SmartCenter Server to VPN-1 NGX using a CD? A. cd patch add B. fwm upgrade_tool C. cppkg add D. patch add E. patch add cd Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 372 You have a production implementation of Management High Availability, at version VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence R55. You must upgrade your two SmartCenter Servers to VPN-1 NGX. What is the correct procedure? A. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers. 2. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server. 3. Upgrade the primary SmartCenter Server. 4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects version to VPN-1 NGX. 5. Synchronize the Servers again. B. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers. 2. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server. 3. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server. 4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects to version VPN-1 NGX. 5. Synchronize the Servers again. C. 1. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server. 2. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX. 3. Synchronize the primary with the secondary SmartCenter Server. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 145
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam 4. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server. 5. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX. 6. Synchronize the Servers again. D. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers. 2. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server. 3. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX. 4. Synchronize the two Servers again. 5. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server. 6. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX. 7. Synchronize the Servers again. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 373 You set up a mesh VPN Community, so your internal networks can access your partner's network, and vice versa. Your Security Policy encrypts only FTP and HTTP traffic through a VPN tunnel. All other traffic among your internal and partner networks is sent in clear text. How do you configure the VPN Community? A. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic", and put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the Community object. Add a rule in the Security Policy for services FTP and http, with the Community object in the VPN field. B. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic" in the Community, and add FTP and HTTP services to the Security Policy, with that Community object in the VPN field. C. Enable "accept all encrypted traffic", but put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the Community. Add a rule in the Security Policy, with services FTP and http, and the Community object in the VPN field. D. Put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the Community object. Then add a rule in the Security Policy to allow Any as the service, with the Community object in the VPN field. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 374 How does a standby SmartCenter Server receive logs from all Security Gateways, when an active SmartCenter Server fails over? A. The remote Gateways must set up SIC with the secondary SmartCenter Server, for logging. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 146
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam B. Establish Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the primary and secondary Servers. The secondary Server can then receive logs from the Gateways, when the active Server fails over. C. On the Log Servers screen (from the Logs and Masters tree on the gateway object's General Properties screen), add the secondary SmartCenter Server object as the additional log server. Reinstall the Security Policy. D. Create a Check Point host object to represent the standby SmartCenter Server. Then select "Secondary SmartCenter Server" and Log Server", from the list of Check Point Products on the General properties screen. E. The secondary Server's host name and IP address must be added to the Masters file, on the remote Gateways. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 375 You want only RAS signals to pass through H.323 Gatekeeper and other H.323 protocols, passing directly between end points. Which routing mode in the VoIP Domain Gatekeeper do you select? A. Direct B. Direct and Call Setup C. Call Setup D. Call Setup and Call Control Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 376 Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for VPN-1 NGX? A. VPN-1 Certificate Manager B. SmartCenterServer C. SmartLSM D. Policy Server E. Security Gateway Answer: B Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 377 You are configuring the VoIP Domain object for a Skinny Client Control Protocol (SCCP) environment protected by VPN-1 NGX. Which VoIP Domain object type can you use? A. CallManager B. Gatekeeper C. Gateway D. Proxy E. Transmission Router Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 378 What type of packet does a VPN-1 SecureClient send to its Policy Server, to report its Secure Configuration Verification status? A. ICMP Port Unreachable B. TCP keep alive C. IKE Key Exchange D. ICMP Destination Unreachable E. UDP keep alive Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 379 Which Security Servers can perform Content Security tasks, but CANNOT perform authentication tasks? A. Telnet B. FTP C. SMTP D. HTTP Answer: C Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 380 The following diagram illustrates how a VPN-1 SecureClient user tries to establish a VPN with hosts in the external_net and internal_net from the Internet. How is the Security Gateway VPN Domain created?
A. Internal Gateway VPN Domain = internal_net; External VPN Domain = external net + external gateway object + internal_net. B. Internal Gateway VPN Domain = internal_net. External Gateway VPN Domain = external_net + internal gateway object C. Internal Gateway VPN Domain = internal_net; External Gateway VPN Domain = internal_net + external_net D. Internal Gateway VPN Domain = internal_net. External Gateway VPN Domain = internal VPN Domain + internal gateway object + external_net Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 381 A cluster contains two members, with external interfaces 172.28.108.1 and 172.28.108.2. The internal interfaces are 10.4.8.1 and 10.4.8.2. The external cluster's IP address is 172.28.108.3, and the internal cluster's IP address is 10.4.8.3. The synchronization interfaces are 192.168.1.1 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 149
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam and 192.168.1.2. The Security Administrator discovers State Synchronization is not working properly, cphaprob if command output displays as follows: What is causing the State Synchronization problem? A. Another cluster is using 192.168.1.3 as one of the unprotected interfaces. B. Interfaces 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.1.2 have defined 192.168.1.3 as a suB. interface. C. The synchronization interface on the cluster member object's Topology tab is enabled with "Cluster Interface". Disable this interface. D. The synchronization network has a cluster, with IP address 192.168.1.3 defined in the gatewaycluster object. Remove the 192.168.1.3 VIP interface from the cluster topology. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 382 How can you completely tear down a specific VPN tunnel in an intranet IKE VPN deployment? A. Run the command vpn tu on the Security Gateway, and choose the option "Delete all IPSec+IKE SAs for ALL peers and users". B. Run the command vpn tu on the SmartCenter Server, and choose the option "Delete all IPSec+IKE SAs for ALL peers and users". C. Run the command vpn tu on the Security Gateway, and choose the option "Delete all IPSec+IKE SAs for a given peer (GW)". D. Run the command vpn tu on the Security Gateway, and choose the option "Delete all IPSec SAs for a given user (Client)". E. Run the command vpn tu on the Security Gateway, and choose the option "Delete all IPSec SAs for ALL peers and users". Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 383 How can you prevent delay-sensitive applications, such as video and voice traffic, from being dropped due to long queue using Check Point QoS solution? A. Weighted Fair queuing B. guaranteed per connection C. Low latency class
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D. guaranteed per VoIP rule Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 384 You are preparing to deploy a VPN-1 Pro Gateway for VPN-1 NGX. You have five systems to choose from for the new Gateway, and you must conform to the following requirements: Operating-system vendor's license agreement Check Point's license agreement Minimum operating-system hardware specification Minimum Gateway hardware specification Gateway installed on a supported operating system (OS) Which machine meets ALL of the following requirements? A. Processor: 1.1 GHz RAM: 512MB Hard disk: 10 GB OS: Windows 2000 Workstation B. Processor: 2.0 GHz RAM: 512MB Hard disk: 10 GB OS: Windows ME C. Processor: 1.5 GHz RAM: 256 MB Hard disk: 20 GB OS: Red Hat Linux 8.0 D. Processor: 1.67 GHz RAM: 128 MB Hard disk: 5 GB OS: FreeBSD E. Processor: 2.2 GHz RAM: 256 MB Hard disk: 20 GB OS: Windows 2000 Server Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 385 Stephanie wants to reduce the encryption overhead and improve performance for her mesh VPN Community. The Advanced VPN Properties screen below displays adjusted page settings:What can Stephanie do to achieve her goal?
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A. Check the box "Use Perfect Forward Secrecy" B. Change the setting "Use DiffiE. Hellman group" to "Group 5 (1536 bit)" C. Check the box "Use aggressive mode" D. Check the box "Support IP compression" E. Reduce the setting "Renegotiate IKE security associations every" to "720" Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 386 Jerry is concerned that a denial-oF. service (DoS) attack may affect his VPN Communities. He decides to implement IKE DoS protection. Jerry needs to minimize the performance impact of implementing this new protection. Which of the following configurations is MOST appropriate for Jerry? A. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Puzzles", and Support IKE DoS protection from unidentified source to "Stateless". "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 152
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam B. Set Support IKE Dos Protection from identified source, and Support IKE DoS protection from unidentified source to "Puzzles". C. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Stateless," and Support IKE DoS protection from unidentified source to "Puzzles". D. Set "Support IKE DoS protection" from identified source, and "Support IKE DoS protection" from unidentified source to "Stateless". E. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Stateless", and Support IKE DoS protection from unidentified source to "None". Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 387 Where can a Security Administrator adjust the unit of measurement (bps, Kbps or Bps), for Check Point QoS bandwidth? A. Global Properties B. QoS Class objects C. Check Point gateway object properties D. $CPDIR/conf/qos_props.pf Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 388 Problems sometimes occur when distributing IPSec packets to a few machines in a Load Sharing Multicast mode cluster, even though the machines have the same source and destination IP addresses. What is the best Load Sharing method for preventing this type of problem? A. Load Sharing based on IP addresses, ports, and serial peripheral interfaces (SPI) B. Load Sharing based on SPIs only C. Load Sharing based on IP addresses only D. Load Sharing based on SPIs and ports only E. Load Sharing based on IP addresses and ports Answer: E Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 389 Jacob is using a mesh VPN Community to create a sitE. to-site VPN. The VPN properties in this mesh Community display in this graphic: Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. If Jacob changes the setting, "Perform key exchange encryption with" from "3DES" to "DES", he will enhance the VPN Community's security and reduce encryption overhead. B. Jacob must change the datA. integrity settings for this VPN Community. MD5 is incompatible with AES. C. If Jacob changes the setting "Perform IPSec data encryption with" from "AES-128" to "3DES", he will increase the encryption overhead. D. Jacob's VPN Community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption, using the longest key VPN-1 NGX supports. Answer: C Explanation:
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Rachel is the Security Administrator for a university. The university's FTP servers have old hardware and software. Certain FTP commands cause the FTP servers to malfunction. Upgrading the FTP servers is not an option at this time. Which of the following options will allow Rachel to control which FTP commands pass through the Security Gateway protecting the FTP servers? A. Global Properties > Security Server > Allowed FTP Commands B. SmartDefense > Application Intelligence > FTP Security Server C. Rule Base > Action Field > Properties D. Web Intelligence > Application Layer > FTP Settings E. FTP Service Object > Advanced > Blocked FTP Commands Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 391 You are reviewing SmartView Tracker entries, and see a Connection Rejection on a Check Point QoS rule. What causes the Connection Rejection? A. The guarantee of one of the rule's sub-rules exceeds the guarantee in the rule itself. B. The number of guaranteed connections is exceeded. The rule's action properties are not set to accept additional connections. C. The Constant Bit Rate for a Low Latency Class has been exceeded by greater than 10%, and the Maximal Delay is set below requirements. D. Burst traffic matching the Default Rule is exhausting the Check Point QoS global packet buffers. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 392 Wayne configures an HTTP Security Server to work with the content vectoring protocol to screen forbidden sites. He has created a URI resource object using CVP with the following settings: Use CVP Allow CVP server to modify content Return data after content is approved
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam He adds two rules to his Rule Base: one to inspect HTTP traffic going to known forbidden sites, the other to allow all other HTTP traffic. Wayne sees HTTP traffic going to those problematic sites is not prohibited. What could cause this behavior? A. The Security Server Rule is after the general HTTP Accept Rule. B. The Security Server is not communicating with the CVP server. C. The Security Server is not configured correctly. D. The Security Server is communicating with the CVP server, but no restriction is defined in the CVP server. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 393 You want to block corporate internal-net and localnet from accessing Web sites containing inappropriate content. You are using WebTrends for URL filtering. You have disabled VPN-1 Control connections in the Global properties. Review the diagram and the Security Policies for GW_A and GW_B in the exhibit provided.
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Corporate users and localnet users receive message "Web cannot be displayed". In SmartView Tracker, you see the connections are dropped with message "content security is not reachable". What is the problem, and how do you fix it? A. The connection from GW_B to the internal WebTrends server is not allowed in the Policy. Fix: Add a rule in GW_A's Policy to allow source WebTrends Server, destination GW_B, service TCP port 18182, and action accept. B. The connection from GW_B to the WebTrend server is not allowed in the Policy. Fix: Add a rule in GW_B's Policy with Source GW_B, destination WebTrends server, service TCP port 18182, and action accept. C. The connection from GW_Ato the WebTrends server is not allowed in the Policy. Fix: Add a rule in GW_B's Policy with source WebTrends server, destination GW_A, service TCP port 18182, and action accept. D. The connection from GW_A to the WebTrends server is not allowed in the Policy. Fix: Add a rule in GW_B's Policy with source GW_A, destination: WebTrends server, service TCP port 18182, and action accept. E. The connection from GW_A to the WebTrends server is not allowed in the Policy. Fix: Add a rule in GW_A's Policy to allow source GW_A, destination WebTrends server, service TCP port 18182, and action accept. Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 394 VPN-1 NGX includes a resource mechanism for working with the Common Internet File System (CIFS). However, this service only provides a limited level of actions for CIFS security. Which of the following services is NOT provided by a CIFS resource? A. Log access shares B. Block Remote Registry Access C. Log mapped shares D. Allow MS print shares Answer: D Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 157
