SOLUTIONS TO F.F.

CHENS PLASMA PHYSICS

(VERSION 0.5 )

Tao Ye
leafybillow@gmail.com

SJTU

CONTENTS

Preface Acknowledgments 1 Introduction 1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5 2 1-3 1-8 1-9 1-10 1-11

v vii 1 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 6 6 7 8
iii

Motion of Particle 2.1 2.2 2.3 2.4 2.5 2.6 2.7 2-2 2-3 2-7 2-10 2-11 2-15 2-16

iv

CONTENTS

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2.8 2.9 2.10 2.11 2.12 3

2-17 2-18 2-19 2-20 2-21

8 8 9 10 12 13 13 14 14 15 15 16 16 16 18 19 19 19 19 19 19 19 19

Wave in Plasma 3.1 3.2 3.3 3.4 3.5 3.6 3.7 3.8 3.9 3.10 3.11 3.12 3.13 3.14 3.15 3.16 3.17 4-5 4-9 4-16 4-18 4-23 4-26 4-27 4-37 4-38 (Need to be conrmed) 4-39 4-40 4-41 4-42 4-43 4-45 4-49 4-50

PREFACE

Last revised: 11/24/2013 If you have any suggestions or ideas on this book, please tell me. My E-mail: leafybillow@gmail.com My Personal Homepage: http://yetao1991.wordpress.com
ME
Shanghai,China November, 2013

ACKNOWLEDGMENTS

Thanks All. T.Y.

vii

CHAPTER 1

INTRODUCTION

INTRODUCTION

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Problem 1-3

Problem 1-3 5 Debye length is constant at the line of Nd is constant at the line of 4 (1)

1e8

1e6 (2.2) 1e4

2 log(kT)

(2.1) 100

1 (4) 0 (6) -1 (3) -2 (7) 6 1e-1 8 1e-210 1e-312 1e-414 1e-516 log(n) 18 1e-720 22 24 (5)

Figure 1.1 Label (1)(2.1)(2.2)(3)(4)(5)(6)(7) correspond to plasma in different condition as the problem describes.

According to the denition of the Debye Length

0 kTe 1/2 ) ne2 1 0 1 1 log(D ) = log( 2 ) + log(kTe ) log(n) 2 e 2 2 D log(kT ) = log(n) + 2 log( ) (kT in eV) 7430 D = (

(1.1) (1.2) (1.3)

Then we can draw the solid straight line in the Figure1.1 with the Debye length as parameter ranged from 101 to 107 . Points on a certain solid line, named with equi-Debye-length line(analog to equipotential lines in electrostatic) , share a same

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1-8

Debye length. Similarily, with the given equation: 4 3 ND = n (1.4) 3 D kT 3 4 (7430 )2 (kT in eV) (1.5) = 3 n 3 ND (kT ) 2 = (1.6) 1 2.7 106 n2 1 ND 3 log(kT ) log(n) (1.7) log( ) = 2.7 106 2 2 1 2 ND log(kT ) = log(n) + log( ) (1.8) 3 3 2.7 106 The dot lines in the Fig 1.1 can be named with equi-ND lines, which means they share a same value of ND in a dot lines. As for the usage of this gure, take the point (4) for example, the point(4) falls in the region enclosed by two solid lines and two dots ones.The two solid lines respectively have the Debye length of 103 m and 104 m. And the dots lines have the particle numbers ND of 104 and 106 . That is tantamount to the fact that (4) has Debye length 104 m < D < 103 m and number of particle 104 < ND < 106 . Recall for the criteria for plasmas, ND 1 is automatically meet since the smallest number of particle is larger than 100.

Problem 1-8
The Debye length is D T 1 69( ) 2 (T in the unit of K) n 5 107 1 = 69 ( )2 1033 = 1.54 1011 m =

Naturally, the number of particles contained in a Debye Sphere is : 4 3 ND = n 3 D 4 = (1.54)3 3 15

Problem 1-9
Since protons and antiprotons have the same inertia, both of them are xed. Assume that protons and antiprotons follows the Maxwellian distribution. f (u) = Ae( 2 mu
1 2

+q)/kTe

INTRODUCTION

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where q equals to e for protons while q equals to e for antiprotons. Moreover, np ( ) np ( ) Then we obtain = = n n .

