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Model Test Paper 1

General Study Paper II
The fact that superior service can generate a competitive advantage for a company does not mean that every attempt at improving service will create such an advantage. Investments in service, like those in production and distribution, must be balanced against other types of investments on the basis of direct, tangible benefits such as cost reduction and increased revenues. If a company is already effectively on a par with its competitors because it provides service that avoids a damaging reputation and keeps customers from leaving at an unacceptable rate, then investment in higher service levels may be wasted, since service is a deciding factor for customers only in extreme situations. This truth was not apparent to managers of one regional bank, which failed to improve its competitive position despite its investment in reducing the time a customer had to wait for a teller. The bank managers did not recognize the level of customer inertia in the consumer banking industry that arises from the inconvenience of switching banks. Nor did they analyze their service improvement to determine whether it would attract new customers by producing a new standard of service that would excite customers or by proving difficult for competitors to copy. The only merit of the improvement was that it could easily be described to customers. 1. The primary purpose of the passage is to (a) contrast possible outcomes of a type of business investment (b) suggest more careful evaluation of a type of business investment (c) illustrate various ways in which a type of business investment could fail to enhance revenues (d) trace the general problems of a company to a certain type of business investment 2. According to the passage, investments in service are comparable to investments in production and distribution in terms of the (a) tangibility of the benefits that they tend to confer (b) increased revenues that they ultimately produce (c) basis on which they need to be weighed (d) insufficient analysis that managers devote to them 3. The passage suggests which of the following about service provided by the regional bank prior to its investment in enhancing that service? (a) It enabled the bank to retain customers at an acceptable rate. (b) It threatened to weaken the banks competitive position with respect to other regional banks. (c) It had already been improved after having caused damage to the banks reputation in the past. (d) It was slightly superior to that of the banks regional competitors. 4. The passage suggests that bank managers failed to consider whether or not the service improvement (a) was too complicated to be easily described to prospective customers (b) made a measurable change in the experiences of customers in the banks offices
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(c) could be sustained if the number of customers increased significantly (d) was an innovation that competing banks could have imitated 5. The discussion of the regional bank serves which of the following functions within the passage as a whole? (a) It describes an exceptional case in which investment in service actually failed to produce a competitive advantage. (b) It illustrates the pitfalls of choosing to invest in service at a time when investment is needed more urgently in another area. (c) It demonstrates the kind of analysis that managers apply when they choose one kind of service investment over another. (d) It provides an example of the point about investment in service made in the first paragraph. 6. The author uses the word only in the last line most likely in order to (a) highlight the oddity of the service improvement (b) emphasize the relatively low value of the investment in service improvement (c) distinguish the primary attribute of the service improvement from secondary attributes (d) single out a certain merit of the service improvement from other merits The antigen-antibody immunological reaction used to be regarded as typical of immunological responses. Antibodies are proteins synthesized by specialized cells called plasma cells, which are formed by lymphocytes (cells from the lymph system) when an antigen, a substance foreign to the organisms body, comes in contact with lymphocytes. Two important manifestations of antigen-antibody immunity are lysis, the rapid physical rupture of antigenic cells and the liberation of their contents into the surrounding medium, and phagocytosis, a process in which antigenic particles are engulfed by and very often digested by macrophages and polymorphs. The process of lysis is executed by a complex and unstable blood constituent known as complement, which will not work unless it is activated by a specific antibody; the process of phagocytosis is greatly facilitated when the particles to be engulfed are coated by a specific antibody directed against them. The reluctance toabandon this hypothesis, however well it explains specific processes, impeded new research, and for many years antigens and antibodies dominated the thoughts of immunologists so completely that those immunologists overlooked certain difficulties. Perhaps the primary difficulty with the antigen-antibody explanation is the informational problem of how an antigen is recognized and how a structure exactly complementary to it is then synthesized. When molecular biologists discovered, moreover, that such information cannot flow from protein to protein, but only from nucleic acid to protein, the theory that an antigen itself provided the mold that directed the synthesis of an antibody had to be seriously qualified. The attempts at qualification and the information provided by research in molecular biology led scientists to realize that a second immunological reaction is mediated through the lymphocytes that are hostile to and bring about the destruction of the antigen. This type of immunological response is called cell-mediated immunity. Recent research in cell-mediated immunity has been concerned not only with the development of new and better vaccines, but also with the problem of transplanting tissues and organs from one organism to another, for although circulating antibodies play a part in the rejection of transplanted tissues, the primary role is played by cell-mediated reactions. During cell-mediated responses, receptor sites on specific lymphocytes and surface antigens on the foreign tissue cells form a complex that binds the lymphocytes to the tissue. Such lymphocytes do not give rise to antibody-producing plasma cells but themselves bring about the death of the foreign-tissue
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cells, probably by secreting a variety of substances, some of which are toxic to the tissue cells and some of which stimulate increased phagocytic activity by white blood cells of the macrophage type. Cell-mediated immunity also accounts for the destruction of intracellular parasites. 7. The author is primarily concerned with (a) proving that immunological reactions do not involve antibodies (b) explaining two different kinds of immunological reactions (c) establishing that most immunological reactions involve antigens (d) criticizing scientists who will not change their theories regarding immunology 8. The author argues that the antigen-antibody explanation of immunity had to seriously qualified because (a) antibodies were found to activate unstable components in the blood (b) antigens are not exactly complementary to antibodies (c) lymphocytes have the ability to bind to the surface of antigens (d) antigens have no apparent mechanism to direct the formation of an antibody 9. The author most probably believes that the antigen-antibody theory of immunological reaction. (a) is wrong (b) was accepted without evidence (c) is unverifiable (d) is a partial explanation 10. The author mentions all of the following as being involved in antigen-antibody immunological reactions EXCEPT the (a) synthesis of a protein (b) activation of complement in the bloodstream (c) destruction of antibodies (d) entrapment of antigens by macrophages 11. The passage contains information that would answer which of the following questions about cell-mediated immunological reactions? I. Do lymphocytes form antibodies during cell-mediated immunological reactions? II. Why are lymphocytes more hostile to antigens during cell-mediated immunological reactions than are other cell groups? III. Are cell-mediated reactions more pronounced after transplants than they are after parasites have invaded the organism? (a) I only (b) I and II only (c) I and III only