QUESTION NO: 395 Your organization has many VPN-1 Edge gateways at various branch offices, to allow VPN-1 Secure Client users to access company resources. For security reasons, your organization's Security Policy requires all Internet traffic initiated behind the VPN-1 Edge gateways first be inspected by your headquarters' VPN-1 Pro Security Gateway. How do you configure VPN routing in this star VPN Community? A. To the Internet and other targets only B. To the center and other satellites, through the center C. To the center only D. To the center; or through the center to other satellites, then to the Internet and other VPN targets Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 396 Robert has configured a Common Internet File System (CIFS) resource to allow access to the public partition of his company's file server, on \\erisco\goldenapple\files\public. Robert receives reports that users are unable to access the shared partition, unless they use the file server's IP address. Which of the following is a possible cause? A. Mapped shares do not allow administrative locks. B. The CIFS resource is not configured to use Windows name resolution C. Access violations are not logged. D. Remote registry access is blocked. E. Null CIFS sessions are blocked. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 397 You want to create an IKE VPN between two VPN-1 NGX Security Gateways, to protect two networks. The network behind one Gateway is 10.15.0.0/16, and network 192.168.9.0/24 is behind the peer's Gateway. Which type of address translation should you use, to ensure the two networks "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 158
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam access each other through the VPN tunnel? A. Manual NAT B. Static NAT C. Hide NAT D. None E. Hide NAT Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 398 Which is the BEST configuration option to protect internal users from malicious Java code, without stripping Java scripts? A. Use the URI resource to block Java code B. Use CVP in the URI resource to block Java code C. Use the URI resource to strip applet tags D. Use the URI resource to strip ActiveX tags Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 399 Your VPN Community includes three Security Gateways. Each Gateway has its own internal network defined as a VPN Domain. You must test the VPN-1 NGX routE. based VPN feature, without stopping the VPN. What is the correct order of steps? A. 1. Add a new interface on each Gateway. 2. Remove the newly added network from the current VPN Domain for each Gateway. 3. Create VTIs on each Gateway, to point to the other two peers 4. Enable advanced routing on all three Gateways. B. 1. Add a new interface on each Gateway. 2. Remove the newly added network from the current VPN Domain in each gateway object. 3. Create VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTI) on each gateway object, to point to the other two peers. 4. Add static routes on three Gateways, to route the new network to each peer's VTI interface. C. 1. Add a new interface on each Gateway. 2. Add the newly added network into the existing VPN Domain for each Gateway.
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam 3. Create VTIs on each gateway object, to point to the other two peers. 4. Enable advanced routing on all three Gateways. D. 1. Add a new interface on each Gateway. 2. Add the newly added network into the existing VPN Domain for each gateway object. 3. Create VTIs on each gateway object, to point to the other two peers. 4. Add static routes on three Gateways, to route the new networks to each peer's VTI interface. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 400 Which Security Server can perform authentication tasks, but CANNOT perform content security tasks? A. Telnet B. HTTP C. rlogin D. FTP E. SMTP Answer: C Explanation:
Topic 5, Volume E
QUESTION NO: 401 You are running a VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence R54 SecurePlatform VPN-1 Pro Gateway. The Gateway also serves as a Policy Server. When you run patch add cd from the NGX CD, what does this command allow you to upgrade? A. Only VPN-1 Pro Security Gateway B. Both the operating system (OS) and all Check Point products C. All products, except the Policy Server D. Only the patch utility is upgraded using this command E. Only the OS Answer: B Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 402 Which type of service should a Security Administrator use in a Rule Base to control access to specific shared partitions on target machines? A. Telnet B. CIFS C. HTTP D. FTP E. URI Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 403 Assume an intruder has compromised your current IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 keys. Which of the following options will end the intruder's access, after the next Phase 2 exchange occurs? A. Phase 3 Key Revocation B. Perfect Forward Secrecy C. MD5 Hash Completion D. SHA1 Hash Completion E. DES Key Reset Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 404 How would you configure a rule in a Security Policy to allow SIP traffic from end point Net_Ato end point Net_B, through an NGX Security Gateway? A. Net_A/Net_B/sip/accept B. Net_A/Net_B/sip and sip_any/accept C. Net_A/Net_B/VolP_any/accept D. Net_A/Net_BM3lP/accept
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QUESTION NO: 405 Barak is a Security Administrator for an organization that has two sites using prE. shared secrets in its VPN. The two sites are Oslo and London. Barak has just been informed that a new office is opening in Madrid, and he must enable all three sites to connect via the VPN to each other. Three Security Gateways are managed by the same SmartCenter Server, behind the Oslo Security Gateway. Barak decides to switch from prE. shared secrets to Certificates issued by the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA). After creating the Madrid gateway object with the proper VPN Domain, what are Barak's remaining steps? 1. Disable "PrE. Shared Secret" on the London and Oslo gateway objects 2. Add the Madrid gateway object into the Oslo and London's mesh VPN Community 3. Manually generate ICA Certificates for all three Security Gateways. 4. Configure "Traditional mode VPN configuration" in the Madrid gateway object's VPN screen 5. Reinstall the Security Policy on all three Security Gateways. A. 1, 2, 5 B. 1, 3, 4, 5 C. 1, 2, 3, 5 D. 1, 2, 4, 5 E. 1, 2, 3, 4 Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 406 You have an internal FTP server, and you allow downloading, but not uploading. Assume Network Address Translation is set up correctly, and you want to add an inbound rule with: Source: Any Destination: FTP server Service: FTP resources object. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 162
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam How do you configure the FTP resource object and the action column in the rule to achieve this goal? A. Enable only the "Get" method in the FTP Resource Properties, and use this method in the rule, with action accept. B. Enable only the "Get" method in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with action drop. C. Enable both "Put" and "Get" methods in the FTP Resource Properties and use them in the rule, with action drop. D. Disable "Get" and "Put" methods in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with action accept. E. Enable only the "Put" method in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with action accept. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 407 Damon enables an SMTP resource for content protection. He notices that mail seems to slow down on occasion, sometimes being delivered late. Which of the following might improve throughput performance? A. Configuring the SMTP resource to bypass the CVP resource B. Increasing the Maximum number of mail messages in the Gateway's spool directory C. Configuring the Content Vector Protocol (CVP) resource to forward the mail to the internal SMTP server, without waiting for a response from the Security Gateway D. Configuring the CVP resource to return the mail to the Gateway E. Configuring the SMTP resource to only allow mail with Damon's company's domain name in the header Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 408 Damon enables an SMTP resource for content protection. He notices that mail seems to slow down on occasion, sometimes being delivered late. Which of the following might improve throughput performance?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. Configuring the SMTP resource to bypass the CVP resource B. Increasing the Maximum number of mail messages in the Gateway's spool directory C. Configuring the Content Vector Protocol (CVP) resource to forward the mail to the internal SMTP server, without waiting for a response from the Security Gateway D. Configuring the CVP resource to return the mail to the Gateway E. Configuring the SMTP resource to only allow mail with Damon's company's domain name in the header Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 409 What is the consequence of clearing the "Log VoIP Connection" box in Global Properties? A. Dropped VoIP traffic is logged, but accepted VoIP traffic is not logged. B. VoIP protocol-specific log fields are not included in SmartView Tracker entries. C. The log field setting in rules for VoIP protocols are ignored. D. IP addresses are used, instead of object names, in log entries that reference VoIP Domain objects. E. The SmartCenter Server stops importing logs from VoIP servers. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 410 Your company has two headquarters, one in London, one in New York. Each headquarters includes several branch offices. The branch offices only need to communicate with the headquarters in their country, not with each other, and only the headquarters need to communicate directly. What is the BEST configuration for VPN Communities among the branch offices and their headquarters, and between the two headquarters? VPN Communities comprised of: A. Two stars and one mesh Community; each star Community is set up for each site, with headquarters as the center of the Community, and branches as satellites. The mesh Communities are between the New York and London headquarters B. Three mesh Communities: one for London headquarters and its branches, one for New York headquarters and its branches, and one for London and New York headquarters. C. Two mesh Communities, one for each headquarters and their branch offices; and one star Community, in which London is the center of the Community and New York, is the satellite. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 164
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D. Two mesh Communities, one for each headquarters and their branch offices; and one star Community, where New York is the center of the Community and London is the satellite. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 411 You are preparing to configure your VoIP Domain Gatekeeper object. Which two other objects should you have created first? A. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on which the proxy is installed B. An object to represent the PSTN phone network, AND an object to represent the IP phone network C. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on which the gatekeeper is installed D. An object to represent the Q.931 service origination host, AND an object to represent the H.245 termination host E. An object to represent the call manager, AND an object to represent the host on which the transmission router is installed Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 412 Yoav is a Security Administrator preparing to implement a VPN solution for his multi-site organization. To comply with industry regulations, Yoav's VPN solution must meet the following requirements: Portability: Standard Key management: Automatic, external PKI Session keys: Changed at configured times during a connection's lifetime Key length: No less than 128-bit Data integrity: Secure against inversion and brutE. force attacks
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam What is the most appropriate setting Yoav should choose? A. IKE VPNs: AES encryption for IKE Phase 1, and DES encryption for Phase 2; SHA1 hash B. IKE VPNs: SHA1 encryption for IKE Phase 1, and MD5 encryption for Phase 2; AES hash C. IKE VPNs: CAST encryption for IKE Phase 1, and SHA1 encryption for Phase 2; DES hash D. IKE VPNs: AES encryption for IKE Phase 1, and AES encryption for Phase 2; SHA1 hash E. IKE VPNs: DES encryption for IKE Phase 1, and 3DES encryption for Phase 2; MD5 hash Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 413 Which of the following commands shows full synchronization status? A. cphaprob. i list B. cphastop C. fw ctl pstat D. cphaprob. a if E. fwhastat Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 414 In a distributed VPN-1 Pro NGX environment, where is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) installed? A. On the Security Gateway B. Certificate Manager Server C. On the Policy Server D. On the Smart View Monitor E. On the primary SmartCenter Server Answer: E Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 415 You must set up SIP with a proxy for your network. IP phones are in the 172.16.100.0 network. The Registrar and proxy are installed on host 172.16.100.100. To allow handover enforcement for outbound calls from SIP-net to network Net_B on the Internet, you have defined the following objects: Network object: SIP-net: 172.16.100.0/24 SIP-gateway: 172.16.100.100 VoIP Domain object: VolP_domain_A 1. EnD. point domain: SIP-net 2.VoIP gateway installed at: SIP-gateway host object How would you configure the rule? A. SIP- G ateway/N et_B/s i p_a ny/a c c e pt B. VolP_domain_A/Net_B/sip/accept C. SIP-Gateway/Net_B/sip/accept D. VolP_domain_A/Net_B/sip_any, and sip/accept E. VolP_Gateway_MJet_B/sip_any/accept Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 416 What is the behavior of ClusterXL in a High Availability environment? A. Both members respond to the virtual IP address, and both members pass traffic when using their physical addresses. B. Both members respond to the virtual IP address, but only the active member is able to pass traffic. C. The active member responds to the virtual IP address.nd both members pass traffic when using their physical addresses. D. The active member responds to the virtual IP address.nd is the only member that passes traffic E. The passive member responds to the virtual IP address, and both members route traffic when using their physical addresses. Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 417 The following rule contains an FTP resource object in the Service field: Source: local_net Destination: Any Service: FTP-resource object Action: Accept How do you define the FTP Resource Properties > Match tab to prevent internal users from receiving corporate files from external FTP servers, while allowing users to send files? A. Enable "Put" and "Get" methods. B. Disable the "Put" method globally. C. Enable the "Put" method only on the Match tab. D. Enable the "Get" method on the Match tab. E. Disable "Get" and "Put" methods on the Match tab. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 418 VPN-1 NGX supports VoIP traffic in all of the following environments, EXCEPT which environment? A. H.323 B. SIP C. MEGACO D. SCCP E. MGCP Answer: C Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 419 Cody is notified by blacklist.org that his site has been reported as a spam relay, due to his SMTP Server being unprotected. Cody decides to implement an SMTP Security Server, to prevent the server from being a spam relay. Which of the following is the most efficient configuration method? A. Configure the SMTP Security Server to perform MX resolving. B. Configure the SMTP Security Server to perform filtering, based on IP address and SMTP protocols. C. Configure the SMTP Security Server to work with an OPSEC based product, for content checking. D. Configure the SMTP Security Server to apply a generic "from" address to all outgoing mail. E. Configure the SMTP Security Server to allow only mail to or from names, within Cody's corporate domain. Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 420 You want to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (Al) R55 Gateway to SecurePlatform NGX R60 via SmartUpdate. Which package is needed in the repository before upgrading? A. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Express/Pro B. VPN-1 and Firewall-1 C. SecurePlatform NGX R60 D. SVN Foundation 3 E. VPN-1 Pro/Express NGXR60 Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 421 Your current stands alone VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (Al) R55 installation is running on SecurePlatform. You plan to implement VPN-1 NGX in a distributed environment, where the existing machine will be the VPN-1 Pro Gateway. An additional machine will serve as the SmartCenter Server. The new machine runs on a Windows Server 2003. You need to upgrade the NG with Al R55 SmartCenter Server configuration to VPN-1 NGX. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 169
