1.

It allows the man to lie on back:

A) the m. erector spinae is long and large
B) S-shaped vertebral column
C) the m. latissimus dorsi is long and large
D) well-developing and large gluteal muscles
E) the m. trapezius is wide and large
2. From the II visceral arch develops:
A) maxilla
B) vaqus
C) mastication muscle
D) styloid process of the temporal bone
E) incus
3. By which anatomical structure are formed the intercrural fibers?
A) fascia propria organi
B) aponeurosis of m. obliquus externus abdominis
C) aponeurosis of m. obliquus internus abdominis
D) lamina profunda of fascia abdominalis superficialis
E) fascia endoabdominalis
4. What doesnt belongs to the features of the facial expression?
A) covered by fascia
B) does not covered by fascia
C) it is non-tendinous
D) it is short
E) are not doubly attached to the bones
5. What are the structural elements of the bone?
A) fascia
B) substantia compacta
C) capsula articularis
D) cavitas articularis
E) cartilago articularis
6. This is not the function of the skeleton:
A) movement
B) respiration
C) protection
D) biological
E) support
7. What is the shape of the humeroradial joint?
A) condylaris
B) cotylica
C) cylender
D) plana
E) ball-and -socket
8. How many bones does the tarsus consist of?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 3
D) 7
E) 5
9. How many lamellae does a medium-sized osteon contain?
A) about 50
B) about 60
C) about 70
D) about 30
E) about 70
10. The long arch of the foot is the
A) V
B) III
C) IV
D) I
E) II
11. The medial group muscles of the thigh
A) adducts, flexes and laterally rotates the thigh
B) abducts, flexes and laterally rotates the thigh
C) abducts, extenses and medially rotates the thigh
D) flexes, extenses and adducts
E) adducts, extenses and medially rotates the thigh
12. Where is the yellow bone marrow mostly located?
A) in epiphisis of long bones
B) in short bones
C) in flat bones
D) in diaphisis of long bones
E) in spongy substance
13. Define the muscles that do not act the rotation:
A) 2;5
B) 3;4
C) 1;4
D) 4;5
E) 2;3
14. What is passed between the lateral and intermediate bundles of the crura of the
diaphragm?
A) aorta
B) vena cava inferior
C) esophagus
D) azygos vein
E) sympathetic trunk
15. The muscle originating from the fovea pterygoidea
A) m.pterygoideus lateralis
B) m.temporalis
C) m.pterygoideus medialis
D) m.masseter
E) m.buccinator
16. The mixed bones:
A) patella
B) humerus
C) calcaneus
D) temporal
E) scapula
17. In the interphalangeal joint around the frontal axis is possible
A) pronation
B) rotation
C) flexion
D) abduction
E) circumduction
18. The muscles draws the little finger toward the thumb
A) m.opponens digiti minimi
B) m.abductor digiti minimi
C) m.adductor pollicis
D) m.palmaris brevis
E) m.lumbricales
19. What is function is fulfilled by the suprahyoid muscles when the mandibule bone
is steady?
A) depresses the mandibule
B) raises the hyoid
C) drows the head to side
D) drows the head to back
E) depresses the hyoid
20. In a living, which distance is helpful for the prognosis of the normal course of
the birth process?
A) between the iliopubic eminence of one side and sacroiliac joint of another side
B) between the most protuberant point of pubic symphysis towards the pelvic cavity and
promontory of sacrum
C) between the farthest points of the iliac crest
D) between the upper border of the and promontory of sacrum
E) between the lower border of the pubic symphysis and promontory of sacrum
21. This isnt belongs to the spongyoze bones
A) calcaneus
B) talus
C) os lunatum
D) femur
E) os scaphoid
22. The muscles of the forearm during combined action opposing sides adducted
the hand
A) m.extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
B) m.flexor carpi ulnaris and m.flexor digitorum superficialis
C) m.flexor carpi ulnaris and m.extensor carpi ulnaris
D) m.flexor carpi ulnaris and m.extensor carpi radialis longus
E) m.pronator teres and palmaris longus
23. The muscles located above the hyoid bone are
A) m. digastricus and geniohyoideus
B) m. scalenus anterior and posterior
C) m. omohyoideus and thyreohyoideus
D) m. sternocleidomastoideus
E) m. scarlenus anterior and medius
24. Which sternocostal joint differs from other corresponding joints for the present
of intra-articular ligament?
A) VII
B) III
C) II
D) V
E) IV
25. The tuberculum caroticum located on the:
A) IV cervical vertebra
B) VI cervical vertebra
C) V cervical vertebra
D) II cervical vertebra
E) III cervical vertebra
26. Define the bone that does not take part in any joint:
A) hyoid
B) patella
C) scapula
D) hamate
E) triquetrum
27. How many parts does the temporal bone have?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 2
D) 5
E) 6
28. In which bone, the ossification center appears early, but the process of
ossification ends the latest?
A) clavicle
B) scapula
C) frontal bone
D) mandible
E) maxilla
29. The processus mammilaris is located in the
A) sacral vertebrae
B) cervical vertebrae
C) coccygeal vertebrae
D) thoracic vertebrae
E) lumbar vertebrae
30. Moves the mandible laterally:
A) m. pterygoideus lateralis
B) m. pterygoideus medialis
C) m. temporalis
D) m. stylohyoideus
E) m. masseter
31. What is called joining of the transverse processes of the sacral bone?
A) crista medialis
B) linea transversae
C) promontorium
D) crista lateralis
E) crista intermedius
32. During what age is the gradual ossification of the sutures formed?
A) after 6-7years
B) after 10-12 years
C) after 35-37 years
D) after 15-17 years
E) after 12-14 years
33. What form during the hernias of the thigh?
A) canalis femoralis
B) canalis adductorius
C) canalis obturatorius
D) canalis musculo-peroneus superius
E) canalis cruropopliteus
34. How many triangles are distinguished in the trigonum colli mediale?
A) 5
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1
E) 6
35. What are the free ribs?
A) XI and XII
B) III and IV
C) V and VI
D) I and II
E) IX and X
36. The contracting part of the skeletal muscle
A) ligament
B) tendon
C) fascia
D) belly
E) synovial bursae
37. What is muscle forming the arterior wall of the canalis cruropopliteus?
A) m.flexor digitorum longus
B) m.tibialis posterior
C) m.tibialis anterior
D) m.extensor hallucis longus
E) m.soleus
38. To which anatomical structure is belong the plica umbilicalis medialis?
A) lig. umbilicalis medialis
B) a. epigastrica superior
C) a. epigastrica inferior
D) lig. umbilicalis medianus
E) lig. umbilicalis lateralis
39. What is the length of the vertebral column in female?
A) 69.1-71.0 cm
B) 85.2-87.5 cm
C) 100.3-110.4 cm
D) 97.3-99.1 cm
E) 101.2-100.5 cm
40. How is called the transverse thickening of the antebrachial fascia at the level of
the dorsal border of the wrist?
A) lig. collaterale carpi ulnare
B) retinaculum extensorum
C) lig. collaterale carpi radiale
D) retinaculum flexorum
E) lig. radiocarpeum palmare
41. It inserts to the head of fibula:
A) m. adductor longus
B) m. semimembranosus
C) m. pectineus
D) m. semitendinosus
E) m. biceps femoris
42. Which structure may be injured during the sections under the inguinal ligament,
in the superior-lateral region of the anterior surface of thigh?
A) femoral artery
B) iliopubic arch
C) femoral nerve
D) femoral vein
E) m. sartorius
43. What is located between the flexor carpi radialis and digitorum superficialis
muscles?
A) ulnar groove
B) median groove
C) medial bicipital groove
D) lateral bicipital groove
E) radial groove
44. Where is the groove for ulnar nerve in the humerus located?
A) behind of the epicondylus medialis
B) in front of the epicondylus lateralis
C) in front of the condylus lateralis
D) in the middle of the body of humerus bone
E) behind of the condylus medialis
45. The muscles belong to the deep group muscles of the back
A) m.latissimus dorsi
B) m.levator scapulae
C) m.serratus posterior superior
D) m.erector spinae
E) m.trapezius
46. Where in the radius bone is located the styloid process?
A) in the medial side of the distal end
B) in the medial side of the superior end
C) in the lateral side of the distal end
D) in the lateral side of the superior end
E) on the superior end
47. What is the transverse diameter of the outlet of the lesser pelvis?
A) 13
B) 14
C) 10
D) 11
E) 12
48. What is the first bone of the proximal row of the wrist?
A) os lunatum
B) os scaphoideum
C) os capitatum
D) os trapezium
E) os triquetrum
49. The dorsal muscles of the foot
A) m.abductor hallucis
B) m.opponens digiti minimi
C) m.quadratus plantae
D) m.extensor digitorum brevis
E) m.adductor hallucis
50. What is the first bone of the distal row of the wrist?
A) os scaphoideum
B) os triquetrum
C) os lunatum
D) os capitatum
E) os trapezium
51. Flexes elbow
A) m.abductor digiti minimi
B) m.brachioradialis
C) m. flexor digiti minimi brevis
D) m.palmaris brevis
E) m.opponens digiti minimi
52. The muscles is tensed articular capsule of the knee joint when flexes the leg
A) m. flexor digitorum longus
B) m. triceps surae
C) m. plantaris
D) m. flexor hallucis longus
E) m. tibialis posterior
53. What is present in the formation of the posterior walls of the pterygopalatinal
fossa?
