1

1. Absolute indication for Open Reduction in Condylar Fractures is A. Medical dislocation of condyle B. C. Deviated Condyle Undisplaced Condyle 9. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) has set a threshold limit value as the maximum amount of mercury vapor allowed in a work place. This value is 2. Choose the correct nerve-pharyngeal arch pair A. 2nd arch-mandibular nerve B. C. 4 arch oculomotor nerve
th

C.

Mesiobuccal

D. Distolingual

D. Lateral fracture dislocation condyle

A. 0.05mg/m3 B. C. 0.5mg/m3 1.5mg/m3

3 arch=glosso-pharyngeal nerve
rd

D. 4mg/m3 10. Acquired, symmetric hyper pigmentation of the sun

D. 1st arch-facial nerve 3. Anaphylaxis refers to A. The severe reaction followings re-injection of protein solutions in a sensitized animal B. C. The severe reaction followings primary injection of protein solutions The state of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance D. The severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens 4. Infection with Helicobacter pylori is associated with A. Acute gastritis B. C. Chronic gastritis Eosinophilic gastritis 11. The suckling reflex and infantile swallow normally disappear by the A. First year B. C. Second year Sixth year exposed skin of the face & neck which is strongly associated with pregnancy & use of oral contraceptives is called as A. Melanoma B. C. Caf-au-lait spots Freckle

D. Melasma

D. Eight year 12. Id, ego and super ego are part of

D. Recurrent esophagitis 5. The most important factor associated with causation of head and neck carcinomas is A. Intravenous drug abuse B. C. Exposure to nickel History of syphilis 13. The number of fibroblasts in the periodontal ligament ------------with age 6. Which of the following is a step in case control study? A. Matching B. C. Selection Follow-up A. Increases B. C. Decreases Remains same A. Piagets theory B. C. Freuds psychoanalytical theory Stone and Churchils theory

D. Ericksons theory

D. Tobacco use

D. May increase or decrease 14. Most common lesion in Mucous membrane pemphigoid

D. Analysis 7. The primary principle of treating endodontic periapical lesions is A. To eradicate irritants in the root canal system B. C. To reduce the inflammation in the periapex To maintain the health of the periodontium is A. Esophageal ulcer B. C. Symblepharon Ulcer of soft palate

D. Desquammative gingivitis 15. Incipient caries consists of opaque, chalky white areas

D. To relieve the symptoms 8. The fourth canal in maxillary first molar is commonly located in A. Distobuccal B. Palatal that appear when the tooth surface is dried, this is referred as A. White spot B. Hot spot

2
C. Translucent zone B. C. 24cm2 and 14cm2 14mm2 and 24mm2

D. Body of lesion 16. Which of the following is not a salivary antibacterial substance A. Amylase B. C. Lactoperoxidase Laysozyme

D. 24mm2 and 14mm2 24. Which one of the following is NOT a lichenoid reaction? A. Graft versus Host disease B. C. Fixed drug eruption Pemphigus vulgaris

D. Lactoferrin 17. The most likely cause of fluctuating jaundice in a middle aged or elderly man is A. Periampullary carcinoma B. C. Liver fluke Choledochal cyst

D. Secondary syphilis 25. Dentoalveolar ablations are caused by A. Decalcification by acid beverages B. C. Mechanical wear Forceful frictional actions between oral soft tissues & adjacent hard tissues D. Occlusal wear from functional contacts of opposing teeth

D. Carcinoma of head of pancreas 18. Which of the following diagnostic techniques is most specific for pulmonary embolism? A. Pulmonary angiography B. C. Ventilation lung scanning Perfusion lung scanning

26. Frequent periodontal abscesses appear to be an important periodontal feature in A. Nutritional deficiency B. C. Diabetes Mellitus Hormonal imbalance

D. Arterial blood gas analysis 19. A full course of immunization against, Tetanus with 3 doses of Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years? A. 5 B. C. 10 15

D. Cardiovascular diseases 27. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not recommended in A. Making of impressions B. C. Dental extraction Replantation of a tooth