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam How do you upgrade to VPN-1 NGX? A. Insert the NGX CD in the existing NGwithAI R55 SecurePlatform machine, and answer yes to backup the configuration. Copy the backup file to the Windows Server 2003. Continue the upgrade process. Reboot after upgrade is finished. After SecurePlatform NGX reboots, run sysconfig, select VPN-1 Pro Gateway, and finish the sysconfig process. Reboot again. Use the NGX CD to install the primary SmartCenter on the Windows Server 2003. Import the backup file. B. Run the backup command in the existing SecurePlatform machine, to create a backup file. Copy the file to the Windows Server 2003. Uninstall all Check Point products on SecurePlatform by running rpm CPsuitE. R55 command. Reboot. Install new VPN-1 NGX on the existing SecurePlatform machine. Run sysconfig, select VPN-1 Pro Gateway, and reboot. Use VPN-1 NGX CD to install primary SmartCenter Server on the Windows Server 2003. Import the backup file. C. Copy the $FWDIR\conf and $FWDIR\lib files from the existing SecurePlatform machine. Create a tar.gzfile, and copy it to the Windows Server 2003. Use VPN-1 NGX CD on the existing SecurePlatform machine to do a new installation. Reboot. Run sysconfig and select VPN-1 Pro Gateway. Reboot. Use the NGX CD to install the primary SmartCenter Server on the Windows Server 2003. On the Windows Server 2003, run upgradeimport command to import $FWDIR\conf and $FWDIR\lib from the SecurePlatform machine. D. Run backup command on the existing SecurePlatform machine to create a backup file. Copy the file to the Windows Server 2003. Uninstall the primary SmartCenter Server package from NG with Al R55 SecurePlatform using sysconfig. Reboot. Install the NGX primary SmartCenter Server and import the backup file. Open the NGX SmartUpdate, and select "upgrade all packages" on the NG with Al R55 Security Gateway. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 422 If you check the box "Use Aggressive Mode", in the IKE Properties dialog box: A. The standard threE. packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange. B. The standard six-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a threE. packet exchange. C. The standard threE. packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange. D. The standard six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a threE. packet exchange. E. The standard six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a twelvE. packet exchange. Answer: D Explanation:
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam DShield is a Check Point feature used to block which of the following threats? A. Cross Site Scripting B. SQL injection C. DDOS D. Buffer overflows E. Trojan horses Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 424 How do you control the maximum mail messages in a spool directory? A. In the Security Server window in Global Properties B. In SmartDefense SMTP settings C. In the smtp.conf file on the SmartCenter Server D. In the gateway object's SMTP settings in the Advanced window E. In the SMTP resource object Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 425 Greg is creating rules and objects to control VoIP traffic in his organization, through a VPN-1 NGX Security Gateway. Greg creates VoIP Domain SIP objects to represent each of his organization's three SIP gateways. Greg then creates a simple group to contain the VoIP Domain SIP objects. When Greg attempts to add the VoIP Domain SIP objects to the group, they are not listed. What is the problem? A. The related end points domain specifies an address range. B. VoIP Domain SIP objects cannot be placed in simple groups. C. The installed VoIP gateways specify host objects. D. The VoIP gateway object must be added to the group, before the VoIP Domain SIP object is eligible to be added to the group. E. The VoIP Domain SIP object's name contains restricted characters. Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 426 You plan to install a VPN-1 Pro Gateway for VPN-1 NGX at your company's headquarters. You have a single Sun SPARC Solaris 9 machine for VPN-1 Pro enterprise implementation. You need this machine to inspect traffic and keep configuration files. Which Check Point software package do you install? A. VPN-1 Pro Gateway and primary SmartCenter Server B. Policy Server and primary SmartCenter Server C. ClusterXL and SmartCenter Server D. VPN-1 Pro Gateway E. SmartCenter Server Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 427 Which service type does NOT invoke a Security Server? A. HTTP B. FTP C. Telnet D. CIFS E. SMTP Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 428 Your current VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (Al) R55 stanD. alone VPN-1 Pro Gateway and SmartCenter Server run on SecurePlatform. You plan to implement VPN-1 NGX in a distributed environment, where the existing machine will be the SmartCenter Server, and a new machine will be the VPN-1 Pro Gateway only. You need to migrate the NG with Al R55 SmartCenter Server configuration, including such items as Internal Certificate Authority files,
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam databases, and Security Policies. How do you request a new license for this VPN-1 NGX upgrade? A. Request a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server license, using the new machine's IP address. Request a new local license for the NGX VPN-1 Pro Gateway. B. Request a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server license, using the new machine's IP address. Request a new central license for the NGX VPN-1 Pro Gateway. C. Request a new VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server license, using the NG with Al SmartCenter Server IP address. Request a new central license for the NGX VPN-1 Pro Gateway. D. Request a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server license, using the NG with Al SmartCenter Server IP address. Request a new central license for the NGX VPN-1 Pro Gateway, licensed for the existing SmartCenter Server IP address. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 429 What is a requirement for setting up Management High Availability? A. All SmartCenter Servers must reside in the same Local Area Network (LAN). B. All SmartCenter Servers must have the same amount of memory. C. You can only have one Secondary SmartCenter Server. D. All SmartCenter Servers must have the BIOS release. E. All SmartCenter Servers must have the same operating system. Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 430 Which of the following TCP port numbers is used to connect the VPN-1 Gateway to the Content Vector Protocol (CVP) server? A. 18182 B. 18180 C. 18181 D. 7242 E. 1456 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 173
QUESTION NO: 431 Which operating system is NOT supported by VPN-1 Secure Client? A. IPSO 3.9 B. Windows XP SP2 C. Windows 2000 Professional D. RedHat Linux 8.0 E. MacOSX Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 432 The following configuration is for VPN-1 NGX:1s this configuration correct for Management High Availability (HA)?
A. No, the SmartCenter Servers must be installed on the same operating system. B. No, a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server cannot run on Red Hat Linux 7.3. C. No, the SmartCenter Servers must reside on the same network. D. No, A VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server can only be in a Management HA configuration, if the "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 174
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam operating system is Solaris. E. No, the SmartCenter Servers do not have the same number of NICs. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 433 Which VPN Community object is used to configure VPN routing within the SmartDashboard? A. Star B. Mesh C. Remote Access D. Map Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 434 You receive an alert indicating a suspicious FTP connection is trying to connect to one of your internal hosts. How do you block the connection in real time and verify the connection is successfully blocked? A. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Active mode. Block the connection using the Tools > Block Intruder menu. Use the Active mode to confirm that the suspicious connection does not reappear. B. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Log mode. Block the connection using Tools > Block Intruder menu. Use Log mode to confirm that the suspicious connection does not reappear. C. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Active mode. Block the connection using Tools > Block Intruder menu. Use Active mode to confirm that the suspicious connection is dropped. D. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Log mode. Block the connection using Tools > Block Intruder menu. Use the Log mode to confirm that the suspicious connection is dropped. Answer: A Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 435 Which of the following QoS rule action properties is an Advanced action type, only available in Traditional mode? A. Guarantee Allocation B. Rule weight C. Apply rule only to encrypted traffic D. Rule limit E. Rule guarantee Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 436 Which OPSEC server is used to prevent users from accessing certain Web sites? A. LEA B. URI C. UFP D. AMON E. CVP Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 437 Regarding QoS guarantees and limits, which of the following statements is FALSE? A. If both a limit and a guarantee per rule are defined in a QoS rule, then the limit must be smaller than the guarantee. B. If both a rule limit and a per connection limit are defined for a rule, the per connection limit must not be greater than the rule limit. C. A rule guarantee must not be less than the sum the guarantees defined in its sub-rules. D. If a guarantee is defined in a sub-rule, then a guarantee must be defined for the rule above it. Answer: A Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 438 When you add a resource service to a rule, which ONE of the following actions occur? A. VPN-1 Secure Client users attempting to connect to the object defined in the Destination column of the rule will receive a new Desktop Policy from the resource. B. All packets that match the resource in the rule will be dropped. C. All packets matching the resource service rule are analyzed or authenticated, based on the resource properties. D. Users attempting to connect to the destination of the rule will be required to authenticate. E. All packets matching that rule are either encrypted or decrypted by the defined resource. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 439 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. Load Balancing Mode B. Multicast mode C. Unicast mode D. New mode E. Legacy mode Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 440 Your network traffic requires preferential treatment by other routers on the network, in addition to the QoS Module, which Check Point QoS feature should you use? A. Guarantees B. Limits "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 177
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. Differentiated Services D. Weighted Fair Queuing E. Low Latency Queuing Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 441 When upgrading to NGX R65, which Check Point products do not require a license upgrade to be current? A. VPN-1 NGX (R64) and later B. VPN-1 NGX (R60) and later C. VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (R54) and later D. None, all versions require a license upgrade Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 442 Which of these components does NOT require a VPN-1 NGX R65 license? A. SmartConsole B. Check Point Gateway C. SmartCenter Server D. SmartUpdate upgrading/patching Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 443 Which of the following is a TRUE statement concerning contract verification? A. Your contract file is stored on the User Center and fetched by the Gateway as needed. B. Your contract file is stored on the SmartConsole and downloaded to the SmartCenter Server. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 178
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. Your contract file is stored on the SmartConsole and downloaded to the Gateway. D. Your contract file is stored on the SmartCenter Server and downloaded to the Security Gateway. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 444 Your current VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55 stand-alone VPN-1 Pro Gateway and SmartCenter Server runs on SecurePlatform. You plan to implement VPN-1 NGX R65 in a distributed environment, where the new machine will be the SmartCenter Server, and the existing machine will be the VPN-1 Pro Gateway only. You need to migrate the NG with AI R55 SmartCenter Server configuration, including licensing. How do you handle licensing for this NGX R65 upgrade? A. Request an NGX R65 SmartCenter Server license, using the new server's IP address. Request a new central NGX R65 VPN-1 Gateway license also licensed to the new SmartCenter Server's IP address. B. Leave the current license on the gateway to be upgraded during the software upgrade. Purchase a new license for the VPN-1 NGX R65 SmartCenter Server. C. Request an NGX R65 SmartCenter Server license, using the existing gateway machine's IP address. Request a new local license for the NGX R65 VPN-1 Gateway using the new server's IP address. D. Request an NGX R65 SmartCenter Server license, using the new server's IP address. Request a new central NGX R65 VPN-1 Gateway license for the existing gateway server's IP address. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 445 You are running the license_upgrade tool on your SecurePlatform Gateway. Which of the following can you NOT do with the upgrade tool? A. Simulate the license-upgrade process. B. View the licenses in the SmartUpdate License Repository. C. Perform the actual license-upgrade process. D. View the status of currently installed licenses.
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QUESTION NO: 446 What action can be run from SmartUpdate NGX R65? A. remote_uninstall_verifier B. upgrade_export C. mds_backup D. cpinfo Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 447 What tools CANNOT be launched from SmartUpdate NGX R65? A. cpinfo B. SecurePlatform Web UI C. Nokia Voyager D. snapshot Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 448 Choose all correct statements. SmartUpdate, located on a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server, allows you to: (1) Remotely perform a first time installation of VPN-1 NGX on a new machine (2) Determine OS patch levels on remote machines (3) Update installed Check Point and any OPSEC certified software remotely (4) Update installed Check Point software remotely "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 180
