AIPGMEE 2004 MCQS ----------------Subject - Anaesthesiology Question 1: A 25 year old male with roadside accident underwent debridement and

reduction of fractured both bones right forearm under axillary block. On the sec ond postoperative day the patient complained of persistent numbness and paraesth esia in the right forearm and the hand. The commonest cause of this neurological dysfunction could be all of the following except? A) Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves B) A tight cast or dressing C) Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics D) Tourniquet pressure Answer: C) Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics Question 2: A patient undergoing caesarian section following prolonged labour un der subarachnoid block developed carpopedal spasm. Lignocaine was used as anaest hetic agent. The most likely diagnosis is? A) Amniotic fluid embolism B) Lignocaine toxicity C) Hypocalcemia D) Hypokalemia Answer: C) Hypocalcemia Question 3: When a patient develops supraventricular tachycardia with hypotensio n under general anaesthesia, all of the following treatments may be instituted e xcept? A) Carotid sinus massage B) Adenosine 3 - 12 mg IV C) Direct current cardioversion D) Verapamil 5 mg IV Answer: A) Carotid sinus massage Question 4: Which of the following volatile anaesthetic agents should be preferr ed for induction of anaesthesia in children? A) Enflurane B) Isoflurane C) Sevoflurane D) Desflurane Answer: C) Sevoflurane Question 5: Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an int ravenous induction agent? A) Neurosurgery B) Day care surgery C) Patients with coronary artery disease D) In neonates Answer: B) Day care surgery Subject - Anatomy Question 6: The movement at the following joint permits a person to look towards the right of left? A) Atlanto-occipital joint B) Atlanto-axial joint C) C2-C3 joint D) C3-C4 joint Answer: B) Atlanto-axial joint Question 7: The intricately and prodigiously looped system of veins and arteries

that lie on the surface of the epididymis is known as? A) Choroid plexus B) Tuberal plexus C) Pampiniform plexus D) Pectiniform plexus Answer: D) Pectiniform plexus Question 8: An inhaled foreign body is likely to lodge in the right lung due to all of the following features, except? A) Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung B) Right principal bronchus is more vertical than the left bronchus C) Tracheal bifurcation directs the foreign body to the right lung D) Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the principal bronchus Answer: A) Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung Question 9: Infection / inflammation of all of the following, causes enlarged su perficial inguinal lymph nodes, except? A) Isthmus of uterine tube B) Inferior part of anal canal C) Big toe D) Penile urethra Answer: D) Penile urethra Question 10: While exposing the kidney from behind, all of the following nerves are liable to injury except? A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh B) Ilioinguinal nerve C) Subcostal nerve D) Iliohypogastric nerve Answer: A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh Question 11: The articular cartilage is characterised by all of the following fe atures, except ? A) It is devoid of perichondrium B) It has a rich nerve supply C) It is avascular D) It lacks the capacity to regenerate Answer: B) It has a rich nerve supply Question 12: The first costochondral joint is a ? A) Fibrous joint B) Synovial joint C) Syndesmosis D) Syncendrosis Answer: D) Syncendrosis Question 13: All of the following are catagorized as secondary lymphoid organs e xcept? A) Lymph nodes B) Spleen C) Thymus D) Subepithelial collections of lymphocytes Answer: C) Thymus subject - Biochemistry Question 14: The most abundant glycoprotein present in basement membrane is? A) Laminin B) Fibronectin C) Collagen type 4

D) Heparan sulphate Answer: A) Laminin Question 15: To which of the following family of chemical mediators of inflammat ion, the Lipoxins belong? A) Kinin system B) Cytokines C) Chemokines D) Arachidonic acid metabolites Answer: D) Arachidonic acid metabolites Question 16: Cytochrome C of the bacteria has 50% identity of amino acid sequenc e with that of human. Which of the following is the most conserved parameter in these two proteins? A) Quaternary structure B) Tertiary structure C) Amino acid sequence D) Loop and turn segments Answer: A) Quaternary structure Question 17: Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins? A) Proteases B) Proteosomes C) Templates D) Chaperones Answer: D) Chaperones Question 18: Which of the following can be a homologous substitution for valine in hemoglobin? A) Isoleucine B) Glutamic acid C) Phenylalanine D) Lysine Answer: A) Isoleucine Question 19: Proteins targeted for destruction in eukaryotes are covalently link ed to? A) Clathrin B) Pepsin C) Laminin D) Ubiquitin Answer: D) Ubiquitin Question 20: Which of the following elements is known to influence the body's ab ility to handle oxidative stress? A) Calcium B) Iron C) Potassium D) Selenium Answer: D) Selenium Question 21: Alpha helix and Beta pleated sheet are examples of ? A) Primary structure B) Secondary structure C) Tertiary structure D) Quaternary structure Answer: B) Secondary structure Question 22: Radioisotopes are used in the following techniques except?

