B.mat FST V Main Qns

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IIT/BMAT5/PMC(MAIN) - 1
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BRILLIANTS
FULL SYLLABUS TEST 5
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS SS S
JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2013

Time: 3 hours Maximum marks: 360
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

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PHYSICS MATHEMATICS CHEMISTRY
1. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
2. There are three parts in the questions paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics and
Chemistry having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted
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in the answer sheet.
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JEE 2013
BMAT 5 (MAIN)
Feb 2013

2
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/BMAT5/PMC(MAIN) - 2
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
1. A glass wind screen whose inclination
with the vertical is is mounted on a
car. The car moves horizontally with a
speed of 2 m/sec. What is the angle
when rain drops falling vertically
downwards with velocity 6 m/sec, strikes
the wind screen perpendicularly?
(1)

1
1
tan
3
(2) ( )
1
tan 3
(3) ( )
1
cos 3 (4)

1
1
sin
3

2. The ratio of maximum kinetic energies of
two particles of the same mass is 4:1. The
ratio of the maximum height attained by
them is also 4:1. The ratio of their ranges
would be
(1) 16:1 (2) 4:1
(3) 8:1 (4) 2:1
3. An organ pipe is closed suddenly with
the result that the second overtone of
the closed pipe is found to be higher in
frequency by 100 than the first overtone
of the original pipe. The fundamental
frequency of the open pipe is
(1)
1
200 s (2)
1
100 s
(3)
1
300 s (4)
1
250 s
4. Consider a parallelogram ABCD with an
angle
o
= B 120 . A charge + Q is placed
at the corner of A producing a field E,
and potential V at corner D. If we should
add charges -2Q and +Q at the corners
of B and C respectively, the magnitude
of the field and potential at D will
become respectively

(1) E and 0 (2) 0 and V
(3)
V
E 2 and
2
(4)
E V
and
2 2

5. A particle of mass m begins to slide
down a fixed smooth sphere from the
top. The tangential acceleration when it
breaks off the sphere is
(1) 2g / 3 (2) g 5/ 3
(3) g (4) g / 3
PART A: PHYSICS
3
6. A particle of mass m is projected with a
velocity v making on angle of
45 with
the horizontal. The magnitude of the
angular momentum of the projectile
about the point of projection when the
particle is at its maximum height h is
(1) Zero (2)
2
mv
2g

(3)
2
mv
4 2g
(4)
3
m 2gh
7. A 10 kg satellite circles the earth once in
2 h in an orbit having a radius of
8000 km. Assuming that the Bohrs
angular momentum postulate applies to
the satellite just as it does to an electron
in the hydrogen atom, find the quantum
number of the orbit of the satellite.
(1)
45
5.3 10 (2)
43
4.8 10
(3)
44
5.7 10 (4)
44
4.2 10
8. Monochromatic light of frequency
14
6 10 Hz is produced by a laser. The
power emitted is
3
2.0 10 W. How
many photons per second on an
average are emitted by the source?
(1)
15
4.12 10 (2)
15
5.0 10
(3)
17
3.95 10 (4)
16
3.82 10
9. Ultraviolet light of wavelength 2271
from 100 W mercury source irradiates
photo cell made up of molybdenum
metal. If the stopping potential is
1.3 V , the value of work function of
the metal is
(1) 6.2 eV (2) 3.98 eV
(3) 4.2 eV (4) 5.1eV
10. A current of 1 ampere flows in a circular
arc of wire which subtends an angle of

3
2
radians at the centre whose
radius is R. The magnetic induction at
the centre will be
=
3
2

(1)
0
I
R
(2)
0
I
2R
(3)
0
2 I
R
(4)
0
I
8R

4
11. In a series resonant circuit (LCR) the
voltage across = R 100V and = R 1k
with = C 2 C . The resonant frequency
is
1
200 rad s . At resonance the
voltage across L is
(1)
3
4 10 V (2)