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam (5) Track installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products (6) Centrally manage licenses A. 4, 5, & 6 B. 2, 4, 5, & 6 C. 1 & 4 D. 1, 3, 4, & 6 Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 449 You are a Security Administrator preparing to deploy a new HFA (Hot fix Accumulator) to ten Security Gateways at five geographically separated locations. What is the BEST method to implement this HFA? A. Send a Certified Security Engineer to each site to perform the update B. Use SmartUpdate to install the packages to each of the Security Gateways remotely C. Use a SSH connection to SCP the HFA to each Security Gateway. Once copied locally, initiate a remote installation command and monitor the installation progress with SmartView Monitor. D. Send a CDROM with the HFA to each location and have local personnel install it Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 450 You are using SmartUpdate to fetch data and perform a remote upgrade of an NGX Security Gateway. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. If SmartDashboard is open during package upload and upgrade, the upgrade will fail. B. A remote installation can be performed without the SVN Foundation package installed on a remote NG with Application Intelligence Security Gateway C. SmartUpdate can query the SmartCenter Server and VPN-1 Gateway for product information D. SmartUpdate can query license information running locally on the VPN-1 Gateway Answer: B "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 181
QUESTION NO: 451 What port is used for communication to the UserCenter with SmartUpdate? A. HTTP B. HTTPS C. TCP 8080 D. CPMI Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 452 What physical machine must have access to the UserCenter public IP when checking for new packages with SmartUpdate? A. VPN-1 Security Gateway getting the new upgrade package B. SmartUpdate installed SmartCenter Server PC C. SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server D. SmartUpdate GUI PC Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 453 What action CANNOT be run from SmartUpdate NGX R65? A. Get all Gateway Data B. Reboot gateway C. Preinstall verifier D. Fetch sync status Answer: D Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 182
QUESTION NO: 454 You want to upgrade an NG with Application Intelligence R55 Security Gateway running on SecurePlatform to VPN-1 NGX R65 via SmartUpdate. Which package(s) is(are) needed in the Repository prior to upgrade? A. SecurePlatform NGX R65 package B. VPN-1 Power/UTM NGX R65 package C. SecurePlatform and VPN-1 Power/UTM NGX R65 packages D. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Power/UTM packages Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 455 Why should the upgrade_export configuration file (.tgz) be deleted after you complete the import process? A. It will prevent a future successful upgrade_export since the .tgz file cannot be overwritten. B. It will conflict with any future upgrades run from SmartUpdate. C. SmartUpdate will start a new installation process if the machine is rebooted. D. It contains your security configuration, which could be exploited. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 456 Concerning these products: SecurePlatform, VPN-1 Pro Gateway, UserAuthority Server, Nokia OS, UTM-1, Eventia Reporter, and Performance Pack, which statement is TRUE? A. All but the Nokia OS can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate. B. All but Performance Pack can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate. C. All can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate. D. All but the UTM-1 can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
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QUESTION NO: 457 If a SmartUpdate upgrade or distribution operation fails on SecurePlatform, how is the system recovered? A. SecurePlatform will reboot and automatically revert to the last snapshot version prior to upgrade. B. The Administrator must remove the rpm packages manually, and reattempt the upgrade. C. The Administrator can only revert to a previously created snapshot (if there is one) with the command cprinstall snapshot <object name> <filename>. D. The Administrator must reinstall the last version via the command cprinstall revert <object name> <file name>. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 458 Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway. A. After selecting "Packages: Add from CD", the entire contents of the CD are copied to the packages directory on the selected remote Security Gateway. B. After selecting "Packages: Add from CD", the entire contents of the CD are copied to the Package Repository on the SmartCenter Server. C. After selecting "Packages: Add from CD", the selected package is copied to the packages directory on the selected remote Security Gateway. D. After selecting "Packages: Add from CD", the selected package is copied to the Package Repository on the SmartCenter Server. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 459 Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway.
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. After selecting "Packages > Distribute" and choosing the target gateway, the selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the SmartCenter to the Security Gateway but the installation IS NOT performed. B. After selecting "Packages > Distribute" and choosing the target gateway, the SmartUpdate wizard walks the Administrator through a Distributed Installation. C. After selecting "Packages > Distribute" and choosing the target gateway, the selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the SmartCenter to the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed. D. After selecting "Packages > Distribute" and choosing the target gateway, the selected package is copied from the CDROM of the SmartUpdate PC directly to the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 460 What happens in relation to the CRL cache after a cpstop;spstart has been initiated? A. The gateway continues to use the old CRL even if it is not valid, until a new CRL is cached B. The gateway continues to use the old CRL, as long as it is valid. C. The gateway issues a crl_zap on startup, which empties the cache and forces Certificate retrieval. D. The gateway retrieves a new CRL on startup, then discards the old CRL as invalid. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 461 Public-key cryptography is considered which of the following? A. two-key/symmetric B. one-key/asymmetric C. two-key/asymmetric D. one-key/symmetric Answer: C Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 462 What is the greatest benefit derived from VPNs compared to frame relay, leased lines any other types of dedicated networks? A. lower cost B. stronger authentication C. Less failure/downtime D. Greater performance Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 463 What is the bit size of DES? A. 56 B. 112 C. 168 D. 128 E. 32 F. 64 Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 464 In cryptography, the Rivest, Shamir, Adelman (RSA) scheme has which of the following? Select all that apply. A. A symmetric-cipher system B. A secret-key encryption-algorithm system C. A public-key encryption-algorithm system D. An asymmetric-cipher system Answer: C,D
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QUESTION NO: 465 Which of the following are supported with the office mode? Select all that apply. A. SecureClient B. L2TP C. Transparent Mode D. Gopher E. SSL Network Extender Answer: A,B,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 466 Which network port does PPTP use for communication? A. 1723/tcp B. 1723/udp C. 25/udp D. 25/tco Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 467 VPN access control would fall under which VPN component? A. QoS B. Performance C. Management D. Security Answer: D Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 187
QUESTION NO: 468 In ClusterXL, which of the following processes are defined by default as critical devices? A. fwm B. cphad C. fwd D. fwd.proc Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 469 If a digital signature is used to achieve both data-integrity checking and verification of sender, digital signatures are only used when implementing: A. A symmetric-encryption algorithm B. CBL-DES C. Triple DES D. An asymmetric-encryption algorithm Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 470 Which of the following is supported with Office Mode? A. SecuRemote B. SecureClient C. SSL Network Extender D. Connect Mode Answer: A Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 471 When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements are true? Select all that apply. A. Only cluster members running on the same OS platform can be synchronized. B. Client Auth or Session Auth connections through a cluster member will be lost of the cluster member fails. C. The state of connections using resources is maintained by a Security Server, so these connections cannot be synchronized. D. In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite a properly Answer: A,B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 472 VPN traffic control would fall under which VPN component? A. Performance B. Management C. Security D. QoS Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 473 Which of the following is an example of the hash function? A. DES and CBC B. DAC and MAC C. SHA and 3DES D. MD5 and SHA-1
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QUESTION NO: 474 When configuring site-to-site VPN High Availability (HA) with MEP, which of the following is correct? A. MEP Gateways cannot be geographically separated machines. B. The decision on which MEP Gateway to use is made on the MEP Gateways side of the tunnel. C. MEP Gateways must be managed by the same SmartCenter Server. D. If one MEP Security Gateway fails, the connection is lost and the backup Gateway picks up the next connection. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 475 Consider the following actions that VPN-1 NGX can take when it control packets. The Policy Package has been configured for Traditional Mode VPN. Identify the options that includes the available actions. Select four. A. Allow B. Reject C. Client auth D. Decrypt E. Accept F. Drop G. Encrypt H. Hold I. Proxy Answer: B,E,F,G Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 476
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Which of the following does IPSec use during IPSec key negotiation? A. IPSec SA B. RSA Exchange C. ISAKMP SA D. Diffie-Hellman exchange Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 477 Which of the following SSL Network Extender server-side prerequisites are correct? Select all that apply. A. The VPN1-Gateway must be configured to work with Visitor Mode B. The specific VPN-1 Security Gateway must be configured as a member of the VPN-1 Remote Access Community. C. There are distinctly separate access rules required for SecureClient users vs. SSL Network Extender users. D. To use Integrity Clientless Security (ICS), you must install the ICS server or configuration tool. Answer: A,B,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 478 After installing VPN-1 Pro NGQ R65, you discover that one port on your Intel Quad NIC on the Security Gateway is not fetched by a get topology request. What is the most likely cause and solution? A. The NIC is faulty. Replace it and reinstall. B. Make sure the driver for you particular NIC is available, and reinstall. You will be prompted for the driver. C. If an interface is not configured, it is not recognized. Assign an IP and subnet mask using the Web UI, D. Your NIC driver is installed but was not recognized. Apply the latest SecurePlatform R65 Hotfix Accumulator (HFA). Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 479 Which of the following provides a unique user ID for a digital Certificate? A. Username B. User-message digest C. User e-mail D. User organization Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 480 For object-based VPN routing to succeed, what must be configured? A. A single rule in the Rule Base must cover traffic in both directions, inbound and outbound on the central (HUB) Security Gateway. B. No rules need to be created, implied rules that cover inbound and outbound traffic on the central (HUB) Gateway are already in place from Policy > Properties > Accept VPN-1 Control Connections. C. At least two rules in the Rule Base must created, one to cover traffic inbound and the other to cover traffic outbound on the central (HUB) Security Gateway. D. VPN routing is not configured in the Rule Base or Community objects. Only the native-routing mechanism on each Gateway can direct the traffic via its VTI configured interfaces. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 481 What proprietary Check Point protocol is the basis of the functionality of Check Point ClusterXL inter-module communication? A. RDP B. IPSec "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 192
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. CCP D. HA OPCODE E. CKPP Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 482 Which of the following is part of the PKI? Select all that apply. A. User certificate B. Attribute Certificate C. Certificate Revocation Lists D. Public-key certificate Answer: A,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 483 Which of the following are valid PKI architectures? A. mesh architecture B. Bridge architecture C. Gateway architecture D. Hierarchical architecture Answer: A,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 484 Which of the following are valid reasons for beginning with a fresh installation VPN-1 NGX R65, instead of upgrading a previous version to VPN-1 NGX R65? Select all that apply. A. You see a more logical way to organize your rules and objects B. You want to keep your Check Point configuration. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 193
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. Your Security Policy includes rules and objects whose purpose you do not know. D. Objects and rules naming conventions have changed over time. Answer: A,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 485 Public keys and digital certificates provide which of the following? Select three. A. Non repudiation B. Data integrity C. Availability D. Authentication Answer: A,B,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 486 Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt? A. dynamic encryption B. Certificate-based encryption C. static encryption D. Symmetric encryption E. Asymmetric encryption Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 487 Central License management allows a Security Administrator to perform which of the following? Select all that apply. A. Attach and/or delete only NGX Central licenses to a remote module (not Local licenses) B. Check for expired licenses "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 194
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. Add or remove a license to or from the license repository D. Sort licenses and view license properties E. Delete both NGX Local licenses and Central licenses from a remote module F. Attach both NGX Central and Local licenses to a remote moduel Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 488 How should Check Point packages be uninstalled? A. In the same order in which the installation wrapper initially installed from. B. In the opposite order in which the installation wrapper initially installed them. C. In any order, CPsuite must be the last package uninstalled D. In any order as long as all packages are removed Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 489 Which encryption scheme provides in-place encryption? A. DES B. SKIP C. AES D. IKE Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 490 What is the command to upgrade an NG with Application Intelligence R55 SmartCenter running on SecurePlatform to VPN-1 NGX R65? A. fw install_mgmt "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 195