{ e np = n exp( kT ) e np = n exp( kT )

The Poissons Equation is 0 2 = 0 With e/kT 1, 2 = e ( np np ) x2

0 D

2 2n e2 = x2 kT 0 kT = = 0.4879m 2n e2

Problem 1-10 Problem 1-11

CHAPTER 2

MOTION OF PARTICLE

Problem 2-2
Since A=2, for deuterium ion, m = 2mp = 3.34 1027 kg q = |e| = 1.60 1019 Coulomb. Assume that energy can be entirely converted to kinetic energy, then the momentum can be derived E = Ek = The Larmour radius rL = mv 1.46 1020 = = 0.018m a = 0.6m |q |B 5 1.60 1019 p2 p = 2mEk = 1.46 1020 kg m/s 2m

So the Larmour radius satises the conned-ion condition.

5

MOTION OF PARTICLE

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Problem 2-3
To keep a equibrillium in the y direction, the electric force should conteract the Lorentz force Eq = qvB E = vB = 106 V/m

Problem 2-7
Apply the Gauss Law to obtain the magnitude of electric eld at r=a E l 2a = ne l a2 /0 E= vE = ene a = 9.04 103 V /m 2

E = 4.52 103 m/s B (Direction:See in the gure)

Problem 2-10
The mass of a deutron is md = 1875MeV/c2 The kinetic energy Ek = 1 md v 2 v = 1.386 106 m/s 2

v = v cos 45 = 9.8 105 m/s rL m d v = 0.03m qB

Problem 2-11
Rm = 4 1 sin m
2

= 4 sin m = 6

1 2

m =

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2-15

Since the velocity is isotropic distribution, the direction of velocity should distribute uniformly d = sin dd The total solid angle for a sphere is total = 4 The solid angle for loss cone is 2 6 3 sin d d = (1 )4 =2 2 0 0
3 2 .

loss

the fraction of the trapped is

Problem 2-15
Dene the displacement in polarization direction is xp . So the work done by the electric eld is x W = qE P The energy gain rate is dxp dW = qE = qEvp . dt dt The change of kinetic energy dEk d 1 d vE 2 = ( mvE ) = mvE dt dt 2 dt Without loss of generality, let the vE in the same direction of E vE d vE dt dEk dt vp
1 Replace = c m qB

E B 1 dE = B dt = = mvE ( = 1 dE ) = qEvp B dt m 1 dE qB B dt

Thus, vp = 1 dE c B dt

MOTION OF PARTICLE

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Problem 2-16
a) The Larmor frequency of electron is e = eB 1.6 1019 1 = = 1.76 1011 rad/sec m 9.109 1031 1.6 1019 1 eB = = 9.58 107 rad/sec mi 1.67 1027

b) the Larmor frequency of ion is i =

Since 0 = 109 rad/sec, e 0 i . The motion of electron is adiabatic, while that of ion not.

Problem 2-17
Since =
2 mv 2B

is conservative under this condition, it is easy to derive:

2 2 mv mv = 2B 2B

2 where 1 2 mv = 1keV, B = 0.1T, B = 1T , so

1 mv 2 = 10keV. 2 When collision happens, the direction of motion distorts, so v = v . Then the kinetic energy is 1 mv 2 = 5keV 2 Implement the adiabatic characteristic of , we know that
2 2 mv mv 1 2 = 0.5keV = mv 2B 2B 2

Finally, the energy is E = E + E = 1 1 2 2 + mv mv = 5.5keV 2 2

Problem 2-18
a) At a certain moment, we calculate the motion in one periodic circular motion to certify the invariance of . In this period, we assume that the Larmour radius does not change with minor deviation of magnetic eld-B. So
2 s = rL = 2 m 2 v q2 B 2

leafybillow@gmail.com d dB m2 v 2 dB = S = 2 = (induced potential) dt dt q B 2 dt So the change of the energy of the particle in one period is W = q =
2 m2 v dB 2 qB dt

2-19

Within this period of gyration, the change of magnetic eld is B = So after a period, the energy is
Ek

dB 2m dB = dt dt qB

1 2m dB 1 mv 2 + W = (1 + ) mv 2 2 qB 2 dt 2 2m dB = B + B = (1 + )B qB 2 dt = =

Ek E0 = = B B0 So is invariant for both ion and electron. 1 2 2 b) Assume that 1 2 mv = KT, 2 mv = KT at initial moment. Considering 1 2 2 mv 1 2 2 mv , B

= and B = changed,
1 3B ,

2 so 1 2 mv = 3KT . Furthermore, we assume that v remains un-

1 mv 2 = KT 2 kT = 3Kev, kT = 1KeV

Problem 2-19
The magnetic eld is B =
0 I 2r ,

so the gradient is : B 0 I = r 2r2

B =

Apply the equipartition theorem of Maxwellian gas, the total energy is = 1 2 3 2 (p + p2 y + pz ) = kT 2m x 2 1 2 (p + p2 y ) = kT 2m x