2
2.5 10 V
(3) 40 V (4) 250 V
12. A conducting ring of radius 1m is
placed in a uniform magnetic field B of
0.01 T oscillating with a frequency
100 Hz with its plane at right angles to B.
The induced electric field will be
(1)
1
Vm (2)
1
0.5 Vm
(3)
1
10 Vm (4)
1
62 Vm
13. Charges +2q, +q and +q are placed at
the corners of A B, C of an equilateral
triangle ABC. If E is the electric field at
the circumcentre O of the triangle, due
to the charge +q, then the magnitude
and direction of the resultant electric
filed at O is
(1) E along AO (2)2E along AO
(3) E along BO (4) E along CO
14. A galvanometer of resistance 20
shows a deflection of 10 divisions when
a current of 1 m A is passed through it. If
a shunt of 4 is connected and there
are 50 divisions on the scale, the range
of the galvanometer can be
(1) 13 A (2) 20 mA
(3) 30 mA (4) 10 mA
15. A particle executes S. H. M with a time
period of 16s. At time t = 2s., the particle
crosses the mean position, while at t = 4s
its velocity is
1
4ms . The amplitude of its
motion in metre is
(1) 2 (2) 16 2
(3)
2
32 (4)
24 2

16. A carnot engine with sink temperature
at 17C has 50%. efficiency. How much
is the source temperature to be
changed to increase its efficiency by
60%?
(1) 145 K (2) 510 K (3) 220 K (4) 420 K
5
17. n photons of wavelength are absor-
bed by a black body of mass m. The
momentum gained by the body is
(1)
n
(2)
mnh
(3)
nh
m
(4)
nh

18. A sonometer wire under a tension of
64 N vibrating in its fundamental mode
is in resonance with a vibrating tuning
fork. The vibrating portion of the
sonometer wire has a length of 10 cm
and a mass of 0.1 kg/m. The vibrating
tuning fork is now moved away from the
vibrating wire with a constant speed
and an observer standing near the
sonometer hears one beat per second.
Find the speed with which the tuning
fork is moved if the speed of sound in air
is 300 m/sec.
(1) 0.91 m/sec (2)0.75 m/sec
(3) 0.88 m/sec (4)10.01 m/sec
19. Ultraviolet light of wavelength 800
and 700 when allowed to fall on
hydrogen atoms in their ground state, is
found to liberate electrons with K.E. of
1.8 eV and 4 eV respectively. Find the
value of Plancks constant.
(1)
34
6.57 10 J.s (2)

34
6.92 10 J.s
(3)
34
7.2 10 J.s (4)

34
6.85 10 J.s
20. Assuming the Newtons law of cooling
to be valid, the temperature of a body
is changed from
o
60 C to
o
40 C in
7 minutes. If the temperature of the
surroundings being
o
10 C, its temperature
after next 7 minutes is
(1)
o
28 C (2)
o
32 C (3)
o
40 C (4)
o
24 C
21. There is a disc of radius R circular
portion centred at
1
O , which is
removed as shown in the figure. Centre
of mass of the remaining portion is
2
O .
Find
2
OO and also find the moment of
inertia of the system about
2
O .
2R
3

(1)
2
9
, 0.48 R
12,
(2)
4
R
, 0.44 R
12,

(3)
4
3R
, 0.62 R
9
(4)
4
3R
, 0.64 R
12

6
22. A rectangular block of mass m and area
of cross-section A floats in a liquid of
diameter p. If it is given a small vertical
displacement from equllibrium it
undergoes oscillation with a time period
of T. Then
(1)
1
T
m
(2) T p
(3)
1
T
A
(4)
1
T
p

23. A boy and a man carry a uniform rod of
length , horizontally in such a way that
the boy gets
1
th
4
of the load. If the boy
is at one end of the rod, then the
distance of the man from the other end
is
(1)
3
(2)
4
(3)
2
3
(4)
3
4

24. If the potential barrier of the diode
connected in the circuit shown here, is
0.5V, then the value of the current
through the circuit is
150
150