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam B. upgrade_mgmt C. patch add cd D. fwm upgrade_tool Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 491 What can be said about RSA algorithms? Select all that apply. A. Long keys can be used in RSA for enhances security B. Short keys can be used for RSA efficiency. C. RSA is faster to compute than DES D. RSAs key length is variable. Answer: A,B,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 492 What is the most typical type of configuration for VPNs with several externally managed Gateways? A. star community B. mesh community C. domain community D. Hybrid community E. SAT community Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 493 DRAG DROP ABC.com has two sites using certificates-based VPN issued by the ICA. The two sites, Tokyo and Paris, are configured using a simplified VPN policy. You are trying to integrate a new office opening in New Delhi. You must enable all three sites to connect via the VPN to each other. Three Security Gateways are managed by the same SmartCenter Server behind the Paris Security "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 196
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Gateway. After creating the Dubai Gateway object with the proper VPN domain, what must you do?
Answer:
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QUESTION NO: 494 DRAG DROP Match the ClusterXL Modes with their configurations.
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QUESTION NO: 495 DRAG DROP Match the Terms with their definitions.
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QUESTION NO: 496 DRAG DROP In a Management High Availability (HA) configuration, you can configure synchronization to occur automatically. Select the best response for the synchronization sequence.
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QUESTION NO: 497 DRAG DROP Match the remote-access VPN connection mode features with their descriptions.
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QUESTION NO: 498 What is the maximum number of cores supported by CoreXL? A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 6 Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 499 Which Check Point QoS feature allows a Security Administrator to define special classes of service for delay-sensitive applications? A. Guarantees B. Weighted Fair Queuing C. Differentiated Services D. Low Latency Queuing
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QUESTION NO: 500 Which statement is TRUE for route-based VPNs? A. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs. B. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain. C. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway. D. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required. Answer: D Explanation:
Topic 6, Volume F
QUESTION NO: 501 Which operating system(s) support(s) unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) for route-based VPNs? A. Red Hat Linux B. SecurePlatform for NCjX and higher C. Solaris 9 and higher D. IPSO 3.9 and higher Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 502 Which of the following items can be provisioned via a Profile through SmartProvisioning? i) Backup Schedule ii) DNS Entries iii) Hosts Table "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 205
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam iv) Domain Name v) Interface IP's A. i, ii, iii, iv, v B. i, ii, iii, iv C. i D. i, ii, iv Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 503 What does it mean when a Security Gateway is labeled Untrusted in the SmartProvisioning Status view? A. SIC has not been established between the Security Gateway and the Security Management. B. SmartProvisioning is not enabled on the Security Gateway, C. cpd is not running at the Security Gateway. D. The Security Gateway is down. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 504 Using the Backup Target functionality in SmartProvisioning, what targets are available? i) FTP ii) TFTP iii) SFTP iv) SCP v) Locally A. i B. i, ii, iv "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 206
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. ii, iv, v D. i, ii, iii, iv Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 505 The We-Make-Widgets company has purchased twenty UTM-1 Edge appliances for their remote offices. Kim decides the best way to manage those appliances is to use SmartProvisioning and create a profile they can all use. List the order of steps Kim would go through to add the Dallas Edge appliance to the Remote Office profile using the output below. 1. Enter the name of the profile called "Remote Offices" 2. Change the provisioning profile to "Remote Offices" 3. Click File, then select New, then Provisioning Profile 4. Click on the Devices Tab 5. Highlight the Dallas Edge appliance, click Edit, then edit Gateway 6. Click on the Profiles Tab A. 6, 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 B. 4, 1, 3, 6, 5, 2 C. 6, 1, 3, 4, 5, 2 D. 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2 Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 506 SmartProvisioning can provision the Operating System and network settings on which of the following? A. IPSO 4.2 Security Gateways B. Edge firmware 6.x and above C. R65 HFA 40 Security Gateways arid above D. NGX Security Appliances "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 207
QUESTION NO: 507 Which of the following load-balancing methods is not valid? A. Domain B. They are all valid C. Round trip D. Random Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 508 The relay mail server configured under Email Notifications is used by the DLP Gateway to: (Choose the BEST answer.) A. If UserCheck is configured, there is no need to configure this relay server if there are no Ask User rules and there is no need to notify any Data Owners. B. Send e-mail notifications to users and Data Owners. C. Define My Organization / DLP Gateway and scan only e-mails that originate from this relay server. D. Synchronize with other mail servers in the network. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 509 For a dedicated DLP Gateway that runs in inline bridge mode, why is it important to properly define the topology? A. Topology definition is necessary for correct anti-spoofing. B. Topology is used for Hide NAT. C. By default. My Organization is defined by the internal interfaces of a DLP Gateway. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 208
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D. Topology definition is used for VPN communities definition. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 510 Which protocol is not supported for DLP? A. ftp B. https C. http D. smtp Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 511 What happens when an Administrator activates the DLP Portal for Self Incident Handling and enters its fully qualified domain name (DNS name)? A. Connections created between the user and the DLP Gateway when clicking links within e-mail notifications to send or discard quarantined e-mails (matched for an Ask User rule) are encrypted. B. The daemon running DLP Portal starts to run and can cater requests from users' browsers (following links from e-mail notifications) and from Check Point UserCheck. C. The DLP Gateway can now notify Data Owners about DLP incidents. D. UserCheck is activated. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 512 You just upgraded to R71 and are using the IPS Software Blade. You want to enable all critical protections while keeping the rate of false positive very low. How can you achieve this? A. new IPS system is based on policies, but it has no ability to calculate or change the confidence "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 209
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam level, so it always has a high rate of false positives. B. As in SmartDefense, this can be achieved by activating all the critical checks manually. C. The new IPS system is based on policies and gives you the ability to activate al checks with critical severity and a high confidence level. D. This can't be achieved; activating any IPS system always causes a high rate of false positives. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 513 You enable Sweep Scan Protection and Host port scan in IPS to determine if a large amount of traffic from a specific internal IP address is a network attack, or a user's system is infected with a worm. Will you get all the information you need from these actions? A. Yes. IPS will limit the traffic impact from the scans, and identify if the pattern of the traffic matches any known worms. B. No. These IPS protections will only block the traffic, but it will not provide a detailed analysis of the traffic. C. No. To verify if this is a worm or an active attack, you must also enable TCP attack defenses. D. No. The logs and alert can provide some level of information, but determining whether the attack is intentional or a worm, requires further research. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 514 You need to verify the effectiveness of your IPS configuration for your Web server farm. You have a colleague run penetration tests to confirm that the Web servers are secure against traffic hijacks. Of the following, which would be the best configuration to protect from a traffic hijack attempt? A. Enable the Web intelligence > SQL injection setting. B. Activate the Cross-Site Scripting property. C. Configure TCP defenses such as Small PMTU size. D. Create resource objects for the Web farm servers and configure rules for the Web farm. Answer: B Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 515 You need to determine if your company's Web servers are accessed an excessive number of times from the same host. How would you configure this in the IPS tab? A. Successive alerts B. Successive DoS attacks C. Successive multiple connections D. HTTP protocol inspection Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 516 You are responsible for the IPS configuration of your Check Point firewall. Inside the Denial of service section you need to set the protection parameters against the Teardrop attack tool with high severity. How would you characterize this attack tool? Give the BEST answer.
A. Hackers can send high volumes of non-TCP traffic in an effort to fill up a firewall State Table. This results in a Denial of Service by preventing the firewall from accepting new connections. Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability. B. A remote attacker may attack a system by sending a specially crafted RPC request to execute arbitrary code on a vulnerable system. Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability. C. Some implementations of TCP/IP are vulnerable to packets that are crafted in a particular way (a SYN packet in which the source address and port are the same as the destination, i.e., spoofed). Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability D. Some implementations of the TCP/IP IP fragmentation re-assembly code do not properly handle overlapping IP fragments. Sending two IP fragments, the latter entirely contained inside the former, causes the server to allocate too much memory and crash. Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability. Answer: D Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 517 Which application is used to create a File-Share Application? A. SmartDashboard (SSL VPN Tab) B. SmartPortal WebUI (File-Share Tab) C. SSL VPN Portal WebUI (File-Share Tab) D. Provider-1 MDG (Global VPNs Tab) Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 518 Which procedure will create an Internal User? A. In the Users and Administrators tab, right click Users and click SSL VPN User B. In the General Properties of the gateway, click the SSL VPN check box. The SSL VPN Blade Wizard will launch and Step 2 will allow adding new users who will be imported from a RADIUS server. C. From the SSL VPN tab, click Users and Authentication I Internal Users I Users and click New User I Default D. In the Users and Administrators tab, click User Groups I Clientless-vpn-user and add the SSL VPN user to the Clientless-vpn-user group Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 519 With is the SmartEvent Correlation Unit's function? A. Assign severity levels to events. B. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy C. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database. D. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns.
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QUESTION NO: 520 Which version is the minimum requirement for SmartProvisioning? A. R65 HFA 40 B. R70 C. R71 D. R70.20 Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 521 If SmartWorkflow is configured to work without Sessions or Role Segregation, how does the SmartDashboard function? A. The SmartDashboard functions as if SmartWorkflow is not enabled but an automatic session exists in the background and full SmartView tracker and audit trail functionality will be available. B. The SmartDashboard will function without SmartWorkflow, with no session and no audit trail functionality. C. The SmartDashboard will have no session but SmartView Tracker and audit trail will be available. D. All functions of SmartWorkflow will be available on a per rule basis. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 522 A Security Administrator opens a new session, makes changes to the policy and submits the session for approval. The Security Manager may approve the session or request repair. If a manager opens a new session and submits it for approval, can he approve his session as a Security Manager?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. It depends on the SmartWorkflow settings in Global Properties. B. Yes, he can always approve his own session. C. No, he can never approve his own session. D. It depends on the type of changes made in the session. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 523 Assuming all connections that are allocated bandwidth in your Check Point QoS Rule Base are open, what would be the corresponding bandwidth percentage of the Kazaa Rule in the following example?
A. 5% B. 20% C. 8% D. 14% Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 524 SmartProvisioning uses different types of profiles to manage and provision the gateways. These types are: A. SmartLSM Security Profiles and Provisioning Profiles
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam B. Provisioning Profiles and Gateways Profiles C. SmartLSM Security Profiles and SmartDashboard Profiles D. SmartConsole Profiles and SmartFilter Profiles Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 525 What is the best method for scheduling backup's on multiple firewalls? A. WebUI B. SmartProvisioning C. Smart Dashboard D. SmartUpdate Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 526 When two or more DLP rules are matched, the action taken is the most restrictive action. Rank the following items from the lowest restriction level (1) to the highest (4). 1. Ask User 2. Prevent 3. Detect 4. Inform User A. 3,4,1,2 B. 3,1,4,2 C. 4,3,1,2 D. 4,1,3,2 Answer: B Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 527 When using IPS, what does Geo protection do? A. To block traffic from and to a specific country B. To block traffic from and to a specific person C. To block traffic from and to a specific company D. To block traffic from and to a specific city Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 528 The Management Portal allows all of the following EXCEPT: A. Manage firewall logs B. Schedule policy installation C. View administrator activity D. View the status of Check Point products Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 529 Where is the ideal place to deploy your SSL VPN? A. Deployed in DMZ B. SSL VPN enabled on the gateway C. In front of the external interface on the gateway D. Anywhere Answer: A Explanation:
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam How many events are shown by default in the Event preview pane? A. 30,000 B. 5,000 C. 1,000 D. 15,000 Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 531 What is the significance of the depicted icon in the SmartWorkflow toolbar?
A. Submit for Approval B. Check the consistency of SmartWorkflow sessions. C. Overall status information: Everything is OK. D. Session has been approved. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 532 When selecting a backup target using SmartProvisioning, which target is NOT available? A. Locally on device B. FTP C. SCP D. TFTP Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 533 Which of the following can NOT approve a change in a SmartWorkflow session? A. FireWall Administrators B. FireWall Managers C. Provider-1 Superusers D. Customer Superusers Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 534 Which of the following files is used to allow only specific IPs or networks to access the Management Portal? A. hosts.allow B. portal.ips C. cpportal_allowips D. allowedips.portal Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 535 Which of the following can NOT be done on the Management Portal? A. Set the Management Portal to use HTTP instead of HTTPS B. Configure Management Portal to bypass authentication when connecting from a specific IP address C. Restrict hosts / networks that can access the portal D. Run the Management Portal on a port other than the default port 4433 Answer: D "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 218