A) os sphenoidale
B) maxilla
C) os zygomaticum.
D) os nasale
E) os frontale
54. This isnt according to the ilium:
A) crista pubica
B) crista iliaca
C) linea arcuata
D) lineae gluteae
E) labium internum
55. Define the features corresponding to static and dynamic muscles:
A) 1- b, d; f 2- a, c; e
B) 1- a, d; c 2- b, e; f
C) 1- b, c; f 2- a, d; e
D) 1- d; e; f 2- a; b; c
E) 1- a, d; e 2- b, c; f
56. The function of the pectoralis minor muscle
A) depresses,rotates downward scapula
B) adducts the arm
C) medially rotates the forearm
D) laterally rotates the forearm
E) abducts the arm
57. The fibers of which muscle form the linea semilunaris?
A) m. quadratus lumborum
B) m. obliquus internus abdominis
C) m. transversus abdominis
D) m. rectus abdominis
Type of muscle Feature
a) occurs the strong motion
b) consists of more connective tissue
elements
1. Static
c) less support surfaces of originating
and inserting ends
d) spends the long time force
e) spends the more force
2. Dynamic
f) can stay in the same situation
E) m. obliquus externus abdominis
58. On the distal epiphysis of the tibia is located:
A) condylus lateralis
B) tuberculum intercondylare laterale
C) tuberculum intercondylare mediale
D) malleolus medialis
E) condylus medialis
59. What means the term "Origo"?
A) near end of muscles to the midline in the trunk
B) tendinous intersections of the some muscles
C) connective tissue covering the muscle fibers
D) near end of muscles to the distal part in the extremities
E) connective tissue covering the muscle bundles
60. This does not belong to the posterior group muscles of the thigh
A) m.semitendinosus
B) m.semimembranosus
C) m.popliteus
D) m.biceps femoris
E) m.sartorius
61. Define the wrong expression:
A) ethmoid bone participates in formation of the wall of orbit
B) frontal bone opens into the superior nasal meatus
C) maxillary sinus opens into the middle nasal meatus
D) sphenoid sinus opens into the superior nasal meatus
E) palatine bone participates in formation of the wall of orbit
62. What shape is the the subtalaris joint?
A) condylar
B) spheric
C) trochoid
D) flat
E) ellipsoid
63. What arent the parts of the heel bone?
A) facies articularis calcanei anterior
B) sustentaculi tali,tuber calcanei
C) facies articularis calcanei media
D) caput,trochlea tali
E) facies articularis calcanei posterior
64. What is muscle that passes out through the lesser ischiadic foramen?
A) m.obturatorius internus
B) m.gemellus superior
C) m.obturatorius externus
D) m.gemellus inferior
E) m.quadratus femoris
65. It is not belong to the suboccipital muscles:
A) m. rectus capitis lateralis
B) m. rectus capitis posterior minor
C) m. obliquus capitis inferior
D) m. obliquus capitis superior
E) m. rectus capitis posterior major
66. The sulcus plantaris medialis is surrounded by what muscles?
A) m. flexor digitorum brevis and m. abductor hallucis
B) m. flexor digitorum and m. guadratus plantae
C) m. flexor digitorum and m. abductor digiti minimi
D) m. flexor digitorum and mm.lumbricales
E) m. flexor digitorum and mm. interossei plantares
67. What is the longer metatarsal bone?
A) V
B) II
C) IV
D) I
E) III
68. What is the internal layer of the periosteum called?
A) tunica mucosa
B) tunica serosa
C) tunica fibroelastica
D) tunica muscularis
E) fascia
69. The muscle during contraction, wrinkles the skin of the forehead
A) procerus muscle
B) orbicularis oculi muscle
C) epicranius muscle
D) corrugator supercilli muscle
E) nasal muscle
70. The inferior angle of the popliteal fossa is surrounded by what anatomical
being?
A) biceps femoris and popliteus muscles
B) semimembranosus and semitendtinosus muscles
C) adductor longus and adductor brevis muscles
D) both heads of the gastrocnemius muscle
E) adductor longus and adductor magnus muscles
71. Where is inserted the tendons of the extensor digitorum muscle?
A) to the palmar surface of distal phalanges of the II-V fingers
B) to the dorsal surface of middle and distal phalanges of the II-V fingers
C) to the palmar surface of proximal phalanges of the II-V fingers
D) to the dorsal surface of proximal and distal phalanges of the II-V fingers
E) to the dorsal surface of proximal and middle phalanges of the II-V fingers
72. The muscles elevate and protract mandible
A) pterygoid muscles
B) orbicularis oculi muscle
C) nasal muscle
D) orbicularis oris muscle
E) risorius muscle
73. In the anterior surface of the maxilla is located
A) foramen infraorbitale
B) sulcus palatinus
C) sulcus infraorbitalis
D) hiatus maxillaris
E) sulcus lacrimalis
74. How many sm is distantia trochanterica?
A) 29-31
B) 30-32
C) 28-30
D) 31-33
E) 32-34
75. The external profundus layer of the pelvic muscles
A) m. quadratus femoris
B) m. gluteus minimus
C) m. gluteus medius
D) m. piriformis
E) m. obturatorius internus
76. By what are the articulating surfaces of the temporomandibular joint
complemented?
A) intracapsular ligament
B) articular labrum
C) extracapsular ligament
D) articular disc
E) synovial fold
77. What is located in the cerebral surface of the sphenoid bone?
A) foramen lacerum
B) sulcus palatinus major
C) sulcus caroticus
D) foramen rotundum
E) foramen jugulare
78. What is the measurement of the diametr transversa?
A) 12,5-13
B) 13-13,5
C) 12-12,5
D) 13,5-14
E) 14-14,5
79. The musculus gluteus minimus
A) extends the thigh and prevents the torso from falling forward
B) abducts the hip
C) adducts the thigh
D) abducts and medially rotates the femur
E) extenses and adducts the thigh
80. The muscles are situated between the tendons of the deep flexor of the fingers
A) m.flexor pollicis brevis
B) m.interossei palmares
C) m.oppenens pollicis
D) m.interossei dorsales
E) m.lumbricales
81. The muscles raises the hyoid bone
A) infrahyoid
B) expression
C) mastication
D) back
E) suprahyoid
82. What is located on the medial surface of the angle of the mandible?
A) fossa digastrica
B) tuberositas pterygoidea
C) collum mandibulae
D) foramen mentale
E) spina mentalis
83. Where is attached the tendon of the iliopsoas muscle?
A) tuberositas glutea
B) trochanter minor
C) trochanter major
D) crista intertrochanterica
E) linea intertrochanterica
84. The muscles are present in the formation of the cubital fossa?
A) m.biceps and triceps brachii
B) m.brachioradialis and m.pronator teres
C) m.triceps brachii and anconeus
D) m.palmaris longus and brevis
E) m.brachialis and anconeus
85. The muscles is originated from the posterior tubercle of the transverce process
of the 5-6-th cervical vertebrae
A) m. scalenus posterior
B) m. scalenus anterior
C) m. scalenus medius
D) m. scalenus minimus
E) m. longus cervicalis
86. Which part of mandible develops differently from the remainder parts?
A) coronoid process
B) body of mandible
C) mental tubercle
D) angle of mandible
E) condylar process
87. Where is inserted the tendon of the biceps brachii muscle?
A) infgraglenoid tuberosity
B) radial tuberosity
C) coracoid process
D) supraqlenoid tuberosity
E) acromion
88. If the m. tensor fasciae latae is injured which actions of thigh may be
disordered?
A) flexion and adduction
B) extention and pronation
C) extention and supination
D) extention and abduction
E) flexion and pronation
89. The group muscles of the leg accomplishes the extenses of the foot and fingers
A) medial
B) lateral
C) anterior
D) anterior and medial
E) posterior
90. Define the accordance of cranial bones to types of the osteogenesis:
A) 1- b; h; z 2- a; c; g 3- d; e; f
B) 1- c; d; f 2- a, h; z 3- b; e; g
C) 1- a; e; h 2- b; d; f 3- c; g; z
D) 1- a; b; c 2- d; f; h 3- e; g; z
E) 1- d; f; e 2- b; c; h 3- a; g; z
91. Where is located the groove for the subclavian artery of the I rib?
A) in front of the tubercle of the rib
B) in front of the tubercle of the anterior scalenius muscle
C) behind the tubercle of the anterior scalenius muscle
D) in the neck of the rib
E) behind of the tubercle of the rib
Type of development Cranial bones
a) inferior nasal concha
b) maxilla
1. Chondral
c) occipital
d) vomer
e) ethmoid
2. Endesmal
f) frontal
g) sphenoid
h) hyoid
3. Chondral and endesmal
z) temporal
92. Determine the part of occipital bone that developes by the endochondral
ossification:
A) 3; 4
B) 2; 3
C) 2; 5
D) 4; 5
E) 1; 3
93. What is number of skeletal muscles in the body?
A) 200
B) 400
C) 300
D) 500
E) 100
94. What is the length of the vertebral column in male?
A) 100-110 cm
B) 85-87 cm
C) 73-75 cm
D) 115-118 cm
E) 97-99 cm
95. Pulls the hyoid bone forward:
A) m. masseter
B) m. palatoglossus
C) m. hyoglossus
D) m. stylohyoideus
E) m. geniohyoideus
96. Define the cranial measurement between the indicated points (cm):
A) 20.5-24.5
B) 9.5-11.5
C) 12.5-14.5
D) 16.5-19.5
E) 25.5- 28.5
97. What are present in the formation of the superior wall of the inguinal canal?
A) externus obliquus and transverse abdominis muscles
B) m.rectus abdominis
C) internus obliquus and transverse abdominis muscles
D) internus and externus obliguus abdominis muscles
E) quadratus lumborum muscle
98. Which points are used for the measure of facial morphological index?
I. Nasion
II. Prostion
III. Bregma
IV. Gnathion
V. Euryon
VI. Zigion
A) II;III;V
B) I;II;III
C) I;III;V
D) I;IV;VI
E) III;IV;VI
99. According to the origin of the fibres are distinguished the following parts in the
pectoralis major muscle
A) lumbar, costal and tendon
B) lumbar, sternal and costal
C) clavicular, sternocostal and abdominal
D) lumbar, clavicular and costal
E) lumbar, clavicular and abdominal
100. Which index of skull may be determined by measuring the distance between
the indicated points?
A) upper facial index
B) width index of skull and upper facial index
C) facial morphological index and upper indices
D) facial morphological index
E) height index of skull
101. What is formed the quadriceps femoris muscle?
A) rectus femoris, medial, intermediate and posterior
B) rectus femoris, medial, lateral and posterior muscles
C) rectus femoris, medial, intermediate and lateral vastus muscles
D) rectus femoris, medial, intermediate and anterior
E) rectus femoris, medial, lateral and anterior muscles
102. Define the structure that not located in the spatium interaponeuroticum
suprasternale:
A) subclavian vein
B) lymphatic vessels
C) adipose tissue
D) lymph nodes
E) jugular venous arch
103. The canalis adductoris is bounded by what muscles laterally?
A) m. sartorius
B) m. vastus medialis
C) m. vastus lateralis
D) m. rectus femoris
E) m. adductor magnus
104. According to the origin of fibers the following are distinguished in the muscular
part of the diaphragm
A) lumbar, sternocostal and abdominal
B) lumbar, costal and abdominal
C) costal, sternal and abdominal
D) lumbar, costal and sternal
E) sternocostal, abdominal and sternal
105. What is located on the squamous part of the temporal bone?
A) mandibular fossa
B) mastoid process
C) jugular fossa
D) subarcuate fossa
E) trigeminal impression
106. Which hernia is called as Epigastric hernia?
A) diaphragmatic hernia
B) lumbar hernia
C) umbilical hernia
D) inguinal hernia
E) hernia of line alba
107. The synovial sheath is organised
A) synovial bursae
B) aponeurosis
C) ligaments
D) visceral and parietal plates
E) false ligaments
108. This does not concern to the significance of the diaphragm
A) assistes the circulation of the blood
B) assistes the nutrition of muscles
C) acts as a muscles of inspiration
D) puled the pericardium downward
E) presses downward on the abdominal viscera
109. At what part of the sphenoid bone is the foramen ovale located?
A) body
B) pterygoid process
C) between the greater and lesser wings
D) lesser wing
E) greater wing
110. Which muscles are not located in the head corresponding their origin?
A) developted from I visceral arch
B) developted from cranial somites
C) developted from myotomes that located in the floor of oral cavity
D) developted from II visceral arch
E) dorsal muscles
111. The muscle originates from the plantar surface of the calcaneus
A) m.flexor digiti minimi
B) m.flexor digitorum brevis
C) m.lumbricales
D) m.opponens digiti minimi
E) m.abductor digiti minimi
112. The pterygopalatine fossa communicates with the orbit by the:
A) fissura pterygomaxillaris
B) fissura orbitaiis superior
C) foramen sphenopalatinum
D) foramen rotundum
E) canalis palatinus major
113. What is a large sesamoid bone?
A) radius
B) humerus
C) fibula
D) ulna
E) patella
114. The muscles is attached to the posterior surface of the calcaneal tuber
A) m.flexor digitorum longus
B) m.peroneus longus
C) m.peroneus brevis
D) m.tibialis posterior
E) m.triceps surae
115. Which bone participates in formation of the walls of oral, nasal cavities and
orbit?
A) vomer
B) temporal
C) palatine
D) zygomatic
E) mandible
116. Define the bone which does not have a paranasal sinus:
A) sphenoid
B) ethmoid
C) maxilla
D) frontal
E) palatine
117. The Pyrogowi triangle is bounded by what anatomical derivative superiorly?
A) n.hypoglossus
B) a. lingualis
C) tendo of the digastric muscle
D) a. facialis
E) n. facialis
118. The abdominal muscles give rise to the muscular bundle, the muscle raising
the testis-m. cremaster?
A) m. obliquus externus abdominis et m. pyramidalis
B) m. obliquus externus abdominis et m. transversus abdominis
C) m. obliquus internus abdominis et m. transversus abdominis
D) m. rectus abdominis et m.pyramidalis
E) m. transversus abdominis et m. pyramidalis
119. Between which bones is situated the latest ossifying fontanelle?
A) parietal and sphenoid
B) frontal and parietal
C) parietal and occipital
D) frontal and temporal
E) sphenoid and parietal
120. Morphofunctional unit of the bones:
A) osteoclast
B) osteon
C) osteoblast
D) periosteum
E) medulla osseum
121. Chest muscles related to the upper limb are
A) mm. subcostales
B) mm. intercostales interni
C) mm. transversus thoracis
D) mm. intercostales externi
E) m. serratus anterior
122. Where is situated the weaker part of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal?
A) in the medial inguinal fossa
B) in the lateral inguinal fossa
C) in the superficial ring
D) in the deep inguinal ring
E) in the supravesical fossa
123. Where is located the superficial inguinal ring?
A) in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal
B) in the inferior wall of the inguinal canal
C) in the anterior wall of the inguinal canal
D) in the superior wall of the inguinal canal
E) on the transverse fascia of the inguinal canal
124. Which bone does participate in formation of the walls of three cavities?
A) palatine
B) sphenoid
C) frontal
D) temporal
E) maxilla
125. What is communicating the nasal cavity with the mouth?
A) canalis nasolacrimalis
B) canalis incisivus
C) foramen sphenopalatinum
D) hiatus maxillary
E) infundibulum ethmoidalis.
126. The muscle does not arise on the ischial tuberosity
A) short head of the biceps femoris muscle
B) long head of the biceps femoris muscle
C) semimembranosus muscle
D) semitendinosus muscle
E) long head of the biceps femoris and semimembranosus muscles
127. The part of the linea alba is quite wide
A) in the medial part
B) in the lower part, at the level of the symphysis pubis
C) in the lateral part
D) in the upper part, at the level of the sternal xiphoid process
E) in the upper part, at the level of the umbilicus
128. This doesn't take part in formation of the medial wall of the orbits
A) zygomatic bone
B) lacrimal bone
C) ethmoid bone
D) maxilla
E) sphenoid bone
129. What communicates the pterygopalatine fossa with the nasal cavity?
A) optic canal
B) superior orbital fissure
C) sphenopalatine foramen
D) nasolacrimal canal
E) inferior orbital fissure
130. The muscles is the fan-shaped
A) medial pterygoid muscle
B) temporal muscle
C) masseter muscle
D) lateral pterygoid muscle
E) buccinator muscle
131. Define the muscle which does not directly attach to the bone:
A) m. flexor pollicis longus
B) m. flexor carpi radialis
C) m. extensor carpi ulnaris
D) m. palmaris longus
E) m. flexor carpi ulnaris
132. What forms the lateral wall of the infratemporal fossa?
A) os zygomaticus
B) os occipitalis
C) os frontalis
D) ramus mandibulae
E) maxilla
133. The tendons of the muscle are not inserted to the trochanteric fossa of the
thigh
A) m.gemellus superior
B) m.obturatorius internus
C) m.gemellus inferior
D) m.obturatorius externus
E) m.quadratus femoris
134. What arent the borders of the vomer?
A) anterior
B) superior
C) inferior
D) medial
E) posterior
135. What is the anterior border of the fossa cranii media?
A) pars petrosa of temporal bone
B) ala majoris os sphenoidale
C) margo posterior ala minoris
D) pars basillaris of occipital bone
E) pars squamosa of temporal bone
136. At what part of the maxilla is the canine fossa located?
A) on the anterior surface
B) on the orbital surface
C) on the nasal surface
D) on the infratemporal surface
E) on the frontal process
137. This isnt belongs to the long bones
A) ulna
B) calcaneus
C) humerus
D) radius
E) femur
138. The vertebral arch are connected with which ligaments?
A) lig.longitudinale anterius
B) lig.flava
C) lig.supraspinatus
D) ligg.interspinaria
E) ligg.intertransversaria.
139. It belongs to the abnormalities of bones of the trunk:
A) absent of styloid process of temporal bone
B) third condylar process of occipital bone
C) separating of parietal bone into two parts
D) joining of atlas with the skull
E) separating of squama occipitalis from other parts
140. Define the shapes which are specific for the articular surfaces of the monoaxial
and biaxial joints:
A) 1- b, c, f; 2- a, d, e
B) 1- b, d, f; 2- a, d, e
C) 1- a, d, e; 2- b, c, f
D) 1- b, d, c; 2- a, f, e
E) 1- d, f, e; 2- a, b, c
141. The muscles are attached to the gluteal tuberosity
A) m.gluteus maximus
B) m.tensor fasciae latae
C) m.gluteus medius
D) m.gluteus minimus
E) m.piriformis
142. Determine the vertebra hasnt body?
A) III cervical
B) I cervical
C) II cervical
D) IV cervical
E) V cervical
143. Saddle shaped joints:
A) calcaneocuboid
B) atlantoocipital
C) elbow
D) hip
E) shoulder
144. What is shape of the sternoclavicular joint?
A) sylender
B) trochoid
C) ellipsoid
D) spheroid
Joints Shape of the surfaces
a) ellipsoid
b) helical
1. Monoaxial
c) hindge
d) condylar
e) saddle
2. Biaxial
f) cylindrical
E) saddle
145. From which bones is the deltoid muscle are originated?
A) humerus, radius
B) clavicula, humerus
C) scapula, humerus
D) humerus, ulna
E) scapula, clavicula
146. Note the cause of formation of the tendinous intersections of some muscles:
A) weakly developing of muscle belly and strongly developing of the tendinous part
B) muscle developes from the far located myotomes
C) muscle developes from the closely located myotomes
D) nerves and vessels widely branch inside of the muscle
E) muscle occupies the great area
147. During the fracture of the medial epicondyle of humerus which nerve will be
injured?
A) medial brachial cutaneous nerve
B) axillary nerve
C) ulnar nerve
D) radial nerve
E) medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve
148. The radius does not joins with:
A) triquetrum
B) pisiform
C) ulna
D) lunate
E) scaphoid
149. If the patient cannot raise the shoulder-blade and adduct to spine, which
muscles do not function?
A) m. serratus posterior superior and m. levator scapulae
B) m. levator scapulae and m. rhomboideus
C) m. levator scapulae and m. latissimus dorsi
D) m. rhomboideus and m. serratus superior posterior
E) m. latissimus dorsi and m. rhomboideus
150. Where is attached the infraspinatus muscle?
A) greater tubercle of the humerus
B) the crest of lesser tubercle of the humerus
C) lesser tubercle of the humerus
D) acromion
E) the crest of greater tubercle of the humerus
151. In the atlantooccipital joint around the frontal axis occurs the flexion and
extension
A) 15
B) 25
C) 35
D) 45
E) 55
152. What is the shape of the shoulder joint?
A) saddle
B) plane
C) hinge
D) ellipsoid
E) ball-and-socket
153. What is ligaments strengthen the shoulder joint?
A) lig.coracoclavicularis
B) lig.acromioclavicularis
C) lig.collaterale radiale
D) lig.costoclavicularis
E) lig.coracohumeralis
154. The chemical characterics of bone:
A) 40% water,15,75%oil,13,4%orqanic and 20,85%inorqanic substances
B) 50% water,15,75%oil,13%orqanic and 21,85%inorqanic substances
C) 40% water,16,75%oil,12,4%orqanic and 21,85%inorqanic substances
D) 50% water,15,75%oil,12,4%orqanic and 21,85%inorqanic substances
E) 50% water,14,75%oil,12,4%orqanic and 22,85%inorqanic substances
155. In the elbow joint is possible
A) circumduction
B) adduction
C) abduction
D) pronation
E) elevation
156. The elbow joints belongs to the type
A) simplex
B) condylaris
C) cotylica
D) cylinder
E) complex
157. What is the shape of the proximal radioulnar joint?
A) plana
B) condylaris
C) cotylica
D) cylender
E) spheric
158. How many bones are in the new borns skeleton?
A) 200
B) 150
C) 250
D) 300
E) 350
159. What is the shape of the humeroulnar joint?
A) cotylica
B) plana
C) condylaris
D) cylender
E) trochoid
160. What is located on the anterior surface of the scapula?
A) fossa supraspinata
B) incisura scapulae
C) cavitas glenoidalis
D) fossa infraspinata
E) fossa subscapularis
161. What is the shape of the radiocarpal joint?
A) ball-and socket
B) flat
C) cylender
D) ellipsoid
E) trochoid
162. What doesnt belongs to the auxiliary structures of the muscle?
A) synovial bursae
B) sesamoid bones
C) tendon sheath
D) fasciae
E) belly
163. In the radiocarpal joint around the frontal axis is possible
A) abduction
B) pronation
C) circumduction
D) flexion
E) rotation
164. Where is the red bone marrow not located?
A) in diaphisis of long bones
B) in flat bones
C) in spongy substance
D) in short bones
E) in epiphisis of long bones
165. How are the fascicles lie at an angle to the long axis of the muscle called?
A) antogonists
B) extonsors
C) adducts
D) flexors
E) pennate
166. These dont belong to the movements of the metacarpophalangeal joint
A) abduction
B) rotation
C) pronation
D) flexion
E) circumduction
167. What is the shape of the intermetacarpal joint?
A) condylaris
B) cotylica
C) flat
D) cylinder
E) trochoidea
168. The flat bones
I.Os temporale.
II.Scapula.
III.Calcaneus.
IV.Coxae.
V.Os humerus
A) I,III
B) I,II
C) III,V
D) II,IV
E) IV,V
169. What type of at work of the muscles in motion does not occur?
A) yielding
B) resistant
C) surmountable
D) resistent and surmountable
E) yielding and resistent
170. Which pelvis measure should corresponding with the measure of the head of
fetus for the normal birth course?
A) transverse diameter
B) anatomical conjugate
C) oblique diameter
D) lateral conjugate
E) true conjugate
171. It shows the pathway of the delivery course:
A) lateral conjugate
B) pelvic inclination
C) subpubic angle
D) axis of pelvis
E) ginecological conjugate
172. Define the bipenneate muscle:
A) m. semimembranosus
B) m. extensor digitorum
C) m. flexor digitorum profundus
D) m. tibialis posterior
E) m. semitendinosus
173. What is the inflammation of the periosteum called?
A) periostitis
B) osteoma
C) osteoporosis
D) osteosarcoma
E) osteosclerosis
174. Which expression related with humerus is wrong?
A) linea aspera is on the this bone
B) in this bone is tubercle for the adductor longus muscle of femur
C) head of humerus joins with acetabulum
D) medial condyle of humerus is bigger than lateral condyle
E) humerus joins with tibia and fibula
175. The ligg. suspensoria mammaria are formed by:
A) fascia thoracis superficialis
B) lamina superficialis of fascia pectoralis propria
C) lamina profunda of fascia pectoralis propria
D) fascia clavipectoralis
E) fascia endothoracica
176. It is met mostly around the patella:
A) articular lip
B) articular disc
C) intracapsular ligaments
D) synovial bursa
E) synovial folds
177. Where is located the humeromuscular (radial nerve canal) canal?
A) in the anterior surface of the humerus
B) in the posterior surface of the humerus
C) in the lateral margin of the humerus
D) in the medial margin of the humerus
E) in the anterior and medial margins of the humerus
178. Which intervertebral ligament is most elastic?
A) lig. flavum
B) lig. supraspinale
C) lig. longitudinale anterius
D) lig. intertransversarium
E) lig. interspinale
179. The inferior foramen of brachiomuscular canal (radial sulcus) is boundered by:
I. Medial head of m. triceps brachii
II. M. brachialis
III. M. pronator teres
IV. M. anconaeus
V. M. brachioradialis
A) I, III
B) III, V
C) I, IV
D) II, IV
E) II, V
180. During the inflammation of the synovial layer of articular capsule of shoulder
joint, tendon of which muscle may be involved in this process?
A) m. teres major
B) m. supraspinatus
C) m. deltoideus
D) m. triceps brachii
E) m. biceps brachii
181. At what age of the child, if the fontanelle is determined, we can doubt it from
the weakening of the ossification?
A) from 1 year to 2 years
B) after 2 years
C) from 6 months till 1 year
D) till 1 year
E) till 6 months
182. It attaches to the capsule of knee joint and draws it backward:
A) lig. transversum genus
B) lig. collaterale tibiale
C) lig. popliteum arcuatum
D) lig. popliteum obliquum
E) lig. collaterale fibulare
183. The facial expression muscles is divided into groups
A) 4
B) 2
C) 1
D) 5
E) 3
184. What arent the mastication muscles?
A) masseter
B) medial pterygoid
C) digastric
D) lateral pterygoid
E) temporal
185. Which developmental abnormality is called as Cubitus valgus?
A) synchondrosis of spine of scapula and acromion
B) joining of subtalar (talocalcaneal) joint with ankle (talocrural) joint
C) weakly development of the proximal part of the extremity
D) joining of distal radiocarpal joint with intercarpal joints
E) more inclined longitudinal axis of forearm than arm
186. What is observed in development of the limbs of 6-7 week embryo?
A) formation of pair paddle-shaped processes in the lateral side of trunk
B) flexor surfaces of limbs turn medially, extensor surfaces laterally
C) the buds of hand and foot move away from the trunk
D) mesenchymal elements of the limb buds become dense
E) between buds of hands appears skin folds
187. Define the borders of the superior musculofibular canal:
I. Posterior surface of fibula
II. Medial surface of fibula
III. M. fibularis brevis
IV. M. fibularis longus
V. Lateral surface of fibula
A) I, III
B) III, V
C) II, IV
D) II, III
E) IV, V
188. Which muscle of facial expression pulls skin of the region glabellae downward
and inword?
A) m.corrugator supercili
B) m.orbicularis oculi
C) m.procerus
D) m.nasalis
E) m.epicranius
189. Show the cause of formation of the high foot arch:
A) by weakening the ligaments of foot arches
B) by approaching the anterior end of heel bone to the earth's surface
C) by pressing one by one of the bones that organize the foot arches
D) by moving off the anterior end of heel bone from the earth's surface
E) by supporting to earth of the lateral margin of the heel bone and foot
190. How many sm is distantia spinarum?
A) 28-29
B) 25-27
C) 29-30
D) 26-28
E) 27-29
191. How many parts does the sternum have?
A) 4
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7
E) 6
192. The trigonum femorale upparly is bounded by
A) the adductor longus muscle
B) the sartorius muscle
C) the inguinal ligament
D) the vastus medialis muscle
E) the vastus lateralis muscle
193. How many sm is conjugata lateralis?
A) 16-16,5
B) 15-15,5
C) 15,5-16
D) 14-14,5
E) 16,5-17
194. The mastication muscle is the triangle shaped
A) medial pterygoid muscle
B) temporal and masseter muscles
C) masseter muscle
D) lateral pterygoid muscle
E) temporal muscle
195. What is the measurement of the diametr obligua?
A) 13,5-14
B) 13-13,5
C) 11,5-12
D) 12-12,5
E) 12,5-13
196. The long bones:
I Humerus.
II Scapula.
III Femur.
IV Temporal.
V Patella
A) III,V
B) IV,V
C) II,III
D) I,III
E) I,II
197. What is the measurement of the conjugata vera?
A) 10-10,5
B) 11-11,5
C) 9,5-10
D) 11,5-12
E) 10,5-11
198. This accomplishes by the m. extensor carpi radialis longus and breves muscles
A) adducts and abducts
B) rotated outside
C) flexes and adducts wrist
D) extends and adducts wrist
E) extends and abducts wrist
199. What is the measurement of the anatomic conjugata?
A) 12,0-12,5
B) 10,5-11,0
C) 12,5-13,0
D) 9,5-10,0
E) 11,0-11,5
200. What is the second bone of the distal row of the wrist?
A) os triquetrum
B) os trapesoideum
C) os scaphoideum
D) os trapezium
E) os capitatum.
201. How many degree is inclination pelvis in male?
A) 45-50
B) 65-70
C) 55-60
D) 50-55
E) 60-65
202. The muscle composes the oral diaphragm
A) digastricus
B) omohyoideus
C) sternohyoideus
D) milohyoideus
E) thyrohyoideus
203. This isnt belongs to the iliac bone:
A) linea arcuata
B) labium internum
C) labium externum
D) linea glutea anterior
E) sulcus obturatorius
204. How many degree is subpubic angle of the pelvis in female?
A) 100-110
B) 90-100
C) 110-120
D) 80-90
E) 80-90
205. What shape of the obturator foramen in female?
A) triangular
B) rhomboid
C) cylyndric
D) condylar
E) spherical
206. Where does the superficial layer of the anterior group muscles of the forearm
arise from?
A) medial condyle of the humerus
B) lateral condyle of the humerus
C) medial epicondyle of the humerus
D) lateral epicondyle of the humerus
E) medial and lateral condyles of the humerus
207. What is the shape of the femur?
A) tubular
B) mixed
C) pneumatic
D) spongyoze
E) sesamoid
208. In the knee joint around the frontal axis is possible
A) pronatio,supinatio
B) flexio,extensio
C) circumductio
D) elevation,depression
E) abductio,adductio
209. In the knee joint around the vertical axis is possible
A) abductio,adductio
B) rotation
C) flexio,extensio
D) elevatio,depressio
E) circumductio
210. In the incomplete femoral hernia the hernial sac:
A) emerges subcutaneously
B) does not emerge to the femoral canal
C) does not emerge to the inguinal canal
D) emerges to the inguinal canal
E) does not emerge subcutaneously
211. The muscles of the thigh flexes the leg at the knee joint, rotates it medially and
in addition adducts the thigh at the hip joint?
A) m.adductor magnus
B) m.adductor brevis
C) m.adductor longus
D) m.pectineus
E) m.gracilis
212. What is ligament strengthened the tibiofibular joint?
A) lig.talofibulare anterius
B) lig.mediale
C) lig.talofibulare posterior
D) lig.capitis fibulae anterior
E) lig.calcaneofibulare
213. The sustentaculum tali is located:
A) in the cuboideum
B) in the naviculare
C) in the cuneiforme
D) in the calcaneus
E) in the talus
214. What is the practical importance ligament of the Shopartis joint?
A) lig.bifurcatum
B) lig.talocalcaneum interosseum
C) lig.plantare longum
D) lig.talonaviculare
E) lig.calcaneocuboideum plantare
215. This doesnt belong to the autochthonous muscle of the chest
A) mm. intercostales externi
B) mm. transversus thoracis
C) mm. subcostales
D) m. pectoralis major
E) mm. intercostales interni
216. What is the key of the Lisfranki joint?
A) lig.cuneometatarsalia interossea
B) lig.tarsometatarsalia plantaria
C) lig.plantaria
D) lig.metatarsalia interossea
E) lig.tarsometatarsalia dorsalia
217. What is located in the first row of the tarsus?
A) talus
B) naviculare
C) cuboideum
D) cuneoformis medialis
E) cuneoformis lateralis.
218. In the ankle joint movement around frontal axis passing through
A) trochlea tali
B) tuber calcanei
C) caput tali
D) malleolus lateralis
E) collum tali
219. The m. serratus anterior is originated from the
A) I-II ribs
B) V-VI ribs
C) VI-VII ribs
D) IV-VII ribs
E) I-VIII ribs
220. How many canals (tendon sheath) are formed under the extensor retinaculum
and between its processes?
A) 6
B) 5
C) 4
D) 3
E) 2
221. The muscles of the chest raises the ribs upward
A) mm.intercostalis externi and subcostalis
B) mm.intercostalis interni and subcostalis
C) mm.intercostalis interni and transversus thoracis
D) m.rectus abdominis and transversus thoracis
E) mm.intercostalis externi and m.serratus anterior
222. The short arch of the foot is the
A) V
B) II
C) III
D) I
E) IV
223. The muscle does not rotate the thigh laterally?
A) m. obturatorius externus
B) m. psoas minor
C) m. quadratus femoris
D) m. piriformis
E) m. obturatorius internus
224. Which bones develop from the somites that located laterally near the cranial
end of notochord?
A) bones of cranial part of skull
B) bones of facial part of skull
C) vertebrae
D) bones of extremities
E) sternum
225. Where is situated the canalis femoralis?
A) in the lateral side of the lacuna musculorun
B) above the inguinal lig
C) in the medial side of the lacuna musculorum
D) in the medial side of the lacuna vasorum
E) in the lateral side of the lacuna vasorum
226. What is located in the internal surface of the squama of the frontal bone?
A) crista frontalis
B) linea temporalis
C) glabella
D) tuber frontale
E) arcus superciliares
227. Where is located the hypoglossal canal of the occipital bone?
A) on the condyle occipitale
B) in middle of the squamous part
C) on the jugular process
D) in the base
E) in front of condylar fossa.
228. What isnt the characterize of the temporomandibular joint ?
A) ellipsoid
B) incongruent
C) congruent
D) two chamber
E) multiaxial
229. What are the trigones in the axillary cavity?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 1
230. The posterior wall of femoral canal is formed by:
A) superior horn of falciform margin
B) femoral vein
C) femoral fossa
D) fascia pectinea
E) inguinal ligament
231. What is not the process of the maxilla?
A) frontalis
B) zygomaticus
C) alveolaris
D) palatinus
E) condylaris
232. In the atlantooccipital joint around the sagittal axis is possible
A) abduction and adduction
B) flexion and extension
C) pronation and supination
D) circumduction
E) elevation
233. What forms the inferior wall of the inguinal canal?
A) m.obliquus internus abdominis
B) m.obliquus externus abdominis
C) m.rectus abdominis
D) lig. inguinale
E) m.transversus abdominis
234. The fovea costalis is on the
A) lumbar vertebrae
B) thoracic vertebrae
C) coccygeal vertebrae
D) cervical vertebrae
E) sacral vertebrae
235. How is called the free inferior border of the aponeurosis of the external oblique
abdominal muscle between the anterior superior iliac spine and the symphysis
pubicus?
A) lig. pectinatum
B) lig. reflexum
C) lig. lacunare
D) arcus iliopectineus
E) lig. inguinale
236. The triceps surae muscle made up
A) plantaris and soleus muscles
B) soleus and tibialis posterior muscles
C) soleus and flexor hallucis longus muscles
D) plantaris and gastrocnemius muscles
E) gastrocnemius and soleus muscles
237. During what age are the sutures formed?
A) during 6 years
B) during 10 years
C) during 2 years
D) during 15 years
E) during 12 years
238. Define the muscle lateraly rotated humerus:
I. M. deltoideus
II. M. supraspinatus
III. M. coracobrachialis
IV. M. teres minor
V. M. infraspinatus
A) II, IV
B) IV, V
C) III, V
D) I, II
E) I, III
239. The muscles are present in the formation of the superficial layer of the anterior
group of the forearm
A) m.flexor pollicis longus, m.pronator guadratus
B) m.flexor pollicis longus,m,flexor digitorum profundus
C) m.pronator teres, m.flexor carpi radialis
D) m.abductor pollicis longus, m.extonsor indicis
E) m.extensor carpi radialis longus et brevis
240. Note the sequence according the begining of development of the paranasal
sinuses:
A) ethmoid sinus, sphenoid sinus, frontal sinus, maxillary sinus
B) sphenoid sinus, maxillary sinus, ethmoid sinus, frontal sinus
C) maxillary sinus, frontal sinus, ethmoid sinus, sphenoid sinus
D) frontal sinus, maxillary sinus, sphenoid sinus, ethmoid sinus
E) maxillary sinus, ethmoid sinus, frontal sinus, sphenoid sinus
241. The muscles that move in one direction are called what?
A) autochthonous
B) synergists
C) truncifugal
D) truncipetal
E) antogonists
242. To which bones attaches the ligament which takes important part in fixation of
the longitudinal arch of foot?
A) cuneiform and metatarsal bones
B) navicular and metatarsal bones
C) cuboid and metatarsal bones
D) calcaneus (heel bone) and cuneiform bones
E) calcaneus (heel bone) and navicular bones
243. The muscles of the arm extends the forearm at the elbow joint
A) m.brachialis
B) m.coraco-brachialis
C) m.biceps brachii
D) m.deltoideus
E) m.triceps brachii
244. Along which axes in the temporomandibular joint happen the movements at the
same time?
A) vertical and sagittal
B) frontal and sagittal
C) vertical and frontal
D) frontal and vertical
E) all of axes
245. The fibrous canal (tendon sheath) is transmitted the tendons of the extensor
carpi radialis longus and brevis muscles to the dorsal surface of the hand?
A) I
B) III
C) IV
D) II
E) VI
246. What formes the anterior wall in the upper 2\3 part, above the umbilicus of the
sheath of the rectus abdominis muscle?
A) aponeurosis of the internus obliquus and the transverse abdominis muscles
B) the anterior and posterior laminae of the aponeurosis of the internus obliguus
abdominis muscle
C) transversal fascia
D) aponeurosis of the externus obliquus and the transverse abdominis muscles
E) aponeurosis of the externus obliquus and the anterior lamina of the internus obliquus
abdominis muscles
247. Which of the followings belong to the derivatives of the fascia?
A) false ligaments
B) tendon
C) muscle
D) sesamoid bones
E) synovial bursae
248. The skull should be keep on which line for the craniometric measurements?
A) connecting the farthest points of the parietal bones
B) connecting the glabella with the most distant point of extrnal occipital protuberance
C) connecting the root of nose with the most distant point of maxillary aveolar process
D) connecting the farthest points of the zygomatic bones
E) connecting the external acoustic meatus with inferior border of orbit
249. In the radiocarpal joint around the sagittal axis is possible
A) abduction
B) circumduction
C) flexion
D) rotation
E) pronation
250. These doesn't belong to the muscles of the back relating to the upper limb
A) trapezius
B) m.levator scapulae
C) m.rhomboideus
D) m.serratus posterior superior
E) m.latissimus dorsi
251. Muscle bundles are united by
A) perimyseum
B) endomysium
C) epymyseum
D) endotenon
E) peritendineum
252. The sartorius muscle arises from the
A) posterior superior iliac spine
B) crista iliaca
C) posterior inferior iliac spine
D) superior inferior iliac spine
E) superior anterior iliac spine
253. What is ligament strength the metacarpophalangeal joint?
A) lig. collaterale carpi ulnare
B) lig. quadratum
C) lig. radiocarpale dorsale
D) lig. collaterale carpi radiale
E) ligg.palmaria
254. What is located between the processus condylaris and processus coronoideus
of the mandibula?
A) mental foramen
B) neck of mandible
C) mandibular foramen
D) mandibular notch
E) digastric fossa
255. The muscles during combined contraction the arm are raised above the
shoulder
A) m.latissimus dorsi and m.rhomboideus
B) m.trapezius and m.serratus anterior
C) m.levator scapulae and m.rhomboideus
D) m.serratus posterior superior and inferior
E) m.latissimus dorsi and m.levator scapulae
256. What type of sheath is formed between the deep plate of the fasia and the
periosteum for muscles?
A) fibrous sheath
B) tendon sheath
C) synovial bursae
D) fibrous osseal sheath
E) fibrous and fibrous-osseal sheath
257. The styloid process is on the
A) III metacarpal bone
B) IV metacarpal bone
C) I metacarpal bone
D) II metacarpal bone
E) V metacarpal bone
258. In the stylomastoid foramen of the temporal bone ends
A) canalis caroticus
B) canaliculus tympanicus
C) canaliculi caroticotympanici
D) canalis facialis
E) canaliculus mastoideus
259. How is called the intermediate division of the erector spinae muscle?
A) longissimus muscle
B) iliocostal muscle
C) multifidus muscle
D) spinalis muscle
E) semispinalis muscle
260. Define the sequence of transmission of tension that forms during the muscle
fiber contraction:
A) sarcolemma, tendon, fascia
B) tendon, sarcolemma, fascia
C) tendon, fascia, sarcoplasma
D) fascia, tendon, sarcolemma
E) sarcoplasma, fascsia, tendon
261. How many parts does the hip bone have?
A) 5
B) 3
C) 6
D) 7
E) 4
262. What is bounded the lumbar triangle posteriorly?
A) m.serratus posterior inferior
B) m.latissimus dorsi
C) m.internus obliquus abdominis
D) m.externus obliquus abdominis
E) crista iliaca
263. It nourishes the articular cartilage and also facilitates the movements:
A) articular lip
B) intracapsular ligaments
C) synovial folds
D) extracapsular ligaments
E) intracapsular fluid
264. Where is located the soleus muscle line in the tibia?
A) in the facies medialis
B) in the condylus lateralis
C) in the condylus medialis
D) in the facies posterior
E) in the facies lateralis
265. The muscle of the leg extenses and supinates the foot
A) m.tibialis posterior
B) m.triceps surae
C) m.plantaris
D) m.tibialis anterior
E) m.peroneus longus
266. Which expression is wrong?
A) m. digastricus elevates the hyoid bone and opens the mouth
B) when contracted bilaterally the m. pterygoideus lateralis pulls the mandible forward
C) platysma wrinkles the surface of the skin of the neck
D) m. orbicularis oculi changes the facial expression
E) m. levator palpebrae superioris changes the facial expression
267. It fixates the lateral atlanto-axial joints and also protects the spinal cord from
biting:
A) lig. alaria dentis
B) lig. nuchae
C) lig. transversum atlantis
D) lig. flavum
E) membrana tectoria
268. Which ligament is originated from the lateral condyle of femur and prevents the
pronation of tibia?
A) lig. collaterale tibiale
B) lig. transversum genus
C) lig. collaterale fibulare
D) lig. cruciatum anterius
E) lig. cruciatum posterius
269. What are bounded superiorly in the submandibular triangle?
A) digastric muscle
B) omohyoid muscle
C) basis of mandibulare
D) mylohiodeus muscle
E) sternocleidomastoideus muscle
270. Define the muscle which does not insert to the occipital bone:
A) m. longus capitis
B) m. obliquus capitis superior
C) m. rectus capitis lateralis
D) m. semispinalis capitis
E) m. longus colli
271. When the lateral condyle of femur is injured, which ligaments can be involved?
I. Fibular collateral ligament
II. Tibial collateral ligament
III. Patellar ligament
IV. Oblique popliteal ligament
V. Lateral retinaculum of patella
VI. Arcuate popliteal ligament
A) II;IV
B) III;V
C) I;VI
D) II;III
E) IV;VI
272. The intermuscular septa the fascia cruris gives off
A) anterior and lateral
B) lateral and medial
C) posterior and medial
D) anterior and posterior
E) anterior and medial
273. This is not a long bone
A) humerus
B) fibulae
C) os coxae
D) femur
E) radius
274. What is located on the superior surface of the body of the sphenoid bone?
A) sella turcica
B) foramen rotundum
C) sulcus palatinus major
D) fissura orbitalis superior
E) canalis pterygoideus
275. The multiple function muscle of the facial expression
A) m. zygomaticus minor
B) m. buccinator
C) m. risorius
D) m. levator anguli oris
E) m. zygomaticus major
276. What are present in the formation of the posterior wall of the canalis
musculoperoneus inferior?
A) soleus and plantaris muscles
B) tibialis anterior and posterior muscles
C) peroneus longus and brevis muscles
D) soleus and flexor hallucis longus muscles
E) flexor hallucis longus and tibialis posterior muscles
277. What is communicating the middle cranial fossa with the pterygopalatine
fossa?
A) foramen palatinus major
B) canalis nervi hypoglossi
C) foramen jugulare
D) foramen rotundum
E) canalis opticus
278. What is passed through the inguinal canal in the males?
A) m.cremaster
B) m.rectus abdominis
C) spermatic cord
D) lig. teres uteri
E) lig.pubicum
279. The muscle inserts to the coronoid process of the mandible
A) temporal muscle
B) medial pterygoid muscle
C) lateral pterygoid muscle
D) masseter muscle
E) buccinator muscle
280. What is located in the middle of the anterior surface of the base of mandible?
A) fossa digastrica
B) spina mentale
C) protuberantia mentalis
D) linea obliqua
E) foramen mandibulare
281. The muscle is attached to the tibial tuberosity
A) semitendinosus, semimembranosus and pectineus muscles
B) sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus muscles
C) semitendinosus, semimembranosus and popliteus muscles
D) adductor longus, brevis and gracilis muscles
E) semitendinosus, semimembranosus and biceps femoris muscles
282. How many sm is external rectus size of the pelvis?
A) 20-21
B) 22-23
C) 23-24
D) 24-25
E) 21-22
283. The muscles during unilateral contraction moves the jaw to the contralateral
side of the mouth
A) m.pretygoideus lateralis
B) m. pterygoideus medialis
C) m. masseter
D) m. temporalis
E) m. buccinators
284. The openings form when m.piriformis passes through the greater sciatic
foramen
A) foramen suprapiriforme and infrapiriforme
B) hiatus saphenus and foramen cecum
C) foramen infrapiriforme and foramen obturatorium
D) foramen cecum and obturatorium
E) foramen suprapiriforme and foramen obturatorium
285. What is function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle during unilateral
contraction?
A) raises the chest
B) it draws the head to the back
C) depresses the chest
D) it draws the head to the front
E) it draws the head to the same side
286. What is the second bone of the proximal row of the wrist?
A) os lunatum
B) os scaphoideum
C) os trapezium
D) os capitatum.
E) os triquetrum
287. The muscle is located in the lateral superficial layer of the leg
A) m.triceps surae
B) m.plantaris
C) m.extensor hallucis longus
D) m.peroneus longus
E) m.peroneus brevis
288. The external middle layer of the pelvic muscles
A) m. gluteus maximus
B) m. gluteus minimus
C) m. quadratus femoris
D) m. obturatorius externus
E) m. obturatorius internus
289. These belong to the suprahyoid muscles
A) geniohyoideus
B) sternohyoideus
C) sternothyrohyoides
D) thyrohyoideus
E) omohyoideus
290. How many degree is inclination pelvis in female?
A) 50-60
B) 55-65
C) 45-50
D) 65-70
E) 60-65
291. In which part of frontal bone meet the accessory occification centres?
I. Supraorbital border
II. Nasal spine
III. Lacrimal fossa
IV. Superciliary arch
V. Trochlear fovea
VI. Zygomatic process
A) II;V;VI
B) I;II;III
C) II;III;IV
D) III;IV;VI
E) I;IV;V
292. What are the parts of the vertebrae?
A) caput
B) collum
C) angulus
D) processus articularis
E) processus coronoideus
293. The muscles is inserted to the first rib
A) m.scalenus posterior and medius
B) m.scalenus anterior and medius
C) m.scalenus posterior and anterior
D) m.sternocleiodomastoideus
E) m.sternothyreoideus
294. In the hip joint around the sagittal axis is possible
A) pronatio,supinatio
B) rotatio
C) flexio,extensio
D) circumductio
E) abductio ,adductio
295. What arent the ligaments of the hip joint?
A) lig.patellae
B) lig.capitis femoris
C) lig.ishiofemorale
D) lig.transversum acetabule
E) lig.iliofemorale.
296. Define the muscle of facial expression that surrounded by fascia:
A) m. orbicularis oris
B) m. buccinator
C) m. orbicularis oculi
D) m. epicranius
E) m. nasalis
297. What is the shape of the knee joint?
A) saddle
B) ball -and -socket
C) cotylica
D) flat
E) condyloid
298. The fascia of the cervicalis the spatium interaponeuroticum suprasternale
forms which are
A) fascia superficialis
B) fascia superficialis and profundus
C) fascia pretrachealis
D) fascia prevertebralis
E) fascia profundus
299. The flexion and extension in the knee joint occurs
A) 120
B) 140
C) 110
D) 100
E) 130
300. This isnt located in the proximal end of the fibula:
A) malleolus lateralis
B) apex capitis fibulae
C) facies articularis capitis fibulae
D) caput and apex capitis fibulae
E) caput fibulae
301. The shoulder muscle bounds lowerly the trilaterum and quadrilaterum
foramens
A) m.teres minor
B) m.deltoideus
C) m.infraspinatus
D) m.teres major
E) m.subscapularis
302. The muscle bounded above the omoclavicular trigone
A) superior belly of the omohyoid muscle
B) anterior belly of the digastric muscle
C) inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle
D) posterior belly of the digastric muscle
E) sternocleidomastoid muscle
303. The Lisfranki joint is composed conjuction through which bones?
A) first row of the tarsal and metatarsal
B) calcaneus,cuneoforme and cuboid
C) talus and cuneoforme bones
D) second row of the tarsal and the metatarsal
E) cuboid and IV-Vmetatarsals
304. From which anatomical structure is formed the Septum femorale?
A) aponeurosis of m. obliquus internus abdominis
B) fascia transversalis
C) aponeurosis of m. transversus abdominis
D) lig. inguinale
E) fascia lumbalis
305. The internal opening of the femoral canal is bounded by which anatomical
derivative medially?
A) inguinal lig
B) arus iliopectineus
C) inguinal falx
D) lacunar ligament
E) pectineal lig
306. The ligament fixed the interphalangeal joint
A) lig.cunionaviculare
B) ligg.tarsometatarsea dorsalia
C) lig.cuniocuboidea dorsalia
D) lig.calcaneonaviculare
E) ligg.plantaria
307. The ressor arch of the foot consists of
A) II- IV longitudinal arches
B) I-III longitudinal arches
C) III-V longitudinal arches
D) III- IV longitudinal arches
E) IV-V longitudinal arches
308. What are the muscles act as muscles of expiration?
A) m. pectoralis major et minor
B) m. pectoralis major, m. serratus anterior
C) mm. intercostales interni, mm. subcostales
D) m. subclavius, m. pectoralis minor
E) m. scalenus anterior et posterior
309. The support arch of the foot consists of
A) IV-V longitudinal arches
B) II-IV longitudinal arches
C) II-III longitudinal arches
D) I-II longitudinal arches
E) III-IV longitudinal arches
310. The anterior group muscles of the thigh consists of
A) m. sartorius, m. quadriceps femoris
B) m. pectineus, m. gracilis
C) m. adductus brevis and longus
D) m. pectineus, m. gracilis
E) m. adductor brevis and magnus
311. In the anterior surface of the pyramid of the temporal bone is located:
A) impressio trigeminalis
B) fossa subarcuata
C) fossula petrosa
D) fossa mandibularis
E) foramen stylomastoideum
312. How prevents the aorta from mechanical compression during the contraction of
muscle fibers of diaphragmatic crura?
A) the aortic hiatus surrounds by the median arcuate ligament
B) right crus of diaphragm more longer than left crus
C) by crossing of crura in front of the aortic hiatus
D) by crossing of crura in front of the I lumbar vertebra
E) crura insert to the anterior longitudinal ligament
313. Define from which visceral arch develop bones?
A) 1- d; e; f 2- a; b; c
B) 1- a, d; c 2- b, e; f
C) 1- b, d; f 2- a, c; e
D) 1- a, d; e 2- b, c; f
E) 1- b, c; f 2- a, d; e
314. What isn't belong to the actions of the m. tensor fascia latae?
A) strenghes the hip and knee joints
B) flexes the thigh
C) flexes and medially rotates femur
D) abducts the thigh
E) tenses the fascia latae
315. The grooves lie between the brachial muscle and the borders of the biceps?
A) medial and lateral bicipital grooves
B) ulnar groove
C) median groove
D) humeromuscular groove
E) radial groove
316. Determine the constant synchondrosis of the skull
A) synchondrosus intrasphenoidalis
Visceral (pharyngeal)
arch
Foramens and canals
a) styloid process of temporal
bone
b) maxilla
1. I (mandibular) arch
c) stapes
d) malleus and incus
e) part of body of hyoid bone
and lesser horns
2. II (hyoid) arch
f) mandible
B) synchondrosus intraoccipitalis anterior
C) synchondrosus intra occipitalis posterior
D) synchondrosus sphenooccipitalis
E) synchondrosus petrooccipitalis
317. Where according the trigonum pectorale?
A) m.biceps brachii
B) m.pectoralis minor
C) m.triceps brachii
D) m.coracobrachialis
E) m.teres minor
318. In the nasal surface in front of the maxilla is located
A) tuber maxilla
B) foramen infraorbitalis
C) foramina alveolaria posteriores superiores
D) sulcus lacrimalis
E) fossa canina
319. The sesamoid bones:
A) temporal
B) scapula
C) humerus
D) patella
E) calcaneus
320. At what age does the sphenoidal fontanelle occificate?
A) 2-3 month
B) 5-6 month
C) 4-5 month
D) 6-7 month
E) 12-24 month
321. The muscles do not belong to the lateral broad muscles of the abdomen
A) m.rectus abdominis
B) m.obliquus externus abdominis
C) transversus and obliquus internus muscles
D) m.transversus abdominis
E) m.obliquus internus abdominis
322. The external oblique abdominal muscle arises from
A) from the lower eight ribs
B) from the lower ten ribs
C) from the upper eight ribs
D) from the upper ten ribs
E) from the upper four ribs
323. At what age does the frontal fontanelle ossificate?
A) 6-7 month
B) 16-18 month
C) 2-3 month
D) 4-5 month
E) 5-6 month
324. These dont form the posterior profundus layer of the muscles of the leg
A) m. flexor digitorum longus
B) m. tibialis posterior
C) m. triceps surae
D) m. flexor hallucis longus
E) m. m. tibialis posterior and m. flexor hallucis longus
325. Where is the tendon of the rectus abdominis muscle attached?
A) xiphoid process and XI-XII ribs
B) VIII-X costal cartilages
C) xiphoid process and V-VII costal cartilages
D) lig.inguinale
E) anterior superior iliac spine
326. The muscles of the abdomen during act composed the
A) rotated trunk to the right
B) bend spine and trunk laterally
C) rotated trunk to the left
D) prelum abdominale
E) extens spine and trunk
327. What forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal?
A) superficial fascia
B) transversal fascia
C) inguinal ligament
D) umbilical fascia
E) endopelvic fascia
328. The muscles does not belong to the anterior group muscles of the leg
A) m. triceps surae
B) m. extensor hallucis longus
C) m. extensor digitorum longus
D) m. tibialis anterior
E) m. tibialis anterior et m. extensor hallucis longus
329. Define the foramens and canals that open into the corresponding nasal
meatus:
A) 1- b, f; 2- d, e; 3- a, c
B) 1- a, b; 2- c, e; 3- d, f
C) 1- a, c; 2- d, f; 3- b, e
D) 1- b, c; 2- d, f; 3- a, e
E) 1- f, c; 2- a, e; 3- b, d
330. The passiv part of the skeletal muscle
A) belly
B) tendon
C) ligament
D) fascia
E) synovial bursae
331. The distance between the rings of the inguinal canal in adults
A) 2-3 cm
B) 4-5 cm
C) 1-2 cm
D) 3-4 cm
E) 5-6 cm
332. The muscle is located superficially on the medial border of the adductor group
A) m. adductor longus
B) m. pectineus
C) m. adductor magnus
D) m. gracilis
E) m. adductor brevis
Nasal meatus Foramens and canals
a) nasolacrimal canal 1. Superior
b) cribriform (olfactory) foramina
c) incisive canal 2. Middle
d) infundibulum ethmoidale
e) sphenopalatine foramen
3. Inferior
f) apertura sinus sphenoidale
333. The anterior wall of cruropopliteal canal is formed by:
A) m. plantaris
B) fascia cruralis
C) m. soleus
D) m. tibialis posterior
E) m. tibialis anterior
334. The kinds of the work of the muscles
A) truncifugal
B) resistant
C) truncipetal
D) quadrate
E) autochthonous
335. What forms the posterior wall in the lower 1/3 part of the rectus sheat?
A) aponeurosis of the internus obliguus abdominis muscle
B) aponeurosis of the externus obliquus muscle
C) aponeurosis of the transverse abdominis muscle
D) transverse fascia
E) m.rectus abdominis
336. Where is originated the short head of the biceps femoris muscle?
A) posterior, superior iliac spine
B) posterior, inferior iliac spine
C) anterior inferior iliac spine
D) anterior superior iliac spine
E) lateral lip of the linea aspera
337. By what is the fossa temporalis surrounded superiorly?
A) crista infratemporalis of sphenoid bone
B) arcus zygomaticus
C) facies temporalis of zygomatic bone
D) canalis nervi hypoglossi.
E) linea temporalis inferior of parietal bone
338. The tuberculum musculi scaleni anterioris is located in the
A) IV rib
B) I rib
C) VI rib
D) X rib
E) II rib
339. A muscle whose obligue fibres approach the tendon from both sides are?
A) multipennate muscle
B) bipennate muscle
C) unipennate muscle
D) pyramidal muscle
E) serrate muscle
340. During the fractures of the surgical neck of humerus which anatomical
structures may be injured?
A) n.axillaris, a.circumflexa scapulae
B) n.axillaris, a.circumflexa humeri posterior
C) v.cephalica, a.circumflexa humeri posterior
D) v.cephalica, a.circumflexa scapulae
E) n.axillaris, a.circumflexa humeri anterior
341. At what part of the maxilla is the maxillary sinus located?
A) on the nasal surface
B) on the orbital surface
C) on the anterior surface
D) on the infratemporal surface
E) on the frontal process
342. What transmits through the lacuna vasorum?
A) Femoral artery and nerv
B) Femoral vein and nerv
C) m. piriformis
D) iliopsoas muscle and femoral nerve
E) Femoral artery and vein
343. What parts of the quadriceps femoris arises from the inferior anterior iliac
spine and from the superior margin of the acetabulum?
A) m.vastus lateralis
B) m.rectus femoris
C) m.vastus intermedius
D) m.vastus medialis
E) m.vastus lateralis and medialis
344. Where is inserted the tendon of the latissimus dorsi muscle?
A) tuberculum minus
B) crista tuberculi majores
C) tuberculum majus
D) sulcus intertubercularis
E) crista tuberculi minoris
345. In the hiatus canalis nervi petrosi minoris of the temporal bone ends
A) canaliculus chordae tympani
B) canalis facialis
C) canaliculus tympanicus
D) canaliculi caroticotympanici
E) canalis caroticus
346. What is located on the distal epiphysis of the humerus?
A) caput humeri
B) collum anatomicum
C) condylus humeri
D) tuberculum majus
E) tuberculum minus
347. How is called the part of the synovial membrane that enclosing the tendon
directly?
A) mucous membrane
B) parietal layer
C) visceral layer
D) mesotendineum
E) synovial bursae
348. Define the trunkopetal muscle:
A) m. serratus anterior
B) m. sternocleidomastoideus
C) m. latissimus dorsi
D) m. rhomboideus minor
E) m. trapezius
349. The elastic support of the organism is formed by:
I. Muscles
II. Superficial fascia
III. Ligaments
IV. Deep fascia
V. Subcutaneous tissue
VI. Tendons
A) III;VI
B) II;V
C) I;IV
D) I;III;
E) III;V
350. The lumbar quadriangle is bounded by which muscle lowerly?
A) m.serratus posterior inferior
B) m.externus obliquus abdominis
C) m.internus obliquus abdominis
D) m.latissimus dorsi
E) m.erector spinae
351. The shape of sternum is depended from the:
I. Constitution of the body structure
II. Shape of the sternocostal joints
III. Sex
IV. Shape of the costovertebral joints
V. Profession
VI. Diseases
VII. Situation of vertebral ligaments
A) I;II;IV;VII
B) II;III;IV;V
C) I;II;III;IV
D) II;IV;V;VII
E) I;III;V;VI
352. Where is inserted the tendon of the pectoralis major muscle?
A) crista tuberculi minoris
B) tuberculum majus
C) tubrositas deltoidea
D) crista tuberculi majoris
E) tuberculum minus
353. When the muscle contracted for a long time to set the motion both in the distal
and proximal joints:
A) only inserting end of muscles is motile
B) only originating end of muscles is motile
C) both ends of muscles are motile
D) most of such muscles have white color
E) such mucles are short and situate deeply
354. Where is inserted the tendon of the brachialis muscle?
A) radial tuberosity
B) olecranon
C) neck of the radius
D) ulnar tuberosity
E) coronoid process
355. In the shoulder joint around the frontal axis is possible:
A) supination and pronation.
B) only rotation
C) flexion and extension
D) adduction and abduction
E) only circumduction
356. Which muscle extends and adducts the humerus?
A) long head of m. triceps brachii
B) short head of m. biceps brachii
C) anterior part of m. deltoideus
D) lateral head of m. triceps brachii
E) lateral head of m. triceps brachii
357. In the avstralo-negroid type of skull is observed the:
A) mesocranium
B) opistognatism
C) prognatism
D) brachicranium
E) orthognatism