(1) 20 mA (2)30 mA
(3) 40 mA (4)50 mA
25. A water film is formed an a glass block.
A light ray is incident on water film from
air at an angle
o
60 with the normal. The
angle of incidence on glass slab is
(Given = =
g w
4
1.5 and
3
)
(1)

1
1
sin
3
(2)

1
4 3
sin
9

(3)

1
9 3
sin
16
(4)

1
3 3
sin
8

26. Two polarizers have their axes inclined
at
o
45 to each other. If unpolarised light
of intensity
0
I is incident on the first
polarizer, then the intensity of
transmitted light through the second
polarizer is
(1)
0
I
4
(2)
0
I
2
(3)
0
I (4) 0
27. Standing waves are produced by the
super position of two waves.
( )
1
y 0.05 sin 3 t 2x = =
( )
2
y 0.05 sin 3 g 2x = +
where x and y are in metres and t is in
seconds. The amplitude of the particle at
x = 0.5 m is (Given cos 57.3 = 0.54)
(1) 2.7 cm (2)5.4 cm
(3) 8.1 cm (4)10.8 cm
7
28. In the two circuits (1) and (2) shown
below, currents flowing in them are
respectively
4
4
4
4

(1) 1A, 2A (2) 2A, 1A
(3) 4A, 2A (4) 2A, 4A
29. An infinitely long thin straight wire has
uniform linear charge density of
1
1
cm
3
.
Then the magnitude of the electric
intensity at a point 18 cm away from the
wire is
(1)
11 1
0.33 10 NC
(2)
11 1
3 10 NC

(3)
11 1
0.66 10 NC
(4)
11 1
1.32 10 NC

30. The period of oscillation of a simple
pendulum is = T 2 L /g. Measurement
of length L is 20 cm known to 1 mm
accuracy and time for (1) oscillation of
the pendulum is found to be 10 sec
using a wrist watch of 1s resolution. The
percentage error in determining g is
(1) 2% (2) 2.5%
(3) 21% (4) 1.7%
8
31. If
( )
( )
2
x 2
f x
Lim 3
x 2
then the value
( ) ( )
+ f 2 f 2 is
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 6
32. The range of ( )
+
=
+
4 2
4 2
x x 2x 2
f x
x x 2x 4
is
(1) (

0 1 (2) )
0, 1
(3) ( ) 1 2 (4) none of these
33. If b c, 2b x and ba are in harmonic
progression then
x x x
a , b and c
2 2 2

are in
(1) AP (2) G.P
(3) HP (4) none of these
34. If ( ) ( ) 2, 0 and 2, 0 are the vertices of
an equilateral triangle and the third
vertex is above the x axis, then the
orthocenter of the triangle lies on
(1) ( ) + = 2 x y 3 (2) ( ) + = 2 x y 2
(3) ( ) + = 3 x y 2 3 (4) none of these
35. ABC is a triangle which is right angled at
B. A circle with radius 3 units touches BC,
CA, AB at D, E, F respectively such that
DC = 6 units, then the area of the
triangle is
(1) 54 sq units (2) 64 sq units
(3) 32 sq units (4) 60 sq units
36. A bag contains 4 balls. Two balls are
drawn at random and are found to be
white. Then the probability that all the
balls in the bag are white is
(1)
2
5
(2)
3
5

(3)
4
5
(4)
1
5

37. If
1 2 3
a , a , a ..... are in A.P such that
+ + =
1 2 2 3 100 101
1 1 1 1
......
a a a a a a 14
then
the value
1 101
a a is
(1) 5200 (2) 4200
(3) 2800 (4) 1400
38. A (3, 1), B (0, 2) are two points on the
curve + =
2 2
x 3y 12 . P is any point on the
curve. Let M be the mid point of AB.
Then the locus of the mid point of PM is
an ellipse with centre
(1)
| |
|
\
3 3
,
4 4
(2)
| |
|
\
1 1
,
2 2