QUESTION NO: 536 When configuring a Web Application for SSL VPN remote access, you have given the following definition for the application along with its protection level.
Which of the following is the best match for the above application? A. dmz.example.com/extranet B. www.dmz.example/extranet C. www.example.com/intranet D. hr.dmz.example.com/intranet Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 537 The Management Portal Software Blade allows users to A. View Security Policies B. Monitor traffic flows C. Add/Delete rules D. Create/Modify objects Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 538 What command will stop all (and only) Management Portal services? A. cpstop B. spstop C. sportalstop
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D. smartportalstop Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 539 Which file can you modify to change settings of the Management Portal? For example: changing the webserver port or to use HTTP instead of HTTPS. A. cp_http.conf B. cp_httpd.conf C. cp_http_admin.conf D. cp_httpd_admin.conf Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 540 Which of the following is NOT a supported browser for Management Portal? A. Internet Explorer B. Safari C. Firefox D. Mozilla Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 541 When a security administrator logs in to SmartDashboard and selects Continue without session from the following window, what kind of access will be granted to him in SmartDashboard?
A. He will get read-only access to the policy, network objects and session management. B. He will get read-only access to the policy and network objects; however, he can still manage "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 220
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam the sessions, i.e. Approve, Request Repair etc. C. A new session will automatically be created with a default session name along with date and time. All changes made by the manager will be saved in this new session. D. No access will be granted, he will be logged out of SmartDashboard. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 542 When does the SmartWorkflow Policy Installation window appear?
A. When the administrator installs an approved policy B. When the manager approves a session C. When the administrator installs an unapproved policy D. When the administrator submits a session for approval Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 543 What happens to the session information after they are approved and a policy installation is done? A. Session information is never deleted from the database. B. It depends on the SmartWorkflow settings in Global Properties. C. An option is given to retain the session information, default being deletion of session information from the database. D. Session information can only be deleted before a policy is installed. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 544 Your customer wishes to install the SmartWorkflow Software Blade on a R70 Security Management server (SecurePlatform). Which is the correct method?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. When you install the R70.1 package on an R70 Security Management server, it will be upgraded to version R70.1 with SmartWorkflow. B. The SmartWorkflow works directly on the version R70. Install the SmartWorkflow as an add-on. The version of the Management server remains R70. C. You must upgrade the Management Server to the version R70.1 first before you start the installation of the SmartWorkflow Software Blade plug-in. D. The SmartWorkflow Software Blade is included in the standard R70 version. You need to enable it via cpconfig. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 545 You have to uninstall the Check Point SmartWorkflow Software Blade on a SecurePlatform system. How can you perform this procedure? A. To uninstall the SmartWorkflow Software Blade you can connect to the SecurePlatform WebUI ( <IP of the Security Management Server>) and select: Device > Upgrade. You will be asked if you want uninstall the SmartWorkflow Software Blade. B. To uninstall the SmartWorkflow Software Blade you must first connect to your Security Management System on command line level. Then in the directory /opt/CPUninstall/Check_Point_Workflow, run the command ./UnixInstallScript -u. Afterwards, follow the screen instructions and change to the directory /opt/CPUninstall/R70_HFA_10 and repeat the previous command. C. To uninstall the SmartWorkflow Software Blade, you use SmartUpdate. Click on the symbol of the Security Management Server, right-click, select Get Gateway Data, select SmartWorkflow, right -click uninstall SmartWorkflow. You will see the progress in the Operaration Status windows. D. To uninstall the SmartWorkflow Software Blade, you must first connect to your Security Management System on the command line level. Then in the directory /opt/CPuninstall/Check_Point_Workflow, run the command ./UnixInstallScript -u. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 546 You start the configuration of SmartWorkflow. SmartWorkflow is enabled, but you are not able to select Open New Session because it is greyed out.
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam What must be done to open a new session? Choose the BEST answer. A. Sessions in the Manage menu of SmartDashboard must be selected and enabled. B. The use of sessions must be enabled by the CLI command: SWF_session start. C. A rule which allows the SmartWorkflow traffic must be placed on the top of the Rule Base. D. The Work with sessions in Global Properties must be set. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 547 David is the MultiCorp Security Manager and approves the proposals submitted by the Security Administrator Peter. One day, David believes he has detected a vulnerability in the Security Policy. He submits a change proposal and tries to approve his own submission. The system does not allow him to perform this procedure.
What is the reason for this behavior? A. The company does not allow David to submit and also approve the same policy change. David was assigned the Approve only permission (instead of Submit and Approve). B. The company does not allow David to submit and approve the same policy change. The setting Manager cannot approve their submitted sessions in Global Properties was set to On. C. The company does not allow David to submit and approve the same policy change. The setting Manager cannot approve their submitted sessions in the SmartWorkflow section of the Firewall object properties was set to On. D. The proposal contains some logical contradictions. The Check Point verification control does not permit this change to be carried out.
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QUESTION NO: 548 Your customer asks you about Check Point SmartWorkflow. His company must comply with various laws and regulations and therefore it is important for him to be able to see the changes made to a specific object. You explain to him that he can use the SmartWorkflow Software Blade to achieve this objective and show him some examples (Figures 1 - 3). How can the customer receive the required information?
A. The customer can check compliance. This function compares the logs with the compliance requirements and automatically reports which part of the selected compliance is fulfilled and which is not. B. The customer can use the Check Point's SmartView Tracker to view the required information. He selects the log category Changed Objects. C. The customer can use the Record Details. This feature enables administrators to track changes that have been made to objects over an extended period of time. These changes are recorded in Smartview Tracker as audit logs. D. The customer can use the Check Point's SmartView Tracker directly to receive the required information. He selects the log category SmartWorkflow. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 549 Your customer wishes to use SmartWorkflow Software Blade, but he also wishes to install a policy during an emergency without an approval. Is it possible? A. Yes, it is possible but the administrator must receive special administrator permission, i.e., Can install in emergency. You can use the new GUI to set the administration security setting. B. Yes, it is possible, but this feature must be configured in the Global Properties. The administrator must provide a special password and the reason for this emergency installation. C. Yes, it is possible, but this feature must be configured in Global Properties and the administrator must provide a special password. D. No, if a customer uses the SmartWorkflow Software Blade, a policy must be approved.
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QUESTION NO: 550 Your customer wishes to install SmartWorkflow on top of R70 Security Management Server (Windows system). What is the required disk space? A. 1256 MB B. 1 GB C. 512 MB D. 880 MB Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 551 In SmartWorkflow, what is NOT a valid possibility? A. Task Flow without Session and without Role Segregation B. Task Flow without Session but with Role Segregation C. Task Flow with Session but without Role Segregation D. Task Flow with Session and with Role Segregation Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 552 What is a possible reason for the grayed out Restore Version button in the screenshot of the Database Revision Control while trying to restore Old_Structure?
A. Old_Structure was not approved in SmartWorkflow. B. No SmartWorkflow session is started. C. With SmartWorkflow active, only SmartWorkflow revisions could be restored. D. Self-created versions cannot be restored if there are newer versions created in SmartWorkflow. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 225
QUESTION NO: 553 After repairing a SmartWorkflow session: A. The session moves to status Repaired and a new session can be started. B. The session moves to status Awaiting Repair and must be resubmitted. C. The session is continued with status Not approved and a new session must be started. D. The session is discarded and a new session is automatically started. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 554 Which changes are tracked by SmartWorkflow? A. SmartDashboard, SmartView Tracker and SmartView Monitor logins and logouts B. Security Policies and the Rule Base, Network Objects, Network Services, VPN Communities. C. Users, Administrators, Groups and VPN Communities D. Security Policies and the Rule Base, Network Objects, Network Services, Resources, Users, Administrators, Groups, VPN Communities and Servers and OPSEC Applications. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 555 How is the SmartWorkflow Session Information Pane enabled? A. In SmartView Tracker, click on SmartWorkflow > Show Session Information Pane B. In SmartDashboard, click on View > Smart Workflow > Show Session Information Pane C. In SmartDashboard, click on SmartWorkflow > Show Session Information Pane D. In cpconfig, choose Enable Session Information Pane from the menu Answer: C "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 226
QUESTION NO: 556 How is Smart Workflow disabled? A. In cpconfig, choose Disable Smart Workflow from the menu B. In SmartView Tracker, click on SmartWorkflow > Disable Smart Workflow C. In SmartDashboard, click on View > Smart Workflow > Disable Smart Workflow D. Open Smart Workflow as admin. Create new session and name it Disable Smart Workflow. In SmartDashboard click Smart Workflow > Disable Smart Workflow, click OK in the warning box, click Save and Continue Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 557 When using SmartWorkflow, how many sessions can be in progress at the same time? A. 2 B. As many as you want C. 1 D. 3 Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 558 In the following command, LSMcli [-d] <server> <user> <pswd> <action> "server" should be replaced with: A. Hostname of ROBO gateway B. Hostname DAIP device "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 227
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. IP address of the Security Management server D. GUIclient Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 559 Susan needs to change the DNS settings on her SecurePlatform Gateway. Using the output below, which Gateway could she edit directly from the Devices view using Edit Gateway, then selecting the DNS tab?
A. Seoul-Edge B. Prague-GW C. Berlin-GW D. Paris-GW Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 560 The London office just upgraded their DNS servers so their Gateway needs to be updated with the new settings. What would be the BEST way for Henry to change the DNS settings for London's Gateway?
A. Edit the Canada Profile B. Edit the Gateway's DNS settings from the Edit Gateway, then selecting the DNS tab C. DNS settings for that Gateway cannot be changed D. Edit the Europe Profile Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 561 While using the SmartProvisioning Wizard to create a new profile, you cannot continue because "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 228
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam there are no devices to select. What is a possible reason for this? i) All devices already have a profile assigned to them ii) Provisioning Blade is not enabled on the devices iii) No UTM- 1/Power- 1/Secure Platform devices are defined in SmartDashboard iv) SIC is not established on the devices.
A. (ii), (iii) or (iv) B. (ii) only C. (iii) or (iv) D. (i) or (iii) Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 562 You logged in to your firewall and discovered that the scheduled backup has been modified. Which of the below options is NOT a reason for the change? A. Another administrator pushed a SmartProvisioning profile to the firewall B. Another administrator issued a new backup command through the command line C. Another administrator logged in to the WebUI and changed the setting without your knowledge D. Another administrator updated the Backup Schedule using SmartUpdate Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 563 Your company is planning on moving their server farm to a new datacenter which requires IP changes to important network services including DNS, DHCP, and TFTP. Rather than manually logging in to all your firewalls and modifying the settings individually, you decide to purchase and enable SmartProvisioning. Assuming all your firewalls are on SPLAT, what is the minimum version required to update the firewalls' DNS and backup settings via SmartProvisioning?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. R62 B. R60 HFA 02 C. R65 HFA 40 D. R71 Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 564 Which of the following software blades can be used to provide centralized backup management? A. SmartDashboard B. SmartProvisioning C. SmartGateway D. SmartBackup Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 565 The SmartProvisioning management concept is based on: A. Zones B. Groups C. Regions D. Profiles Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 566 Where do Gateways managed by SmartProvisioning fetch their assigned profiles? A. The Smartview Monitor B. The standalone SmartProvisioning server "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 230