A) Mass spectroscopy B) RIA C) ELISA D) Sequencing of nucleic acid Answer: C) ELISA Question 23: Xeroderma pigmentosum is produced as a result of defect in? A) DNA polymerase III B) DNA polymerase I C) DNA exonuclease D) DNA ligase Answer: D) DNA ligase Question 24: A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase in liver les s sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. All of the following met abolic changes are observed in this disorder except? A) Level of fructose 1,6 - bisphosphate is higher than normal B) Level of fructose 1,6 - bisphosphate is lower than normal C) Less pyruvate is formed D) Less ATP is generated Answer: A) Level of fructose 1,6 - bisphosphate is higher than normal Question 25: The transmembrane region of a protein is likely to have? A) A stretch of hydrophilic amino acids B) A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids C) A disulphide loop D) Alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic amino acids Answer: B) A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids Question 26: A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow obe se. Which of the following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood? A) Chylomicrons B) VLDL C) LDL D) HDL Answer: B) VLDL Question 27: A young man finds that every time he eats dairy products he feels v ery uncomfortable. His stomach becomes distended. He develops gas and diarrhea f requently. These symptoms do not appear when he eats foods other than dairy prod ucts. Which of the following is the most likely enzyme in which this young man i s deficient? A) alpha - amylase B) beta - galactosidase C) alpha- glucosidase D) Sucrase Answer: B) beta - galactosidase Question 28: A segment of an eucaryotic gene that is not represented in the matu re mRNA, is known as? A) Intron B) Exon C) Plasmid D) TATA Box Answer: A) Intron Question 29: An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single stran ded RNA template molecule is known as? A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase

C) Reverse transcriptase D) Phosphokinase Answer: C) Reverse transcriptase Question 30: A small Ca2+ binding protein that modifies the activity of many enz ymes and other proteins in response to changes of Ca2+ concentration, is known a s? A) Cycline B) Calmodulin C) Collagen D) Kinesin Answer: B) Calmodulin Question 31: Which of the following is a membrane bound enzyme that catalyzes th e formation of cyclic AMP from ATP? A) Tyrosine kinase B) Polymerase C) ATP synthase D) Adenylate cyclase Answer: D) Adenylate cyclase Question 32: Shine - Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near? A) AUG codon B) UAA codon C) UAG codon D) UGA codon Answer: A) AUG codon Question 33: For which of the following diseases the enzyme replacement therapy is available? A) Albinism B) Niemann Pick disease C) Metachromatic leukodystrophy D) Gaucher disease Answer: D) Gaucher disease Question 34: Which of the following substances acts to increase the release of C a2++ from endoplasmic reticulum? A) Inositol triphosphate B) Parathyroid hormone C) 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol D) Diacylglycerol Answer: A) Inositol triphosphate Subject - Community Medicine Question 35: A 3 1/2 year old child has not received primary immunization. Which of the following is the best vaccination advice to such a child? A) BCG, DPT1, OPV1 and DPT2, OPV2 after 4 weeks B) BCG, DT1, OPV1, measles, vitamin A C) BCG, DPT1, OPV1, measles, vitamin A D) DT1, DT2 and booster after 1 year Answer: B) BCG, DT1, OPV1, measles, vitamin A Question 36: If the systolic blood pressure in a population has a mean of 130 mm Hg and a median of 140 mm Hg, the distribution is said to be? A) Symmetrical B) Positively skewed C) Negatively skewed D) Either positively or negatively skewed depending on the Standard deviation