(3) ( ) 1, 1 (4) none of these

PART B: MATHEMATICS
9
39. For the curve ( ) = +
3
2
3y x 2 at any point
the value of
( )
2
Sub tangent
Sub normal
is
(1)
4
9
(2)
1
3

(3)
8
9
(4)
7
9

40. The equation to the normal to the curve
( ) = y f x at x = 0 is + = 5x y 3 0 . Then the
value of
( ) ( ) ( )
+
2
2 2 2
x 0
x
Lim
f x 6f 4x 5f 8x
is
(1)
1
5
(2)
1
4

(3) 2 (4) none of these
41. If the equation + + =
2
px qx r 0 has
exactly two positive roots, then the
equation ( ) ( )
2
px 10p q x 5q r 0 + + + + = has

(1) exactly one positive root
(2) at least one positive root
(3) two positive roots
(4) no positive root
42. (2, 4) and (6, 4) are two vertices of a
triangle inscribed in a circle one of whose
diameters is represented by = + y x 6 .
Then the acute angle between the
diagonals of the rectangle is
(1)
1
3
tan
4
(2)
1
4
tan
3

(3)
1
tan 2 (4)
1
1
tan
2

43. The sum of the roots of the equation
| |
=
|
\
109
1
1 1
4x
is
(1) 27 (2)
27
2

(3)
25
2
(4) none of these
44. The value of
(
(
(
+
+
1
4
6
0
1 x
dx
1 x
is
(1) (2)
2

(3)
4
(4)
3

45. Let PQR be a triangle inscribed in a
circle with radius 4 units. The internal
bisectors of P, Q, and R meet the
circumcircle again at
1 1 1
P, Q and R
respectively. Then the value
1
P
PP cos
2
sinP

is
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 16 (4) 12
10
46.
( )
(
+

2
ab a b a b is
(1)
( )
+
2
a b (2)
( )
2
a b
(3) +
2 2
a b (4)
2 2
a b
47. Let A be = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} B be = {1, 2, 3}
Then the number of onto functions from
A to B is
(1) 150 (2) 250
(3) 243 (4) none of these.
48. If a, b, c are three positive integers such
that + + a b c 7, then the number of
ordered triplet (a, b, c) is
(1) 45 (2) 35
(3) 30 (4) 25

49. The sum of the positive integral solutions
of
( ) ( )
( ) ( )

3 4
4
5 6
x 3x 7 x 2
0
x 7 2x 5
is
(1) 25 (2) 18
50. If is a 6
th
root of unity (other than 1)
then the value of + + +
2 3
1 is
(1) 2 (2) 2 3
(3) 3 (4) 1
51. If =
2
tanx tan x 1 then the value of
+
20 18 16
sec x 5sec x 10sec x
+ +
14 12 10
10sec x 5sec x sec x 32 is
(1) 33 (2) 30
52. Let P be a point on =
2 2 2
x y a where a
is a parameter, such that P is nearer to
the line whose equation is = + y 3x 5 .
Then the locus of P is
(1) + = x 3y 0 (2) + = x 3y 5
(3) = x 3y 5 (4) = x 3y 0

53. If ( ) =
+
2
x
f x
1 lnx.lnx.lnx......to
(

x 1,
then the value of ( )
2e
1
f x dx is
(1)
3
e 1
3
(2)
+
3
e 1
3

(3)
3
e 3e
3
(4) None of these.
11
54. If + = + = = a b c and 2a b d and a c
then
(1) = a d 0 (2) = b d 0
(3) = d 3c (4) none of these
55. If ( ) ( )
( )
=
x
2
3
2
1
f x 3t 2f t dt,
x
then the
slope of the normal to the curve
( ) = = y f x at x 2 is
(1)
7
5
(2)
6
5
(3)
5
6
(4)
5
7