D. Gingivectomy 28. Center of resistance for maxilla

D. 20 20. Malignant ulcer is differentiated from benign by A. Heaping up of margins B. C. Fibrous scars radiationg from crater Induration of base C. B. A. Posterosuperior aspect of the zygomaticomaxillary suture Posteroiferior suture Anterosuperior aspect of the zygomaticomaxillary suture 21. Direct Coombs test is positive for A. IgA B. C. IgE IgM 29. The explosive and widespread form of secondary syphilis in immune compromised individual is known as A. Condylomata lata 22. Treatment for recurrent ranula is A. Incision B. C. Excision Excision with adjacent glands 30. The external carotid artery divides at the level of A. Angle of mandible 23. The mean denture bearing area of edentulous mandible and maxilla respectively is A. 14cm2 and 24cm2 B. C. Neck of mandible Oblique line of thyroid cartilage B. C. Mucouos patches Lues maligna D. Anteroinferior aspect of the zygomaticomaxillary suture aspect of the zygomaticomaxillary

D. Clean base

D. IgG

D. Lupus vulgaris

D. Marsupializatio

D. Lower border of cricoid cartilage

3
B. 31. The absorption of dietary triglycerides from the gut is mainly as A. Triglycerides B. C. Mono acyl glycerol Di acyl glycerol 39. Cartilage differs from bone in that, the cartilage can increase in size by A. Apposition B. 32. The most frequent non sporing anaerobic bacilli isolatead from clinical specimens is A. Bacteroides fragilis B. C. Clostridium tetani Prevotella melaninogenica 40. Downs syndrome is characterized by A. Low incidence of periodontal disease and low incidence of caries B. 33. The most common benign tumor of the lung is A. Hamartoma B. C. Alveolar adenoma Teratoma C. High incidence of caries and high incidence of periodontal disease Low incidence of caries and high incidence of periodontal disease D. High incidence of caries and low incidence of periodontal disease 41. A patient who complains of constant radiating gnawing pain intensified by eating spicy or hot foods, metallic foul taste & has excessive amount of pasty salilva, lesions are extremely sensitivity to touch could be A. Chronic gingivitis B. C. Chronic periodontitis Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis C. Interstitial growth Selective resorption C. Ceramic Nickel

D. Plastic

D. Fatty acids and glycerol

D. Endosteal remodeling

D. Fuscobacterium nucleatum

D. Fibroma 34. The meeting of accumulate dental need at the time a population group is taken into the program and the detection and correction of new increments of dental disease on a semiannual/other periods basis is A. Incremental Dental Care B. C. Comprehensive Dental Care Total Dental Care

D. Preventive Dental Care 35. The recommended rubber dam to provide effective retraction of gingival tissue is A. Thin B. C. Extra heavy Heavy

D. Herpetic Gingivostomatitis 42. Oral hairy leucoplakia is implicated with A. Entero viruses B. C. Epstein-Barr virus Hepatitis A virus

D. Coxsackie virus A4 43. Advocated apical seal for dowel core is

D. Medium 36. Cells occurring in greatest number in pulp are A. Cementoblasts B. C. Fibroblasts Osteoblasts A. 2 mm B. C. 5 mm 8 mm

D. 10 mm 44. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy is given in the treatment of

D. Ameloblasts 37. The monophase elastomeric material can be used as both tray and syringe material because it has A. A long setting time B. C. It is economical Pseudo plastic properties Osteomyelitis of Jaw A. 100% Oxygen at 2.4 Atm pressure B. C. 95% Oxygen at 2.0 Atm pressure 100% Oxygen at 2 Atm pressure

D. 95% Oxygen at 2.4Atm pressure 45. Epinephrine should NOT be combined with one fo the

D. Better recording of tissues 38. Which of the following material used in orthodontics, commonly causes sensitivity A. Steel following local anesthetic A. Cocaine B. Lignocaine

4
C. Procaine A. 1-8mm B. C. 46. Ethical principles that requires health professionals to fully inform their patients and protect their 54. SUN RAY or SUN BURST radiographic pattern is seen is A. Osteogenic Sarcoma B. C. Osteogenic Carcinoma Ameloblastoma confidentiality is the principle of A. Justice B. C. Autonomy Veracity 4-6mm 5-8mm