10

MOTION OF PARTICLE

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The perpendicular velocity is : v = rL = 2kT m

vB v =

mv eB kT 1 B = , Upwards = v rL 2 B eBr

2 mv kT kT vR = = , Upwards m eBr eBr 2kT vR+B = eBr Area of the top surface of the cyclinder is :

a a s = [(R + )2 (R )2 ] = 2Ra 2 2 The number of charged particle, which hit the surface s with in time of dt is: N = n v s dt. So the hit rate is dN = n v s. dt a Since R a, the drift velocity with [R a 2 , R + 2 ] region can be considered as uniform. So the accumulation rate is Racc = n vR+B s e = 4kT na = 20Coulomb/S B

Problem 2-20
2 2 a) v + v is invariant because of the conservation of energy. At z = 0, Bz = B0 , 2 2 2 2 2 v = 3 v ,v = 1 3v , 2 mv mv 2 = = . 2B0 2B0 2 = v2 When the electron reects, v = 0, then v

mv 2 3 Bz = B0 3B0 2 2 2 2 1+ z z = 2 =

leafybillow@gmail.com b) =
2 mv 1 2 B0 (1 + 2 z 2 ) = mv 2Bz 2

2-20

11

2 2 v = v 2 v =

0 B 20 B 2 2 z m m

dz 2 0 B ) = (1 22 z 2 ) dt m dz 0 B0 = 1 2 2 z 2 dt m 2 20 B0 z= sin( t + ) 2 m ( And this equation can describe the trajectory of the particle. c) It is apparent that the gyration frequency is motion. 2 0 B0 t + , z = 2 sin d) Claim: = 2m J=
a 2 where a = 2 ,b = 2 2 . b 20 B0 m

from the the equation of

v dz

Thus, a = , b = 2 2

J=
a

v dz = v v dt =

m 2B0

b 2 v d

where dt =
2 v

1 m d, 2B0 dz B0 ( )2 = sin2 . dt m

= =

2 B m 0 sin2 d 2B0 2 m B0 = constant 2 2m 1

12

MOTION OF PARTICLE

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Problem 2-21
a) According to the Ampere theorem, the magnetic eld can be obtained 2r B = 0 I B = In cylinder coordinate: B = v B where rL =
mv eB , v0

0 I 2r

B 0 I = r 2r2 1 B = v rL , 2 B

= v . vB =
2 1 mv0 1 mv 0 v 0 = 2 eB r 0 Ie

Besides, vR = = =
2 mv

1 e Rc B 2 mv 1 e Rc
0 I 2RC

2 2mv

0 Ie
2 3mv 0

v=v B = R + v

0 Ie

(z )

(v0 = v0 )

CHAPTER 3

WAVE IN PLASMA

Problem 4-5
According to the dispersion relation
2 2 = p +

3KTe 2 k m

Now we calculate the unknown value in the equation p 2 n = 5.62 109 rad/sec = 2f = 6.908 109 rad/sec 3 100 1.6E 19 3kTe = = 5.27 1013 m 9.109 1031 k2 =
2 2 p 3kTe m

= 3.05 105 k = 552.377 2 = 1.14 102 m k

13

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WAVE IN PLASMA

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Problem 4-9
The critical density is n0 = m0 2 = 1.12 1015 m3 e2

Problem 4-16
If the motion of ion is neglected, the dispersion relation of electron is
2 2 2 p p c2 k 2 = 1 2 2 2 2 h

1) The resonance of X-wave is found by setting k . So the dispersion relation can be rewrite into 2 2 p 2 c2 k 2 = 2 p 2 2 h Differentiate both sides of the equation 2kc2 dk = 2 d So the group velocity is vg = dw kc2 = 2 2 c p dk [1 + (2 ] 2 )2
h

2 2 h 2 (p 2 p d 2 2 h

When k ,which implies that = h .

2 2

c p c p So 1 + (2 2 )2 , k and 1 + ( 2 2 )2 has a higher order than k. Thus, h h vg = 0 at resonance point. 2) The cut-off X-wave is found by setting k=0, then

2 2

1 At this point, (1 +

2 2 2 p p 2 = R or L 2 2 h

2 2 c p 2 )2 2 ( h

) is a nite value. As a result kc2 [1 + |k=0 2 2 c p 2 )2 ] ( 2 h =0

vg = Q.E.D.