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(d) II and III only 12. The passage suggests that scientists might not have developed the theory of cell-mediated immunological reactions if (a) proteins existed in specific group types (b) proteins could have been shown to direct the synthesis of other proteins (c) antigens were always destroyed by proteins (d) antibodies were composed only of protein 13. According to the passage, antibody-antigen and cell-mediated immunological reactions both involve which of the following processes? I. The destruction of antigens II. The creation of antibodies III. The destruction of intracellular parasites (a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I and II only 14. The author supports the theory of cell-mediated reactions primarily by (a) pointing out a contradiction in the assumption leading to the antigen-antibody theory (b) explaining how cell mediation accounts for phenomena that the antigen-antibody theory cannot account for (c) revealing new data that scientists arguing for the antigen-antibody theory have continued to ignore (d) showing that the antigen-antibody theory fails to account for the breakup of antigens About twice every century, one of the massive stars in our galaxy blows itself apart in a supernova explosion that sends massive quantities of radiation and matter into space and generates shock waves that sweep through the arms of the galaxy. The shock waves heat the interstellar gas, evaporate small clouds, and compress larger ones to the point at which they collapse under their own gravity to form new stars. The general picture that has been developed for the supernova explosion and its aftermath goes something like this. Throughout its evolution, a star is much like a leaky balloon. It keeps its equilibrium figure through a balance of internal pressure against the tendency to collapse under its own weight. The pressure is generated by nuclear reactions in the core of the star which must continually supply energy to balance the energy that leaks out in the form of radiation. Eventually the nuclear fuel is exhausted, and the pressure drops in the core. With nothing to hold it up, the matter in the center of the star collapses inward, creating higher and higher densities and temperatures, until the nuclei and electrons are fused into a super-dense lump of matter known as a neutron star. As the overlying layers rain down on the surface of the neutron star, the temperature rises, until with a blinding flash of radiation, the collapse is reversed. A thermonuclear shock wave runs through the now expanding stellar envelope, fusing lighter elements into heavier ones and producing a brilliant visual outburst that can be as intense as the light of 10 billion suns. The shell of matter thrown off by the explosion plows through the surrounding gas, producing an expanding bubble of hot gas, with gas temperatures in the millions of degrees. This gas will emit
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most of its energy at X-ray wavelengths, so it is not surprising that X-ray observatories have provided some of the most useful insights into the nature of the supernova phenomenon. More than twenty supernova remnants have now been detected in X-ray studies. Recent discoveries of meteorites with anomalous concentrations of certain isotopes indicate that a supernova might have precipitated the birth of our solar system more than four and a half billion years ago. Although the cloud that collapsed to form the Sun and the planets was composed primarily of hydrogen and helium, it also contained carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen, elements essential for life as we know it. Elements heavier than helium are manufactured deep in the interior of stars and would, for the most part, remain there if it were not for the cataclysmic supernova explosions that blow giant stars apart. Additionally, supernovas produce clouds of highenergy particles called cosmic rays. These high-energy particles continually bombard the Earth and are responsible for many of the genetic mutations that are the driving force of the evolution of species. 15. Which of the following titles best describes the content of the passage? (a) The Origins and Effects of Supernovas (b) The Life and Death of Stars (c) The Origins and Evolution of Life on Earth (d) The Aftermath of a Supernova 16. According to the passage, we can expect a supernova to occur in our galaxy (a) about twice each year (b) hundreds of times each century (c) about once every fifty years (d) about once every other century 17. According to the passage all of the following are true of supernovas EXCEPT that they (a) are caused by the collision of large galaxies (b) are extremely bright (c) are an explosion of some sort (d) emit large quantities of X-rays 18. The author employs which of the following to develop the first paragraph? (a) Analogy (b) Deduction (c) Generalization (d) Example 19. It can be inferred from the passage that the meteorites mentioned by the author (a) contain dangerous concentrations of radioactive materials (b) give off large quantities of X-rays
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(c) include material not created in the normal development of our solar system (d) are larger than the meteors normally found in a solar system like ours 20. The author implies that (a) it is sometimes easier to detect supernovas by observation of the X-ray spectrum than by observation of visible wavelengths of light (b) life on Earth is endangered by its constant exposure to radiation forces that are released by a supernova (c) recently discovered meteorites indicate that the Earth and other planets of our solar system survived the explosion of a supernova several billion years ago (d) lighter elements are formed from heavier elements during a supernova as the heavier elements are torn apart 21. According to the passage what is the first event in the sequence that leads to the occurrence of a supernova? (a) An ordinary star begins to emit tremendous quantities of X-rays. (b) A neutron star is enveloped by a superheated cloud of gas. (c) An imbalance between light and heavy elements causes an ordinary star to collapse. (d) An ordinary star exhausts its supply of nuclear fuel and begins to collapse. 22. According to the passage a neutron star is (a) a gaseous cloud containing heavy elements (b) an intermediate stage between an ordinary star and a supernova (c) the residue that is left by a supernova (d) the core of an ordinary star that houses the thermonuclear reactions 23. The author is primarily concerned with (a) speculating about the origins of our solar system (b) presenting evidence proving the existence of supernovas (c) discussing the nuclear reaction that occurs in the core of a star (d) describing the sequence of scientific events The 2008 A Level results show that 97.2% of students passed compared with 96.6% in 2007. 25.9% gained A grades, a rise of 0.6%. The number of students sitting A Levels, 827 737, was also a record. This high success rate is causing concerns in some quarters that the exams are getting easier. However, the government insists that the results reflect increased spending and improvements in teaching. Meanwhile the general secretary of the Association of Teachers and Lecturers, Dr Mary Bousted, has berated teaching methods in schools as spoonfeeding students to pass exams without developing the desire to continue learning and the skills necessary to learn independently. In reply the general secretary of the University and College Union, Sally Hunt, suggested it is unfair to downplay the students results and the hard work of their teachers. 24. The improvement in A Level results is a reflection of an increase in the number of students sitting the exams
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(a) True (b) False (c) Cannot say (d) 25. A level exams are getting easier (a) True (b) False (c) Cannot say (d) 26. The general secretary of the University and College Union said that students are being spoon-fed to pass examinations (a) True (b) False (c) Cannot say (d) International Development Secretary, Douglas Alexander, has compared sanitary conditions in developing countries today with the situation in London 150 years ago when Parliament had to be closed owing to sewage running through the streets of the capital and a stench from the River Thames an event that has been called The Great Stink. Today more than 1 billion people in developing countries have no toilets and 900 million have no access to clean water. Mr. Alexanders response has been an announcement that the Department of International Development plans to build more than 50 million toilets and provide clean drinking water to more than 25 million people in developing countries over the next five years. This plan is part of the departments broader strategy to help poor countries in Africa and Asia to better manage their water resources and fight the effects of climate change. 27. The Great Stink occurred in London (a) True (b) False (c) Cannot say (d) 28. When the project to build toilets is completed, on average twenty people are going to have to share one toilet (a) True (b) False (c) Cannot say (d)