D. Mepivacaine

D. 2-4mm

D. Beneficence 47. Major drawback of porcelain is A. High compressive strength B. C. Brittleness Transuluscency

D. Fibrous Dysplasia 55. Absorbable Suture is A. Cat Gut B. C. Nylon Silk

D. Hardness 48. Instrument used for lateral condensation of gutta perch along the canal wall A. Barbed broach B. C. Plugger Reamer

D. Linen 56. Overall optimum degree of taper of tooth preparation for maxillary anterior tooth is A. 6 B. C. 10 14

D. Spreader 49. Test tube retepegs are seen in the microscopic sections of A. ANUG B. C. Inflammatory gingival hyperplasia Gingival enlargement due to Dilantin sodium

D. 19 57. Glucose concentration in Gingival Crevicular Fluid is A. 2-3 times greater than in serum B. C. 2-3 times lesser than in serum 10 times greater than in serum

D. Plasma cell gingivitis 50. Typically rapid palatal expansion is done with a jack screw that is activated at the rate of A. 1.0 to 2.0 mm/week B. C. 1.0 to 2.0 mm/day 0.5 to 1.0 mm/week

D. 10 times lesser than in serum 58. In children below age of 8 yrs, high level of cranio-facial disjunction of Lefort III classification is rarely seen because A. Children in that age group really get affected by such traumatic incidence B. C. Facial skeleton is covered with thick soft tissue There is lack of poorly developed ethmoidal & sphenoidal sinus D. The line of demarcation between medullary & cortical bone is less evident 59. To minimize the effects of diffusion hypoxia during N2O-O2 analgesia, the patient should be oxygenated for A. 30 seconds to 1 minute B. C. 3 to 5 minutes 10 to 30 minutes

D. 0.5 to 1.0 mm/day 51. Genetic factors, Age, Gender & Socioeconomic status are also known as A. Risk indicators B. C. Risk Determinants Risk Markers

D. Risk Factors 52. A radiographic film too dark and fogged could be because of A. Increased Exposure time B. C. Thin patient tissues Poor film storage

D. 30 to 45 minutes 60. Cricothyroidotomy is contraindicated in A. Age below 5 yrs B. Age between 15-20 yrs Age between 20-30 yrs C.

D. High developer concentration 53. Adequate interocclusal rest space required for the comfort of the patient and health of the tissues is

D. Age between 30-40

5
C. 61. The ideal crown height space needed for a fixed implant prosthesis should range between A. 4-6mm B. C. 6-8mm 8-12mm 69. The hormone inhibiting both resorption and formation of bone A. Estrogen B. C. 62. Sailography of normal salivary glands reveal the ductal architecture as having an appearance of A. Sausage string B. C. Fruitladen tree Leaf less tree 70. Which of the following is generally the longest root canal on the maxillary first molar? A. Mesiobuccal B. C. 63. Drug of choice in the treatment of localized form of Juvenile Periodontitis is A. Metronidazole B. C. Penicillins Tetracyclines 71. Periodontal tissue destruction apically and potentially migrating towards the Gingival margin is called A. Marginal periodontitis B. C. 64. Agent responsible for increasing factor VIII activity in hemophilia is A. Epsilon amino caproic acid B. C. Tranexamic acid Avitene 72. A data collected for specific purpose and used for the same purpose is A. Original data B. C. 65. The abnormalities of tooth morphology in cleft lip and palate patients are mostly observed in primary and permanent A. Mandibular molars B. C. Maxillary incisors Maxillary molars 73. The commonest site for impaction of foreign body in the Gastero Intestinal Tract is A. Ileocaecal junction B. C. Pyriform fossa Pyloric sphincter Primary data Secondary data Marginal Gingivitis Retrograde Periodontitis Distobuccal Palatal Vitamin D Glucocorticoids Alginate

D. Impression paste

D. 15-16mm

D. Parathormone

D. Ball in hand

D. Distolingual

D. Clindamycin

D. Chronic destructive periodontitis

D. Deamino D Arginine vasopressin

D. Specific data

D. Mandibular incisors 66. Which of the following is not a bilateral landmark on cephalogram A. Gonion B. C. Condylion Gnathion