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. The Security Management server or CMA D. They are fetched locally from the individual device Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 567 SmartProvisioning is an integral part of the Security Management or Provider-1 CMA. To enable SmartProvisioning on the Security Management server: A. Obtain a SmartProvisioning license, add the License to the Security Management server or CMA, turn on SmartProvisioning on each Gateway to be controlled. B. Obtain a SmartProvisioning license, add the License to the Security Management server or CMA, disable SecureXL. C. Obtain a SmartProvisioning license, add the License to the Security Management server or CMA. D. Obtain a SmartProvisioning license, add the License to the Security Management server or CMA, select the box under Policy for SmartProvisioning. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 568 What are the SmartProvisioning Policy Status indicators? A. OK, Down, Up, Synchronized B. OK, Waiting, Out of Sync, Not Installed, Not communicating C. OK, Unknown, Not Installed, May be out of date D. OK, Waiting, Unknown, Not Installed, Not Updated, May be out of date Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 569 When Converting Gateways to SmartLSM Security Gateways, you can:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. do nothing, the conversion is automatic. B. delete the device and re-install it in SmartProvisioning. C. reset SIC and re-establish communication with the new SmartProvisioning. D. convert a Security Gateway or UTM-1 Edge Gateway managed with SmartDashboard to a SmartLSM Security Gateway managed with SmartProvisioning. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 570 Domain name can NOT be changed in SmartProvisioning and Domain Name is grayed out. What is a possible reason for this?
A. There is no SmartProvisioning license installed. B. Profile is not assigned to any Gateway. C. Override profile setting on device level is set to Mandatory. D. Domain name settings are always fetched from firewall object. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 571 Which of the following is a supported deployment for Connectra? A. IPSO 4.9 build 88 B. VMWare ESX C. Solaris 10 D. Windows server 2007 Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 572
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam To force clients to use Integrity Secure Workspace when accessing sensitive applications, the Administrator can configure Connectra: A. Via protection levels B. To implement Integrity Clientless Security C. To force the user to re-authenticate at login D. Without a special setting. Secure Workspace is automatically configured. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 573 Which of the following statements about SSL VPN is TRUE? A. Traffic is not encrypted in a LAN deployment, where clear text requests are forwarded to internal servers. B. All traffic is always encrypted. C. Traffic is encrypted, when it is initiated from a LAN. D. Administration traffic is not encrypted. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 574 SSL termination takes place: A. In a LAN deployment on a Security Gateway B. In a DMZ and LAN deployment scenario on a Security Gateway C. In a DMZ and LAN deployment scenario on a Connectra Gateway D. In a DMZ deployment on a Connectra Gateway Answer: B Explanation:
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Which port is typically used by SSL Network Extender, if the Connectra Portal will also be used on the same IP address? A. SSL (TCP/900) B. SSL (TCP/443) C. SSL (TCP/444) D. SSL (TCP/80) Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 576 For an initial installation of Connectra, which of the following statements is TRUE? A. You must configure the Connectra username and password before running the First Time Wizard. B. It is possible to run the First Time Wizard from Expert Mode on the Connectra server. C. It is not possible to use the sysconfig and cpconfig utilities, until the First Time Wizard in the Administration Web GUI is successfully completed. D. It is not necessary to set up the Rule Base before completing Connectra's installation. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 577 Why would an old Connectra Gateway IP be displayed to remote SSL Network Extender users, after changing it to a different IP? You must: A. Restart service CPwebis B. Update Connectra's certificate to reflect the newly assigned IP address C. Make the change using sysconfig instead of the admin portal D. Install a new license corresponding to the newly configured IP Answer: B Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 578 To configure a client to properly log in to the user portal using a certificate, the Administrator MUST: A. Create an internal user in the admin portal. B. Install an R71 internal Certificate Authority certificate. C. Create a client certificate from SmartDashboard. D. Store the client certificate on the SSL VPN Gateway. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 579 Can end users be forced to authenticate by using client certificates and username/password credentials? A. Yes, but by manually changing the parameter :IsPasswordWarning to true in the $FWDIR/conf/objects_5_0.C file, to allow for LDAP password remediation; and through the use of multiple-challenge login pages. B. No, R71 only supports authentication by client certificates. C. Yes, by editing the protection-level settings. D. SSL VPN only supports server certificates. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 580 A user attempts to initialize a network application using SSL Network Extender. The application fails to start. What is the MOST LIKELY solution? A. Select the option Auto-detect client capabilities. B. Select the option Enable SSL Network Extender Application Mode only. C. Select the option Turn off all SSL tunneling clients. D. Select the option Enable SSL Network Extender Network Mode only. Answer: B Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 581 To configure a Security Management Server for an SSL VPN Gateway, you can set up log forwarding from that Gateway. All of the following tasks must be performed to accomplish this, EXCEPT: A. Defining a remote log server in the "Remote Log Server" box. B. Establishing SIC between the Security Management Server and the SSL VPN Gateway. C. Initiating the put key process in order to facilitate Secure Internal Communications (SIC). D. Providing the Security Management Server's IP address. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 582 Among the authentication schemes SSL VPN employs for users, which scheme does Check Point recommend so all servers are replicated? A. User certificates B. LDAP C. Username and password D. RADIUS Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 583 You have configured an LDAP account unit and confirmed the Apply & Fetch Branches option works in SSL VPN, but end users still cannot be authenticated. What is the MOST LIKELY cause? A. The Administrator's login is incorrect. B. The LDAP server is incorrectly configured. C. The user is not defined in Active Directory. D. The LDAP account unit's login Distinguished Name is incorrectly configured. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 236
QUESTION NO: 584 You are a SSL VPN administrator. Your users complain that their Outlook Web Access is running extremely slowly, and their overall browsing experience continues to worsen. You suspect it could be a logging problem. Which of the following logs does Check Point recommend you turn off? A. Alert B. Event C. Trace D. Traffic Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 585 When connecting to the SSL VPN portal, you receive a pop-up message indicating that the server hostname does not match the certificate hostname, and the certificate is not signed by a known Certificate Authority (CA). How would you solve this problem? A. Acquire and install an SSL server certificate from a known CA. B. Ignore the message. It only occurs before the portal synchronizes with the GUI. C. Resolve the certificate-hostname conflict between the Connectra portal and the administration GUI. D. The administration GUI is pointing to the wrong certificate-hostname location. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 586 You are using tracelogger to debug SSL VPN's server side and obtain a textual traffic dump. Which type of traffic will you NOT see in the output? A. Traffic outbound from the internal networks "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 237
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam B. Traffic to the portal C. Traffic outbound to the external networks D. Traffic inbound from the external networks Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 587 You are a SSL VPN Administrator. Your users complain that their Outlook Web Access is running extremely slowly, and their overall browsing experience continues to worsen. You suspect it could be a logging problem. Which of the following log files does Check Point recommend you purge? A. httpd*.log B. event_ws.log C. mod_ws_owd.log D. alert_owd.log Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 588 Network applications accessed using SSL Network Extender have been found to fail after one of their TCP connections has been left idle for more than one hour. You determine that you must enable sending reset (RST) packets upon TCP time-out expiration. Where is it necessary to change the setting? A. $FWDIR/conf/objects_5_0.C B. $FWDIR/conf/objects.C C. $WEBISDIR/conf/cpadmin.elg D. $CVPNDIR/conf/cvpnd.C Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 589 Even after configuring central logging on Connectra, Connectra logs are not displaying in "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 238
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam SmartView Tracker. What could be the cause of this problem? A. You must reestablish logging from Connectra to the Management Server, using a dummy logserver object. B. R70 does not support a host object with the same IP address as a Management Server used as secondary log server or management station. C. You must install the Management Server database. D. You must install the Security Policy, and try again. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 590 Which procedure enables the SSL VPN blade on the gateway? A. Log into SmartDashboard, Create a new rule with the source and destination addresses of the needed remote network, set the action to Encrypt and push the policy to that gateway. B. Log into SmartDashboard, edit the properties of the Gateway, and select the SSL VPN check box. C. Log into SmartDashboard, Select the VPN Communities tab and add the gateway to the appropriate community. D. Log into WebUI on the gateway and check the SSL VPN Blade check box. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 591 Which internal user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN? A. Check Point Password, SecurID, LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS B. Check Point Password, SecurID, L2TP, RADIUS, TACACS C. Check Point Password, SecurID, Active Directory, RADIUS, TACACS D. Point Password, SecurID, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS Answer: D Explanation:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam QUESTION NO: 592 Which Remote Desktop protocols are supported natively in SSL VPN? A. Microsoft RDP only B. AT&T VNC and Microsoft RDP C. Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP D. AT&T VNC, Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 593 Your customer asks you about the Performance Pack. You explain to him that a Performance Pack is a software acceleration product which improves the performance of the Security Gateway. There are two ways to enable or disable this acceleration. The first one is to use the command cpconfig (see the Figure 1). The second one is to use the command fwaccel on off (see the Figure 2). What is the difference between those two commands? A. The command cpconfig works on the Security Platform only. The command fwaccel can be used on all platforms. B. The fwaccel command determines the default setting. The command cpconfig can dynamically change the setting, but after the reboot it reverts to the default setting. C. Both commands have the same function. D. The cpconfig command enables acceleration. The command fwaccel can dynamically change the setting, but after the reboot it reverts to the default setting. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 594 Which command can be used to verify SecureXL statistics? A. fwaccel top B. fwaccel stats "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 240
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. fw ctl pstat D. cphaprob stat Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 595 In ClusterXL, which of the following are defined by default as a critical device? A. PROT_SRV.EXE B. Filter C. fw.d D. protect.exe Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 596 You are trying to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the Match column does not have the option to see the Directional Match. You see the following window. What must you enable to see the Directional Match? A. VPN Directional Match on the Gateway object's VPN tab B. Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway C. VPN Directional Match on the VPN advanced window, in Global Properties D. directional_match(true) in the objects_5_0.C file on Security Management Server Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 597 Which of these four Check Point QoS technologies prevents the transmission of redundant packets when multiple copies of a packet are concurrently queued on the same flow? A. Weighted Flow Random Early Drop (WFRED) "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 241
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam B. Intelligent Queuing Engine C. Retransmission Detection Early Drop (RDED) D. Stateful Inspection Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 598 Using the output below, why is the QoS rule not limiting the internal users to 2000 Bps of GNUtella traffic?
A. Rule Guarantee needs to be changed to Rule Limit B. Rule Weight needs to be changed to 10 C. The Source and Destination columns need to be reversed D. Encrypted traffic needs to be added to the Action field Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 599 Which technology would describe RDED for Qos? A. A mechanism for reducing the number of retransmits and retransmit storms. B. A mechanism for managing packet buffers. C. A mechanism to accurately classify traffic and place it in the proper transmission queue. D. A mechanism to derive complete state and context information for all network traffic. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 600 Please review the following QoS policy:
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Assume you have 200 Kbps bandwidth available at all times. Which statement would describe this policy? A. The un-named rule has a total Guarantee of 5 Kbps, which should be 50 and lower the other Guarantees. B. Guarantee values are set too high, you have no bandwidth available for anything else besides traffic describe in first rules. C. All traffic matching the default rule will have priority D. All traffic will receive sufficient bandwidth because the default rule has a low weight value. Answer: B Explanation:
Topic 7, Volume G
QUESTION NO: 601 How do you block some seldom-used FTP commands, such as CWD, and FIND from passing through the Gateway? A. Add the restricted commands to the aftpd.conf file in the Security Management Server. B. Modify the desired profile in the FTP commands under Protection Details in the IPS tab. C. Configure the restricted FTP commands in the Security Servers screen of the Global Properties. D. Enable FTP Bounce checking / Application Intelligence / Protocol Protections from the IPS tab. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 602 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports? By enabling: A. Malware Scan protection B. Sweep Scan protection C. Host Port Scan D. Malicious Code Protector Answer: B Explanation: "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 243
QUESTION NO: 603 What is the meaning of the option Connect to the Internet?
A. SmartDashboard will retrieve information from Check Point over the Internet. No information will be sent. B. SmartDashboard will retrieve information from Check Point over the Internet. Your information will be sent anonymously to Check Point. C. SmartDashboard will retrieve information from Check Point over the Internet using your User Center login. D. SmartDashboard will retrieve information from Check Point over the Internet. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 604 Refer to the network topology below. You have IPS Software Blades active on the Security Gateways sglondon, sgla, and sgny, but still experience attacks on the Web server in the New York DMZ. How is this possible?
