THIRD PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.

S DEGREE EXAMINATION, AUGUST 2002 Part 1- OPHTHALMOLOGY Time: Two Hours Maximum: 40 marks Answer all the questions. Draw diagrams wherever necessary. Section A 1. Multiple choice questions. Single response type-8 (separate sheet attached) (8x1/2 = 4 marks) II. Match the following. Single response type-8 (separate sheet attached) (8x1/2 = 4 marks) III.Draw and label: 1. Iris bombe. 2. Normal funds. (2x1 = 2 marks) IV.Short answer questions: 1. Define Stye 2. Define Presbyopia 3. Mention four complications of Iridocyclitis. 4. Mention four causes of night blindness (4x1 = 4 marks) V. Write short notes on: 1. Atropine 2. Enucleation. 3. Keratoconus Section B VI. Read this paragraph and answer the following questions: A 50 year old women complains of painless progressive dimunition of vision of right eye since a year. 1. Mention two possible common causes 2. How will you differentiate them? 3. Briefly outline the surgical management of any one of them. (2+5+3 = 10 marks) VII.Short answer questions: 1. Mention two uses of cryo in ophthalmology 2. Mention two causes of cherry red spot. 3. Mention two causes of toxic amblyopia. 4. Mention the principles of treatment of a case of Corneal Ulcer. marks) VIII.Write short notes on: 1. Horner's syndrome (4x1 = 4

(3x2 = 6 marks)

2. Dacryocysts rhinostomy (D.C.R) 3. Sympathetic ophthalmia (3x2 = 6 marks)

OPHTHALMOLOGY 1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Note:(1) Do not write anything in this question paper. (2) Write your Register Number in the answer-sheet provided (3) Select one most appropriate response and encircle the corresponding alphabet against each question number in the answer-sheet provided. 1. Ectatic cicatrix underlined by ureal tissue is called: (A) Keratomalacia. (C) Anterior staphyloma 2. Keratic precipitates are seen in: (A) Keratoconus (C) Acute Iridocyclitis 3. Cobble stone appearance is a feature of: (A) Trachoma (C) Viral conjunctivitis 4. Complicated cataract is a cataract: (A) Occuring in systemic disease. (B) Occuring due to drug toxicity (C) Secondary to ocular disease 5. Ishihara's chart is used to test: (A) Field of vision (C) Diplopia (A) Sublocation of lens (C) Leucoma adherance 7. Scintillating scotoma is characteristic of: (A) Migrains (C) Open angle glaucoma 8. Vitreous base is situated at: (A) Ora serrata. (B) Equator (B) Synthesis scintillans (D) Occipital lobe lesions. (B) Colour vision (D) Visual acuity. (B) Narrow angle glaucoma (D) Aphakia (D) Complication of surgery. (B) Spring catarrah. (D) Angular conjunctivitis. (B) Viral keratitis (D) Keratomalacia (B) Descemetocele (D) Keratectasia.

6. Depth of anterior chamber is shallow in:

(C)Macula

(D) Optic disc. (8x1/2 = 4 marks

OPHTHALMOLOGY

II. Match the following:A 1. Nd yag laser 3. Autorefractometer 4. Bjerrum screen B 1. Timalol 2. Atropine 3. Pilocarpine 4. Phenylephrine (a) Retinal detachment (c) After cataract. (d) Refraction (a) Sympathmimatic. (b) Parasympathomimetic (c) - blocker (d) Parasympathlytic (8x1/2 = 4 marks) 2. Indirect ophthalmoscope (b) Visual field

THIRD PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, AUGUST 2002 Part 1 OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY Time: Two Hours Maximum: 40 marks Draw diagrams wherever necessary. Section A I. Multiple Choice Questions. (on separate sheet attached) II. Match the following (on separate sheet attached) marks) III. Draw and label: 1. Organ of corti 2. Cartilages of larynx. IV. Short answer questions: 1. What is keratosis obturans? 2. How do you treat unilateral vocal cord palsy? 3. What are the clinical feature of Quinsy? 4. What is rhinolalia clausa? V. Write short notes on: 1. Ototoxicity. 2. Singer's Nodule 3. Rhinophyma. Section B Read this paragraph and answer the following questions:A 55 year old male with complaints of blood stained nasal discharge from right nostril associated with right sided nasal obstruction and on examination found to have a ulcerated mass occupying the right nasal cavity. (4x1 4 marks) (2x1 = 2 marks) (8x1/2 = 4 marks) (8x1/2 = 4

1. What is your diagnosis? 2. What are the differential diagnosis you will keep in your mind? 3. What are the areas you will like to examine? 4. What investigations would you do? 5. How will you treat this case as per your diagnosis? (1+2+2+2+3 = 10 marks) VII.Short answer questions: 1. What is Citellis abscess? 2. What are the causes for a white patch over the tonsil? 3. What is the latest treatment for chronic sinusitis? 4. What are the graft material used for myringoplasty? VIII.Write short notes on: 1. Haematoma auris 2. Rhinitis medicamentosa 3. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis. (3x2 = 6 marks)

OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY 1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Note:- (1) Do not write anything in this question paper. (2) Write your Reg.No. in the Answer sheet provided. (3) Select one most appropriate response and encircle the corresponding alphabet against each question number in the answer-sheet provided. 1. Otolith organs lie in: (A) Ampula (C) Endolymphatic sac 2. Furunculosis in caused by: (A) Staphylococcus (C) Pneumococcus 3. Term glue ear is applied to: (A) Acute suppurative otitis media (C) Secretory otitis media 4. Nasal vestibule is lined by: (A) Skin (B) Cuboidal epithelium (D) Olfactory epithelium (C) Ciliated columnar epithelium 5. The shape of parapharyngeal space is (B) Acute catarrhal otitis media (D) Baro-otitis media. (B) Streptococcus] (D) Haemophilus influenzae. (B) Cochlea (D) Utricle and saccule.

(A) Quadrangular (C ) Pyramidal 6. Vocal nodules present usually at: (A) Anterior commissure. (B) Middle of the cord

(B) Conical (D) Inverted pyramid.