D. Cricopharynx 74. Among the following which one is considered as pathologic orthodontics A. Tendency of lower jaw & teeth to be behind upper B. C. 67. Antibiotic stomatitis is the other name for A. Acute atrophic Candidiasis B. C. Chronic atrophic Candidiasis Chronic hyperplastic Candidiasis 75. In hypodontia, the most commonly affected tooth is A. Permanent third molar B. C. 68. An example of rigid reversible impression material is A. Agar-agar B. Impression compound 76. The best bio-compatible dental casting alloy is Permanent second premolar Permanent lateral incisor Deep Overbite Minimal attached gingival in lower anterior problem, when planning treatment in

D. Porion

D. Decalcification

D. Acute pseudomembranous Candidiasis

D. Permanent Canine

6
A. Co-Cr B. C. Ni-Cr Titanium alloy 84. The unalloyed form of titanium used to form dental implants is in the A. Beta form B. C. 77. Instruments used for removal of lingual shoulder and enlarge orifices of a root canal are A. Gates Glidden drills B. C. Peeso reamers Compactor 85. The shcilling test is used for detecting A. Presence of intrinsic factor B. C. Deficiency of riboflavin Excreation of Folic acid Alpha form Gamma form

D. Gold

D. Delta form

D. H file 78. A two-way process of exchanging or shaping ideas, feelings and information is called as A. Education B. C. Communication Interview

D. Capillary fragility 86. In a preadolescent child the maximum midline diastema that will be closed spontaneously after canine eruption A. 1mm B. C. 2mm 4mm

D. Suggestion 79. Heparin therapy is best monitored by which of the following given test? A. Prothombin time B. C. Bleeding time Activated partial Thromboplastin Time

D. 5mm 87. Cyclic neutropenia is an autosomal dominant condition in which the individuals are at a risk for opportunistric infection at intervals of A. 25 days B. C. 80. The presence of Heinz bodies in erythrocytes indicates A. Malarial infection B. C. Haemoglobin abnormalities Oxidative stress 88. One of the following is used for root bio-modification A. Metronidazole B. C. 81. Which one of the following is seen in facial palsy A. Drooping of eyelid B. C. Loss of taste sensation in anterior 2/3 of tongue Excess of saliva secretion 89. The principal consideration in cases of surgical obturators during initial healing period is to gain maximum A. Esthetics B. 82. The objective of the access cavity preparation is to gain direct access to A. Pulp chamber B. C. Canal orifice Apical foramen 90. The Maximum Lidocaine dose with Vasoconstrictor A. 49 mg/kg B. C. 83. According to FDI tooth numbering system the number 45 refers to A. Deciduous mandibular right second molar B. C. Madibular right second premolar Maxillary right second premolar 91. The amino acid which undergoes most significant hepataic oxidative deamination which is used for urea synthesis is A. Glutamine B. C. Glutamate Aspartate 7mg/kg 3.6mg/kg C. Phonetics Accuracy in fit of the defect Ciprofloxacin Pencillin 21 days 45 days

D. International Normalised Ratio

D. 31 days

D. Degraded bacterial forms

D. Tetracycline

D. Loss of general sensation in check

D. Stabilization

D. Middle third of the canal

D. 7.4 mg/kg

D. Deciduous maxillary right second molar

7
D. Arginine 92. Which one of them is not a Measure of Dispersion A. Range B. C. Mean Deviation Standard Deviation D. Pus cells 100. Perel pontic is A. Ovate B. C. Conical Hygienic

D. Mean 93. At what age does calcification of the primary dentition begin? A. 6-10 weeks in utero B. C. 13-16 weeks in utero 22-26 weeks in utero