Answer: C) Negatively skewed Question 37: If each value of a given group of observations is multiplied by 10, the standard deviation of the resulting observations is? A) Original std. Deviation X 10 B) Original std. Deviation / 10 C) Original std. Deviation - 10 D) Original std. Deviation it self Answer: A) Original std. Deviation X 10 Question 38: A child aged 4 months was brought to a health worker in the sub cen ter with complaints of cough and fever. On examination, there was chest indrawin g and respiratory rate was 45 per minute. Which of the following is best way to manage the child? A) The child should be classified as a case of pneumonia B) Give an antibiotic and advise mother to give home care C) Reassess the child within 2 days or earlier if the condition worsens D) Refer urgently to hospital after giving the first dose of an antibiotic Answer: D) Refer urgently to hospital after giving the first dose of an antibiot ic Question 39: Essential components of RCH Programme in India include all of the f ollowing except? A) Prevention and management of unwanted pregnancies B) Maternal care including antenatal, delivery & post-natal services C) Reduce the under five mortality to half D) Management of reproductive tract infections & sexually transmitted infections Answer: C) Reduce the under five mortality to half Question 40: Dietary changes advocated by WHO for prevention of heart diseases i nclude all of the following except? A) A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumption B) Reduction in fat intake to 20 - 30 percent of caloric intake C) Consumption of saturated fats be limited to less than 10% of total energy int ake D) Reduction of cholesterol to below 100 mg per 1000 Kcal per day Answer: A) A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumption Question 41: A 37 weeks pregnant woman attends an antenatal clinic at a Primary Health Centre. She has not had any antenatal care till now. The best approach re garding tetanus immunization in this case would be to ? A) Give a dose of Tetanus Toxoid (TT) and explain to her that it will not protec t the newborn and she should take the second dose after four weeks even if she d elivers in the meantime B) Do not waste the TT vaccine at it would anyhow be of no use in this pregnancy C) Give one dose of TT and explain that it will not be useful for this pregnancy D) Give her anti-tetanus Immunoglobulin along with the TT vaccine Answer: A) Give a dose of Tetanus Toxoid (TT) and explain to her that it will no t protect the newborn and she should take the second dose after four weeks even if she delivers in the meantime Question 42: The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a community is? A) Mass Miniature Radiography B) Sputum Examination C) Tuberculin Test D) Clinical Examination Answer: C) Tuberculin Test Question 43: A study began in 1970 with a group of 5000 adults in Delhi who were

asked about their alcohol consumption. The occurrence of cancer was studied in this group between 1990-1995. This is an example of? A) Cross-sectional study B) Retrospective cohort study C) Concurrent cohort study D) Case-control study Answer: C) Concurrent cohort study Question 44: If the prevalence of diabetes is 10%, the probability that three pe ople selected at random from the population will have diabetes is? A) 0.01 B) 0.03 C) 0.001 D) 0.003 Answer: C) 0.001 Question 45: If the grading of diabetes is classified as "mild", "moderate" and "severe" the scale of measurement used is? A) Interval B) Nominal C) Ordinal D) Ratio Answer: C) Ordinal Question 46: The usefulness of a 'screening test' in a community depends on its? A) Sensitivity B) Specificity C) Reliability D) Predictive value Answer: D) Predictive value Question 47: Multi-purpose worker scheme in India was introduced following the r ecommendation of? A) Srivastava Committee B) Bhore Committee C) Kartar Singh Committee D) Mudaliar Committee Answer: C) Kartar Singh Committee Question 48: All of the following are the mode of transmission of leprosy except ? A) Breast milk B) Insect bite C) Transplacental spread D) Droplet infection Answer: C) Transplacental spread Question 49: All of the following statements about leprosy are true except? A) Multibacillary leprosy is diagnosed when there are more than 5 skin patches B) New case detection rate is an indicator for incidence of leprosy C) A defaulter is defined as a patient who has not taken treatment for 6 months or more D) The target for elimination of leprosy is to reduce the prevalence to less tha n 1 per 10,000 population Answer: C) A defaulter is defined as a patient who has not taken treatment for 6 months or more Question 50: The following statements about breast milk are true except? A) The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months B) The coefficient of uptake of iron in breast milk is 70%