56. If a, b, c are respectively,
th th th
p , q , r
terms of a HP then the value of
bc ca ab
p q r
1 1 1
is
(1) + +
a b c
p q r
(2) + + ap bq cr
(3) + + pbc qca rab (4) none of these
57. The number of real solutions of the
equation

+ + =
1 2 1 2
cos 5x x 3 tan x 5x 2 is
(1) one (2) two
(3) zero (4) infinite
58. In an examination, a student has to
appear for 4 papers, the maximum for
each of three papers is 15 and the
maximum of 4
th
paper is 20. The number
of ways in which a student can get an
aggregate of 40 marks is
(1)
3
44C (2)
3
43C
(3)
3
42C (4) none of these.
59. If a and be real, and the system of
equations given by
( ) ( ) + + = ax sin y cos z 0;
( ) ( ) + + = x cos y sin z 0 and
( ) ( ) + = x sin y cos z 0 has a non
trivial solution then a belongs to
(1)
( )
, 2 (2)
( )
2,
(3)
| |
|
\
1
, 2
2
(4)
(

2, 2
60. The solution of the differential equation
+
=
+
2 2
2 2
1 x y xdx ydy
xdy ydx
x y
is
(1)

| |
+ =
|
\
1 2 2 1
y
sin x y sin k
x

(2)

| |
+ = +
|
\
1 2 2 1
y
sin x y cot k
x

(3)

| |
+ = +
|
\
1 2 2 1
y
cos x y tan k
x

(4)

| |
+ = +
|
\
1 2 2 1
y
sin x y tan k
x

12
61. In the multiplication of 25.55 by 4.9, the
result must have x significiant digits. The
value of x is
(1) six (2) four
(3) three (4) two
62.
2 2
SO Cl reacts with water giving
2 4
H SO andHCl. If 2 mol of
2 2
SO Cl is
treated with excess water, how many
mols of ( )
2
Mg OH would be required to
just neutralize the solution?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 0.5
63. The orbital angular momentum of a 3d
electron will be
(1)
h
3
2
(2) Zero
(3)
h
2
2
(4)
h
6
2

64. p d bond is present in
(1)
2
3
CO (2)
2
NO
(3)
2
3
SO (4)
2
3
BO
65. Bond angles are in the correct
decreasing order in
(1) > > >
3 3 3 3
NH PH NF PF
(2) > > >
3 3 3 3
PH NH PF NF
(3) > > >
3 3 3 3
NH NF PF PH
(4) > > >
3 3 3 3
NH NF PH PF
66. The molecule
3
AX has three bonds
and it is T shaped. The number of non-
bonded pairs of electrons must be
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
67. A gas will have maximum density at
(1) T = 500 K, P = 0.5 atm
(2) T = 200 K, P = 2 atm
(3) T = 300 K, P = 2 atm
(4) T = 200 K, P = 1 atm
68. Consider a solid AB with NaCl type
structured, atom A occupying corners of
the cubic cell. If half of atoms from the
face centres are removed, then the
resulting stoichiometry of the solid will be
(1)
3 4
A B (2)
5 8
A B
(3)
2 5
A B (4)
3
AB

PART C: CHEMISTRY
13
69. A 3% solution of a substance A is
isotonic with a 1.2% solution of urea
( )
(

2
2
CO NH in the same solvent. The
densities of both the solutions are
assumed to be 1.0g/cc. Then the
molar mass of A will be
(1) 150 (2) 120
(3) 240 (4) 175
70. In Arrhenius plot, the intercept on the y
axis is equal to
(1) lnk (2) lnA
(3)
a
E
R
(4)
a
E
R

71. The process by which
24
11
Na can
undergo radioactive decay, given
23
11
Na is the most stable isotope of
sodium, is
(1)
+
emission
(2) emission
(3)
emission
(4) K electron capture
72. The solubility of a salt
4
MA is
1
s mol L
and its solubility product
sp
K is related
to s by the relationship
(1)
| |
=
|
|
\
1
5
sp
K
s
128
(2)
( )
=
1
5
sp
s 256 K
(3)
| |
=
|
|
\
1
5
sp
K
s
256
(4)
| |
=
|
|
\
1
4
sp
K
s
256