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4-18

15

Problem 4-18
For L-wave,
2 p / 2 c2 k 2 = 1 2 1 + c /

And
2 p =

n0 e 2 eB , c = m0 m

The cut-off is found when k = 0. With the provided condtion f = 2.8GHz, B0 = 0.3T , the critical density is n0 = = m0 eB ] [(2f )2 + 2f 2 e m 3.89 1017 m3

Problem 4-23
R-wave k2 = L-wave k2 = Thus kR = c kL = c 1 1
2 2 2 / 2 / 2 p 1 p 1 p c (1 ) [1 (1 + )] c c 2 1 c 2 1 c 2 2 2 2 / 2 p / 2 1 p 1 p c (1 ) [1 (1 )] c c 2 1+ c 21+ c 2 2 p 2 c2 c2 (1 c /p ) 2 p 2 2 2 c c (1 + c /p )

The difference of the phase is twice of the Faraday rotation angle = = = = 1 180 (kL kr ) 2 180 1 1 e2 e ( 2) B (Z )n(z ) 2 c 4 m0 m 90 1 1 0 e3 ( 2 )( )2 2 B (z )n(z ) c 4 c m 0 e3 90 B (z )n(z )2 0 (degree) 4 2 m2 0 c3

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WAVE IN PLASMA

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And

90 e3 = 1.5 1011 degree = 2.62 1013 rad 4 2 m2 0 c3 In conclusion L 180 L 11 (kL kR )dz = 1.5 10 0 B (z )n(z )dz = 2 0 0 (in the unit of degree)

Problem 4-26
a) B va = = 2.18 108 m/s 0 b) The Alfv en wave represents for phase velocity. And phase velocity did not carry information. So it does not mean that wave can travel faster than light.

Problem 4-27
= n0 M = 1.67 1019 B vA = = 2.18 104 m/s 0

Problem 4-37
a) Consider the elastical collision from ion, the equation of eletrons motion m Linearize the equation imve = eE mve j1 = n0 eve = The equation of the transverse wave is ( 2 c2 k 2 )E1 = ij1 / Insert j1 into the wave equation, we get ( 2 c2 k 2 )E1 = 2 E1 + i p n0 e2 E1 im( + i ) ve = eE mve t

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2 p + i 2 2 2 p c k 2 =1 ( + i )

4-37

17

2 c2 k 2 =

Q.E.D. b) Apply the previous result c2 k 2 = 2 When or

2 p 1 + i

1,then

(1 + i )1 1 i So the dispersion relation turns to

2 +i c2 k 2 = 2 p 2 p

Assume that = a + bi, then

2 p + c2 k 2

= =

(a2 b2 ) + 2abi + i (a2 b2 ) +

2 p a + bi

2 2 p vb p a + i (2 ab + ) 2 2 2 a +b a + b2

The image part should be zero, that is ib = So the damping rate: = Im( ) = c) With previous conclusion of a), we get k2 =
2 2 2 p p +i 2 2 c c 2 p 2| |2 2 v p i = Im( )i 2(a2 + b2 )

Let k = e + di, then k 2 = e2 d2 + 2edi, we get 2 e 2 d 2 = 2 p 2 c 2 p 2ed = 2

c

By solving the simultaneous equations, it is easy (Uh huh!)to obtain that =

2 p 1 1 2c 2 = = ( 2 )(1 2 )1/2 Im(k ) d p

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WAVE IN PLASMA

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Problem 4-38 (Need to be conrmed)

The loss part of energy will heat up the electron to oscillation. So we rstly need to derive the vibration motion due to the microwave. The wave-length of the microwave is = 0.3m So the frequency is = The collision frequency is = nn = 102 /sec So the equation of motion of electron is m Linearize the equation to be imve = eE mve ve = Then the dispersion raltion is k2 =
2 2 2 p p i + 2 c2 c

2c = 6.28 109 rad/sec

ve = eE mve t eE im( + i )

k = Re(k ) + Im(k )i And microwave in plasma is E = E0 ei(krt) = E0 ei(Re(k)rt) eIm(k)r The term eIm(k)r means the wave decay when penetrate the ionosphere. The ratio of outgoing energy v.s. incident energy is A=
2 Eout eIm(k)R1 2 = ( ) = e2Im(k)(R1 R2 ) 2 Eini eIm(k)R2

And R1 R2 = 100km = 105 m

2 p =

ne e 2 = 3.17 1014 0 m
2 p 2

Im(k ) =

2 p 1 2 2c 1
7

= 1.34 1012

A = e2.6910 So the loss fraction is

= 0.999999732

1A0

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4-39

19

Problem 4-39
Unchecked.

Problem 4-40 Problem 4-41 Problem 4-42 Problem 4-43 Problem 4-45 Problem 4-49 Problem 4-50
Unchecked.