C) Calcium absorption of human milk is better than that of cow's milk D) It provides about 65K cals per 100 ml Answer: A) The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months Question 51: According to International Health Regulations, there is no risk of spread of Yellow Fever if the Aedes Aegypti index remains below? A) 1% B) 5% C) 8% D) 10% Answer: A) 1% Question 52: The current recommendation for breast feeding is that ? A) Exclusive breast feeding should be continued till 6 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods B) Exclusive breast feeding should be continued till 4 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods C) Colostrum is the most suitable food for a new born baby but it is best avoide d in first 2 days D) The baby should be allowed to breast feed till one year of age Answer: A) Exclusive breast feeding should be continued till 6 months of age fol lowed by supplementation with additional foods Question 53: "Five clean practices" under strategies for elimination of neonatal tetanus include all except? A) Clean surface for delivery B) Clean hand of the attendant C) New blade for cutting the cord D) Clean airway Answer: D) Clean airway Question 54: All of the following are used as proxy measures for incubation peri od except? A) Latent period B) Period of communicability C) Serial interval D) Generation time Answer: B) Period of communicability Question 55: The National Population Policy of India has set the following goals except? A) To bring down Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels by 2015 B) To reduce the infant Mortality Rate to 30 per 1000 live births C) To reduce the Maternal Mortality Rate to 100 per 100,000 live births D) 100 percent registration of births, deaths, marriages and pregnancies Answer: A) To bring down Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels by 201 5 Question 56: The following statements are true about DPT vaccine except? A) Aluminium salt has an adjuvant effect B) Whole killed bacteria of Bordetella pertussis has an adjuvant effect C) Presence of acellular pertussis component increases its immunogenicity D) Presence of H. influenzae type B component increases its immunogenicity Answer: D) Presence of H. influenzae type B component increases its immunogenici ty Question 57:The table below shows the screening test results of disease Z in rel ation to the true disease status of the population being tested: Screening test results Disease Z Yes No Total

Positive 400 Negative 100 Total 500 The specificity of the screening test is? A) 70% B) 75% C) 79% D) 86% Answer: B) 75% Subject - Dermatology

200 600 800

600 700 1300

Question 58: A 25 - year old man presents with recurrent episodes of flexural ec zema, contact urticaria, recurrent skin infections and severe abdominal cramps a nd diarrhoea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from? A) Seborrheic dermatitis B) Atopic dermatitis C) Airborne contact dermatitis D) Nummular dermatitis Answer: B) Atopic dermatitis Question 59: A 5 year old male child has multiple hyperpigmented macules over th e trunk. On rubbing the lesions with the rounded end of a pen, he developed urti carial wheal, confined to the border of the lesion. The most likely diagnosis is ? A) Fixed drug eruption B) Lichen planus C) Urticaria pigmentosa D) Urticarial vasculitis Answer: C) Urticaria pigmentosa Question 60: A 30 year old male had severely itchy papulo-vesicular lesions on e xtremities, knees, elbows, and buttocks for one year. Direct immunofluorescence staining of the lesions showed IgA deposition at dermoepidermal junction. The mo st probable diagnosis is? A) Pemphigus vulgaris B) Bullous pemphigoid C) Dermatitis herpetiformis D) Nummular eczema Answer: C) Dermatitis herpetiformis Subject - Forensic Medicine & Toxicology Question 61: BAL is useful in treating poisoning due to all except ? A) Lead B) Organic Mercury C) Cadmium D) Arsenic Answer: C) Cadmium Question 62: A middle aged man presents with paraesthesia of hands and feet. Exa mination reveals presence of Mees's lines in the nails and rain drop pigmentatio n in the hands. The most likely causative toxin for the above mentioned symptoms is? A) Lead B) Arsenic C) Thallium D) Mercury Answer: B) Arsenic