73. Given
+
=
3
Fe
Fe
E 0.036V ;

+
=
2
Fe
Fe
E 0.439V,
the value for standard electrode potential for
the reaction
( ) ( )
+ +
+
3 2
aq aq
Fe e Fe will be
(1) 0.077V
(2) 0.77V
(3) 0.385V
(4) 0.270V
74. 5 moles of an ideal gas expands
isothermally and reversibly from 1 litre to
50 litres at 300K. The enthalpy change (in
kJ) for the process is
(1) 24.6 (2) 24.6 (3) 0 (4) 5.2
14
75. In the aldol reaction between
crotonaldehyde and acetaldehyde, the
carbanion intermediate that is likely to
be formed is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
76. The product in the reaction

heat 2
Ca
+

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
77. In the reaction

the most probable product would be

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

78.

The electrophile formed in the electro-
philic substitution reaction is
(1) CHO
(2)
2
CC

(3)
2
CHC
(4)
2
CC

79. Correct order of dipolements is repre-
sented in
(1)
3 3
CH C CHC >
(2)
3 3
CHC CH C >
(3)
3 3
CH F CH C >
(4)
3 3
CH C CH F >
(1) 1 and 3 (2) 1 and 4
(3) 2 and 3 (4) 2 and 4
3
CHC
NaOH
15

80. IUPAC name of
is
(1) 2, 3, 5 trimethyl 4 propylheptane
(2) 5 methyl 4 ( 1, 2 dimethylpropyl)
heptane
(3) 4 propyl 2, 3, 5 trimethyl heptane
(4) 3 methyl 4 (1, 2 , - dimethylpropyl)
heptane.
81.
2 4
H /Pt BaSO
3 3
CH C C CH

2 4
Br /CC
A B.

In the above reaction, B is
(1)
3 2 2 3
CH CH CBr CH
(2)
3 2 2 2
CH CH CH CH Br
(3) Meso 2, 3 dibromobutane
(4) ( ) 2, 3 dibromobutane
82. The most stable conformer among the
following is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

83. The decreasing order of basicity in the
amines is

(1) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(2) (iv) > (i) > (ii) > (iii)
(3) (i) > (iv) > (iii) > (ii)
(4) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
84. Glyptal is a copolymer of
(1) Terephthalic acid and glycol
(2) Phthalic acid and glycol
(3) Phthalic acid and glycerol
(4) m-Phthalic acid and glycerol
C
C
3
CH
3
CH
C
C
3
CH
3
CH
C
C
3
CH
3
CH
C
3
CH
3
CH
C
16
85. The molarity of a 10 volume
2 2
H O will
be
(1) 0.89 M (2) 1.78 M
(3) 0.445 M (4) 0.63 M
86. The species having the most negative
value of enthalpy of reaction with water
is
(1) OH (2) C

(3) F
(4) 4 NH
+

87. The solubility of alkaline earth metal
hydroxides and fluorides show the trend
(1) increases down the group
(2) decreases down the group
(3) remains constant
(4) varies randomly
88. The correct decreasing order of
oxidizing power among the oxy acids
of chlorine is
(1) > > >
2 3 4
HC O HC O HC O HC O
(2) > > >
3 4 2
HC O HC O HC O HC O
(3)
4 3 2
HC O HC O HC O HC O > > >
(4)
4 2 3
HC O HC O HC O HC O > > >
89. The spin-only magnetic moment of
2
4
MnC ion will be nearly
(1) 3.85 BM (2) 4.9 BM
(3) 5.95 BM (4) 2.85 BM
90. Which cation will not be precipitated by
2
H S in the presence of ammonia?
(1)
+ 2
Co (2)
2
Ni
+
(3)
2
Mn
+
(4)
2
Mg
+

17
18

19
20
READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet
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deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no
response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.
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Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of
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