D. Modified sanitary 101. Long acting local anesthetic agent A. Lidocaine B. C. Prilocaine Bupivacine

D. Procaine 102. PERICISION is the sectioning of the

D. 30-34 weeks in utero 94. The term Localized acute Alveolar Osteomyelitis is also used to describe A. Dry Socket B. C. Garres Osteomyelitis Sclerotic cemental masses 103. All of the following are true about H-files EXCEPT A. They have good cutting efficiency 95. Primary tumours of the posterior third of the tongue are best treated by A. Radium implants B. C. External beam radiotherapy Surgery 104. Which among the following antibiotics should be avoided in pregnancy? A. Erythromycin 96. Tram line is seen in A. CSF Ottorhoea B. C. CSF Rhinorrhoea Condylar fracture of mandible 105. Most commonly used treponemal test in diagnosis of syphilis is 97. The encircled number in the given instrument formula represents 10-80-6-12 A. Width of the blade B. C. Length of the blade Angulation of the blade to the long axis A. TPI (Treponema pallidum immobilization) B. C. TPIA (Treponema pallidum immune adherence) TPHA(Treponema palliclum Haemagglutination) test) 106. Which one of the following is a DNA virus 98. The control for mastication is normally excercised by A. Pontine centres B. C. Sub cortical centres Cerebellar centres A. Hepatitis A virus B. C. Hepatitis B virus Hepatitis C virus B. C. Tetracycline Cephalexin B. C. They are fragile and tend to break easily They are used in torquing action A. Transeptal gingival fibers B. C. Horizontal fibers Oblique fibers

D. Apical fibers

D. Florid osseous dysplasia

D. They have more positive rake angle

D. Chemotherapy

D. Amoxicillin

D. Infra orbital rim fracture

D. FTA ABS (Fluroescent treponemal antibody absorption

D. Angulation of the cutting edge of blade to the long axis

D. Hepatitis D virus 107. Glucose transporters present in the cells of the Islets of

D. Medulla centres 99. Inflammation of the preiapical tissue is sustained by which of the following A. Stagnant tissue fluid B. C. Necrotic tissue Microorganisms Langherhans is A. GLUT1 B. C. GLUT2 GLUT3

D. GLUT4

8
D. Rapid maxillary expansion 108. Ludwigs angina is caused due to pus collection in A. Submandibular region B. C. Parotid region Cardiac muscle 116. Which of the following showsInverted pear shaped radiolucency in Radiographs? A. Globulomaxillary cyst B. C. 109. Best treatment for large cyst involving vital structures A. Enucleation with primary closure B. C. Enucleation followed by chemical cauterization Marsupialization followed by enucleation 117. Which of the following is likely to have bifurcated roots? A. Mandibular canine B. C. 110. Which of the following are stress bearing areas? A. Buccal shelf area, incisive papilla and palatine rugae B. C. Slopes of residual ridge, palatine rugae and 118. The following condition is associated with brown skin pigmentation, hypoplasia of kidney and spleen,absent or hypoplastic thumb or radius, microcephaly and mental and sexual retardation A. Aplastic anemia B. C. 111. In Anterior mandibular occlusal projection, the central xray beam enters the patients face through the A. Tip of the chin B. C. Tip of the nose Floor of the mouth 119. The Hinge axis is an imaginary line passing through or near the A. Center of the external auditory meatus B. C. 112. Most common cause of clicking A. Disc displacement with reduction B. C. Disc displacement without reduction Hypermobility 120. Gow-Gates L.A. Block refers to A. Mandibular Block B. C. 113. Gingival enlargement is associated with A. Anemia B. C. Hyperpigmentation Leukemia 121. The plasma coating of a Titanium Dental Implant (TPS) is done to A. To increase its acceptance in bone B. 114. The least favourable form of attempted repair of the root fracture is A. Healing with calcified tissue B. C. Healing with interposition of connective tissue Interposition of bone and connective tissue 122. Narrow, high arched palate, prolonged retention of deciduous teeth and failure in the eruption of permanent teeth is a characteristic feature of A. Pagets disease 115. Which of the following orthodontic appliance allows passive expansion? A. Transpalatal arch B. C. Quad helix Frankel B. C. Cherubism Cleidocranial dysplasia C. To make the implant Biocompatible To avoid contamination of the Implant Posterior Superior Alveolar Block Infra Orbital Block The coronoid process Center of the condylar fossae Pernicious anemia Sickle cell anemia midpalatine raphe Incisive papilla, slope of the residual ridge and crest of the residual ridge D. Slope of residual ridge, buccal shelf area and hard palate Maxillary canine Mandibular incisor Stafne cyst Median palatine cyst

D. Nasal cavity

D. Lateral periodontal cyst

D. Marsupialization

D. Maxillary incisor

D. Megaloblastic anemia

D. Below the chin

D. The center of the condyle

D. Loose articular bodies

D. Auriculo Temporal Block

D. Hyperthyroidism

D. To improve implant anchorage power in bone

D. Interposition of granulation tissue

D. Osteogenesis imperfect

9
123. When the dental plaque is allowed to accumulate in the absence of any plaque control procedures, it results in gingivitis within A. 1 to 3 days B. C. 7 to 21 days 2 months to 3 months 131. Microscopic examination of a pus sample shows a filamentous organism which is Acid fast with 1% sulphuric acid. Which of the following organisms could it be? A. Actinomyces Israeli 124. Negative space with respect to buccal corridors is an indication for A. Intrusion of maxilla B. C. Distalization of molar Expansion of arches 132. The first plasma protein to be generated after severe protein deficiency is A. Albumin 125. Most commonly occurring neoplasm in AIDS patients is A. Fibrosarcoma B. C. Verrucous carcinoma Kaposis sarcoma 133. Which color of articulating paper is used for diagnosis of premature contacts in eccentric relations 126. Type of cementum located in the furcation areas of multirooted teeth is A. Cellular Extrinsic fiber Cementum B. C. Cellular Intrinsic fiber Cementum Cellular Mixed Stratified Cementum 134. Number of developmental lobes in human permanent anterior teeth 127. Which of the following material SHOULD NOT be used as liner or base under composite restorations A. Resin modified Glass Ionomers B. C. Flowable composite Zinc Oxide Eugenol 135. Dentinal sensitivity is attributed for A. Neural stimulation of dentinal tubules 128. According to the American Dental Association, B. C. Craze lines in dentin Dentinoenamel junction dentinal tubules 136. DOTS is a community based treatment and care strategy for A. Filaria 129. Indicator of viral replication in Hepatitis B infection is A. HbsAg B. C. HbeAg IgM anti HBc 137. Texas Statewide Preventive Dentistry program is also known as 130. Combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim is synergistic due to A. Enhanced entry into bacteria B. Sequential blockade in folate metabolism A. Sharp program B. C. Tattle tooth program Smile train program B. C. Leprosy Tuberculosis examining the oral cavity by tongue depressor and available illumination is A. Type-I examination B. C. Type-II examination Type-III examination A. 1 B. C. 2 3 A. Green B. C. Blue Red B. C. Globulin Fibrinogen B. C. Nocardia brasiliensis Streptomyces somaliensis C. Inhibition of drug inactivating enzymes

D. Inhibition of drug efflux

D. 24 hours to 48 hours

D. Blastomyces dermatitidis

D. Construction of arches

D. Thrombin

D. Angiosarcoma

D. Pink

D. Acellular Intrinsic fiber Cementum

D. 4

D. Compomer

D. Pain transmission through movements of fluid in

D. Type-IV examination

D. Malaria

D. Anti Hbe

D. Theta program

10
B. 138. Thrombocytopenia due to increased platelet destruction is seen in A. Aplastic anemia B. C. Cancer chemotherapy Acute leukemia 146. The reservoir of protozoal infection caused by toxoplasma gondii in children is usually A. Cats B. 139. Which of the following is associated with defective apoptosis and increased cell survival A. Neuro degenerative diseases B. C. Auto immune disorders Myocardial infarction 147. The predominant immunoglobulin found in GCF A. IgG B. C. 140. Local anesthetics block nerve conduction by A. Depolarsising the nerve membrane reducing threshold potential B. C. Decreasing the membrane permeability to Na+ ions there by stabilizing nerve membrane Increasing the membrane permeability to K+ ions and thereby depolarizing nerve membrane D. None of the above 149. While making impression of flabby fibrous tissues on 141. The most common variety of soft tissue sarcoma is A. Rhabdomyosarcoma B. C. Liposarcoma Malignant fibrous histiocytoma maxillary ridge for complete denture prosthesis, care is taken to A. Use mucostatic impression technique B. C. Use selective pressure technique of impression making Use a close fitting tray 148. When the time of exposure is doubled A. The number of photons generated is doubled B. C. The energy of photons generated is doubled The velocity of photons is doubled IgA IgM C. Sheep Dogs C. Peripical cemental dysplasia Myxo fibroma

D. Peripheral ossifying firbroma

D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

D. Rats

D. Stroke

D. IgE

D. The mass of photons is doubled

D. Synovial sarcoma 142. A Dental professional may be criminally liable if he/she commits tort A. Accidentally B. C. Contributory Intentionally

D. Follow normal procedures 150. Clinician should avoid using cow-horn extraction of primary molars because A. It has poor grip due to peculiar morphology of primary molars B. C. 143. The sigmoid notch is also commonly called as A. Coronoid notch B. C. Condylar notch Rami notch A 70- year old male complains of ulceration on lower lip since 1 month. Patient has history of tobacco chewing since 30 years 144. The surface of ceramic restoration can be etched by A. Phosphoric acid B. C. Hydrochloric acid Pumice 151. A reliable clinical condition to consider for the diagnosis as malignancy is A. An ulcerative lesion 145. Which of the following lesion is often multiple & are distinguished from periapical abcess by their association with vital teeth A. Hyper cementosis B. C. An ulcerative and painful lesion Ulceration and fixation of the lymph node 6-7 times per day. Patient also complains of loss of weight since 2 months and change in voice since one month. It cause damage to gingival tissues It poses great possibility of injury to the crypt of the permanent tooth D. Greater chances of splitting the concerned tooth while extracting forcep for

D. Unintentionally

D. Pterygoid notch

D. Acidulated phosphate fluoride

D. Bilateral involvement of lymph node

11
152. In this condition the lymph node enlargement may be due to A. Infection of the malignant lesion B. C. Reactive hyperplasia secondary to infection Infiltration of lymph node by bacteria or virus 159. When they consulted a dentist for a decayed tooth, he advised for checking of prothrombin time (PT) and plasma thromboplastin time (PTT), which would be as follows A. PT is normal, PTT is normal B. 153. The patient is complaining of change in voice, which nerve could be affected? A. Recurrent laryngeal B. C. Internal laryngeal External laryngeal A lady in the second trimester underwent a hemogram and her hemoglobin was found to be 6mg%. the gynaecologist suggested for IV transfusion of packed red cells to improve the level A 16 year old female patient reported with chief complaint of small ulcers on the cheek and tongue since one week. Mild rise tin temperature was noted on general examination. On oral examination, multiple ulcers were noted on the buccal and labial mucosa. She also reported that she is having her board exams in a week. 154. The likely diagnosis is A. Bullous pemphigoid B. C. Minor aphthous ulcers Traumatic ulcer 161. The most common oral change due to nutritional anemia is A. Enlarged tongue B. C. 155. The probable etiology is A. Emotional disturbances B. C. Vitamin deficiency Hormonal disturbances 162. Anaemia can manifest as all of the following except A. Headache B. C. 156. The management of such a case would be A. Antibiotics and analgesics B. C. Symptomatic treatment, topical steroids and relaxation Anti-fungal medications 48 year old male reported with the chief complaint of ulcer on the gums and on general examination headache, fever and malaise was observed. On oral examination, sharply punched out crater-like erosions of the interdental papillae of sudden The parents of an 8-yr old boy complained of frequent severe bleeding on minor trauma 163. Diagnosis is 157. The patient could be suffering from A. Hemophilila A B. C. Anaemia Attention deficit hyperactive disorder A. ANUG B. C. Pericornoitis Chediak Higashi disease onset were noted. The patient also complained of bad breath. Vertigo Delirium Atrophic glossitis Generalized osteolysis 160. How much of iron is absorbed by transfusion of 2 units of packed red cells? A. 2gm B. C. 2mg 1gm C. PT is prolonged, PTT is prolonged PT is normal, PTT is prolonged

D. Infiltration of lymph node by tumor cell

D. PT is prolonged, PTT is normal

D. Superficial laryngeal

D. 500mg

D. Tuberculoid ulcer

D. Focal marrow expansion

D. Any of the above

D. Tinnitus

D. Systemic steroids

D. Desquamative gingivitis 164. In the first visit, this patient should be treated with

D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation 158. His blood picture will show A. Bleeding time is prolonged, clotting time is normal B. C. Bleeding time is normal, clotting time is normal Bleeding time is normal, clotting time is prolonged A. Antifungal drugs B. C. Deep scaling and root planning Superficial scaling, debriment, chlorhexidine mouth wash D. Mucogingival surgery