Question 63: The cephalic index of Indian population is between? A) 70 - 75 B) 75 - 80 C) 80 - 85 D) 85 - 90 Answer: A) 70 - 75 Question 64: Which of the following is the most reliable method of estimating bl ood alcohol level? A) Cavett's test B) Breath alcohol analyzer C) Gas liquid chromatography D) Thin layer chromatography Answer: C) Gas liquid chromatography Question 65: A convict whose family or relations were not known and no biologica l sample was available with jail authorities, escaped from the jail. A dead body resembling the convict was found in nearby forest, but due to mutilation of fac e, identity could not be established. The positive identity that he is the same convict who escaped from jail can be established by? A) Blood grouping B) DNA profile C) Anthropometry D) HLA typing Answer: C) Anthropometry Question 66: A person was brought by police from the railway platform. He is tal king irrelevant. He is having dry mouth with hot skin, dilated pupils, staggerin g gait and slurred speech. The most possible diagnosis is? A) Alcohol intoxication B) Carbamates poisoning C) Organophosphorus poisoning D) Datura poisoning Answer: D) Datura poisoning Question 67: A 25 year old person sustained injury in right eye. He developed ri ght corneal opacity following the injury. Left eye was already having poor visio n. Corneoplasty of right eye was done and vision was restored. Medicolegally suc h injury is labelled as? A) Grievous B) Simple C) Dangerous D) Serious Answer: A) Grievous Question 68: Deep blue colour of hypostasis is seen in death due to poisoning by ? A) Potassium cyanide B) Phosphorus C) Aniline dyes D) Carbon monoxide Answer: C) Aniline dyes Question 69: In which of the following conditions postmortem caloricity may be s een in death due to? A) Massive haemorrhage B) Cyanide poisoning C) Corrosive poisoning D) Septicemia Answer: D) Septicemia

Question 70: Disputed maternity can be solved by using the following tests excep t? A) Blood grouping B) HLA typing C) Precipitin test D) DNA fingerprinting Answer: C) Precipitin test Question 71: Hydrogen peroxide is used in all of the following chemical tests fo r blood except? A) Benzedine test B) Phenolphthalein test C) Orthotoluidine test D) Teichmann's test Answer: B) Phenolphthalein test Question 72: Contre-coup injuries are seen in? A) Brain B) Heart C) Liver D) Pancreas Answer: A) Brain Subject - Gynaecology Question 73: A 30 year old woman presented with secondary amenorrhoea for 3 year s along with galactorrhoea. The most likely cause of her symptoms would be? A) Craniopharyngioma B) Prolactinoma C) Meningioma D) Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage Answer: B) Prolactinoma Question 74: Which is the most active single chemotherapeutic agent in the treat ment of Leiomyosarcoma? A) Adriamycin B) Doxorubicin C) Methotrexate D) Cisplatin Answer: B) Doxorubicin Question 75: Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated w ith a vaginal pH of 4? A) Atrophic vagnitis B) Candidal vaginitis C) Trichomonas vaginitis D) Gardnerella vaginitis Answer: A) Atrophic vagnitis Question 76: Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 27 year ol d obese woman presenting with oligomenorrhoea, infertility and hirsuitism? A) Polycystic ovaries B) Endometriosis C) Pelvic inflammatory disease D) Turner's syndrome Answer: A) Polycystic ovaries Question 77: The most appropriate method for collecting urine for culture in cas e of Vesicovaginal fistula is?

A) Suprapubic needle aspiration B) Midstream clean catch C) Foley's catheter D) Sterile speculum Answer: A) Suprapubic needle aspiration Question 78: The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachoma tis infection is? A) Direct fluorescent antibody test B) Enzyme immunoassay C) Polymerase chain reaction D) Culture on irradiated McConkey cells Answer: C) Polymerase chain reaction Question 79: All of the following are advantages of using Raloxifene over estrog ens in post menopausal women except? A) Reduces fracture rates B) Avoids Endometrial hyperplasia C) Reduces incidence of Venous thrombosis D) No increase in incidence of breast carcinoma Answer: C) Reduces incidence of Venous thrombosis Question 80: A 21 year old woman presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea . Her height is 153 cms, weight is 51 kg. She has well developed breasts. She ha s no pubic or axillary hair and no hirsuitism. Which of the following is the mos t probable diagnosis? A) Turner syndrome B) Stein-Leventhal syndrome C) Premature ovarian failure D) Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome Answer: D) Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome Question 81: The following statements are true about Intrauterine devices (IUD) except? A) Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD B) The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and Cu-T 200 are similar C) IUD can be used for Emergency Contraception within 5 days D) Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 years Answer: A) Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD Subject - Obstetrics Question 82: A 37 year old multipara construction labourer has a blood picture s howing hypochromic anisocytosis. This is most likely indicative of? A) Iron deficiency B) Folic deficiency C) Malnutrition D) Combined iron and folic acid deficiency Answer: A) Iron deficiency Question 83: The consequences of Rh incompatibility are not serious during first pregnancy because? A) Antibodies are not able to cross placenta B) Antibody titer is very low during primary immune response C) IgG generated is ineffective against foetal red cells D) Massive hemolysis is compensated by increased erythropoiesis Answer: B) Antibody titer is very low during primary immune response Question 84: A pregnant mother at 32 weeks gestation presents in preterm labor.