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29. The Department of International Development intends to do more than just provide clean drinking water and toilets to Africa and Asia (a) True (b) False (c) Cannot say (d)

30. What was the unit sales ratio of Austrian Quarter 4 : Portugal Quarter 1: Greek Quarter 4? (a) 35:28:22 (b) 5:3:4 (c) 6:4:3 (d) 5:4:3 31. Which country met or exceeded its annual target for unit sales? (a) Greece (b) Portugal (c) Austria (d) Ireland 32. The previous years average number of Portuguese units sold per quarter was 20% higher than the year shown. What was the previous years average number of Portuguese units sold per quarter? (a) 104,200 (b) 31,260 (c) 26,050 (d) 21,260 33. If Austrias annual corporation tax was 22% on the first 200,000 of sales and 20% on sales exceeding 200,000, how much tax is due for the year (assuming each unit is sold at 3.5 Euros)? (a) 34,000 (b) 34,060 (c) 37,060 (d) 78,060 34. Greek and Irish sales generated 2.5 Euros per unit sold, whilst the other countries sales generated 2.25 Euros per unit sold. Which country or countries exceeded their Annual Product Sales Target? (a) Portugal and Austria (b) Ireland and Austria
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(c) Croatia and Greece (d) Croatia and Austria

35. Which competitor(s) has less than 100,000 customers per day (assume 30 days per month)? (a) All competitors (b) Competitor B (c) Competitor E (d) Competitors B and E 36. Which Competitor has the lowest average number of staff per country of operation? (a) Competitor A (b) Competitor B (c) Competitor C (d) Competitor E 37. If Competitors B to E make up 85% of the business sector in which they operate (based upon operating profits), approximately what are the total operating profits of the other companies in the same business sector? (a) 3 million (b) 28 million (c) 33 million (d) 35 million 38. Competitor B has an additional business that generates an additional 8% to the Retail Sales shown. Competitors A and C have additional businesses that generate 7% and 4% additional revenue respectively. Whats the total of these additional sales streams for Competitors A, B and C combined (to the nearest million)? (a) 9 million (b) 10 million (c) 11 million (d) 12 million 39. Which two Competitors average the same approximate number of customers per country of operation? (a) Competitor A and Competitor D (b) Competitor B and Competitor D (c) Competitor A and Competitor C (d) Competitor B and Competitor E 40.
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(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D 41. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D 42. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D 43. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D 44. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D 45. FAG GAF HAI IAH ____ (a) JAK (b) HAL (c) HAK (d) JAI 46. BCB DED FGF HIH ___ (a) JKJ
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(b) HJH (c) IJI (d) JHJ 47. ZA5 Y4B XC6 W3D _____ (a) E7V (b) V2E (c) VE5 (d) VE7 48. Which word does NOT belong with the others? (a) leopard (b) cougar (c) elephant (d) lion 49. Which word does NOT belong with the others? (a) couch (b) rug (c) table (d) chair 50. Which word does NOT belong with the others? (a) tape (b) twine (c) cord (d) yarn 51. SPY : CLANDESTINE (a) accountant : meticulous (b) furrier : rambunctious (c) lawyer : ironic (d) shepherd : garrulous 52. DOMINANCE : HEGEMONY (a) romance : sympathy (b) furtherance : melancholy
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(c) independence : autonomy (d) tolerance : philanthropy 53. AERIE : EAGLE (a) capital : government (b) bridge : architect (c) unit : apartment (d) house : person 54. Here are some words translated from an artificial language. granamelke means big tree pinimelke means little tree melkehoon means tree house Which word could mean big house? (a) granahoon (b) pinishur (c) pinihoon (d) melkegrana 55. Here are some words translated from an artificial language. lelibroon means yellow hat plekafroti means flower garden frotimix means garden salad Which word could mean yellow flower? (a) lelifroti (b) lelipleka (c) plekabroon (d) frotibroon 56. Here are some words translated from an artificial language. moolokarn means blue sky wilkospadi means bicycle race moolowilko means blue bicycle Which word could mean racecar? (a) wilkozwet (b) spadiwilko (c) moolobreil (d) spadivolo The questions from 57-62 ask you to match definitions to particular situations. For each question, you will be given a definition and four possible answer choices. Read each definition and all four choices carefully, and find
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the answer that provides the best example of the given definition. Answer each question solely on the basis of the definition given. 57. Violating an Apartment Lease occurs when a tenant does something prohibited by the legally binding document that he or she has signed with a landlord. Which situation below is the best example of Violating an Apartment Lease? (a) Tim has decided to move to another city, so he calls his landlord to tell him that he is not interested in renewing his lease when it expires next month. (b) Valerie recently lost her job and, for the last three months, has neglected to pay her landlord the monthly rent they agreed upon in writing when she moved into her apartment eight months ago. (c) Mark writes a letter to his landlord that lists numerous complaints about the apartment he has agreed to rent for two years. (d) Leslie thinks that her landlord is neglecting the building in which she rents an apartment. She calls her attorney to ask for advice. 58. It is appropriate to compensate someone if you have damaged his or her property in some way. This is called Restitution.Which situation below is the best example of Restitution? (a) Jake borrows Leslies camera and the lens shatters when it falls on the ground because he fails to zipper the case.When Jake returns the camera, he tells Leslie that he will pay for the repair. (b) Rebecca borrows her neighbors car, and when she returns it, the gas tank is practically empty. She apologizes profusely and tells her neighbor she will be more considerate the next time. (c) Aaron asks Tom to check in on his apartment while he is out of town.When Tom arrives, he discovers that a pipe has burst and there is a considerable amount of water damage. He calls a plumber to repair the pipe. (d) Lisa suspects that the pothole in her companys parking lot caused her flat tire. She tells her boss that she thinks the company should pay for the repair. 59. People speculate when they consider a situation and assume something to be true based on inconclusive evidence. Which situation below is the best example of Speculation? (a) Francine decides that it would be appropriate to wear jeans to her new office on Friday after reading about Casual Fridays in her employee handbook. (b) Mary spends thirty minutes sitting in traffic and wishes that she took the train instead of driving. (c) After consulting several guidebooks and her travel agent, Jennifer feels confident that the hotel she has chosen is first-rate. (d) When Emily opens the door in tears, Theo guesses that shes had a death in her family. 60. A Guarantee is a promise or assurance that attests to the quality of a product that is either (1) given in writing by the manufacturer or (2) given verbally by the person selling the product. Which situation below is the best example of a Guarantee? (a) Melissa purchases a DVD player with the highest consumer ratings in its category. (b) The salesperson advises Curt to be sure that he buys an air conditioner with a guarantee. (c) The local auto body shop specializes in refurbishing and selling used cars.
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(d) Lori buys a used digital camera from her coworker who says that she will refund Loris money if the cameras performance is not of the highest quality. 61. Reentry occurs when a person leaves his or her social system for a period of time and then returns. Which situation below best describes Reentry? (a) When he is offered a better paying position, Jacob leaves the restaurant he manages to manage a new restaurant on the other side of town. (b) Catherine is spending her junior year of college studying abroad in France. (c) Malcolm is readjusting to civilian life after two years of overseas military service. (d) After several miserable months, Sharon decides that she can no longer share an apartment with her roommate Hilary. 62. Embellishing the Truth occurs when a person adds fictitious details or exaggerates facts or true stories. Which situation below is the best example of Embellishing the Truth? (a) Isabel goes to the theater, and the next day, she tells her coworkers she thought the play was excellent (b) The realtor describes the house, which is eleven blocks away from the ocean, as prime waterfront property. (c) During the job interview, Fred, who has been teaching elementary school for ten years, describes himself as a very experienced teacher (d) The basketball coach says it is likely that only the most talented players will get a college scholarship. Answer questions 63 through 65 on the basis of the information below. At a small company, parking spaces are reserved for the top executives: CEO, president, vice president, secretary, and treasurerwith the spaces lined up in that order. The parking lot guard can tell at a glance if the cars are parked correctly by looking at the color of the cars. The cars are yellow, green, purple, red, and blue, and the executives names are Alice, Bert, Cheryl, David, and Enid. The car in the first space is red. A blue car is parked between the red car and the green car. The car in the last space is purple. The secretary drives a yellow car. Alices car is parked next to Davids. Enid drives a green car. Berts car is parked between Cheryls and Enids. Davids car is parked in the last space. 63. What color is the vice presidents car? (a) green (b) yellow (c) blue (d) purple 64. Who is the CEO?
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(a) Alice (b) Bert (c) Cheryl (d) David 65. Who is the secretary? (a) Enid (b) David (c) Cheryl (d) Alice 66. What percent of the total area of the circular disk is colored red? (a) 66.3% (b) 66.5% (c) 66.7% (d) 67% 67. Amy has to visit towns B and C in any order. The roads connecting these towns with her home are shown on the diagram. How many different routes can she take starting from A and returning to A, going through both B and C (but not more than once through each) and not travelling any road twice on the same trip? (a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 4 68. In the figure above AD = 4, AB = 3 and CD = 9. What is the area of triangle AEC ? (a) 18 (b) 13.5 (c) 9 (d) 4.5 69. Which of the following could be a value of x, in the diagram above?
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(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 50 70. The graphs above show United States Census Bureau population figures for the year 2000 for various age groups, together with projections for the year 2050. Of the following age groups, for which is the projected percent increase in population from 2000 to 2050 greatest? (a) 30-39 (b) 40-49 (c) 50-59 (d) 60-69 71. If line l is the perpendicular bisector of the line segment with endpoints (2,0) and (0,-2), what is the slope of line l? (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) -1 72. The front, side, and bottom faces of a rectangular solid have areas of 24 square centimeters, 8 square centimeters, and 3 square centimeters, respectively. What is the volume of the solid, in cubic centimeters? (a) 24 (b) 96 (c) 192 (d) 288 73. Rectangle ABCD is inscribed in the circle shown above. If the length of side AB is 5 and the length of side BC is 12, what is the area of the shaded region? (a) 40.28 (b) 53.1 (c) 72.7 (d) 78.5 74. On a regular six-sided die, what is the probability that you will roll an even number if you throw the die?
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(a) 1/6 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/2 (d) 5/6 75. Let's say you and your friend play a game that involves several coin flips. You flip three coins at the same time. If all three coins come up the same (all heads or all tails), your friend wins. Otherwise, you win. What is the probability that you win? (a) 3/4 (b) 1/2 (c) 3/8 (d) 1/4 76. A spinner is divided into five equal sections, with each section having a different number from 1-5 written on it. When you spin the spinner once, the arrow lands on 1. What is the probability that the spinner lands on 1 when you spin it again? (a) 2/5 (b) 1/25 (c) 1/5 (d) 0 77. You play a game in which you flip a coin until you get tails. Each time your coin comes up heads, you win $200. If you play the game only once, what is the probability that you make exactly $1000? (a) 1/2 (b) 1/32 (c) 1/64 (d) 1/16 78. A spinner is divided into twelve equal sections and each section is then labeled with a different number from one to twelve. What is the probability of spinning a composite number if you spin the spinner once? (a) 5/12 (b) 1/2 (c) 7/12 (d) 1/3 79. In the figure below, each side of square ABCD is divided into three equal parts. If a point is chosen at random inside the square, what is the probability it will be in the shaded region? (a) 1/9
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(b) 1/8 (c) 1/6 (d) 1/4 80. In the figure below, the circle with center O is inscribed in square ABCD. Line segment AO intersects the circle at P. What is the length of AP ? (a) 1 (b) (c) (d)

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Detailed Solution Model Test I General Study Paper II 1. (b) suggest more careful evaluation of a type of business investment (Because investment in service might not lead to any advanage as suggested by the example of the bank) 2. (c) basis on which they need to be weighed (Because "Investments in service, like those in production and distribution, must be balanced against other types of investments") 3. (a) It enabled the bank to retain customers at an acceptable rate (Because the regional bank invested " in reducing the time a customer had to wait for a teller" and as such the bank was providing service reasonably which was acceptable to the customers) 4. (d) was an innovation that competing banks could have imitated (Because the last para tells that the bank did not analyze "their service improvement to determine whether it would attract new customers by producing a new standard of service that would excite customers or by proving difficult for competitors to copy") 5. (d) It provides an example of the point about investment in service made in the first paragraph (Because the first para tells that the investment in service might not be advantageous and in the second para he gives the example of one regional bank) 6. (b) emphasize the relatively low value of the investment in service improvement (Because the investment in service improvement did not prove to be advantageous to banks by way of acquiring new customers so the only advantage is that they can explain their service improvement to their existing customers) 7. (b) explaining two different kinds of immunological reactions (Because the first reaction is the typical "antigen-antibody immunological reaction") and the second reaction as suggested by para 2 is "cell-mediated immunity") 8. (d) antigens have no apparent mechanism to direct the formation of an antibody (Because "When molecular biologists discovered, moreover, that such information cannot flow from protein to protein, but only from nucleic acid to protein, the theory that an antigen itself provided the mold that directed the synthesis of an antibody had to be seriously qualified") 9. (d) is a partial explanation (Because the author does not discard this theory but goes on to discuss the second king of immunological reaction i.e., cell mediated immunity)

10. (c) destruction of antibodies (Because the second para tells that "the primary difficulty with the antigen-antibody explanation is the informational problem of how an antigen is recognized and how a structure exactly complementary to it is then synthesized" and the third para suggests that "Such lymphocytes do not give rise to antibody-producing plasma cells but themselves bring about the death of the foreign-tissue cells") 11. (a) I only (Because the third para tells that "Such lymphocytes do not give rise to antibody-producing plasma cells") 12. (b) proteins could have been shown to direct the synthesis of other proteins (Because "When molecular biologists discovered, moreover, that such information cannot flow from protein to protein, but only from nucleic acid to protein, the theory that an antigen itself provided the mold that directed the synthesis of an antibody had to be seriously qualified.") 13. (a) I only (Because the first para tells that "antigenic particles are engulfed by and very often digested by macrophages and polymorphs." and the third para tells that "Such lymphocytes do not give rise to antibody-producing plasma cells but themselves bring about the death of the foreign-tissue cells") 14. (b) explaining how cell mediation accounts for phenomena that the antigenantibody theory cannot account for (Because the second para tells that "the theory that an antigen itself provided the mold that directed the synthesis of an antibody had to be seriously qualified" and then "realize that a second immunological reaction is mediated through the lymphocytes that are hostile to and bring about the destruction of the antigen") 15. (a) The Origins and Effects of Supernovas (Because the author starts with the origin of Supernova and then proceeds explaining the effects of Supernovas) 16. (c) about once every fifty years (Because "About twice every century" means once in 50 years) 17. (a) are caused by the collision of large galaxies (Because "one of the massive stars in our galaxy blows itself apart in a supernova explosion" collision of galaxy is not the reason for Supernova) 18. (a) Analogy (Because "The general picture that has been developed for the supernova explosion and its aftermath goes something like this" shows the use of analogy with some other phenomenon) 19. (c) include material not created in the normal development of our solar system (Because the use of anomalous in "Recent discoveries of meteorites with anomalous concentrations of certain isotopes")

20. (a) it is sometimes easier to detect supernovas by observation of the X-ray spectrum than by observation of visible wavelengths of light (Because "This gas will emit most of its energy at X-ray wavelengths, so it is not surprising that X-ray observatories have provided some of the most useful insights into the nature of the supernova phenomenon") 21. (d) An ordinary star exhausts its supply of nuclear fuel and begins to collapse (Because the first para tells that "Eventually the nuclear fuel is exhausted, and the pressure drops in the core. With nothing to hold it up, the matter in the center of the star collapses inward") 22. (b) an intermediate stage between an ordinary star and a supernova (Because the first para tells about the formation of neutron star from the ordinary star and the second para tells about the consequent formation of the supernova) 23. (d) describing the sequence of scientific events (Because the author has focused on the sequence of the formation of the supernova from the ordinary star) 24. Cannot say The improvement is given in the passage as a percentage, and it is true to say that the numbers of test-takers has increased (indeed, to record levels). However the passage does not tell us explicitly why the results have improved. 25. Cannot say Some people have expressed concerns that the exams are getting easier, but no evidence of this notion is given in the passage. 26. Cannot say This suggestion was made by the general secretary of the Association of Teachers and Lecturers. Although the secretary of the University and College Union (Sally Hunt) defended the results, the passage does not explicitly tell us that Sally Hunt did or did not state students are being spoon-fed to pass examinations (it might be implied she did not say this but it is not stated). For example she could have said this at another time but we do not know for sure given just the information in the passage. 27. The Great Stink occurred in London. True 28. Cannot say First of all the project referred to in the passage relates to developing countries,

whereas the statement is broad, about all people in general. So immediately we cannot say. But also we are told about developing countries that there are 1 billion people who have no toilet and that more than 50 million toilets will be built that is a ratio of above 20 to 1. 29. True The last sentence in the passage states that This plan is part of the departments broader strategy to help poor countries in Africa and Asia....So if they have a strategy for a broader action, we can infer they intend to do more. 30. Step 1 - Put the 3 countries into a ratio Austria (Quarter 4) : Portugal (Quarter 1): Greek (Quarter 4) = 35,000: 28,000: 21,000 Step 2 simplify the ratio (recognize that 7 is a common denominator) 5:4:3 Thus the correct answer is (D), 5:4:3 31. Tip: Notice that all the available answers have just one country, so we know that as soon as we have found one country that exceeded its target, we have the correct answer and we can move on. Step 1 Calculate the total unit sales for each country Greece = 108,300 Portugal = 104,200 Austria = 105,800 Ireland = 102,400 Crotia = 105,200 Step 2 Compare each total to the Yearly Target (Unit sales) Targets are either 105,000 or 110,000. Only Austria has exceeded its 105,000 target. Thus the correct answer is (C), Austria 32. Step 1 calculate this years average number of Portuguese units sold per quarter (28,000 + 33,200 + 22,600 + 20,400) / 4 = 104,200 /4 = 26,050 Step 2 calculate a 20% increase to get last years average number of Portuguese units sold per quarter 26,050 x 1.2 = 31,260 Thus the correct answer is (B), 31,260 33. Step 1 Calculate the Total value of Austrian unit sales Total Austrian unit sales = 105,800

Total value of Austrian unit sales = 105,800 x 3.5 = 370,300 Step 2 - Calculate the corporation tax for the first 200,000 of Austrian unit sales 200,000 x 22% = 44,000 Step 3 - Calculate the tax for sales exceeding 200,000 370,300 - 200,000 = 170,300 170,300 x 20% = 34,060 Step 4 calculate the total tax 44,000 + 34,060 Thus the correct answer is (D), 78,060 34. Step 1 Calculate the Total value of Austrian unit sales Total Austrian unit sales = 105,800 Total value of Austrian unit sales = 105,800 x 3.5 = 370,300 Step 2 - Calculate the corporation tax for the first 200,000 of Austrian unit sales 200,000 x 22% = 44,000 Step 3 - Calculate the tax for sales exceeding 200,000 370,300 - 200,000 = 170,300 170,300 x 20% = 34,060 Step 4 calculate the total tax 44,000 + 34,060 Thus the correct answer is (D), 78,060 35. The information that you need is shown in the table. Step 1 Calculate the number of daily customers for each competitor, as shown below: Per 4.2 2.2 4.5 3.1 2.4 month Per day /30 = 0.14 /30 = 0.073 /30 = 0.073 /30 = 0.103 /30 = 0.08 (millions) These figures are in millions. Thus the correct answer is (D), Competitors B and E 36. The information that you need is shown in the table. Calculate the average number of staff per country of operation for each Competitor, as shown below A 325,000/38 B 180,000/30 C 295,000/22 D 204,000/28 E 154,000/32

Staff / Countri es of operati on

= 8,553

= 6,000

= 13,409

= 7,286

= 4,813

Thus the correct answer is (D), Competitor E 37. The information that you need is shown in the graph. Step 1 Calculate the total operating profits for Competitors B to E 45.4 + 56.5 + 42.9 + 42.7 = 187.5 million Step 2 Calculate operating profits for the entire sector 187.5 0.85 = 220.6 million. Step 3 Calculate other companies operating profits 220.6 x 15% = 33.09 million = 33 million approx. Thus the correct answer is (C), 33 million 38. The information that you need is shown in the graph. Step 1 Calculate the additional sales for Competitor B 52.5 x 8% = 4.20 Step 2 Calculate the additional sales for Competitor A 57.4 x 7% = 4.02 Step 3 Calculate the additional sales for Competitor C 68.2 x 4% = 2.73 Step 4 Calculate the total sales 4.20 + 4.02 + 2.73 = 10.95 Step 5 to the nearest million 10.95 = 11 million Thus the correct answer is (C), 11 million 39. The information that you need is shown in the table. Calculate the average number of customers per country of operation for each Competitor Competitor A = 4.2/38 = 0.111 Competitor B = 2.2/30 = 0.073 Competitor C = 4.5/22 = 0.205 Competitor D = 3.1/28 = 0.111 Competitor E = 2.4/32 = 0.080 Thus the correct answer is (A), Competitor A and Competitor D 40.

Solution: D Explanation: In this question there is a die with six faces containing 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 dots respectively.

The die is rotated by 90 anticlockwise about each of the two axes of symmetry shown in the diagram. These rotations are performed alternately - first a rotation about Axis 1, then a rotation about Axis 2, then back to Axis 1, etc. Following these rules, the next rotation should be about Axis 1 and the correct answer is D. (Note that it can be deduced from the previous diagrams which faces of the die are opposite each other. This follows the simple rule that the numbers on opposite faces always add to 7.) 41.

Solution: B Explanation: In this question there are two different designs of flag depending on which way the diagonal is drawn. There are two rules to follow alternately. The first rule is that the design of flag changes and at the same time the colours change black/grey changes to white/black, changes to grey/white, then back to black/grey etc. The second rule is that the flag is reflected in the vertical axis. In this case the colours do not change. For the next diagram of the sequence, therefore, the first rule must be applied. We change to the other design of flag and the colours change to black/grey. The correct answer, therefore, is B. 42.

Solution: C Explanation: In this question there is a five pointed star inside a regular pentagon. There is also an asterisk and a dot. The dot moves around the inside points of the five-pointed star, rotating by 72 clockwise each time. The asterisk moves around the five triangles between the star and the regular pentagon and rotates by 144 anticlockwise each time. When both of these rules are applied simultaneously, the missing diagram of the sequence must be C. 43.

Solution: D Explanation: In this question there is a grid of squares with a black L shape, a light grey H shape and a dark grey I shape. Each time, the L shape moves right one place and down one place. Each time, the H shape moves to the left one place. Where the L intersects with the H, the black colour of the L obscures the light grey of the H. Where the I intersects with the H, the dark grey of the I obscures the light grey of the H. The I shape does not appear in the first diagram, but then moves one place right and one place up each time. When any of the shapes reach an edge of the grid, the parts that move off from the grid disappear. Following these rules, the next diagram of the sequence must be D. 44.

Solution: A Explanation: In this question there are eight matchsticks of two different colours. Each time, the middle two matchsticks are turned upside down and then the matchstick on the far right is moved to the left. When these two rules are applied simultaneously, the correct answer is A. 45. a. The middle letters are static, so concentrate on the first and third letters. The series involves an alphabetical order with a reversal of the letters. The first letters are in alphabetical order: F, G, H, I, J. The second and fourth segments are reversals of the first and third segments. The missing segment begins with a new letter. 46. a. This series consists of a simple alphabetical order with the first two letters of all segments: B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K. The third letter of each segment is a repetition of the first letter. 47. d. There are three series to look for here. The first letters are alphabetical in reverse: Z, Y, X, W, V. The second letters are in alphabetical order, beginning with A. The number series is as follows: 5, 4, 6, 3, 7. 48. c. A leopard, cougar, and lion all belong to the cat family; an elephant does not. 49. b. The couch, table, and chair are pieces of furniture; the rug is not.

50. a. The yarn, twine, and cord are all used for tying. The tape is not used in the same way. 51. c. A skein is a quantity of yarn; a ream is a quantity of paper. 52. b. To tailor a suit is to alter it; to edit a manuscript is to alter it. 53. d. A conductor leads an orchestra; a skipper leads a crew. 54. a. Jaundice is an indication of a liver problem; rash is an indication of a skin problem. 55. b. A cobbler makes and repairs shoes; a contractor builds and repairs buildings. 56. e. To be phobic is to be extremely fearful; to be asinine is to be extremely silly. 57. b. Valerie signed a legally binding document that requires her to pay a monthly rent for her apartment and she has failed to do this for the last three months. Therefore, she has violated her apartment lease. 58. a. Jake damaged Leslies camera while it was in his possession and he has agreed to compensate Leslie for the cost of the repair. 59.d. This is the only situation in which someone makes an assumption that is not based on conclusive evidence. Choices a and c reflect situations in which assumptions are made based on evidence. In choice b, Mary is not assuming anything to be true. She is simply wishing that shed made a different decision. 60.d. Choices a, b, and c do not describe situations in which a product is guaranteed. Only choice d reflects a situation in which a seller attests to the quality of a product by giving the buyer a promise or assurance about its quality. 61. c. Malcolm is the only person returning to a social system that he has been away from for an extended period of time. 62.b. The realtor is using a clear exaggeration when she states that a house which is eleven blocks away from the ocean is prime waterfront property. 63. a. The vice presidents car cannot be red, because that is the CEOs car, which is in the first space. Nor can it be purple, because that is the treasurers car, which is in the last space, or yellow, because that is the secretarys. The presidents car must be blue, because it is parked between a red car (in the first space) and a green car, which must be the vice presidents.

64. c. The CEO drives a red car and parks in the first space. Enid drives a green car; Berts car is not in the first space; Davids is not in the first space, but the last. Alices car is parked next to Davids, so Cheryl is the CEO. 65. e. Cheryl cannot be the secretary, since shes the CEO, nor can Enid, because she drives a green car, and the secretary drives a yellow car. Davids, the purple car, is in the last space. Alice is the secretary, because her car is parked next to Davids, which is where the secretarys car is parked. 66. c: Total area of disk Ad = pi * r 2 Angle t in radians of central angle of red sector t = (360-120)* pi / 180 = (4/3) pi Area of red sector As = (1/2) t * r 2 Percentage of total area in red P = [ (1/2) t * r 2 ] / [ pi * r 2 ] = 4 / 6 = 66.7% (3 significant digits) 67. b: Amy can travel clockwise or anticlockwise on the diagram. Clockwise, she has no choice of route from A to B, a choice of one out of two routes from B to C, and a choice of one out of two routes from C back to A. This gives four possible routes. Similarly, anticlockwise she has four different routes. Total routes = 8 68. d: If we take AE as the base of triangle AEC, then the height is CD. The height of the triangle is therefore, 9 (given). To find the base we need to see that triangles AEB and CDE are similar. The ratio AB: CD, is therefore equal to the ratio AE: ED. The given information shows that the ratio is 3:9, or 1:3. Now dividing AD (4) in this ratio gives us AE as 1. The area of AEC = base x height =1/2 x 9 = 4.5 69. b: The marked angle, ABC must be more than 90 degrees because it is the external angle of triangle BDC, and must be equal to the sum of angles BDC (90) and DCB. Also ABC is not a straight line and must be less than 180. Therefore 90 < 5x < 180 The only value of x which satisfies this relation is 20. 70. d: To determine for which of the five age groups in the options the projected percent

74. c: The correct answer is 1/2. There are six numbers on a die: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. There are three even numbers on the die: 2, 4, and 6. 3 out of six numbers are even. 3/6 reduces to 1/2. 75. a: The correct answer is 3/4. A quick way of going about this problem is determining the probability that one of your friend's outcomes will appear. The probability of multiple events happening is equal to the product of the probability of each single event. The probability of flipping heads is 1/2, so the probability of flipping three heads in a row would be (1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2), or 1/8. The same thing occurs in the tails. (1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2) is equal to 1/8. The probability of your friend winning is 2/8, or 1/4. Subtract 1/4 from 1 to get 3/4, the probability of you winning 76. c: The correct answer was 1/5. Even though the spinner just landed on 1, it doesn't change the outcome of the next spin. There is only one way to spin a 1, and there are five spots for the spinner to land on. The probability is 1/5 77. c: The correct answer was 1/64. You have to flip heads five times in a row to win $1000. The probability of flipping heads once is 1/2, so the probability of flipping heads five times would be (1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2), or 1/32. However, the game is not over yet. In order to end the game, you must now flip tails. The probability of that is 1/2. 1/2 * 1/32 = 1/64. 78. b: The correct answer was 1/2. A composite number is a number with more than two factors. We see that 4, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 12 are composite when we look at their factors. 6 out of the 12 numbers are composite. 6/12 simplifies to 1/2. 79. Since the answer doesnt depend on the value of x (the probability will be the same no matter what x is), let x = 1. Then the area of the whole square is 32 = 9. The area of each shaded triangle or of all the white sections can be calculated, but theres an easier way: notice that, if you slide the four shaded triangles

together, they form a square of side 1. Therefore, the total shaded area is 1, and so the shaded area is 1/9 of the total area and the probability that the chosen point is in the shaded area is 1/9 (A). The idea of subtracting a part from the whole works with line segments as well as areas. 80.