D. None

12
C. 165. This patients lower anterior marginal gingival showed comma-shapped defect called A. Stillmans cleft B. C. Dehiscence Fenestration 60 yr old diabetic female presented with burning sensation to spicy food. Intra oral examination revealed multiple periodontal absoess and keratotic area in a lace pattern with occasional erosive areas inside the lace pattern 172. Provisional diagnosis for this lady will be A. Oral hairy leukoplakia B. C. Oral lichen planus Oral squamous cell carcinoma Hepatitis B

D. Polio

D. Cul-de-sac A 3-yr old child was brought to a physician, his mother was complaining of cranky child who does not eat well and does not sleep well too. On general examination, his teeth were severely decayed and had signs of malnutrition. The doctor referred him to a pedodontist 166. What did the dentist suspect? A. Early childhood caries B. C. Radiation caries Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

D. Oral permphigus 173. Syndrome associated with this disease is A. Downs syndrome B. C. Greenspan syndrome Peutz jeghers syndrome

D. PFAPA syndrome 167. In the first appointment, the dentist will A. Start the endodontic treatment of the grossly decayed teeth B. C. Examine the teeth and take radiographs Extract the root pieces

D. Sjogrens syndrome 174. Histological feature will be A. Elongated rete ridges B. C. Flattened rete ridges Saw tooth rete ridges

D. Bulbous rete ridges A 32 year old male patient complains of swelling in left

D. Start the restoration of decayed teeth 168. Which among these is not the etiology of this condition? A. Bed-time breast feeding B. C. Honey coated pacifiers Frequent medication maxillary region with heaviness in the maxillary sinus following tooth extraction of maxillary first molar. Patient gives a history of tooth extraction one week before with transalveolar type of extraction 175. Considering the heaviness in the operated site of the 8 year old presented with swelling on both sides of the face, below the ears of 4 days duration it first started on the left side and then 3 days later on the right side 169. Possible diagnosis will be A. Bacterial sialadenitis B. C. Sialadenosis Epidemic parotitis 176. The average mucociliary air flow transport in the maxillary sinus is A. 5 to 20 mm per min B. 170. Cause for the disease will be A. Herpes simplex virus B. C. Cytomegalo virus Paramyxo virus 177. The most common microbial population found in a infected maxillary sinus are A. Poly microbial with anaerobic organism 171. Immunization to this disease can be achieved by the following vaccination A. MMR B. BCG B. C. Aerobic organisms Fungal C. 5 to 20 cm per min 5 to 20 km per min maxillary region the use of Mucolytics helps in A. Reducing the stasis of mucus B. C. Reduces the growth of gram negative bacteria Brings about aeration in the maxillary sinus

D. Viral infection

D. All of the above

D. Sialadenitis

D. 5 to 20 dm per min

D. Hepatitis c virus

D. Viral

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You have injected local anaesthesia for a patient for extraction of lower molar using classical inferior alveolar nerve black 178. Which space has the highest chance of infection with this block? A. Lateral pharyngeal space B. C. Pterygomandibular space Para pharyngeal space 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 180. If the patient is asthmatic what precautions can you take from the following? A. L.A with adrenaline B. C. L.A without adrenaline Should not do the procedure 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. SL No. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. Ans D C A B D A A C A D A B B D A A 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. A C B B A A B C B C C B C C B B A A B B D C D C A C C B A 17. 18. 19. 20. A A B A

D. Pretracheal space 179. If patient develops postoperatively trismus the probable cause may be A. Injury to the inferior alveolar nerve B. C. Toxicity of the LA solution Injury to the lateral pterygoid muscle

D. All of the above

D. Use steroids before the procedure

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50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. D B C D A A B A C B A C C C D B C A B C C C B D C A C A B C C B C 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. B B A B B D D B B D B A B B D B C D C A C B C B B A C D A A C D C

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116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. A A A D A D C B C C C C D B B B C B D D C B D B B C C A D B A A A 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180. A C C D A B D B A C D D B C A C A A B D C C A B B C D A A B C D