Therapy with antenatal steroids to induce lung maturity in the fetus may be give n in all of the following conditions except? A) Prolonged rupture of membranes for more than 24 hours B) Pregnancy-induced hypertension C) Diabetes mellitus D) Chorioamnionitis Answer: A) Prolonged rupture of membranes for more than 24 hours Question 85: Which of the following is most sensitive for the detection of iron depletion in pregnancy? A) Serum iron B) Serum ferritin C) Serum transferrin D) Serum iron binding capacity Answer: B) Serum ferritin Question 86: Which of the following tests on maternal serum is most useful in di stinguishing between open neural tube defects and ventral wall defects in a fetu s? A) Carcinoembryo antigen B) Sphingomyelin C) Alpha - feto protein D) Pseudocholinesterase Answer: D) Pseudocholinesterase Question 87: Which of the following is not an indication for Antiphospholipid an tibody testing? A) Three or more consecutive first trimester pregnancy losses B) Unexplained cerebrovascular accidents C) Early onset severe pre-eclampsia D) Gestational Diabetes Answer: D) Gestational Diabetes Question 88: Screening by using maternal serum alpha fetoproteins helps to detec t all of the following except? A) Neural tube defects B) Duodenal atresia C) Talipes equinovarus D) Omphalocele Answer: C) Talipes equinovarus Question 89: A case of 35 week pregnancy with Hydramnios and marked respiratory distress is best treated by? A) Intravenous frusemide B) Saline infusion C) Amniocentesis D) Artificial rupture of membranes Answer: C) Amniocentesis Question 90: Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 weeks of pregnancy with past history of delivering a baby with Down' s syndrome? A) Triple screen test B) Amniocentesis C) Chorionic villous biopsy D) Ultrasonography Answer: B) Amniocentesis Question 91: A case of obstructed labour which was delivered by Caesarian sectio n complains of cyclical passage of menstrual blood in urine. Which is the most l

ikely site of fistula? A) Urethrovaginal B) Vesico-vaginal C) Vesico-uterine D) Uretero-uterine Answer: C) Vesico-uterine Question 92: Anti-D prophylaxis should be given in all of the following conditio ns except? A) Medical abortion for 63 days pregnancy B) Amniocentesis at 16 weeks C) Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weeks D) Manual removal of Placenta Answer: C) Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weeks Question 93: Antiprogesterone compound RU-486 is effective for inducing abortion if the duration of pregnancy is? A) 63 days B) 72 days C) 88 days D) 120 days Answer: A) 63 days Question 94: All of the following are ultrasonographic fetal growth parameters e xcept? A) Biparietal diameter B) Head circumference C) Transcerebellar diameter D) Femur length Answer: C) Transcerebellar diameter Question 95: All of the following drugs are effective for cervical ripening duri ng pregnancy except? A) Prostaglandin E2 B) Oxytocin C) Progesterone D) Misoprostol Answer: C) Progesterone Question 96: Which one of the following perinatal infections has the highest ris k of fetal infection in the first trimester? A) Hepatitis B virus B) Syphilis C) Toxoplasmosis D) Rubella Answer: D) Rubella Question 97: All of the following conditions are risk factor for urinary tract i nfections in pregnancy except? A) Diabetes mellitus B) Hypertension C) Sickle cell disease D) Vesicoureteral reflux Answer: B) Hypertension Question 98: All of the following may be used in pregnancy associated hypertensi on except? A) Nifedipine B) Captopril C) Methyldopa