A. All of these options are possible. B. The attacker may have used a bunch of evasion techniques like using escape sequences instead of cleartext commands. It is also possible that there are entry points not shown in the network layout, like rogue access points. C. Since other Gateways do not have IPS activated, attacks may originate from their networks without anyone noticing. D. An IPS may combine different detection technologies, but is dependent on regular signature updates and well-tuned anomaly algorithms. Even if this is accomplished, no technology can offer 100% protection. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 605
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Your online bookstore has customers connecting to a variety of Web servers to place or change orders and check order status. You ran penetration tests through the Security Gateway to determine if the Web servers were protected from a recent series of cross-site scripting attacks. The penetration testing indicated the Web servers were still vulnerable. You have checked every box in the Web Intelligence tab, and installed the Security Policy. What else might you do to reduce the vulnerability? A. Configure the Security Gateway protecting the Web servers as a Web server. B. Check the Products / Web Server box on the host node objects representing your Web servers. C. Add Port (TCP 443) as an additional port on the Web Server tab for the host node. D. The penetration software you are using is malfunctioning and is reporting a false-positive. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 606 The TotallyCoolSecurity Company has a large security staff. Bob configured a new IPS Chicago_Profile for fw-chicago using Detect mode. After reviewing logs, Matt noticed that fwChicago is not detecting any of the IPS protections that Bob had previously setup. Analyze the output below and determine how Matt can correct the problem.
A. Matt should assign the fw-chicago Security Gateway to the Chicago_Profile. B. Matt should change the Chicago_Profile to use Protect mode because Detect mode will not work. C. Matt should re-create the Chicago_Profile and select Activate protections manually instead of per the IPS Policy. D. Matt should activate the Chicago_Profile as it is currently not activated. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 607 If Victor wanted to edit new Signature Protections, what tab would he need to access in SmartDashboard? A. QoS Tab B. SmartDefense Tab
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. IPSec VPN Tab D. IPS Tab Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 608 Using the output below, what does the red flag indicate for the MS08-067 Protection?
A. It indicates this is for follow up B. It indicates this protection is for a new 0-day vulnerability C. It indicates this protection's severity level was modified from the default setting by the administrator D. It indicates this protection is a critical Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 609 In R71, how would you define a rule to block all traffic sent to or from Germany? A. This action is not possible. B. Create a policy rule with destination being a custom dynamic object representing Germany and action block. You must also create a rule in the opposite direction. C. Create a country specific policy within IPS Geo Protections with Germany as the country, block as the action, and from and to country for direction. D. Go to Policy / Global Properties / Geographical Protection Enforcement and add Germany to the blocked countries list. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 610 In a particular IPS protection in R71 in the Logging Settings, what does the Capture Packets option do? "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 246
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. This is not a valid selection in R71 B. Attaches a packet capture of the traffic that matches this particular protection to each log that the protection generates. C. Starts a packet capture at the time of policy install to capture all of the traffic until this protection is hit. D. Collects all of the logs for packets that have matched this protection within the last 30 days Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 611 When deploying a dedicated DLP Gateway behind a perimeter firewall on an interface leading to the internal network (there is only one internal network): A. The DLP Gateway can inspect SMTP traffic if a MS Exchange server is located on the internal network, and it either sends e-mails directly to the Internet using SMTP or sends e-mails to the Internet in SMTP via a mail relay that is located on the perimeter's firewall DMZ network. B. The DLP Gateway can inspect internal e-mails (e-mails between two users on the internal network) if the organization's internal mail server is located in the internal network and users are configured to send e-mails to this mail server using SMTP. C. User's HTTPS and FTP traffic can be inspected by the R71 DLP Gateway. D. The DLP Gateway can inspect e-mails (e-mails between two users on an internal or external network) if the organization's internal mail server is located on another network (not the internal network; for instance the DMZ or a different internal network) and users are configured to send emails to this mail server using SMTP. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 612 For proper system operation, the Administrator has to configure the DLP Portal and define its DNS name for which of the following conditions? A. If the DLP Policy is applied to HTTP traffic. B. If there are one or more Inform Rules. C. If there are one or more Ask User rules. D. If the action of all rules is Detect and no Data Owners are configured. Answer: C "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 247
QUESTION NO: 613 In R71, My Organization e-mail addresses or domains are used for: A. Scanning e-mails only if its sender e-mail address is part of this definition, by default. B. Defining the e-mail address of the SMTP relay server. C. FTP traffic sent from a user where his e-mail is part of this definition scanned by DLP, by default. D. HTTP traffic sent from a user where his e-mail is part of this definition scanned by DLP, by default. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 614 Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding HTTPS traffic being passed through a DLP gateway? A. You must edit the $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf file in order for HTTPS traffic to be passed to your Web Proxy through a DLP gateway. B. HTTPS traffic is not scanned by DLP C. Only one proxy can be configured for DLP D. You must configure the DLP gateway to allow HTTP/HTTPS traffic through the proxy if you have a web proxy between the DLP gateway and the internet. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 615 In Company XYZ, the DLP Administrator defined a new template Data Type that is based on an empty PDF form for an insurance claim. Which of the following statements about this new data type are CORRECT? A. Only completed insurance claim forms of PDF file-type that were based on the empty PDF form "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 248
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam will be matched by this Data Type. B. If the empty PDF insurance claim form is sent, it will NOT be matched by this Data Type. C. Word, Excel, PDF filled in insurance claim forms that were based on the empty PDF insurance claim form will be matched by this Data Type. D. The Data Type will match only files where the name and file size is similar to that of the original insurance claim forms in PDF format. Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 616 Which DLP action would describe the following action: The data transmission event is logged in SmartView Tracker. Administrators with permission can view the data that was sent. The traffic is passed. A. Detect B. Ask User C. Inform User D. Prevent Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 617 All of the following are used by the DLP engine to match a message during a scan, EXCEPT: A. Message Body B. Protocol C. Data Type D. Destination Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 618 Which of the following components contains the Events Data Base? "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 249
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. SmartEvent DataServer B. SmartEvent Server C. SmartEvent Correlation Unit D. SmartEvent Client Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 619 What is a task of the SmartEvent Server? A. Assign a severity level to an event. B. Display the received events. C. Analyze each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server. D. Forward what is known as an event to the SmartEvent Server. Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 620 What is a task of the SmartEvent Client? A. Add events to the events database. B. Display the received events. C. Assign a severity level to an event. D. Analyze each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 621 Which of the following functions CANNOT be performed in ClientInfo on computer information collected? A. Copy the contents of the selected cells. "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 250
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam B. Save the information in the active tab to an .exe file. C. Enter new credential for accessing the computer information. D. Run Google.com search using the contents of the selected cell. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 622 What is the SmartEvent Analyzer's function? A. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns. B. Generate a threat analysis report from the Analyzer database. C. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy. D. Assign severity levels to events. Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 623 How many pre-defined exclusions are included by default in SmartEvent R71 as part of the product installation? A. 3 B. 0 C. 10 D. 5 Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 624 What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions included with SmartEvent R71? A. To give samples of how to write your own exclusion. B. To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition; a scenario that may "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 251
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam occur in deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R71. C. To allow SmartEvent R71 to function properly with all other R71 release devices. D. As a base for starting and building exclusions. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 625 You have selected the event Port Scan from Internal Network in SmartEvent, to detect an event when 30 port scans have occurred within 60 seconds. You also want to detect two port scans from a host within 10 seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this? A. Select the two port-scan detections as a sub-event. B. Define the two port-scan detections as an exception. C. You cannot set SmartEvent to detect two port scans from a host within 10 seconds of each other. D. Select the two port-scan detections as a new event. Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 626 What is the benefit to running SmartEvent in Learning Mode? A. To run SmartEvent, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup purposes B. There is no SmartEvent Learning Mode C. To run SmartEvent with preloaded sample data in a test environment D. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 627 To backup all events stored in the SmartEvent Server, you should back up the contents of which folder(s)?
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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam A. $FWDIR/distrib_db and $FWDIR/events B. $FWDIR/events_db C. $FWDIR/distrib and $FWDIR/events_db D. $FWDIR/distrib Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 628 Which of the following generates a SmartEvent Report from its SQL database? A. Security Management Server B. SmartEvent Client C. SmartReporter D. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 629 Which of the following statements about the Port Scanning feature of IPS is TRUE? A. The default scan detection is when more than 500 open inactive ports are open for a period of 120 seconds. B. The Port Scanning feature actively blocks the scanning, and sends an alert to SmartView Monitor. C. Port Scanning does not block scanning; it detects port scans with one of three levels of detection sensitivity. D. When a port scan is detected, only a log is issued, never an alert. Answer: C
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Checkpoint 156-315.

Check Point Security Expert R75

Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Topic 1, Volume A

Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam

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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D. Load Sharing - Multicast Answer: C Explanation:

Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. fw kernel D. fw ver -k Answer: B Explanation:

Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Answer: B Explanation:

Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam

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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam

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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Answer: B Explanation:

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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D)

A. Exhibit A B. Exhibit B C. Exhibit C D. Exhibit D Answer: B Explanation:

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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Answer: A Explanation:

Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Explanation:

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A. upgrade_export B. manual backup C. snapshot D. backup Answer: C Explanation:

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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Answer: C Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 45 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 18

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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Answer: A Explanation:

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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D. 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2 Answer: D Explanation:

Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Answer: B Explanation:

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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Answer: C Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 67 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 26

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QUESTION NO: 88 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 33

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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam

Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam

Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Answer: D Explanation:

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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Answer: D Explanation:

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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D. Cn= jane_doe,ou=MIS,cn=acme,cn=corp,dc=com Answer: C Explanation:

A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: B Explanation:

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"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com

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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam C. fwm D. vpnd Answer: A Explanation:

Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam D. It is not supported on a VLAN tag Answer: C Explanation:

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Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Answer: A Explanation:

Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Answer: D Explanation:

Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam

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