(C ) The junction of anterior 2/3rd and posterior 1/3rd. (D) Anterior 1/3rd and posterior 2/3rd junction. 7. A twelve year old boy having profuse bonts of unprovoked epistaxis could be having: (A) Nasal polyp (B) Rhinolith (D) Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma (C ) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma 8. Main symptom of achalasia cardia is (A) Pain (B) Regurgitation (D) Intermittent dysphagia (8x1/2 = 4 marks) (C ) Dysphagia (persistent)

OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY II. Match the following:(A) 1. Lateral Rhinotomy 2. Caldwell-Lue operation 3. Young's operation 4. Cosmetic trimming (B) 5. Puberty 6. Famale 7. Family history (a) Fibrous dysplasia (b) Rhinolith (c ) Recurrent Antrochoanal polyp (d) Atrophic Rhinitis (e) Menier's disease (f) Angiofitroma (g) Plummer-Vinson syndrome. (h) Otosclerosis (8x1/2 = 4 marks)

8. Fluctuating sensorineural deafness

THIRD PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, AUGUST 2002 Part 1 COMMUNITY MEDICINE Paper 1 Time : Three Hours Section A I. Multiple choice questions, Single response type 20 (separate sheet attached) (20x1/2 = 10 marks) II. Match the following. Single response type 6 (separate sheet attached) (6x1/2 = 3 marks) III.Draw and label: 1. Iceberg Phenomenon. 2. Scheme diagram for a Case control Study. (2x1 = 2 marks) Maximum 60 marks

IV.Write briefly on: 1. Define the term Pandemic 2. Give two examples for nosocomial infections. 3. Soakage pit 4. Risk factors for diabetes. 5. Amplifying hosts. V. Write short notes on: 1. Acute Flaccid paralysis. 2. Standard Deviation 3. Biological transmission through vectors. 4. Ergonomics 5. Epidemiological Triad (5x2 = 10 marks) Section B VI. A two year old child was brought to the Primary health Centre with vomiting and loose motions. 1. How will you assess the child's hydration? 2. What is your recommendation for mild dehydration? 3. What diet will you suggest for this child? 4. What social factors can play a role in diarrhoeal diseases? 5. What advice will you give the mother to prevent its recurrence? (5x2 = 10 marks) VII.Write briefly on: 1. Pre Placement examination. 2. Koplik's spots 3. Mammography 4. Sensitivity of a screening test. 5. Vocational Rehabilitation. 6. Cyclical trend in disease occurrence. 7. Fixed Virus. 8. DOTS agent. 9. Chemoprophylaxis for malaria. 10. Modes of transmission of Plague. (10x1 = 10 marks) (5x1 = 5 marks)

VIII.Write short notes on: 1. Tests of Statistical significance. 2. Integrated Vector Control. 3. Sickness Absenteeism. 4. World Health Day. 5. Secondary prevention of Rheumatic Fever (5x2 = 10 marks)

COMMUNITY MEDICINE Paper 1 1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Note:(1) Do not write anything on the question paper (2) Write your register number in the answer-sheet provided (3) Select one most appropriate response and encircle the corresponding alphabet against each question number in the answer-sheet provided. 1. The malariometric index useful in assessing the operational efficiency of national malaria eradication programme is:

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

(A) Annual Blood Examination Rate (B) Annual Parasite Incidence (C) Slide Positivity Rate (D) Annual Falciparum Incidence. An example of a disease which exhibits iceberg phenomenon is: (A) Rabies (B) Poliomelitis (C) Tetanus (D) Genital warts. Which of the following is not a risk factor of cancer cervix? (A) Early marriage (B) Early menarche (C) Poor genital hygiene (D) Genital warts Vector for Japanese encephalitis in India is: (A) Culex tritaeniorhynchus (B) Monsonoides (C) Aedes aegypti (D) Anopheles culicifacies. The primary mode of transmission in tuberculosis is: (A) Formites (B) Airborne (C) Arhtropod borne. (D) Milk borne The denominator used for calculation of infant mortality rate is: (A) All deaths (B) Live births (C) Total births (D) Mid year population. Which of the following is true about the relationship between prevalence and incidence of a disease? (A) Prevalence (P) = Incidence (I) x Duration(D) (B) Incidence (I) = Prevalence (P) x Duration(D) (C) Duration(D) = Prevalence (P) x Incidence (I) (D) None of the above. Combined active and passive immunization can be given in which of the following diseases:(A) Tetanus (B) Diphtheria (C) Rabies (D) All of the above.

(Contd....2) -29. The percentage of persons examined showing microfilariae in their blood or disease manifestions of filariasis or both is called: (A) Microfilaria rate (B) Filarial endemicity rate (D) Average infestation rate. (C) Microfilarial density

10. Active immunity can not be acquired by:

(A) Expose to disease (B) Inoculation of living organisms (C) Inoculation of killed organisms (D) Inoculation of immune serum 11. Randomization reduces the chances of: (A) Confounding bias (B) Selection bias (C) Interviewer's bias (D) None of the above. 12. Indication for antirabies treatment in a case of dog bite: (A) Animal shows signs of rabies (B) Animal is not traceable. (C) Unprovoked bites (D) All of the above. 13.The type of biological transmission seen among malaria parasites in mosquito is: (A) Propagative (B) Cyclo-propagative (C) Cyclo-developmental (D) Mechanical. 14.The vector responsible for Kala azar is: (A) Sandfly (B) Blackfly (C) Tse Tse fly (D) Reduvid bug. 15.Which of the following is NOT a : (A) Sullivan's index (B) DALY (C ) Work loss days (D) PQLI 16.The ratio of the incidence of the disease (or death) among exposed and the incidence among non-exposed is: (A) Odds ratio (B) Relative risk (C) Attributable risk (D) None of the above 17. An example for Specific Protection is: (A) Immunization (B) Health education (C) Provision of safe drinking water (D) MDT for leprosy. 18. Lead poisoning is an occupational hazard for workers in: (A) Foundries (B) Printing press (C) Pencil industry (D) Nuclear generators 19.The protective value of Cholera Vaccine is: (A) 20% (B) 50% (C) 70% (D) 90% 20.The drug used in the treatment of leprosy is (A) Rifampicin (B) INH (C) Chloroquine (D) AZT

COMMUNITY MEDICINE Paper 1 II Match the following:1. Infant Mortality rate 2. Abortion rate 3. Tuberculin positivity rate 4. School loss days 5. Population per Health Care 6. Gross National Product (a) Morbidity indicator (b) Disability indicator (c) Mortality indicator (d) Health Care Delivery Indicator (e) Fertility Indicator (f) Socio-Economic Indicator.

(6x1/2 = 3 marks)

C 20805 THIRD PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, AUGUST 2002 Part 1 Paper II COMMUNITY MEDICINE Time : 3 Hours Section A I. Multiple Choice Questions. Single response type-20 (separate sheet attached) (20x1/2 = 10 marks) II. Match the following. Single response type-6 (separate sheet attached) (6x1/2 = 3 marks) III. Draw and label: 1. Diagram to show the age and sex distribution of population. 2. A diagram to show natural history of disease. IV. Write briefly on: 1. Epidemic dropsy 3. Joint family V. Write short notes on: 1. Management of severe pneumonia in a two year old child. 2. Oral contraceptives. 3. Nutritional anaemia 4. Fertility trends in India 5. Cultural factors affecting breast feeding. Section B VI . Read the paragraph and answer the questions:A one year old child is brought with a history of dog bite on the hand. 1. How do you classify the bite? 2. How do you manage the case? 3. Describe the antirabies vaccines available with dosage schedule. 4. What is anti rabies serum and when do you administer? (5x2 = 10 marks) 5. Sources of essential fatty acids. 2. Laparoscopic sterilization 4. Intersectoral co-ordination in Primary Health Care. (5x1 = 5 marks) (2x1 = 2 marks) Maximum : 60 Marks

5. Write the signs and symptoms of rabies. (1+2+3+2+2 = 10 marks) (Contd....2) -2VII.Write briefly on: 1. Social control 3. Micronutrients 5. Mukhya Sevika 7. Limiting amino acids 2. Health propaganda 4. Endemic goitre. 6. Socail Marketing 8. Net Reproduction Rate. 10. Barriers to communication (10x1 = 10 marks) Write short notes on: 1. Nutritional anthropometry. 2. Postnatal advice. 3. Functions of a health worker female. 4. UNICEF 5. Diet survey (5x2 = 10 marks)

9. Community participation

Paper II COMMUNITY MEDICINE 1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Note:(1) Do not write anything on the question paper. (2) write your register number on the answer-sheet provided. (3) Select one most appropriate response and encircle the corresponding alphabet against each question number in the answer-sheet provided. 1. An example of reference protein is: (A) Meat (C) Egg (A) Simplicity (B) Fish (D) Pulses (B) Inexpensive (D) All of the above,

2. Advantages of intrauterine devices are: (C) High continuation rate (A) Lysin (C) Glycin

3. Limiting amino acid of cereals is : (B) Methnomine (D) Valin (B) Citrous fruits.

4. The following is rich in Vitamin A: (A) Green leafy vegetables (C) Milk 5. Infant mortality of India is: (A) 5-8/1000 live births (B) 30/1000 live births (C) 50/1000 live births (D) 70/1000 live births 6. Indian MTP Act allows abortion up to: (A) 15 weeks (C ) 24 weeks (B) 20 weeks (D) 28 weeks. (D) Pulses

7. Demography is related closely to:

(A) Births (C) Deaths of infants (A) Azoospermia

(B) Deaths (D) All of the above (B) Ejaculation

8. Condom decreases of the chance of: (C) Sexually transmitted diseases (D) Abortion 9. It is mandatory to register all births within: (A) 24 hours. (C) 2 weeks (B) 1 week (D) None of the above. (Contd.....2) -210. Percentage of population under 15 years of age in India is: (A) 10% (C) 40% (A) 4 months (C) 9 months (A) 5 Kg. (C) 10 Kg. (A) All deaths (C ) Total births (A) 1000 (C) 5000 (A) Delinquent child (B) 15% (D) 50% (B) 6 months (D) 1 year (B) 7 Kg. (D) 12 Kg. (B) Live births (D) Female deaths (B) 2000 (D) 10,000 (B) Disabled child (D) Bed wetting child

11. Supplementary feeding for an infant is started from:

12. The normal weight gain during pregnancy is:

13. The denominator taken for calculation of maternal mortality rate is:

14. A subcentre located in rural area serves a population of:

15. Child guidance clinic is helpful for: (C) Children from broken families (A) Mudaliar (C) Srivastava (B) Bhore (D) Chadha

16. The concept of rural health scheme was given by the following committee:

17.Which of the following has highest cholesterol content?

(A) White meat (C) Egg 18. Sickle cell anaemia is:

(B) Red meat (D) Fish

(A) An autosomal recessive disorder (B) Sex linked disease (C) Deficiency disease 19. A family is defined as: (A) Primary unit of the society (B) A group of biologically related individuals living together and eating from a common kitchen (C) A group of people living together in a house. (D) A group with children and elderly individuals. 20. Apgar score is assessed on the basis of: (A) Heart rate (C) Muscle tone (B) Respiration (D) All of the above. (20x1/2 = 10 marks) (D) In born error of metabolism

II. Match the following 1. Conventional contraceptive 2. Eligible couple 3. Anaemia in pregnancy age. 4. IDD 5. MDT 6. ICDS (a) Fortification of common salt (b) Low birth weight (c) Currently married women in the reproductive (d) Non formal preschool education (e) Nirodh (f) Leprosy. (6x1/2 = 3 marks)

THIRD PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, AUGUST 2002 Part II Paper I GENERAL MEDICINE (New Scheme) Time : 3 Hours Section A I. Multiple Choice Questions. Single response type-20 (separate sheet attached) (20x1/2 = 10 marks) II. Match the following. Single response type-6 (separate sheet attached) (6x1/2 = 3 marks) III.Draw and label: 1. Pyramidal tract 2. Casts in urine IV.Write briefly on: 1. What is Steven Johnson syndrome? Maximum : 60 Marks

2. What is FISH? 3. Total parenteral nutrition 4. Seronegative spondyloarthropathies 5. Methaemoglobinaemia. V. Write short notes on: 1. Extra intestinal amoebiasis 2. Anorexia nervosa 3. Interferons. 4. Theophylline intoxication 5. Chemoprophylaxis in typhoid Section B VI. Read this paragraph and answer the following questions:A 52 year old diabetic presents with fever, pleuritic pain and rusty coloured sputum. (a) What is your diagnosis? (b) What are the common aetiological agents? (c) What are the clinical features? (d) What is the management? (e) What are the other common infective disease in diabetics? (5x2 = 10 marks) (Contd....2) -2VII.Write briefly on: 1. Management of acute breathlessness. 2. Antihypertensive drugs. 3. Conversion disorders. 4. What is Kaposis sacroma? 5. Lepra reactions. 6. The nail in systemic disease. 7. Fragile X syndrome? 8. What is the management of carbon monoxide poisoning? 9. What is CREST syndrome? (5x2 = 10 marks) (5x1 = 5 marks)

10. What is the role of antioxidants? (10x1 = 10 marks) VIII.Write short notes on: 1. Hyperlipidaemias. 2. Radiological features of mitral stenosis (2x5 = 10 marks)

Paper I GENERAL MEDICINE 1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Note:(1) Do not write anything on the question paper. (2) write your register number on the answer-sheet provided. (3) Select one appropriate answer and encircle the alphabet against each question in the answer-sheet provided. 1. Zinc deficiency is linked to all the following except:(A) Growth retardation (B) Diarrhoea

(C) Dermatitis (E) Anaemia.

(D) Infertility

2. Which of the following is not specifically associated with HLA B27? (A) Ankylosing spondylites (B) Coeliac disease (C) Reiters syndrome (D) Psoriatic arthropathy 3. Southern blot helps in analysis of: (A) DNA (C) Neucleic acids (A) Thiazide (C) Propranolol (A) Laryngeal (C) Cavitary (B) RNA (D) None. (B) Furosemide (D) Diazoxide (B) Endobronchial (D) All the above (B) Jaundice

4. Hyperglycaemia can be caused by all the following except:-

5. Which form of tuberculosis is highly contagious?

6. Which of the following is usually not a feature of amoebic liver abscess? (A) Tender hepatomegaly (C) Fever (A) 100% (C) 25% (A) SCID (C) IgA deficiency (A) Anti DNA (C) Anticardiolipin (D) Sterile pleural effusion. (B) 50% (D) 10% (B) Agammaglobulinaemia (D) Wiskot Aldrich syndrome (B) Anti SM (D) Antihistone.

7. The rate of transmission of HIV from infected mother to fetus/infant is approximately:

8. The most common type of inherited immunodeficiency is:

9. Most specific auto antibody for SLE diagnosis is:

10.Which of the following is not a feature of hypertrophic osteoarthropathy? (A) Clubbing (B) Cyanosis (C) Periosteal new bone formation (D) Arthritis 11.Delusion is seen in all except: (A) Mania (B) Depression (C) Anxiety neurosis (D) Schizophrenia

12. Herald plaque is characteristically seen in: (A) Lichen planus (C) Tinea versicolar (A) Erythenia nodosum (C) Secondary syphilis (A) Ankylosing spondylitis (C) Psoriatic arthritis (A) Angiocardiography (C) MRI (A) Allergy (D) CT (B) Arachnoiditis 13. Target lesions are specific to: (B) Erythema multiforme (D) None of the above. (B) Riters syndrome (B) Pytiriasis rosea (D) Psoriasis

14. Bamboo spine is commonly seen with: (D) Inflammatory bowel disease. (B) Echocardiography

15. Investigation of choice to differentiate pericardial effusion and dilation of heart is:

16. Most serious complication of myelogram is: (C) Transient neurological deficit (D) Headache 17. Absolute contraindicaton of ECT is: (A) Convulsions (C) ICSOL (A) Respiratory (C ) Renal (A) Vision (C) Hearing (A) 80% (C) 65% (B) Pregnancey (D) Bleeding diathesis (B) Cardiac (D) Liver (B) Smell (D) Taste (B) 95% (D) 50% (20x1/2 = 10 marks)

18. Cyanide poisoning affects ------------- function:

19. Medial geniculate body is concerned with:

20. Normal value of FEVI in adult male is:

II. Match the following:-

1. Dengue fever 2. Post transfusion 3. Tuberculosis 4. Cutaneous T cell lymphoma 5. IV drug abuses 6. Aplastic anaemia

(a) Hepatitis A virus (b) Hepatitis C (c ) Aedes (d) Bazins disease (e) Mycos is fungoids (f) Staph endocarditis

(6x1/2 = 3 marks)

THIRD PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, AUGUST 2002 Part II Paper 1 GENERAL MEDICINE (New Scheme) Time: Three Hours Section A I. Multiple Choice questions. Single response type-20 (separate sheet attached) (20x1/2 = 10 marks) II. Match the following. Single response type-6 (separate sheet attached) (6x1/2 = 3 marks) III. Draw and label: 1. Pyramidal tract 2. Casts in urine. IV.Write briefly on: 1. What is Steven Johnson syndrome? 2. What is FISH? 3. Total parenteral nutrition. 4. Seronegative spondyloarthropathies. 5. Methaemoglobinaemia. V. Write short notes on: 1. Extra intestinal amoebiasis 2. Anorexia nervosa 3. Intererons 4. Theophyline intoxication 5. Chemoprophylaxix in typhoid VI. Read this paragraph and answer the following questions:A 52 year old diabetic presents with fever, pleuritic pain and rusty colured sputum. (a) What is your diagnosis? (b) What are the common aetiological agents? (c) What are the clinical features? (d) What is management? (e) What are the other common infective disease in diabetics? (5x2=10 marks) (5x2= 10 marks) (5x1 = 5 marks). Maximum: 60 Marks MCQs should be answered first in the response sheet provided.

VII.Write briefly on: 1. Management of acute breathlessness 2. Antihypertensive drugs 3. Conversion disorders. 4. What is Kaposis sarcoma? 5. Lepra reactions. 6. The nail in systemic disease 7. Fragile X syndrome. 8. What is the management of carbon monoxide poisoning? 9. What is CREST syndrome? 10. What is the role of antioxidants? (10x1 = 10 marks) VIII.Write short notes on: 1. Hyperlipidamias. 2. Radiological features of mitral stenosis. (2x5 = 10 marks)

C 20806 Paper 1 GENERAL MEDICINE 1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Note:(1) Do not write anything on the question paper. (2)Write your register number on the answer sheet provided (3) Select the appropriate answer and encircle the alphabet against each question in the answer sheet provided. 1. Zinc deficiency is linked to all the following except:(A) Growth retardation (C) Dermatitis (E) Anaemia 2. Which of the following is not specifically associated with HLA B27 ? (A) Ankylosing spondylites (C) Reiters syndrome 3. Southern blot helps in analysis of: (A) DNA (C) Neuclic acids (A) Thiazide (C) Propranolol (A) Laryngeal (C) Cavitary (A) Tender hepatomegaly (C) Fever (A) 100% (B) RNA (D) None. (B) Furosemide (D) Diazoxide (B) Endobronchial (D) All the above. (B) Jaundice (D) sterile pleural effusion. (B) 50% (B) Coeliac diseases (D) Psoriatic arthropathy. (B) Diarrhoea (D) Infertility

4. Hyperglycaemia can be caused by all the following except:-

5. Which form of tuberculosis is highly contagious?

6. Which of the following is usually not a feature of amoebic liver abscess?

7. The rate of transmission of HIV from infected mother to fetus/infant is approximately:

(C) 25% (A) SCID (C) IgA deficiency (A) Anti DNA (C) Anticardiolipin.

(D) 10% (B) Agammaglobulinaemia (D) Wiskot Aldrich syndrome. (B) Anti SM (D) Antihistone.

8. The most common type of inherited immunodeficiency is:

9. Most specific auto antibody for SLE diagnosis is:

10. Which of the following is not a feature of hypertrophic osteoarthropathy? (A) Clubbing (C) Periosteal new bone formation 11. Delusion is seen in all except: (A) Mania (C) Anxiety neurosis (A) Lichen planus (C) Tinea versicolar 13.Target lesions are specific to: (A) Erythenia nodosum (C) Secondary syphilis 14. Bamboo spine is commonly seen with: (A) Ankylosing spondylitis (C) Psoriatic arthritis (A) Angiocardiography (C) MRI (A) Allergy (C) Transient neurological deficit 17. Absolute contraindication of ECT is: (A) Convulsions (C ) ICSOL (A) Respiratory (B) Pregnancy (D) Bleeding diathesis (B) Cardiac (B) Riters syndrome (D) Inflammatory bowel disease. (B) Echocardiography (D) CT (B) Archanoiditis (D) Headache (B) Erythema multiforme (D) None of the above (B) Depression (D) Schizophrenia (B) Pytiriasis rosea (D) Psoriasis (B) Cyanosis (D) Arthritis.

12.Herald plaque is characteristically seen in:

15. Investigation of choice to differentiate pericardial effusion and dilation of heart is:

16. Most serious complication of myelogram is:

18. Cyanide poisoning affects ------------- function:

(C) Renal (A) Vision (C) Hearing 20. Normal value of FEVI in adult male is: (A) 80% (C) 65%

(D) Liver (B) Smell (D) Taste (B) 95%] (D) 50% (20x1/2 = 10 marks)

19. Medical geniculate body is concrned with:

THIRD PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION. AUGUST 2002 Part II Paper IIGENERAL MEDICINE (new Scheme) Time: Three Hours Maximum : 60 Marks MCQs should be answered first in the response sheet provided. Section A I. Multiple Choice question. Single response type-20 (separate sheet attached) (20x1/2 = 10 marks) II. Match the following. Single response type-6 (separate sheet attached) (6x1/2 = 3 marks) III. Draw and label: 1. JVP. 2. Glomerulus IV. Write briefly on: 1. Transient ischaemic attack. 2. Cyanosis 3. Helicobacter pylori 4. Hypersplenism 5. Additional disease V. Write short notes on: 1. Sleep apnoea syndrome. 2. Thrombocytopenia (5x1 = 5 marks) (2x1 = 2 marks)

3. Good pasteurs syndrome 4. ARDS 5. Atrial fibrillation. (5x2 = 10 marks) Section B VI. Read the paragraph and answer the following questions:A 35 year old male who is a smoker presented with loss of consciousness and weakness of right side of body. (a) What is your diagnosis? (b) What are the predisposing factors in this age group? (c) What are the investigations for confirming the diagnosis? (d) What is the treatment? (e) What are the measures that can be taken to prevent occurrence of such a condition? (5x2 = 10 marks) VII. Write briefly on: 1. What is Dawn phenomenon? 2. What is Kussmauls sign? 3. What is Dressler's syndrome? 4. What is subacute combined degeneration of the cord? 5. Alzheimers dementia. 6. What is Alports syndrome? 7. Management of Haemophilia A. 8.What is carcinoid syndrome? 9. Treatment of gastro oesophageal reflux disease. 10. Cardiac tamponade. VIII.Write short notes on: 1. Management of raised intracranial tension 2. DIC 3. Wilsons disease. 4. Management of dysentery 5. Pleural lap. (5x2 10 marks) (10x1 = 10 marks)

Paper II-- GENERAL MEDICINE 1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIOS Note:1. Do not write anything on the question paper. 2. Write your register number on the answer sheet provided. 3. Select the appropriate answer and encircle the alphabet against each question in the answer sheet provided. 1. Low output cardiac failure may be caused by: (A) Thyrotoxicosis (C) Anaemia (B) Mitral stenosis (D) Advanced liver disease

2. Absent ankle jerk with extensor plantar response is seen in: (A) Freidreich's ataxia (B) Spinabifida occulta (C) Anterior cerebral A occlusion (D) All the above. 3. Autoregulation of blood flow is not seen in: (A) Brain (C) Kidney (B) Skin (D)Muscles

4. Spastic paraplegia is seen in all except:

(A) Lead poisoning (C) Cervical spondylosis (A) Anterolateral (C) Posterior

(B) Motor neurone disease. (D) Lathyrism (B) Interventricular septum (D) Inferior wall (B) Tuberculosis (D) All the above. (B) Pernicious anaemia (D) Zullinger Ellison syndrome

5. Most common site of myocardial infarction is:

6. Curschmann's spirals in sputum are seen in: (A) Bronchogenic carcinoma (C) Branchial asthma (A) Bleeding time (C) Cirrhosis

7. Best test for assessing function of platelets is:

8. Resection of 90% of stomach leads to all except: (A) Hyperparathyrodiam (B) Pernicious ansemia (C) Cirrhosis (D) Zollinger Ellison syndrome (B) Hypocalcemea 9. Resection of 90% of stomach leads to all except: (A) ECF volume depletion (C) Anaemia (A) CML (D) Diarrhoea. (B) CLL (D) None of the above

10. Bleeding tendencies are common in: (C) Myclomonocytic leukemia 11. Todd's paralysis is feature of (A) Grandmal epilepsy (B) Petimal epilepsy (C) Temporal lobe epilepsy (A) Iron deficiency (C) Thalassemia (E) Pyridoxine deficiency 13. Hepatorenal syndrome is characterised by: (A) Acute tubular necrosis (C) Acute glomerulonephritis (A) Malaria (C) Hepatitis (B) Syphilis (D) Mycoplasma (B) Normal histopathology on renal biopsy. (D) Interstitial nephritis (D) Jacksonian epilepsy (B) Lead poisoning (D) Thiamine deficiency 12. Hypochronic microcytic anaemia is seen in all the following conditions except:

14.Nephritic syndrome can be caused by all except:-

15. Cholestatic jaundice is a recognised complication of treatment with:

(A) Phenothiazines (C) Erythromycin estolate (A) Thyrotoxicosis (C) Cretinism (A) Leprosy

(B) 17 substituted testosterones (D) All the above (B) Myxoedema (D) Hyperparathyroidism (B) Neurofibromatosis (D) Traumatic neuropathy.

16.Hourglass vertebra and Triradiate pelvis are seen radiologically in:

17. Peripheral nerve is thickened in all except: (C) Alcoholic neuropathy (A) Sarcoidosis (C) Shypethyrofism (A) Ulcerative clotis 20. Spider naevi occur in (A) Spider naevi occur in (C) Pregnancy (B) Cirrhos. of liver (D) All the above

18. Hypercalcimia occur in all of the following except (B) Multiple myeloma (D) Milk-Alkali syndrome (B) Regional ileitis

19. String sign on barium meal X-ray is usually associated with: (C) Atrophic gastrites (D) Paralytic ileues.

II Match the following:1. Meningoeoccal meningitis 2. Tetanus 4. Pneumocystis carinii 5. Amoebiasis 6. Uncomplicated UTI 3. Pseudomembranous colitis (a) Cotrimoxazole (c) Benzyl Penciline (d) Metronidazole (e) Vancomycin (f) TV immunoglobulin

(b) Trimethoprein

(6x1/2 = 3 marks)

THIRD PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, AUGUST 2002 Paper II Surgery Paper 1 GENERAL SURGERY including GIT AND ORTHOPADICS (New Scheme) Time: 11/2 Hours Maximum: 30 Marks

Multiple Choice Questions should be answered first in the response sheet provided.

Section A 1. Multiple Choice Questions Single response type-10 (On attached sheet) (10x1/2 = 5 marks) II. Match the following (on attached sheet) (10x1/2 5 marks) III. Draw and label: Blood supply of stomach IV. Short answer questions: 1. What are the malignancies of Liver? 2. Name the parts of extra hepatic bile duct. 3. What are the types of colostomy? V. Write short notes on: 1. Surgical procedure for peptic ulcer. 2. Visible gastric peristalsis (2x2 = 4 marks) (3x1 = 3 marks)

Section B VI. Read the following paragraphs and answer the questions given: You are witnessing a surgeon doing per rectal examination on a woman who complains of mucous discharge per annum. 1. What is the patients position (Decubitus) during the examination ? 2. What is pouch of Douglas? 3. What is Goodsaals' rule? 4. What are the common positions of primary piles? 5. Define partial prolapse of rectum (1+1+1+1+1= 5 marks)

VII. Short answer questions: 1. What is courvoisier's law? 2. What is Linitis plastica? 3. What are the predisposing causes of cancer colon? 4. What is interval appendicectomy? (4x1 = 4 marks) VIII. Short notes on: 1. Meckels' diverticulum 2. Pilonidal sinus 3. Warthin's tumour (3x2 = 6 marks)

1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Paper 1 GENERAL SURGERY including GIT AND ORTHOPAEDICS Note- 1. Do not write anything on the question paper. 2. Write your Reg. No. on the answer sheet provided. 3. Select the one most appropriate response and encircle corresponding alphabet against each question in the answer sheet provided. 4. In the answer sheet enter the total number of your response in the appropriate boxes provided. 5. Each question carries mark. 1. Meckel's diverticulum is a diverticulum of: (A) Bladder 2. (B) Colon (C) Duodenum (D) Ileum Intussusception in children is related to: (A) Intestinal malrotation (B) Swollen peyers' patches (C) Intestinal volvulus (D) Inguinal hernia Surgery for duodenal ulcer is indicated in: (A) Gastric outlet obstruction (B) Early in the diseases (C) Acute exacerbation (D) Prevention of haemetemesis Carcinoma Oesophagus: (A) Mostly occurs in women (B) There is early dysphagia for liquids. (C) Majority are adenocarcinomas (D) Squamous cell carcinoma is most common. Cholangitis is (A) Pyelephlebitis (B) A form of angina (C) Inflammation of bile ducts (D) Thrombophlebitis of hepatic voins. Mayo's operation is done for the repair of: (A) Inguinal Hernia (B) Umbilical Hernia (C) Femoral Hernia (D) Incisional Hernia The commonest tumour of salivary gland: (A) Pleomorphic adenoma (B) Lymphoma (C) Carcinoma (D) Incisional Hernis Electrolyte disturbance in chromic pyloric stenosis with vomiting tends to be: (A) Hypochloraemic acidosis (B) Hypochloraemic Alkalosis (C) Hyperchloraemic acidosis (D) Hyperchloraemic Alkaaalosis Heller's operation is indicated in:

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

(A) Achalasia cardia (B) Oesphageal varices (C) Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (D) Hiatus hernia 10.The most common type of hernia in female is: (A) Inguinal (B) Epigastric (C) Femoral (D) Umbilical

(10x1/2 5 marks)

Paper 1 GENERAL SURGERY including GIT AND ORTHOPAEDICS

II. Match the following 1. Heller's operation 3. Ramsted operation 4. Mayo's operation (a) Para umbilical Hernia (c) Partial prolapse of rectum (d) Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (4x1/2 = 2 marks)

2. Thiersch's operation (b) Achalasia cardia

THIRD PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, AUGUST 2002 Part II Paper1 GENERAL SURGERY Section B Orthopaedics Time : One Hour and a Half Maximum = 30 mrks

MCQs should be answered first in the response sheet provided. I. Multiple Choice Questions. Single response type-10 (separate sheet attached) (10x1/2 = 5 marks) II. Match the following. Single response type 4 (separate sheet attached) (4x1/2 = 2 marks) III. Draw and label Thomas, Splint. IV. Short answer questions: 1. Brodier's abscess, 2. Fracture patella 3. Wrist drop (3x1 = 3 marks) V. Write short notes on: 1. Madura foot 2. Solitary bone cyst. VI. Read this paragraph and answer the following questions:A 14 year old male presents with pain and swelling over lower end of right femur of 3 months duration. A clinical diagnosis of osteosarcoma is middle. ( 1 mark)

(a) What are the X-ray features of this condition? (b) What will you do to confirm the diagnosis? (c) What is the treatment of choice? (d) Apart from surgery, what are the other modalities of treatment you want to add? (e) What are the common sites of this tumour? VII.Short answer questions: 1. Erb's palsy 3. Baker's cyst. Write short notes on: 1. Tuberculous granuloma 3. Callus formation 2. Genu valgum (3x2 = 6 marks) 2. Mallet finger 4. Barlow's test. (4x1 = 4 marks) (5x1 = 5 marks)

Paper 1 GENERAL ENGLISH MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Note:1. Do not write anything on the question paper. 2. Write your register number on the answer sheet provided 3. Select the appropriate answer and encircle the alphabet against each question in the answer sheet provided. 1. Phalens test is positive in: (A) Tennis elbow (C) Carpal tunnel syndrome Soap bubble appearance is seen in: (A) Osteosarcoma (B) Giant cell tumour (C) Ewing's sarcoma (D) Lymphoma 3. Froment's sign is positive in lesions of: (A) Ulnar nerve (C) Radial nerve (A) Supracondylar fracture (C) Fracture neck of radius (A) Prepatellar bursa (C) Popliteal bursa (B) Median nerve (D) All of the above (B) Capitulum fracture (D) Fracture lateral epicondyle of humerus. (B) de-Quervains disease. (D) Ulnar bursitis.

4. Gunstock deformity occurs as a complication of:

5. Housemaids knee is due to inflammation of: (B) Infrapatellar bursa (D) Suprapatella bursa

6. Carpal bone which commonly fractures is: (A) Scaphoid (C) Hammate (A) Non-union (C) Nerve injury 8. Giant cell tumour is: (A) Epiphyseal tumor (B) Metaphyseal tumor (C) Diaphyseal tumor (D) None of the above. 9. Antalgic gait of hip is: (A) Stiffness of hip joint (C) Trendelenburg gair. 10.Keinbock's disease involves: (A) Scaphoid (C ) Lunate (B) Radial head (D) 2nd metatarsal head. (10x1/2 = 5 marks) (B) Painful hip gait (D) Gait in polio (B) Lunate (D) Pisiform (B) Malunion (D) Delayed union.

7. Most common complication of fracture clancle is:

Paper 1 GENERAL SURGERY II. Match the following:1. Gout (a) Syphilis (b) Morning stiffness (c) Sodium urate crystals 2. Charcot's joint 3. Sudeck's atrophy

4. Rheumatoid arthitis (d) Colles' fracture (4x1/2 = 2 marks)

THIRD PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, AUGUST 2002 Surgery

GENERAL SURGERY Paper II 9INCLUDES WHOLE OF SURGERY EXCLUDING GIT)

(New Scheme) Time: Three Hours Maximum: 60 Marks

Answer Sections A and B in separate answer books. Draw diagrams wherever necessary Answer questions. Section A 1. Multiple Choice Questions. Single response type-20 (Separate sheet attached) (20x1/2 = 10 marks) II. Match the following. Single response type-6. (separate sheet attached) (6x1/2 = 3 marks)

III.Draw and lable: 1. Various zones in the prostate gland (Mc. Neal). 2. Highly selective vagotomy IV.Short answer questions:1. Recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis. 2. Vascular complications of cervical rib. 3. Phyllodes tumour. 4. Acute parotitis 5. Whiplash injury V. Write short notes on: 1. Basal cell carcinoma 2. Hypospadias 3. Ischiorectal abscess 4. Pericardial tamponade. 5. ANDI (5X2 = 10 marks) (5x2 = 10 marks) (2x1 = 2 marks)

VI.Section B VI.Read this paragraph and answer the following questions:A patient underwent sub-total thyroidectomy for Graves' disease and is in the postoperative ward and six hours after surgery he develops respiratory distress with swelling of operated site. 1. What is the cause of this respiratory distress? 2. What should be done immediately to relieve the distress? 3. What is thyroid storm? 4. How do you manage a case of thyrotoxic crisis? 5. What part of thyroid is left behind in subtotal thyroidectomy and why? (2+2+2+2+2 = 10 marks) VII.Short answer questions:1. What is a keloid? 2. What is delayed primary closure of wounds? 3. What is secondary haemorrhage? 4. What is epidural anaesthesia? 5. Gas gangrene. 6. Raynaud's phenomenon. 7. Deep vein thrombosis in a lower limb. 8. Local gigantism. 9. Madura foot. 10. Subdural haemorrhage. VIII.Write short notes on: 1. Prostatism. 2. Seminoma 3. Post-operative tetany. 4. Retrosternal goitre. 5. TURP (5X2 10 marks) (10x1 = 10 marks)

1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

GENERAL SURGERY Paper II (INCLUDES WHOLE OF SURGERY EXCLUDING GIT)

Do not write anything on the question paper. Write your register number in the answer sheet provided. Select one most appropriate response and encircle the corresponding alphabet against each question number in answer sheet provided. 1. Fibrosacromas: (A) Spread primarily by lymphetics. (B) Are adenomatous tumours (C) Are treated by wide excision 2. Ketamine is a (A) Dissociative anaesthetic (C) Muscle Relaxant (A) Spinal Extradural space. (C) Caudal region (A) Orange (C ) Blue (A) Calcium gluconate (C ) Calcium chloride 6. Fourmier's gangrene is: (A) Idiopathic gangrene of scrotum (B) Gangrene of fingers (C ) Gangrene of the lower limb 7. Adamantinoma arises from: (A) Epithelial lining of dental plate (C ) Fibrous tissue 8. Risus sardonicus is seen in: (A) Meningitis (C) Early stage of Tetanus 9. Decubitus ulcer is a : (B) Epilepsy (D) Strychnine poisoning (B) Jaw bone. (D) Ameloblasts. (D) Gangrene of largebowel (B) Narcotic (D) Local anaesthetic (B) Spinal subarachnoid space. (D) Spinalveins (B) Black (D) Brown (B) Sodium bicarbonate (D) Sodium chloride (D) Highly radio sensitive

3. Spinal anesthesia is carried out by injecting the local anesthetic into:

4. The colour of the Nitrous, Oxide, cylinder is:

5. Metabolic Acidosis is corrected by:

(A) Venuous ulcer (C) Non healing non-specific ulcer 10. A hamartoma is: (A) A haemorrhagic cyst (C) A tumour of bone

(B) Pressure sore (D) Infected traumatic wound (B) Tumour of muscle (D) A developmental malformation.

11. Malignant pustule is: (A) Infection with Anthrax (C) Life tearing spreading infection (B) Malignant degeneration of a tumour (D) Secondary bacterial infection in malignant ulcer. (B) Radiotherapy.

12.The treatment of choice for an early case of Hyper Nephroma is : (A) Radical Nephrectomy (C) Chemotherapy (D) Combination of radiotherapy and chemotherapy. 13.Lipoma in the following site in most likely to be come malignant: (A) Subcutaneous (B) Sub-mucous (C ) Retroperitoneal (D) Sub-synovial 14.The median nerve supplies all the following muscles except: (A) Flexor pollicis Brevis (B) Flexor Pollicis Longus (C) Opponens pollicis (D) Adductor Pollicis 15.The Ulnar nerve supplies all the following muscles except: (A) First lumbrical (B) First palmar introsseous (C ) First dorsal introsseous (D) Adductor Pollicis 16.Wharton's duct drains the: (A) Parotid salivary gland (B) Pancreas (C) Submandibular salivery gland (D) Gall bladder 17.The Sclerosant used in the injection treatment of pile is: (A) 5% phenol in water (B) 5% phenol in Almond oil (C) 5% Ethnolamine oleate (D) 90% Alcohol 18.The commonest side for carcinoma in the anterior 2/3 of tongue is: (A) Tip (B) Lateral border (C) Dorsum (D) Ventral aspect 19.All the following are signs of cerebral compression except: (A) Brady cardia (B) Hypotension (C) Altered sensorium (D) Vomiting 20.Green colour discharge from an ulcer indicates infection with: (A) Staph aureus (B) Staph albus (C) Strept viridons (D) Pseudomonus pyocyanus

GENERAL SURGERY Paper II (INCLUDES WHOLE OF SURGERY EXCLUDING GIT)

II. Match the following:1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. Reducible Compressible Slippery edges Bag of worms Mouldable Ballotable (a) Haemangioma (b) Varicocoele (c) Kidney (d) Hernia (e) Lipoma (f) Sebaceous cyst (6x1/2 = 3 marks)

THIRD PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, AUGUST 2002 Part II Obstetrics and Gynaecology Paper 1 OBSTETRICS including SOCIAL OBSTETRICS (New Scheme) Time: 2 Hours Maximum: 40 marks Multiple Choice Questions should be answered first in the Response Sheet provided. Section A I. Multiple Choice Questions Single Response (on attached sheet) II. Match the following (on attached sheet). III. Draw and Label: 1. Biparietal Diameter. 2. Diagonal Conjugate IV. Short answer questions: 1. Significance of Bandl's ring. 2. Glucose challenge test. 3. Cardiovascular changes in pregnancy. 4. Bishop Score. V. Write short notes on: 1. Acute left ventricular failure 2. Delivery of second of twins 3. Placenta previa bleeding at 32 weeks. (8x1/2 = 4 marks) (8x1/2 = 4 marks)

(1x2 = 2 marks)

(1x4 = 4 marks)

(2x3 = 6 marks)

Section B VI. Read the clinical data and answer the following: A22 year-old Primigravida presenting with mobile head at term: 1. What is your diagnosis? 2. What specific clinical examination you will do on this patient? 3. What is meant by trial labour? 4. Describe the steps of a Caesarean Section. (1+3+3+3 = 10 marks) VII.Short answer questions: 1. What is meant by engagement of foetal head? 2. Ventouse application 3. Complete Perineal tear. 4. Objectives of antenatal care (4x1 = 4 marks) VIII.Write short notes on: 1. Braxton Hicks Contraction. 2. Pyelonephritis in pregnancy. 3. Teenage Pregnancy.

(2x3 = 6 marks)

1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Paper 1 OBSTETRICS including SOCIAL OBSTETRICS Note:(1) Do not write anything on the question paper. (2)Write your register number on the answer sheet provided. (3) Select the one most appropriate response and encircle the corresponding alphabet against each question in the answer sheet provided. (4) In the answer sheet enter the total number of your response in the appropriate provided. (5) Each question carries mark.

1. Hegars Sign in pregnancy is best elicited at: (A) 4-6 weeks (B) 8-10 weeks (C) 14-16 weeks (D) 18-20 weeks 2. Occupitoposterior position is more commonly associated with: (A) Gynecoid Pelvis (B) Android Pelvis (C ) Anthropoid Pelvis (D) Platypelloid 3. All the drugs are used to treat Preterm labor except: (A) Terbutaline (B) Nifidepine

(C) Alfa-Methyldopa (D) Indomethacin 4. Total iron requirement in Pregnancy is: (A) 100-200 mgm. (B) 300-500 mgm. (C) 800-1000 mgm. (D) 1000-2000 mgm. 5. Spalding's sign appears as early as: (A) 6hrs. (B) 24 hrs. (C) 48 hrs. (D) 1 week 6. All the maneuvers are used in management of shoulder dystocia except: (A) McRobert's (B) Wood's (C ) Lovset's (D) Rubin's 7. Early clamping of cord is indicated in all deliveries except: (A) Rh negative (B) Fetal asphyxia (C) Pre-maturity (D) Post-maturity. 8. Antidote for Magnesium Sulphate toxicity is: (A) Sodabicarb (B) Ca Gluconate (C) 25% Dextrose (D) Mephentine. (8x1/2 = 4 marks)

Paper 1- OBSTETRICS including SOCIAL OBSTETRICS II. Match the following:1. Monozygotic Twins 2. Alfa fetoprotein 3. Breech 4. Proterm labour 5. Deep transverse arrest 6. Anaemia (a) Reticulocyte Count (b) Wernicke's Encephalopathy. (c) Hydramnios (d) Renal agenisis (e) Ext. version

(f) Meningocoele

7. Hyper emesis 8. Oligohydramnios

(g) Tocolytics (h) Android Pelvis.

THIRD PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, AUGUST 2002 Part II Obstetrics and Gynaecology Paper II GYNAECOLOGY including FAMILY WELFARE AND DEMOGRAPHY Time: 2 Hours Maximum: 40 Marks Multiple choice Questions to be answered first in the Response sheet provided Section A I. Multiple Choice Questions (on attached sheet) II. Match the following (on attached sheet) III.Draw diagram and label: (a) Attachments of uterosacral ligament. (b) Microscopic structure of Hydatidifom mole

(8x1/2 = 4 marks) (8x1/2 = 4 marks)

(2x1= n2 marks)

IV.Short answer questions: 1. Follicular study 2. Meig's syndrome 3. TV Vaginitis 4. Norplant V. Write short notes on: 1. Triphasic pills 2. Rectocoele 3. Cystoglandular Hyperplasia

(4x1 = 4 marks)

(3x2 = 6 marks)

Section B VI.Read this report answer the following: 55 year old obese, hypertensive and diabetic lady complaining of bleeding per vaginum. 1. What is the most probable diagnosis? 2. Discuss the clinical features of that condition. 3. Discuss one reliable investigation for diagnosing the condition. 4. What are the steps of Abdominal hysterectomy? (1+3+3+3 = 10 marks) VII.Short answer questions: (a) Azoospermia (b) Female condom (c) CIN III (d) Imperforate Hymen (4x1 = 4 marks) VIII.Write short notes on: 1. Lymphatic drainage of cervix. 2. MTP Act of India 3. Ovulation pain. (3x2 = 6 marks)

1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Paper II GYNAECOLOGY including FAMILY WELFARE AND DEMOGRAPHY Note:(1) Do not write anything on the question paper. (2)Write your register number on the answer sheet provided. (3) Select the one most appropriate response and encircle the corresponding alphabet against each question in the answer sheet provided. (4) In the answer sheet enter the total number of your response in the appropriate provided.

1. 2.

3. 4.

5.

6.

7. 8.

(5) Each question carries mark. Hyperprolactinaemia can produce: (A) Infertility (B) Galactorrhoea. (C) Amenorrhoea (D) All of the above. Danazol is used in all of the following except: (A) Endometriosis (B) Hirsuitism (C) Fibroid (D) DUB Intrauterine devices can be used for: (A) Postcoital contraception (B) Asherman Syndrome (C) Contraception (D) All of the above. Germcell tumors of the ovary are the following except: (A) Brenner tumor (B) Dysgerminoma. (C) Teratoma (D) Endodermal sinus tumor Retention of urine can be caused by all except: (A) Pelvic haematocoele (B) Fundal anterior fibroid (C) Retroverted gravid uterus (D) Cervical fibroid Colposcopic findings suggestive of CIN are all except: (A) Aceto white epithelium (B) Mosaicism (C) Ectopion (D)Punctation Commonest site of tubal gestation: (A) Isthmial (B) Cornual (C) Ampullary (D) Fimbrial Genital tract develops from: (A) Mullerian ducts. (B) Wolfian ducts (C ) Yolk Sac (D) Cloaca

(8x1/2 = 4 marks)

Paper II GYNAECOLOGY including FAMILY WELFARE AND DEMOGRAPHY III.Match the following:-

1. Postmeno pausal bleeding 2. CIN III 3. Choriocarcinoma 4. Aries Stella reaction 5. Germ cell tumour 6. Cervical incompetence 7. Chocolate cyst 8. Laparosocopy

(a) Cone biopsy

(b) Pheumoperitoneum (c ) Ecotopic gestation (d) Recurrent abortion (e) Danazol (f) Methotrexate (g) Dysgerminoma (h) Ca endometrium (8x1/2 = 4 marks)