D) Hydralazine Answer: B) Captopril Subject - Medicine Question 99: Which of the following is the drug of first choice for Non-Gonococc al Urethritis? A) Ceftriaxone B) Ciprofloxacin C) Doxycycline D) Minocycline Answer: C) Doxycycline Question 100: An 80 year old asymptomatic woman was detected to have a monoclona l spike on serum electrophoresis (IgG levels 1.5g/dL). Bone marrow revealed plas ma cells of 8%. The most likely diagnosis is? A) Multiple myeloma B) Indolent myeloma C) Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance D) Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia Answer: C) Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance Question 101: HBAic level in blood explains? A) Acute rise of sugar B) Long term status of blood sugar C) Hepatorenal syndrome D) Chronic pancreatitis Answer: B) Long term status of blood sugar Question 102: Mr. and Mrs. Annadurai have a 2 month old baby suffering with Down syndrome. Karyotype of Mrs Annadurai shows translocation variety of Down syndro me. Which of the following investigations will you advise to the parents before the next pregnancy? A) Triple test B) alpha - fetoprotein C) Karyotyping D) beta - human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) Answer: A) Triple test Question 103: All of the following can cause neuropathies with predominant motor involvement except? A) Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy B) Acute intermittent porphyria C) Lead intoxication D) Arsenic intoxication Answer: D) Arsenic intoxication Question 104: A young male develops fever, followed by headache, confusional sta te, focal seizures and a right hemiparesis. The MRI performed shows bilateral fr ontotemporal hyperintense lesion. The most likely diagnosis is ? A) Acute pyogenic meningitis B) Herpes Simplex Encephalitis C) Neurocysticercosis D) Carcinomatous meningitis Answer: B) Herpes Simplex Encephalitis Question 105: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) differs from thrombot ic thrombocytopenic purpura. In this reference the DIC is most likely characteri zed by? A) Significant numbers of schiztocytes

B) A brisk reticulocutosis C) Decreased coagulation factor levels D) Significant thrombocytopenia Answer: C) Decreased coagulation factor levels Question 106: Elevated serum ferritin, serum iron and percent transferrin satura tion are most consistent with the diagnosis of ? A) Iron deficiency anaemia B) Anaemia of chronic disease C) Hemochromatosis D) Lead poisoning Answer: C) Hemochromatosis Question 107: A 60 year old man with rheumatic mitral stenosis with atrial fibri llation is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate. While on treatment, he develo ped a regular pulse of 64/min. The most likely drug being administered was? A) Verapamil B) Digoxin C) Carvedilol D) Propranolol Answer: B) Digoxin Question 108: All of the following are seen in cardiac tamponade except? A) Pulsus paradoxus B) Diastolic collapse of right ventricle on echocardiogram C) Electrical alternans D) Kussmaul's sign Answer: D) Kussmaul's sign Question 109: Which one of the following is true regarding HIV infection? A) Following needle stick injury infectivity is reduced by administration of nuc leoside analogues B) CD4 counts are the best predictors of disease progression C) Infected T cells survive for a month in infected patients D) In latent phase HIV is minimal replication Answer: A) Following needle stick injury infectivity is reduced by administratio n of nucleoside analogues Question 110: In hematuria of glomerular origin the urine is characterised by th e presence of all the following except? A) Red cell casts B) Acanthocytes C) Crenated red cells D) Dysmorphic red cells Answer: B) Acanthocytes Question 111: Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynaecomastia except? A) Testosterone B) Prolactin C) Estradiol D) Luteinizing hormone Answer: B) Prolactin Question 112: All are true regarding idiopathic edema of women, except? A) It is due to estrogen mediated sodium retention B) It is not related to menstrual cycles C) There is increased water retention in upright position D) ACE inhibitors can be useful in some cases Answer: A) It is due to estrogen mediated sodium retention

Question 113: A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5gm/dL and ESR 18 mm 1st hour, Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dL, serum ph osphorus 2.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 28 KA units and Blood urea 32 mg/dL. Wh ich of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case? A) Nutritional rickets B) Renal rickets C) Hyperparathyroidism D) Skeletal dysplasia Answer: C) Hyperparathyroidism Question 114: A 28 year old lady has put on weight (10 Kg over a period of 3 yea rs), and has oligomenorrhoea followed by amenorrhoea for 8 months. The blood pre ssure is 160/100 mm of Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate invest igation? A) Serum electrolytes B) Plasma cortisol C) Plasma testosterone and ultrasound evaluation of pelvis D) T3, T4 and TSH Answer: B) Plasma cortisol Question 115: An 18 year old boy presents with digital gangrene in third and fou rth fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the blood pressure is 170/110 mm Hg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood and urine examinations were unre markable. Antinuclear antibodies, antibody to double stranded DNA and antineutro phil cytoplasmic antibody were negative. The most likely diagnosis is? A) Wegener's granulomatosis B) Polyarteritis nodosa C) Takayasu's arteritis D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Answer: B) Polyarteritis nodosa Question 116: A newly posted junior doctor had difficulty in finding out base de ficit/ access for blood in given patient. An experienced senior resident gave hi m advise to find out quick method to determine acid-base composition of blood ba sed on PCO2. Which of the following method he suggested to predict acid-base com position of blood? A) Ref ford nomogram B) DuBio's nomogram C) Goldman constant field equation D) Siggard- Andersen nomogram Answer: D) Siggard- Andersen nomogram Question 117: A middle aged woman, on oral contraceptive for many years, develop ed neurological symptoms such as depression, irritability, nervousness and menta l confusion. Her hemoglobin level was 8 g/dL. Biochemical investigations reveale d that she was excreting highly elevated concentrations of xanthurenic acid in u rine. She also showed high levels of triglycerides and cholesterol in serum. All the above findings are most probably related to vitamin B6 deficiency caused by prolonged oral contraceptive use except? A) Increased urinary xanthurenic acid excretion B) Neurological symptoms by decreased synthesis of biogenic amines C) Decreased hemoglobin level D) Increased triglyceride and cholesterol level Answer: D) Increased triglyceride and cholesterol level Question 118: A 45 - year old woman visited her physician with complaints of inc reased appetite and thirst with increased frequency of urination. She also had t he symptoms of diminished or impalpable pulses in the feet, besides gangrene of the feet. Her laboratory findings on the oral glucose tolerance test are as foll

ows: Parameters Fasting Blood glucose (mg/dL) Urine glucose -ve Ketone bodies -ve

1 hr 155 +++ -ve

2 hr 270 ++ -ve

205

Which of the following statements is not correct for the above mentioned case ? A) She was suffering from insulin dependent diabetes mellitus B) She was suffering from non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus C) She was treated with oral hypoglycemic drugs only when diet control and exerc ise could not control the pathological situation D) Knowledge of family history of diabetes mellitus is useful in predicting the nature of diabetes Answer: A) She was suffering from insulin dependent diabetes mellitus Question 119: A 20 year old woman presents with bilateral conductive deafness, p alpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a thin -walled cavity in left lower zone. Investigations reveal total leukocyte count 1 2000/mm3, red cell casts in the urine and 12000/mm3 serum creatinine 3 mg/dL. Wh at is the most probable diagnosis? A) Henoch-Schonlein purpura B) Polyarteritis nodosa C) Wegener's granulomatosis D) Disseminated tuberculosis Answer: C) Wegener's granulomatosis Question 120: A woman is admitted with complaints of low-grade fever of 6 weeks duration. Chest radiograph reveals bihilar adenopathy with clear lung fields. Al l of the following investigations will be useful in differential diagnosis excep t? A) CD4/CD8 counts in the blood B) Serum ACE levels C) CECT of chest D) Gallium scan Answer: C) CECT of chest Question 121: Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of Cushing's syndrome? A) Loss of diurnal variation B) Increased ACTH C) Increased plasma Cortisol D) Increased urinary metabolites of Cortisol Answer: A) Loss of diurnal variation Question 122: The occurence of hyperthyroidism following administration of suppl emental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goitre is known as? A) Jod- Basedow effect B) Wolff- Chaikoff effect C) Thyrotoxicosis factitia D) de Quervain's thyroiditis Answer: A) Jod- Basedow effect Question 123: The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorders is? A) T3 B) T4 C) TSH D) Thyroglobulin Answer: C) TSH Question 124: Ataxia telangiectacia is characterized by all of the following exc

ept ? A) Chronic sinopulmonary disease B) Decreased level of alfa fetoprotein C) Chromosomal breakage D) IgA deficiency Answer: B) Decreased level of alfa fetoprotein Question 125: The patients having acute cardiac failure do not show oedema, beca use? A) The plasma oncotic pressure is high B) There is renal compensation C) Increased cardiac output D) There is a fall in the systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure Answer: D) There is a fall in the systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure Question 126: Duchenne Muscular Dsytrophy is a disease of ? A) Neuromuscular junction B) Sarcolemmal proteins C) Muscle contractile proteins D) Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness Answer: B) Sarcolemmal proteins Question 127: All of the following are associated with low complement levels exc ept? A) Lupus nephritis B) Mesangio capillary glomerulonephritis C) Diarrhea-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome D) Post-infections glomerulonephritis Answer: C) Diarrhea-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome