1.

ANSWER KEY IN PRE-TEST

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A trunk is ___ a. The base of a communication tower b. A line connecting oe telephone set to the PABX c. The structure where antennas are attached d. A telephone line connecting two Cos The simplest form of coding is __________. a. Diphase b. Hybrid c. Compressed d. Linear e. Quadratic

The equation f > 2BW is known as _________. a. Shannon Theorem b. Nyquist Criterion c. Erlang Law d. Edison Effect Waveguide is a ________. a. Device used to determine the wavelength of a signal b. Hollow metal tube used for transmission of Microwave Energy c. Plastic tubular transmission line for high RF network d. Braided wire used for transmission of HF Memory is added to the telephone set to a. Allow more digits to be dialed b. Allow faster dialing c. Allow automatic redialing of the last number dialed d. None of these The value of the resistor creating thermal noise is doubled, the noise power generated is therefore ______. a. b. c. d. Halved Quadrupled Doubled Unchanged

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Whether or not polarization of an antenna is linear depends on __________. a. Changes in direction in which the electric plane is radiated. b. The direction in which the electric plane is radiated. c. The horizontal or vertical plane of the electric wave d. The direction in which the magnetic wave is radiated In practice, the transmission lines are most connected to antennas that have a _______. a. Resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristics impedance of the line b. Resistive load whose resistance is less than the characteristic impedance of the line c. Resistive load at the resonant frequency d. Capacity Load Sampling the analog wave produces _________. a. Impulse Noise b. Phase Distortion c. Pulse Amplitude Modulation d. Frequency Coherence When the transmission line is matched to the load, it _______. a. Transfers maximum current to the load b. Transfers maximum voltage to the load c. Transfers maximum power to the load d. Reduces the load current

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What is the function of the diode rectifier bridge in the line circuit of a telephone? a. Lower the voltage to the telephone electronics b. Raise the voltage to the telephone c. Short out the line when the set is on-hook d. Protect the set against polarity reversals on the line Satellite that orbit in a circular pattern with an angular velocity equal to that of the earth is __________. a. Geostationary b. Early Bird I c. Syncom I d. Stationary Satellite Between two quantizers, the quality of one with the lower Signal to Quantizing Noise Ratio (SQR) will be ________. a. Higher b. Lower c. The same d. Not measurable

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The signal path from transmitter to satellite is __________. a. Uplink Signal b. Reflected Signal c. Incident Signal d. Downlink Signal If the code is only 4-bits for a T-1 system with a frame of 193 bits, how many channels can be transmitted? a. 48 b. 64 c. 6 d. 24 Which office class is the local central office? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 What bad electrical effect happens when the switchook is opened? a. A high voltage transient is generated b. The line is shorted out c. The line is opened d. No bad effects happen The _________ angle measures the satellite position clockwise from the direction of true North is a. Azimuth b. Elevation c. Depression d. Critical If the code word is 4 bit for T-1 system with a frame of 193 bits, what is the bit rate in mbps? a. 0.722 b. 3.008 c. 1.544 d. Coverage Area The earths area that the satellite can receive from or transmit to is ______. a. Footprint b. Primary Area c. 1.544 d. 1.024 The most common carrier frequencies used for satellite communications are ________. a. 6/4 and 14/12 GHz Bands b. 8/6 and 16/14 GHz Bands c. 20/18 and 28/26 GHz Bands d. 12/10 and 18/16 GHz Bands It represents energy that has neither been radiated into space nor

completely transmitted. a. Standing Waves b. Captured Waves c. Incident Waves d. Modulated Waves 23. The signal path from satellite to earth-based receiver is ___________. a. Downlink Signal b. Uplink Signal c. Incident Signal d. Reflected Signal _____________ refers to the ratio of phasor fields E and H for a plane (TEM) wave in an unbounded medium. a. Wave impedance b. Load impedance c. Intrinsic Impedance d. Characteristics Impedance __________ is the quotient of maximum radiation intensity over the average radiation intensity. a. Aperture gain b. Directivity gain c. Transmission gain d. Power gain Another term for Amplitude Modulation (AM) is ___________. a. Double Sideband Full Carrier (DSBF) b. Single Sideband Suppressed Carrier (SSBC) c. Frequency Modulation (FM) d. Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) Fold-over distortion of aliasing is _______________. a. Eliminated by filtering out frequencies below 300 Hz b. Another name for Crosstalk c. The Presence by Spurious Frequencies caused by having high frequencies in the sampled signal d. Eliminated by using Twisted Wires A pulse Amplitude Modulator uses a modulating signal whose frequency is 3 KHz maximum. The practical sampling frequency is ________. a. b. c. d. 29. 6 KHz 7.25 KHz 2.5 KHz 3 KHz

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The main purpose of a 19 KHz pilot in a stereo multiplexed signal in FM

is for the receiver to ______. a. Indicate stereo reception b. Demodulate c. Modulate d. Overmodulate 30. ______________ is an operation performed at the transmitter to achieve efficient and reliable information transmission. a. Transmission b. Filtering c. Modulation d. Multiplexing Another name for multiplier circuit is ______. a. Balanced modulator b. Discriminator c. Clipper d. Integrator A process that uses the orthogonality of sines and cosines that makes possible to transmit and receive to different signals simultaneously on the same carrier frequency is: a. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) b. Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM) c. Quadrature Multiplexing d. Duplexing One section in a D-1 channel bank handles _________ voice channels a. 12 b. 20 c. 24 d. 48 The information of an AM signal resides in the a. Upper Sideband Only b. Lower Sideband c. Upper and Lower Sideband only d. Carrier Signal The process of varying some characteristics of high frequency sine wave in accordance with the variation of the modulating signal is called ______. a. Communication b. Propagation c. Restoration d. Modulation Best HF radio communications between two distant countries is achieved when the F-1 and F-2 layers of the ionosphere recombine and other layers disappear during _____________. 37.

a. b. c. d.

Night time Noon time Break time Both a and b

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Cellular mobile telephone service ___. a. Uses many low power transmitters with computer control rather than a few high power transmitters b. Is a concept of improving frequency utilization by restricting users to a single or home area called a cell c. Is another name of IMTS d. Uses high power transmitters ___________ is the sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per unit of time. a. Sound stress b. Coherence c. Sound Intensity d. Loudness

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A _____ filter passes the lower frequency portion of a signal but attenuates the higher frequency portion of the same signal. a. Low Pass b. High Pass c. Band Stop d. Band Pass

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Modulation is used to __________. a. Increase the carrier power b. Reduce the bandwidth used c. Allow the use of practical antennas d. Shorten the transmission channel In radio communication the maximum permissible departure by the center frequency of the frequency band occupied by an emission from assigned channel or, by the characteristic frequency of an emission from the reference frequency __________. a. Frequency Tolerance b. Assigned Frequency c. Frequency Bandwidth d. Center Frequency A pre-emphasis circuit improves the signal-to-noise ratio of an FM signal by _____. a. Amplifying the higher audio

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frequencies Boosting the bass frequencies c. Amplifying the whole frequency band d. Increasing the carrier power b. 43. A superheterodyne receiver with an IF of 455 KHz is tuned to a signal to 1100 KHz. The image frequency is ____. a. 645 KHz b. 910 KHz c. 1555 KHz d. 2010 KHz Grounding resistance should be kept as low as possible and should not exceed _______ ohms for outside plant telephone poles, manholes and customer premises a. 5 b. 25 c. 0 d. 50 In a communications system, noise is most likely to affect the signal ______. a. At the transmitter b. In the channel c. In the information source d. At the destination

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c. Refraction d. Reflection e. Tilting An amplifier has an input of 100mW and an output of 10W. The gain is ___ a. 10 b. 20 c. 50 d. 100 e. 200 As electromagnetic waves travel in free space, only one of the following can happen to them a. Absorption b. Attenuation c. Refraction d. Reflection A matched tapping device for insertion in a CATV cable which introduces a loss of only 1 dB in the through transmission and provides a spur outlet a. Attenuator b. Directional coupler c. F-connector d. splitter e. T-pad The standard reference antenna for the directive gain a. Elementary dipole b. Half-wave dipole c. Hertzian dipole d. Isotropic antenna e. Infinitesimal dipole A process applied to a multiple signal for recovering signals combined within it and for restoring the distinct individual channels of these signals a. De-emphasizing b. Detection c. Demultiplexing d. Modulation One example of a nonresonant antenna a. Discone b. Folded dipole c. Hertz antenna d. Marconi antenna e. Rhombic antenna Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on__ a. 2 or more different frequencies b. 2 or more antennas operating on different frequencies c. 2 or more antennas operating on the same frequency d. 2 or more identical

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In a standard TV broadcast channel, the AM picture carrier signal is a. 0.25MHz b. 0.6MHz c. 1.25MHz d. 4MHz e. 3.75MHz Frequencies in the UHF propagate by means of __ a. Ground waves b. Surface waves c. Sky waves d. Space waves range

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In superheterodyne receivers, refers to the erroneous frequency difference resulting in an incorrect frequency being fed to the IF amplifier a. Crosstalk b. Crossline c. Intermodulation d. Mixing error e. Tracking error f. The ground wave eventually disappear as it moves farther away from the transmitter, because of a. Diffraction b. Interference from skywave

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frequencies 57. 58. An antenna polarized that is circularly

Losses in optical fibers is not caused by___ a. Glass attenuation b. Impurities c. Microbending d. Tyndall dispersion e. Stepped index operation EIRP is the actual power radiated by the antenna multiplied by the ___ of the antenna a. Isotropic power gain b. Free space losses c. Length d. Loss e. K factor Known as muting or quieting is a device that cuts off the output in the absence of a carrier to eliminate noise a. Butterworth filter b. Echo canceller c. Hybrid d. noise limiter e. squelch When electromagnetic waves are propagated in a waveguide, they___. a. Are reflected from walls but not travel along them b. Travel along the broader walls of the guide c. Travel along the 4 walls of the waveguide d. Travel through the dielectric without touching the walls Increasingly, new satellites operate in the Ku-band which are in the ___________ Ghz range. a. 11 to 13 b. 21 to 30 c. 11 to 14.5 d. 4 to 6 Noise that is non-continuous, consisting of irregular pulses or noise spikes of short duration with high amplitudes. a. White noise b. Thermal noise c. Galactic noise d. Impulse noise A communication network used by one organization over a limited distance that allows users with PCs

to be linked together and share information and resources is called ________. a. Timesharing b. LAN c. Distributed processing d. WAN 65. How can absorptive fading happen? a. K-factor b. Rain attenuation c. Ducting d. Inversion Simultaneous transmission of 2 or more signals over a single medium. a. Full duplex b. Half duplex c. Full-full duplex d. Simplex In telecommunications signaling concept, the status of the network in the presence of a demand and a connection is __________. a. Busy hour b. Seizure c. Idle d. Grade of service Erasable Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Echo is _____________. a. A signal of the same amplitude but 180 degrees out of phase from the original and mixed with original signal at the transmitter to produce a more intelligible output signal b. A wave which has been reflected or otherwise returned with sufficient magnitude and delay for it to be perceptible in some manner as a wave distinct from that directly transmitted c. The signal having a higher frequency than the original and transmitted back to earth by a passive satellite d. All of these The slight lowering of resonant frequency due to small amount of capacitance presented by the insulators and wire loop that ties the insulator to the antenna is known as ______. a. Miller Effect b. Dellinger Effect c. End effect d. Ramsauer Effect e. Skin effect e.

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e. 70. The frequency range over which antenna operation is satisfactory and is generally taken between half power or 3 dB down points. a. Bandwidth b. Beamwidth c. Polarization d. Carrier Frequency The property of an antenna that causes it to receive signals better than one direction than in others is _____. a. Directivity b. Radiation Pattern c. Reciprocity d. Front-to- Back Ratio e. Harmonic Operation It shortens the physical length of antenna by an equivalent effect of adding capacitance in series with the antenna, reducing its total capacitive reactance. a. Counterpoise b. Top Hat c. Loading Coil d. Microstrip e. None of these The digital to analog converter in a synchronous modem sends signals to the ____. a. Modulator b. Transmission Line c. Terminal d. Equalizer e. Tuner A radiations system consisting of grouped radiators or elements placed close together to be within each others induction field to produce a certain radiation pattern. a. Dipole Arrays b. Quarterwave Matching c. Delta Matching d. Parasitic Elements e. Quaggi The gain of a parabolic antenna is influenced by the ____. a. Aperture Ratio b. Capture Area c. Mouth Diameter d. Illumination Efficiency e. All of these Which of the following transmission media is not readily suitable to CSMA operation a. Radio b. Optical Fibers c. Coaxial Cable d. Twisted Pair 77.

None of these

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The core of an optical fiber has ___. a. A lower index of refraction than air b. A lower index of refraction than the cladding c. A higher index of refraction than the cladding d. Equal index of refraction to that of the cladding At microwave frequencies, the LOS distance is sometimes extended through the occurrence of ___. a. Ionospheric Reflections b. Fog c. Sporadic E d. Dellinger Dropouts e. Ducting The best system configuration to overcome multipath fading on over-the water propagation a. Angle diversity b. Frequency diversity c. Non-diversity d. Space diversity Layer 1 of the OSI model is a. Link layer b. Network layer c. Physical layer d. Session layer Color TV is made possible through the combination of the primary colors of a. blue, yellow, green b. red, green, blue c. red, white , blue d. white, red, green A type of modulation technique that conveys audio information from one station to another by varying the carrier frequency at the audio rate a. Amplitude modulation b. Frequency modulation c. Quadrature modulation d. Phase modulation The applications layer of the OSI model is the a. First layer b. Second layer c. Seventh layer d. Sixth layer e. Third layer Causes modulation either in its internal circuitry or in another associated circuit a. Detector b. Modulator c. Multivibrator d. Multiplexer e. Phasor The half-power points of the beamwidth of the front lobe of a

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directional antenna is the point equal to a. 0.707 b. 0.636 c. 0.318 d. 0.5 e. 1.414 A tuned amplifier uses___ load a. Capacitive b. Inductive c. LC tank d. Resistive When a single antenna is intended to be used for transmitting and receiving , it is necessary to use__ a. Combiner b. Diplexer c. Duplexer d. Multiplexer e. Transponder The receivers ability to receive both very weak and extremely strong stations without introducing distortion a. Dynamic range b. Effective range c. Figure of merit d. Sensitivity e. Selectivity The T-1 North American digital system has 24 channels and require a transmission speed of a. 64 kbps b. 640 kbps c. 960 kbps d. 1.54 Mbps e. 2.048 Mbps It a system which provides the longest digital transmission distances a. Computer bus b. Digital PBX c. Local area network d. Voice band modem When modulating frequency is disabled , the modulation index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant. The modulating system is __ a. Amplitude modulation b. Frequency modulation c. Phase modulation d. Pulse modulation Which of the functions is not provided as part of the basic Ethernet design? a. Access control b. Addressing c. Automatic retransmission d. Multiple virtual networks The frequency the oscillator must be set at for an output of 95 kHz if the output of the oscillator is being fed to two frequency triplers connected in cascaded form a. 6.3 MHz

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b. 9.65 MHz c. 10.56 MHz d. 15.8 MHz A resonant circuit contains ___ element a. R and L b. Only R c. R and C d. L and C At resonance, a circuit behaves as a ___ load a. Capacitive b. Inductive c. magnetic d. PN junction e. Resistive Pre-emphasis and de-emphasis are used in the FM stereo multiplex system to improve__ a. Current ratio b. CMRR c. Power ratio d. Standing wave ratio e. Signal-to-noise ratio At series resonance, the voltage across L is___ voltage across C a. Equal to but in phase with b. Equal to out of phase with c. Greater than but in phase with d. Less than but in phase with Audio pitch refers to _________. a. Frequency b. Harmonics c. Amplitude d. Phase A characteristic of radio receiver to amplify a peak signal and produce a desirable intelligence at the output of the speaker. a. Sensitivity b. Selectivity c. Reliability d. Fidelity As the modulation level is increased, the carrier power ______. a. Is increased b. Is decreased c. Remains the same d. Either a or b

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1. The slight lowering of resonant frequency due to small amount of capacitance presented by the insulators and wire loop that ties the insulator to the antenna is known as ______. f. Miller Effect g. Dellinger Effect

h. End effect i. Ramsauer Effect j. Skin effect 2. According to the Philippine Electronics Code, the minimum allowable vertical clearance above the ground is at least ___ meters when wires are crossing or installed along public thoroughfares in urban areas. a. 5.5 b. 4.5 c. 4.0 d. 3.5 e. 3.0 3. The frequency range over which antenna operation is satisfactory and is generally taken between half power or 3 dB down points. a. Bandwidth b. Beamwidth c. Polarization d. Carrier Frequency 4. According to this law, passing the Board Examinations administered by the PRC may be converted into equivalent Civil Service Eligibility to pass preparatory requirements for government service. a. RA 1080 b. PD 1081 c. RA 184 d. RA 3850 e. RA 6511 5. The property of an antenna that causes it to receive signals better than one direction than in others is _____. a. Directivity b. Radiation Pattern c. Reciprocity d. Front-to- Back Ratio e. Harmonic Operation 6. According to the Philippines Electronics Code, grounding rods must take the shortest route connected directly to master ground bus or direct to earth without any intervening splices or sharp bends. The standard diameter for grounding rods is _____. a. AWG Nr 10 b. AWG Nr 2 c. AWG Nr 33 d. AWG Nr 12 e. AWG Nr 16 7. ______ consists of radials supported above the ground and is used as a substitute for ground screen in areas of low conductivity. 8.

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a. Counterpoise b. Grounding rod c. Lightning rod d. Spark-Gap e. Top Hat The scrambler in a synchronous modem is in the _____. a. Control Section b. Receiver Section c. Transmitter Section d. Terminal Section e. Antenna Ungrounded antennas which are normally used for frequencies above 3 Megahertz are called ____. a. Hertz Antennas b. Marconi Antenna c. Yagi-Uda d. LPDA e. Zepp Antenna Binary codes are sometimes transformed in modems into ____. a. Hexadecimal b. Huffman codes c. Gray code d. Complementary codes e. Supplementary codes It shortens the physical length of antenna by an equivalent effect of adding capacitance in series with the antenna, reducing its total capacitive reactance. a. Counterpoise b. Top Hat c. Loading Coil d. Microstrip e. None of these The digital to analog converter in a synchronous modem sends signals to the ____. a. Modulator b. Transmission Line c. Terminal d. Equalizer e. Tuner A radiations system consisting of grouped radiators or elements placed close together to be within each others induction field to produce a certain radiation pattern. a. Dipole Arrays b. Quarterwave Matching c. Delta Matching d. Parasitic Elements e. Quaggi ____ created the Board of Communications (BOC) which became the first quasi- judicial body with adjudicatory powers on matters involving telecommunications services. a. RA 1476

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b. Integral Reorganization Law of 1972 c. EO Nr 546 d. PD 55 e. PD 1081 A multi- element antenna in which all the elements are excited through a transmission line _____. a. Driven Array b. Parasitic Array c. Phased Array d. Loop Array e. None of these _________ integrated the Telecommunications Bureau created in 1974 and the Board of Communications into one entity now known as the National Telecommunications Commission, under the administrative control of the Ministry of Transportation and Communications and was empowered to supervise, adjudicate and control all telecommunications services throughout the country. a. E.O. 546 b. RA 3846 c. RA 5734 d. E.O. 109 e. E.O. 125 In an antenna array, the ___ elements are not connected to the transmitter output, rather, the elements obtain their power through coupling to another element and they may act as reflectors or directors. a. Parasitic b. Driven c. Compound d. Complex e. None of these According to the Philippine Electronics Code, the minimum threshold current (in RMS) in a circuit whereby ventricular fibrillation will most likely occur is ____ and may therefore be classified as hazardous to humans whose wet skin resistance is about 1500 Ohms. a. 0.030 Amperes b. 300 Amperes c. 30 Amperes d. 3 Amperes e. None of these A parasitic element which is longer than the driven element in an antenna array and acts like a concave mirror is called _____. a. Reflector b. Director c. Collimator

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d. Phasor e. None of these To prevent hazards of electric shock, what protection method/s must an ECE use? a. Shielding and Grounding b. Voltage Limiting c. Direct Bonding, Surge Arrester d. Discharge Gaps and Fuse e. All of these A linear antenna array whose arrangement consists of a number of dipoles of equal size, equally spaced along a straight line with all dipoles fed in the same phase from the same source and whose radiation is towards the side of the array. a. Broadside Array b. Endfire Array c. Phased Array d. LPDA e. None of these Acoustic shock results from abnormally high sound level, the physical effects of which may vary from minor discomfort to serious injury. The amplitude of sound pressure must not exceed ____ above 2x 10-4 microbar at 1000 Hertz reference tone. a. 0 dB b. 30 dB c. 33 dB d. 120 dB e. 200 dB A single turn coil consisting of 2 elements, one is directly fed and the other conductively coupled at the ends. It carries RF current mostly in phase and has an impedance of 300 Ohms, almost four times that of a Hertz dipole.

a. Folded Dipole b. Yagi- Uda c. Quaggi d. Zepp Antenna e. Discone Antenna 24. According to the Philippine Electronics Code, the average resistance of a dry adult human body is about ___. a. 1 MegOhm b. 1500 Ohms c. 1 KiloOhm d. 2 KiloOhms e. None of these 25. The gain of a parabolic antenna is influenced by the ____. a. Apperture Ratio b. Capture Area c. Mouth Diameter

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d. Illumination Efficiency e. All of these Refers to the set of rules and regulations of the construction, installation, establishment operation of radio stations and the possession, ownership, manufacture, purchase, sale and transfer of transceiver a. DO Nr. 88 b. DO Nr. 11 c. DO Nr.69 d. Do. Nr.55 e. DO Nr. 33 The effective area of the parabolic reflector calculated from power receiver in comparison with the power density of the received signal a. Capture area b. Collimation factor c. Edge taper d. Front-to-back ratio e. Spill-over In the code of professional ethics and conduct, the moral philosophy guiding the ECE are a. Courage, integrity and loyalty b. Duty, country and honor c. Honesty, justice and courtesy d. Duty, honor and loyalty A type of feed mechanism to improve the directivity of a parabolic antenna whereby a hyperboloid secondary reflector is used and rays from the feedhorn are reflected from paraboloidal mirror which renders therays para;;e; or collimated to each other a. Cassegrain feed b. Horn antenna c. Offset paraboloid d. Small dipole array e. Spherical reflector The official seal of the ECE board has a diameter of 1 and 7/8 inches. It is composed of the markingsElectronics and Communications Engineering Board of Examiners except a. Atoms and electrons b. Circumferential dots and dashes c. Lightning d. Satellite antenna Microwave antennas used for frequencies 10 Gigahertz and above, collimates and straightens out wavefronts by greatly slowing down the portion of the wave in the center

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a. Cass-horn b. Conical horn c. Hog horn d. Lens antennas e. Skeptical horn This law requires radio franchise and certificate of public convenience and necessity (CPCN) for the operation of communications utilities, wire or wireless telephone or telegraph systems and other similar public telecommunications utilities a. EO 546 of 1979 b. DO 88 of 1988 c. RA 3846 of 1931 d. RA 3850 e. DO 11 of 1951 The function of a lens antenna is to ensure that signals are in phase after they have passed through the antenna. For lower microwave frequencies or strongly curved wavefronts, problems of excessive thickness and absorption of large portion of radiation is experienced in lens antenna. This problem of thickness is solved by___ a. Focusing b. Jumping c. Stepping d. Zoning The receive equalizer in a synchronous modem a. Adaptive b. Compromise c. Impairment d. Statistical e. terminator A type of antenna used for broadband VHF /UHF transionospheric communications and has circular polarization a. Antenna array b. Cass horn c. Discone d. Helical antenna e. Parabolic antenna Otherwise known as Ship Radio Station Law a. RA 3396 b. RA 3846 c. RA 5734 d. RA7925 e. RA1476 An antenna array consisting of a number of electrically connected dipoles of different lengths and spacing fed from 2 wire lines transposed between each adjacent pair of dipoles fed from the narrow end where maximum radiation occurs

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a. Broadside array b. Endfire array c. Log periodic dipole array d. Helical array e. Quanggi The receive equalizer reduces relay distortion using a. Diode matrix b. Descrambler c. Difference engine d. Gearshift e. Tapped delay line In the XMODEM protocol, the sender waits for what character from the receiver before beginning transmission a. ACK b. EOT c. NAK d. RVI e. WACK The CCITT V.26 modem has a modulation rate of__ a. 1200 Hz b. 1200 bauds c. 1560 cps d. 2400 kbps e. 6400bps If each character in an XMODEM block has an ASCII value of 50, what would be the value of checksum added to the block? a. 23 b. 25 c. 41 d. 50 e. 100 The transmission signal coding method used for T-1 carrier a. Bipolar b. Binary c. Hollerith d. Manchester e. NRZ Which of the following is not a valid rule for XOR? a. 0 XOR 0 =0 b. B XOR B = 0 c. 1 XOR 1 = 1 d. A XOR A = 0 e. 1 XOR 0 =1 Multiplexing is___ a. The process of increasing bandwidth on a channel b. Mailing letters at the Post Office c. A technique which enables more than one data source to share the use of a common line d. The ability to share frequency by time

45. How many messages may be outstanding (unacknowledged ) on a BiSync kink? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. 10 46. One of the reasons frequency division multiplexing has essentially been replaced by time division multiplexing is because: a. There is more time than frequency b. It is difficult to place channels side by side c. Noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used d. Most available frequencies have been used 47. Which code set is used in Bisync when using VRC/LRC but is not operating in transparency code? a. EBCDIC b. ASCII c. SBT d. Field data e. Trellis Code 48. When the amplitude of pulses is varied to represent analog information, the method is called _____. a. PCM b. PWM c. PAM d. PPM e. WDM 49. Which of the following transmission systems provide the highest data rate to an individual device? a. Voice Band Modem b. Local Area Network c. Computer Bus d. Digital PBX e. None of these 50. The PCM sampling rate is 8000 samples per second because ____. a. That represents the maximum rate technology supports b. This rate allows unique values c. This rate allows the faithful reconstruction of an analog signal d. This rate is easily produced by a sampling chip 51. The data rate of the ISDN Basic Access B channel is ____. a. 32 kbps b. 64 kbps

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c. 144 kbps d. 192 kbps e. None of these In general, digital transmission provides a higher level of signal quality than analog transmission because ____. a. Repeaters regenerate digital pulses and remove distortion while amplifiers increase an analog signal, including any prior signal distortion. b. Digital signals are smaller than analog signals and cannot be easily distorted. c. Analog signals are continuous and are not easily distorted. d. Digital signals are easier to sample than analog signals e. Both (b) and (d) The data rate of the IDSN Basic Access D channel is _____. a. 64 kbps b. 16 kbps c. 8 kbps d. 144 kbps e. 356 kbps The D-4 framing pattern contains a sequence of ____. a. 24 bits b. 4 terminal and 8 framing bits c. 8 terminal and 4 framing bits d. 12 bits e. 36 bits The equation that defines the composition of an ISDN Basic Access Line is____. a. 2B + D b. B+ D c. B+ 2D d. 2B+ 2D e. 3B + 4D Bipolar signaling is used in place of unipolar signaling on T-1 lines because _____. a. Bipolar produces twice as many marks as a unipolar signal b. It allows transmission at polar locations c. It allows transformers to be spaced far from one another which reduces the cost of transmission d. Bipolar signaling reduces residual voltage build- up, allowing a digital signal to be

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separated from power through the use of a transformer. e. None of these In North America, the equation that defines the composition of an ISDN Primary Access line is ____. a. 30B +D b. 2B +D c. B + D d. 23B + D e. 35 B+ 6D B7 Zero Code Suppression is a technique which ____. a. Allows data to flow on a digital line b. Ensures each byte has at least one mark bit c. Is the latest clear channel encoding technique developed by Bell Laboratories d. Provides clear channel transmission capability allowing 64 kbps data transmission on a voice channel e. None of these Which of the following systems provides the longest digital transmission distances? a. Parallel transmission b. Unlimited Expansion c. Low cost access for low bandwidth channels d. Application independent interfaces e. None of these International bipolar violations _____. a. Represent coding errors caused by line impairments b. Result in successive marks having opposite polarities c. Are used to convey information or maintain a minimum number of ones on a digital line. d. Occur only in laboratories e. Occur at the North and South Poles simultaneously Which of the following transmission media is not readily suitable to CSMA operation a. Radio b. Optical Fibers c. Coaxial Cable d. Twisted Pair e. None of these Demultiplexing by a Time Division Multiplexer occurs based on ___.

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67.

68.

a. The position of data within a frame b. The position of a frame within a group of frames c. The activity of a connected device d. The priority assigned to a connected device Which of the following functions is not provided as part of the basic Ethernet design? a. Access Control b. Addressing c. Automatic Message Retransmission d. Multiple Virtual Networks The requirements for a successful transmission system using light are ___. a. Powerful, reliable light source b. Strong glass c. Reliable, low cost transmission medium d. Powerful amplifies e. Both (a) and (c) Which of the following is not a useful property of a Manchester line code for an Ethernet? a. Continuous Energy b. Continuous Clock Transitions c. No DC Component d. No signal change at 1 to 0 transition e. All of these The core of an optical fiber has ___. a. A lower index of refraction than air b. A lower index of refraction than the cladding c. A higher index of refraction than the cladding d. Equal index of refraction to that of the cladding The network interface that will permit equipment without an ISDN interface to be connected into an ISDN interface is known as ____. a. TE-1 b. TE-2 c. TA d. TM-1 e. TM-2 For single- mode fibers, the core diameter is about ____. a. 10 times the Fiber Radius b. 3 times the wavelength of light carried in the fiber c. 15 Micrometers

d. 10 times the wavelength of the light carried in the fiber 69. Which of the following data communications functions is generally provided for in a LAN? a. Data Link Control b. Applications Processing c. Flow Control d. Routing e. None of these Over a period of 30 years, a kilometer of fiber optic cable is likely to be broken ____. a. Not at all b. Once c. 10 times d. 2 or 3 times e. None of these The purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet is____. a. Clock Synchronization b. Error Checking c. Collision Avoidance d. Broadcast e. None of these Deposition of dopants on fiber performs is done by__ a. Axial deposition b. Inside vapor deposition c. Outside vapor deposition d. All of these Which of the following is possible in a token-passing bus network? a. In-service expansion b. Multiple time division c. Unlimited number of stations d. Unlimited distances A light emitting diode is able to couple how much power into an optical fiber? a. 10 watts b. 10 Milliwatts c. 100 microwatts d. 1 picowatt e. 1 watts A LAN architecture which can be expanded to the greatest total system bandwidth a. Broadband cable system b. CSMA/CD baseband c. Digital PBX d. Token-passing network Avalanche photodiode receivers can detect bits of transmitted data by receiving a. 1 photon b. 10 photons c. 100 photons d. 200 photons e. 1000 photons

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77. The number of channels on which different operations can occur simultaneously on one ISDN basic access line a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 78. When the index of refraction is greater than material 1 than it is in material 2, the velocity of propagation in material 1 compared to material 2 is__ a. Equal to or greater than b. Greater c. Lesser d. Equal e. None of these 79. Which of the following systems is the most capable of servicing a wide range of applications? a. Broadband cable system b. CSMA/CD baseband c. Digital PBX d. Token-passing network 80. The different angles of entry of light into optical fiber where the diameter of the core is many times the wavelength of the light transmitted are called__ a. Emitters b. Modes c. Sensors d. Refractors e. Reflectors 81. Digital telephones and integrated voice-data work stations are examples of this type of ISDN equipment a. NT2 b. TA c. TE d. TM e. TP 82. In a single-mode fibers, a large fraction of the power is propagated in the: a. Air b. Cladding c. Junctions or splices d. Sheath e. Core 83. A characteristic of toke passing ring as opposed to a token passing bus a. Flexible polling interface b. Passive interface c. Priority access capabilities d. Signal quality control 84. The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber a. Absorption b. Attenuation

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

c. Propagation d. Scattering e. Reflection Not a motivation for digitizing a voice signal in the telephone of a digital PBX a. Fewer wire pairs b. Lower cost telephones c. Multiplexed voice and data channels d. Simplified control signaling The coupling efficiency of an LED light source to an optical fiber with a numerical aperture of 0.2 or more is a. 0.1% b. 2% c. 10% d. 30% e. 60% The electrical state of the control leads in a serial interface is a concern of__ a. Link layer b. Data link layer c. Physical layer d. Network layer The FT 3C light wave system contains the following number of fibers__ a. 12 b. 64 c. 128 d. 144 e. 256 Not a characteristic of the hub architecture of ARCnet a. Directionalized transmission b. RIM port isolation c. Zero insertion loss amplifiers d. Alternative routing A geostationary satellite used for communications systems is not/does not__ a. Remains stationary relative to earths surface b. Rotates with the earth c. Stationary in the sky The X.25 standard specifies a__ a. Data bit rate b. DTE/DCE interface c. Technique for dial access d. Technique for start-stop data Multiple repeaters in communications satellites are known as__ a. Detectors b. Diplexers c. Modulators d. Stations

e. transponders 93. The transmission of data on an ISDN line between a customers premises and a carrier central office is encoded using__ a. 2BIQ encoding b. Hexadecimal encoding c. BCH encoding d. Octal encoding e. QAM 94. The bandwidth required to send 132 voice-grade channels by FDM on an international satellite system a. 10 MHZ b. 50MHZ c. 500MHz d. 1320 MHz e. 22.5GHz 95. The X.25 standard is__ a. Complete description of a public data network b. Required for all packet switching networks c. A recommendation of the CCITT d. Used by all packet terminals 96. Communications protocols always have a____ a. BCC b. Start-stop bits c. Set of symbols d. Start of header e. Special flag symbols 97. Cannot be provided in broadband LAN a. CCTV b. Frequency agile modems c. Fiber optic transmissions d. Voice circuits 98. The Baudot Code uses how many bits per symbol a. 4 b. 5 c. 7 d. 8 e. 9 99. Not possible in a digital(data) PBX using twisted pair transmission a. Computer port concentration b. 64 kbps circuits c. High speed file transfers d. Transmission up to several thousand feet 100. When transmitting odd parity coded symbols, the number of bits that are zeroes in each symbol is: a. Even b. Odd c. Unknown

d. None of these 101. The electrical state of the control leads in a serial interface is a concern of the ___layer protocol a. data b. Link c. Network d. Physical e. Session 102. The Hamming distance between the characters 1001101 and 1011011 a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. 4 103. Not considered a primary objective of data networking a. Accuracy b. Packet switching c. Security d. Timeliness 104. Radiation of electrical energy is practicable only above__kHz a. 5 b. 10 c. 30 d. 12 e. 15 105. The X.25 standard specifies a__ a. Data bit rate b. DTE/DCE c. Technique for dial access d. Technique for start-stop data 106. Which of these statements is false? Convolutional codes ___ a. Are a form of block code b. Are also called recurrent code c. Are used with forward error corrections d. Depend on both current characters to be encoded and those that have been endoded previously 107. On a point-to-point data channel using an analog circuit, transfer rate of information bits(TRIB) is___ a. Equal to the modem bit rate b. Lower than the modem bit rate c. Not related to the modem bit rate d. Higher than the modem bit rate 108. Modulation is done in___ a. The antenna

b. Between transmitter and receiver c. Radio receiver d. Transmitter 109. The X.25 standard is___ a. A recommendation of the CCITT b. A complete description of a public data network c. Required for all packet switching network d. Used by all packet terminals 110. Type of CRT-based terminals most closely resembles the KSR teletypewriter configuration a. Buffered terminal b. Bus terminal c. Dumb terminal d. Smart terminal e. Terminal island 111. The block length that gives maximum TRIB___ a. Decreases as the error rate increases b. Increases as the error rate increases c. Is not related to error rate d. Is called the optimum block length 112. In a radio transmitter__ is used. a. Colpitts Oscillator b. Crystal oscillator c. Hartley oscillator d. RC phase shift oscillator e. Wien bridge oscillator 113. The X.25 for packet network is analogous to___ a. Local loop standards for a telephone network b. Handset standards for a telephone c. PBX for a telephone network d. Switching standards for a telephone network 114. Not generally used as a stand-alone data communication terminal a. Magnetic media transceivers b. Mainframe computers c. Microcomputer d. Minicomputer 115. Smart TDMs a. Are always better than FDM b. May be better than dumb TDMs if the data terminals have a low duty cycle c. Are always better than dumb TDMs

d. Are the same as modems sharing devices 116. In an AM wave, useful power is carried by___ a. Both sidebands and carrier b. Carrier c. Sidebands d. None of these 117. The value of the A field in a LAPB frame specifies_____ a. The calling DTE for a virtual call b. The data sink for a VC or PVC c. The called DTE for a virtual call d. One of the two ends of a serial interface 118. Which of the following standards or organizations produce standards which are NOT generally used in the US? a. ANSI b. CCITT c. ISO d. UL 119. FDM devices can operate a. Like modem sharing devices b. On multipoint analog data channels c. More efficiently than dumb TDMs d. More efficiently than smart TDMs 120. In this wave phenomenon, each little parcel of air vibrates in some fashion and passes on the disturbance to its neighbors a. Electromagnetic interference b. Light c. Magnetic field d. Sound 121. A group of packets from a source through an X.25 jacket system to a sink___ a. Arrive in the same order send for VC, but not for PVC b. Arrive in the same order for PVC but not for VC c. Arrive in the same order for both PVC and VC 122. The difference between synchronous and asynchronous data transmission can be observed by noting___ a. How accurate the clock is b. How fast the data is transmitted on the circuit c. When start and stop pulses are used

Protocol converters are___ The same as multiplexers Same as TDMs Usually operated in pairs Usually not operated in pairs 124. In this situation, a significant amount of sound energy is literally lost a. Absorption b. Condensation c. Radiation d. Sublimation e. Vibration 125. A protocol is a set of rules governing a time sequence of events that must take place___ a. Across an interface b. Between nonpeers c. Between peers d. Between superiors 126. Some characteristics of the EBCDIC code are___ a. It is binary coded decimal code expanded to allow the transmission of letters and control characters b. EBCDIC can easily be transformed into ASCII-8 by adding hexadecimal constant to the ASCII-8 code c. It is used exclusively on OBM computers 127. Null modems area a type of___ a. Demultiplexer b. Multiplexer c. Modem d. Modem eliminator e. Protocol converter 128. Distinctly spaced reflection are discrete and perceptible a. Diffuse reflection b. Echo c. Irregularity d. Non-linear effects e. Reverberation 129. The OSI Reference Model defines the functions for seven layers of protocols____ a. Including the user and communications medium b. Including the communications medium but not the user c. Not including the user or communications medium d. Including the user but not the communications medium a. b. c. d.

123.

130. Which of the following techniques will not help to correct transmission line errors? a. Algorithmic conversion b. Checksum c. N of M codes d. Parity checking 131. A basic technique for isolating data communication faults is____ a. Calling the DTE service department b. Calling telephone company c. Performing a loopback test d. Simulating the system on a special purpose computer 132. What transient beginning or ending is generated when a steady sound source is turned ON or OFF? a. Early reflection b. Diffuse reflection c. Impulsive sound d. Reverberant sound 133. The X.25 standard covers how many OSI layers? a. Three b. Four c. Seven d. Ten 134. The primary consideration when designing an error control system for data communications is___ a. How many errors the system will detect and correct b. The overall function and needs of the networks c. The efficiency of the code that results from the design 135. The main purpose of a data link content monitor is to___ a. Determine the type of switching used in a data line b. Determine the type of transmission used in a data link c. Detect problems in protocols 136. The total absorption area of a room of 2000 square meter surface area, if half of this surface has absorptivity of 0.1 and the other half is 0.3 a. 400 sq. m b. 800 sq.m c. 750 sq. m d. 5000 sq .m e. 13,333.33 sq. m

137. Architecturally, link protocols are at a level___ a. Lower than physical protocols b. The same as physical protocols c. Higher than physical protocols 138. Which of the following statements is false? a. Cyclic Redundancy Checking can find all of certain kinds of errors, and more than 99.3% of most other kinds. b. A Hamming Code of distance 5 can detect and correct 4 errors in transmission. c. Parity checking is capable of providing enough information to detect and correct errors d. Checksums detect errors more effectively than checking 139. The most sophisticated type of data communications test equipment is the ___. a. Simulator b. Protocol Analyzer c. DTE d. Breakout Box e. Synthesesizer 140. What is the reverberant sound level of the 100 cubic meter room, reverberation time of 1.2 seconds and moderately vigorous speaking voice can produce acoustic power in the order of 100 microwatts? a. 60 dB b. 58.8 dB c. 64.2 dB d. 75 dB e. 120 dB 141. A data packet is a packet header together with ____. a. A network layer b. An administrative layer c. User data d. A packet switch e. Either (a) or (b) 142. Pulse Duration Modulation is ___. a. Similar to FM b. Difficult to detect accurately c. Not widely used d. Vulnerable to noise e. Similar to wave division multiplexing

143. Full capability dialed up backup of a multipoint full- duplex 4800 bps private line having 4 remote drops requires ____. a. 4 calls b. Either 4 or 8 calls c. 8 calls d. 16 calls e. Cant tell 144. What is the basic function of a Public Address System (PAS)? a. Distortionless Sound Reproduction b. Maximum Power c. Intelligible Information Transfer d. Frequency Response e. None of these 145. A network node joining three or more links is a ____. a. DSE b. DTE c. DCE d. DTE and DCE e. None of these 146. Pulse Amplitude Duration Modulation is ___. a. Similar to amplitude modulation in the analog world b. Used in radio communications c. Relatively insensitive to noise distortion d. A version of frequency modulation e. None of these 147. The X.25 standard specifies how many separate protocol layers at the serial interface gateway? a. 8 b. 2 c. 4 d. 3 e. 6 148. What unit equalizes the time arrival for the sound reinforcement wavefront and the direct sound wavefront at the listening position? a. High Powe Amplifier b. Hi- Fi amplifier c. Mixer d. Time Delay e. Reverb 149. Ducting in the atmosphere may cause microwave signals to ___. a. Travel Longer Distances b. Increase Signal Intensity c. Travel Shorter Distances d. Improve C/N Ratio e. None of these

150. A 24 voice channel is sampled at 8,000 hertz and encoded into an 8- bit PCM word. The approximate rate of the data stream is ___. a. 2.048 Mbps b. 6.28 Mbps c. 44.735 Mbps d. 1.544 Mbps e. 2.056 Mbps 151. The (Link Access Procedure Balanced) LABP frame structure and the frame structure of SDLC are: a. Opposite b. Identical c. Reversed d. Amorphous e. None of these 152. What is an early sound arriving from infront of the listener or from the ceiling overhead may leave a feeling of remoteness from the source? a. Direct sound b. Reverberant sound c. Freedom from noise d. Envelopment e. Flutter 153. At microwave frequencies, the LOS distance is sometimes extended through the occurrence of ___. a. Ionospheric Reflections b. Fog c. Sporadic E d. Dellinger Dropouts e. Ducting 154. The best system configuration to overcome multipath fading on over-the water propagation a. Angle diversity b. Frequency diversity c. Non-diversity d. Space diversity 155. Establishing a virtual connection is functionally equivalent to: a. Connecting a virtual memory b. Experimental with virtual reality c. Physically connecting a DTE and DCE d. Placing a telephone call prior to a connection 156. How much acoustic power must a public address be able to put out in order to create SPL= 100dB for a musical show in a 105 m3 auditorium with reverberation time of 1.2 seconds? a. 28.6 watts

33 watts 31.4 watts 29.8 watts 300 watts 157. The quality of digital transmission is measured in terms of a. Beamwidth b. BER c. Distortion d. Modulation used e. Traffic density 158. In a radio system, noise was measured at 58dBrn. What is its value in dBm? a. 32 b. -32 c. 90 d. 98 e. 148 159. In X.25 network layer protocol, the data packets normally contain: a. One octet of header plus data b. Two octets of header plus data c. Three octets of header plus data d. Four octets of header plus data 160. Spectrum of a changing source which is continually updated during the change with no incoming data ignored a. Digital analysis b. Heterodyne analyzer c. Tunable filter d. Real-time analysis e. Tunable filter 161. The standing wave ratio of a transmission line can be measured by a: a. Bolometer b. Power meter c. Reflectometer d. Stroboscope e. Voltmeter 162. In measuring noise, a circuit indicated 58dBrnc with tone and a 33dBrnc in C-notch reading. The S/N ratio of the circuit is__ a. 19 dB b. 25 dB c. 33 dB d. 52 dB e. 91 dB 163. The OSI reference model is a. A protocol b. Not a protocol c. A polling sequence d. Sequence

b. c. d. e.

164. The reference level for sound in air a. 6 x 10-6 pa2/Hz b. 4 x 10-3 pa2/Hz c. 4 x 10-10 pa2/Hz d. 6 x 10-4 pa2/Hz 165. One method of producing a broadband tuned circuit is by way of a. Critical coupling b. Loose coupling c. Overcoupling d. Undercoupling 166. An transmitter is rated 100 watts at 100% modulation. The power required for the carrier is__ a. 33.33 watts b. 50 watts c. 66.67 watts d. 86.67 watts e. 100 watts 167. Layer 1 of the OSI model is a. Link layer b. Network layer c. Physical layer d. Session layer 168. The pressure spectrum level at 2 kHz a. 25.78dB b. 33.47 dB c. 45.32 dB d. 62.51dB e. 120 dB 169. Color TV is made possible through the combination of the primary colors of a. blue, yellow, green b. red, green, blue c. red, white , blue d. white, red, green 170. A type of modulation technique that conveys audio information from one station to another by varying the carrier frequency at the audio rate a. Amplitude modulation b. Frequency modulation c. Quadrature modulation d. Phase modulation 171. The applications layer of the OSI model is the a. First layer b. Second layer c. Seventh layer d. Sixth layer e. Third layer 172. Causes modulation either in its internal circuitry or in another associated circuit a. Detector b. Modulator c. Multivibrator d. Multiplexer

e. Phasor 173. The half-power points of the beamwidth of the front lobe of a directional antenna is the point equal to a. 0.707 b. 0.636 c. 0.318 d. 0.5 e. 1.414 174. A tuned amplifier uses___ load a. Capacitive b. Inductive c. LC tank d. Resistive 175. When a single antenna is intended to be used for transmitting and receiving , it is necessary to use__ a. Combiner b. Diplexer c. Duplexer d. Multiplexer e. Transponder 176. The receivers ability to receive both very weak and extremely strong stations without introducing distortion a. Dynamic range b. Effective range c. Figure of merit d. Sensitivity e. Selectivity 177. The T-1 North American digital system has 24 channels and require a transmission speed of a. 64 kbps b. 640 kbps c. 960 kbps d. 1.54 Mbps e. 2.048 Mbps 178. A tuned amplifier is used in ___ applications a. Audio frequency b. Low frequency c. Optical frequency d. Radio frequency 179. The higher the Q of a circuit, the __ is the frequency bandwidth a. Broader b. Low selective c. Higher stability d. Narrower 180. Considered as an FM demodulators a. Foster-Seely Discriminator b. Phase-locked loop c. Radio detector d. All of these e. None of these

181. What is the image frequency when the receiver is tuned to9.81 MHz, the local oscillator is tuned above the desired signal, and the intermediate frequency is 455 kHz? a. 8.355 MHz b. 8.9 MHz c. 10.265 kHz d. 10. 720 MHz e. 11.72 MHz 182. One of the main functions of the RF amplifier in a superheterodyne receiver is to__ a. Improve the rejection of the image frequency b. Increase tuning range of the receiver c. Permit better adjacentchannel rejection d. Provide improve tracking 183. At resonance, the circuit power factor is__ a. 0 b. 1 c. 0.5 d. 0.8 e. Infinity 184. In broadcast superheterodyne receiver, the__ a. Local oscillator operates below the signal frequency b. Mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency c. Local oscillator frequency is normally double the IF d. RF amplifier normally works at 455 kHz above the carrier frequency 185. The voltage gain of a tuned amplifier is __ at resonant frequency a. Halfway between minimum and maximum b. Maximum c. Minimum d. zero 186. In an FM stereo multiplex transmission, the __ a. Difference signal modulates the 38 KHz subcarrier b. Difference signal modulates the 67 KHz subcarrier c. Difference signal modulates the 19 KHz subcarrier d. Sum signal modulates the 19 KHz subcarrier 187. At parallel resonance, the line current is__

a. Maximum b. Minimum c. Between maximum and minimum d. Zero 188. In amplitude modulation, bandwidth is ___ the audio signal frequency a. Thrice b. Four times c. Twice d. Five times e. Six times 189. At series resonance, the circuit offers __ impedance a. Infinity b. Negative c. Maximum d. Minimum e. Zero 190. It a system which provides the longest digital transmission distances a. Computer bus b. Digital PBX c. Local area network d. Voice band modem 191. When modulating frequency is disabled , the modulation index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant. The modulating system is __ a. Amplitude modulation b. Frequency modulation c. Phase modulation d. Pulse modulation 192. Which of the functions is not provided as part of the basic Ethernet design? a. Access control b. Addressing c. Automatic retransmission d. Multiple virtual networks 193. The frequency the oscillator must be set at for an output of 95 kHz if the output of the oscillator is being fed to two frequency triplers connected in cascaded form a. 6.3 MHz b. 9.65 MHz c. 10.56 MHz d. 15.8 MHz 194. A resonant circuit contains ___ element a. R and L b. Only R c. R and C d. L and C 195. For a monoaural FM receiver, it only receives the__

signal of a stereo multiplex transmission a. L-R b. L+R c. R-L d. 2R + L e. R + 2L 196. At resonance, a circuit behaves as a ___ load a. Capacitive b. Inductive c. magnetic d. PN junction e. Resistive 197. The purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet is__ a. Broadcast b. Clock synchronization c. Error checking d. Collision avoidance 198. Pre-emphasis and deemphasis are used in the FM stereo multiplex system to improve__ a. Current ratio b. CMRR c. Power ratio d. Standing wave ratio e. Signal-to-noise ratio 199. At series resonance, the voltage across L is___ voltage across C a. Equal to but in phase with b. Equal to out of phase with c. Greater than but in phase with d. Less than but in phase with 200. The frequency tolerance for the RF carrier in the standard AM radio broadcast band is___ a. Zero b. 20 Hz c. 25 Hz d. 75 Hz e. 1000 Hz 201. The TV visual carrier uses a ____transmission a. Lincompex b. Pilot carrier system c. SSBSC d. Vestigial sideband 202. When either L or C is increased, the resonant frequency of LC circuit___ a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same d. None of these 203. Phosphor colors for a tricolor picture tube a. Red, yellow, green b. Blue, red, yellow

c. Red, blue , magenta d. Red, green , blue e. Red, white, blue 204. At parallel resonance____ a. IL < IC b. IL = IC c. Ic > IL d. IL>> IC e. IL << IC 205. In parallel LC circuit, if the input signal is increased above resonant frequency, then___ a. XL decreases XC increases b. XL increases XC decreases c. Both XL and XC increase d. Both XL and XC decrease 206. In amplitude modulation___ of carrier is varied according to the strength of the signal. a. Amplitude b. Frequency c. Phase d. period 207. The Q of an LC circuit is given by__ a. XL/R b. R/XL c. XL x R d. R2/XL e. LC/R 208. In AM wave, the majority of the power is in____. a. Equal to b. Less than c. Greater than 209. The exact vertical field scanning frequency for color TV a. 3.579545MHz b. 59.94Hz c. 15,734.27Hz d. 3.58 MHz 210. Any deviation in frequency of reproduced sound from the original frequency a. Consonance b. Flutter c. Reverberation d. Rumble e. Wow 211. If Q of an LC circuit increases, the bandwidth a. Is decreased b. Is increased c. Remains the same 212. If L/C ratio of a parallel LC circuit is increase, the Q of the circuit ____. a. Is increased b. Is decreased c. Remains the same d. Either (a) or (b)

213. The transmit frequency range of a cellular telephone system is ____. a. 140-50 MHz b. 138-174 MHz c. 156-165 MHz d. 825-845 MHz 214. At resonance, the phase angle between applied voltage and circuit current is ____. a. 90 b. 180 c. 0 d. 270 215. The channel spacing in a cellular telephone is ____. a. 1 HKz b. 30 KHz c. 1 MHz d. 150 Hz e. 25 Hz 216. If the resistance of a tuned circuit is increase, the Q of the circuit _____. a. Remains the same b. Is decreased c. Is increased d. Either (a) or (c) 217. The separation between transmit and receive signals in cellular phones is____. a. 15 b. 25 c. 35 d. 45 e. 55 218. A parallel LC circuit draws a line current of 1 mA at resonance. If Q of the circuit is 100, then each branch current is ____. a. 0.01 mA b. 100 mA c. 0.5 mA d. 50 mA e. 300 mA 219. The Automatic Power Control Circuit of a cellular phone causes the transmitter power to ____ based on an input control signal from the MTSO. a. Change or decrease b. Remain constant c. Reverberate d. Bounce back and forth 220. The resonant frequency of an LC circuit is 1 Megahertz. If L is doubled but C is reduced to one eighth of the original value, the resonant frequency will be ____. a. 500 KiloHertz b. 250 KiloHertz c. 1 MegaHertz d. 2 MegaHertz

221. A DC signal derived from the demodulator and used to tell the MTSO about received signal strength is called _____. a. VU meter b. SWR Indicator c. Received Signal Strength Indicator d. Dosimeter 222. The Q of a tuned circuit refers to the property of ____. a. Selectivity b. Sensitivity c. Fidelity d. Conductivity 223. The third harmonic of 400 Hertz is___ a. 300 Hz b. 400 Hz c. 800 Hz d. 1200 Hz e. 1600 Hz 224. A coil has XL = 1000 ohms and 5 ohms internal resistance. Its Q is equals to ___. a. 0.005 b. 200 c. 1000 d. 2000 e. 5000 225. The section of the cellular transceiver that interprets the serial digital data from the cell site and the MTSO is the ____ unit a. Arithmetic b. Buffer c. CPU d. Final e. Logic 226. In a parallel LC circuit, if the signal frequency is decreased below resonant frequency , then ___ a. XL decreases and XC increases b. XL increases and XC increases c. XL and XC both decrease current is minimum d. Line current is minimum 227. How many microprocessors do most cellular transceivers contain? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 228. The sharpness of a resonance curve depends upon ___ of the tuned circuit a. Fidelity b. Friction of electrons c. Particle dispersion

d. Q e. Sensitivity 229. When the speed of a radio signal is known, radar can be used to determine ___ of a target a. Altitude b. Blind speed c. Direction d. Doppler shift e. Range 230. For frequencies above the resonant frequency, parallel LC circuit behaves as a _____ load a. Capacitive b. Inductive c. Resistive d. Reverse biased 231. In cellular telephones, the receive frequency range is between ___ Megahertz a. 138-174 b. 140-150 c. 500-600 d. 800-900 e. 825-845 232. The directivity of RADAR antenna determines the ____ of a target a. Azimuth b. Angle of elevation c. bearing d. either a or c e. Either a or b 233. Printed documents to be transmitted by fax are converted into a baseband electrical signal by the process called___ a. Light variation b. Modulation c. Photostat d. Scanning e. Reflection 234. The elapsed time between a radiating radar signal and receiving its echo is 43.2 microseconds. The target distance is___ nautical miles a. 3.5 b. 4.5 c. 5.5 d. 6.5 e. 7.5 235. The most commonly used light sensor in a modern fax machine is a ___ a. Charge coupled device b. Liquid crystal display c. LASCR d. Phototransistor e. Phototube 236. A waveguide assembly that lets the radar transmitter and receiver share an antenna is called___

Diplexer Duplexer Flip-flop Translator Toggle switch 237. Resolution which produces the best quality fax a. 96 lines/inch b. 150 lines/inch c. 200 lines/inch d. 300 lines/inch e. 400 lines/inch 238. Most commonly used component in a RADAR transmitter is a/an__ tube a. Cyclotron b. Dynatron c. Magnetron d. Twystron e. Voltron 239. Group of two (2) fax machines uses ____ modulation a. SSB b. FSK c. Independent Sideband d. PSK e. Vestigal Sideband 240. A radar using multiple antennas to shape the beamwidth and automatically adjust directivity is known as _____. a. Phased Array b. Continuous Wave c. Pulser d. Search and Rescue 241. In television systems, the spacing between sound and picture carrier is _______ Megahertz a. 6 b. 4.5 c. 63.6 d. 525 242. Most fax machines are of which type? a. Impact b. Thermal c. Electrosensitive d. Laser Xerographic 243. The transmission speed of Group four (4) fax machine is ____. a. 4800 Bauds b. 9600 Bauds c. 56 Kbps d. 192 kbps 244. A popular half-wavelength antenna is the ____________. a. Ground-plane b. End-fire c. Collinear d. Dipole

a. b. c. d. e.

245. The maximum frequency deviation of a cellular transmitter is ______. a. 6 KHz b. 12 KHz c. 30 KHz d. 45 KHZ 246. Popular vertical antenna is the a. Collinear b. Dipole c. Ground-plane d. Broadside 247. The master control center for a cellular telephone system is the ______. a. Cell site b. Mobile Telephone Switching Office c. Central Office d. Branch Office 248. The magnetic field of an antenna is perpendicular to the earth. The antennas polarization in a. Vertical b. Horizontal c. Circular d. Elliptic 249. Each cell site contains a _____. a. Repeater b. Control computer c. Direct link to a PABX d. Touch-tone processor 250. Cellular telephones operate in _____ mode, whereas trunking radios operate _______mode, respectively. a. Simplex, simplex b. Full-duplex, half-duplex c. Triplex, full-duplex d. Half-duplex, simplex 251. An antenna that transmits or receives equally well in all directions or receives equally well in all directions is said to be _______. a. Omnidirectional b. Birectional c. Unidirectional d. Quasidirectional 252. The output power of a cellular radio is controlled by ___________. a. User or Caller b. Cell site c. Called party d. MTSO 253. Treble tome corresponds to _____. a. High frequencies b. Low frequency c. High amplitudes

d. Low amplitudes 254. When a signal from a mobile cellular unit drops below a certain level, what action occurs? a. The unit is handed-off to a closer cell b. The cellphone searches for lost signal c. The cell site switches antennas d. The cell is terminated 255. Typical loudspeaker impedance rating is _________. a. 1 Ohm b. 8 Ohms c. 100 Ohms d. 5000 Ohms 256. Time from the transmission of a radar pulse to its reception is 0.12 msec. The distance to the target is _________ nautical miles. a. 4.85 b. 11.2 c. 18.4 d. 9.7 257. Typical output from a magnetic microphone is _________ a. 1 mV b. 500 mV c. 1 volt d. 2 volts 258. The ability of the radar to determine the bearing to a target depends upon the _________________. a. Antenna Directivity b. Speed of light c. Speed or target d. Effective capture area 259. At series resonance, the voltage across L or C is ______ the applied voltage a. Equal to b. Less than c. Much more d. Either a or b 260. The 45 - 45 system refers to stereo for ________. a. Magnetic tape recorders b. Photograph records c. Crystal microphones d. Loudspeakers 261. For frequencies below the resonant frequency, a parallel LC circuit behaves as a _________ load a. Resistive b. Capacitive c. Inductive d. Either a or b 262. The tape speed for cassette tape recorders, I inches per second is a. 1 7/8 b. 3

c. 45 d. 15 263. In series resonance, there is ______. a. Voltage amplification b. Current amplification c. Both voltage and current amplifications d. Power attenuation 264. Which of the following would apply to the audio power output stage? a. Low-level signal b. Complementary symmetry c. Class cooperation d. Very little distortion 265. In parallel resonance, there is __________. a. Current Amplification b. Voltage Amplification c. Both a and b d. Power Attenuation 266. To Match 8 Ohms to 200 Ohms, an audio output transformer must have turns ratio of a. 1:1 b. 1:5 c. 1:8 d. 1:400 267. In a parallel LC circuit, each branch current carries a current of 1 at resonance. If the Q of the circuit is 100, then line circuit is _________. a. 100 x I b. 200/I c. 100/I d. I/100 268. Negative feedback is used in audio amplifiers to a. Increase gain b. Increase distortion c. Reduce distortion d. Operate class c 269. For frequencies below resonant frequency, a series LC circuit behaves as a _____________ load a. Resistive b. Capacitive c. Inductive d. Either a and b 270. Less capacitive reactance in shunt with audio amplifier has the effect of a. Bass cut b. Treble boost c. Treble cut d. More negative feedback 271. For frequencies above resonant frequency, a series of LC circuit behaves as a _______ load.

Inductive Capacitive Resistive Purgative 272. The auxiliary input jacks of a ratio receiver require audio output of _________. a. 0.1 to 0.5 mV b. 1 to 5 mV c. 200 to 500 mV d. 5 to 10 volts 273. Tuning is generally accomplished by charging ________ of the tuning circuit a. Both L and C b. L c. C d. RL 274. Two 4 Ohm speakers in series have a total impedance of a. 2 Ohms b. 4 Ohms c. 8 Ohms d. 16 Ohms 275. If a high degree of selectivity is desired, then tuned circuits should have _______ coupling a. Loose b. Tight c. Critical d. Both b and c 276. The gain of an RF amplifier with a tuned LC circuit for the collector is maximum at resonance at the resonant frequency because of ___. a. Series resonance b. Parallel resonance c. Low Q d. High Emitter Resistance 277. If the coupling between tuned circuits is increased, the level of resonance curve _______ a. Remains the same b. Is raised c. Is lowered d. Either a or c 278. The Q of a single tuned circuit is lower when its a. Series R, is reduced b. Shunt RD is reduced c. Shunt RD is increased d. Capacitance is reduced 279. Double tuned circuits are used in ____________ stages of a radio receiver a. IF b. Output c. Audio d. RF 280. The pulse duration of a RADAR signal is 600 nanoseconds.

a. b. c. d.

The PRF is 185 pulses per second. The duty cycle is ______. a. 0.01% b. 5.5% c. 31% d. 47% 281. Snow in a TV picture is a result of ______. a. High Q in the tuned circuits b. Excessive gain c. Random noise in the signal d. Insufficient wavetraps 282. Doppler effect allows which characteristic of a RADAR target to be measured? a. Distance b. Speed c. Size of Target d. Azimuth 283. The response curve of a double-tuned circuit shows two peaks when the transformer has ___________. a. Loose coupling b. Critical coupling c. Tight coupling d. Excessive dampling 284. The Doppler effect is a change in what signal characteristic produced by relative motion between RADAR set and a target? a. Amplitude b. Phase c. Frequency d. Duty cycle 285. Which of the following methods can not be used to increase the bandwidth for cascaded RF amplifier stage? a. A shunt damping resistor across each tuned circuit b. Stagger tuning c. Wave traps in each stage d. Double-tuned transformers with tighter coupling 286. The most widely used oscillator in a radar transmitter is a. Klystron b. Magnetron c. TWT d. Power Transistor 287. Which of the following circuits has the greatest bandwidth? a. fr is 50 MHz with Q of 50 b. fr is 455 KHz with Q of 100 c. fr is 1 MHz with Q of 100 d. fr is 1 MHz with Q of 10

288. Low power radar transmitters and receiver local oscillator use a. Ga As FET b. Twystron c. Gunn Diode d. Varactor 289. When both primary and secondary resonant circuits of a double-tuned transformer have a Q of 50, the value of critical coupling Kc is _____. a. 50 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. 1/50 or 0.2 290. Most radar antennas use a _____. a. Dipole b. Broadside array c. Horn and parabolic reflector d. Collinear array 291. Two main parts of a tank circuit are _______. a. R and C b. R and L c. R and an NPN Transistor d. L and C 292. The most common radar display is ______. a. A-scope b. Color CRT c. Liquid Crystal Display d. Plan Position Indicator 293. When L is doubled and C is halved, the resonant frequency (fr) is a. Double b. One-half c. One quarter d. The same 294. A radar antenna using multiple dipoles or slot antennas in a matrix with variable phase shifters is called ________. a. A-scan b. Phased Array c. Broadside array d. Endfire array 295. Positive feedback is the same as _____. a. Regeneration b. Degeneration c. Negative feedback d. Frequency synthesis 296. The black and white or monochrome brightness signal in TV is called _________. a. RGB b. Color subcarrier c. Q and I d. Luminance Y

297. The oscillator that uses a tapped coil in the LC tuned circuit is the __________. a. Pierce b. Colpitts c. Hartley d. Wien 298. The assembly around the neck of the TV picture tube that produces the magnetic fields to deflect and scan the electron beam is called _______. a. Shadow mask b. Phosphor c. Electron gun d. Yoke 299. The circuit that uses a capacitive voltage divider to provide feedback is the _____________. a. Colpitts b. Hartley c. Armstrong d. Multivibrator 300. What type of circuit is used to modulate and demodulate the color signals of television? a. Phase Locked Loop b. Differential Peak Detector c. Quadrature Detector d. Balanced Demodulator 301. RF feedback oscillator are usually tuned by varying the _____. a. Bias b. Supply Voltage c. L or C d. Load Impedance 302. What TV receiver circuit is used to develop the high voltage needed to operate the picture tube? a. Low voltage power supply b. Horizontal Output c. Vertical sweep d. Sync separator 303. The oscillator with the best frequency stability and accuracy is the a. Hartley b. Colpitts c. Ticker feedback d. Crystal controlled 304. The technique used to allow hundreds of TV signals to share a common cable is ________ a. Frequency Modulation b. Mixing c. Time division multiplexing d. Frequency division multiplexing 305. When a 5 MHz crystal is followed by a frequency tripler, the output will be _____. a. 6 MHz

b. 12 MHz c. 18 MHz d. 54 MHz 306. The varactor in a Voltage Controlled Oscillator (VC0) needs ____. a. Audio signal below 1000 Hz b. Reverse DC control voltage c. Forward bias d. Parallel capacitance more than 5 microfarads 307. The phase comparator in a PLL circuit is used to provide a. One-half of the crystal oscillator frequency b. RF output with audio modulation c. DC Control voltage d. Double the crystal oscillator signal 308. In which of the following frequency bands are the standard AM broadcast stations? a. MF b. HF c. VHF d. UHF 309. The commercial FM radio broadcast band is a. 535 to 1605 KHz b. 27 to 29 KHz c. 88 to 108 MHz d. 300 to 3000 MHz
1. The RF power output of a transmitter in a cellular mobile telephone system authorized by NTC for use in the Philippines. a. 20.5 dBm c 31.5 dBm b. 34.8 dBm d. 22.1 dBm In telephony, M88 loading coil (88mH loading coil) is placed at an interval of ______ feet. a. 5000 c. 7500 b. 8000 d. 9000 MPEG 21 is the standard that aims at defining an open framework for MULTIMEDIA applications with standard name a. ISO/IEC 14496 c. ISO/IEC 2100 b. ISO/IEC 15938 d. ISO/IEC-13818 In digital television, 480 p format means _____ a. 480 x 640 pixels interlace b. 480 x 640 pixels progressive c. 640 x 480 pixels interlace d. 640 x 480 pixels progressive

2.

3.

4.

a. 5. The average absorption of a person is a. 1.7 sabines b. 4.7 sabines c. 47 sabines d. 7.4 sabines For TV broadcasting stations, median field strengths required for various grades of service are oftentimes expressed in dBu. It signifies the field strength in decibels above______ a. one microvolt per ft b. one microvolt per km c. one microvolt per meter d. one millivolt per meter OSI network layer which has an inter-host communication a. network layer b. physical layer c. presentation layer d. session layer The IEEE 802.4 standard a. Token passing for bus topology b. Token passing for ring topology c. Token passing for mesh topology d. Token passing for star topology Code assigned to duly authorized local access network providers for 3G Network Operators. a. 100 c. 209 b. 306 d. 404

1 bit/cycle bits/cycle b. 2 bits/cycle bits/cycle

c. 3 d. 4

6.

14. To make the tape speed the same in playback as in recording, the tape speed is regulated by the a. audio track b. control-track pulses c. erase head d. video slant tracks 15. Luminance signal or Y signal components a. 21 % red, 52 % green & 31 % blue b. 30 % red, 59 % green, & 11 % blue c. 60 % red, 28 % green, & 32 % blue d. 30 % red, 11 % green, & 59 % blue 16. Iridium is an example of LEO, and has a mean elevation of a. 48 miles b. 84 miles b. 840 miles d. 480 miles 17. NTC has defined Outdoor Radio Equipment Devices used for Wireless Data Network as those effective power exceeds _____ a. 150 mW b. 175 mW c. 200 mW d. 250 mW 18. The period for a single time slot in a GSM-TDMA slot structure is ____ sec a. 577 b. 57.7 c. 75.7 d. 757 19. The formula used to calculate the overall noise performance of a receiver or of multiple stages of RF amplification is the _____ formula a. Arceos c. .Friis b. Hartleys d. Shannons 20. Mandatory date of compliance to NTC requirement of installing NAVTEX receiver by cargo and passenger vessels/ships engaged in coastwise trade is on or before ______ a. 30 September 2002 b. 30 September 2003 c. 30 Sept 2004 d. 30 Sept 2005 21. High speed networks as defined by the National Telecommunications Commission(NTC) memorandum circular are networks in ICT that

7.

8.

9.

10. Among the connectors and transmission lines for coaxial, which is the least expensive as is widely used for CATV, VCRs, and TV sets? a. F type c. PL 529 b. L-type d. RG -11 11. A section which would be complete antenna by itself a. bay c. gay b. hay d. hertz a

12. In accordance with the Philippine Electronics Code, the maximum radiation from electronics equipment must not exceed ____ per week in order not to experience genetic and somatic damage to cells. a. 1 rem c. 100 rems b. 10 rems d. 50 rems 13. Determine BW efficiency for QPSK modulation at rate 10 Mbps.

have a capacity of at least _______ a. 1.024 Mbps c. 2.048 Mbps b. 512 kbps d. 4.096 Mbps 22. The instrument used to measure the interval height of a layer in the ionosphere used for wave propagation a. Altimeter c. iconoscope b. ionosonde d. ionoscope 23. Horizontal polarization is nothing but a. Circular polarization b. Elliptical polarization c. X-polarization d. Y-polarization 24. The maximum electronic efficiency of reflex klystron a. 40% c. 22.7% b. 50% d. 35% 25. Directional coupler a. Amplifier b. Non-reciprocal device c. Oscillator d. Reciprocal device 26. The maximum unambiguous range in a system depends on: a. Maximum power of the transmitter b. Pulse repetition frequency c. Width of the transmitted pulse d. Sensitivity of the radar receiver 27. To calculate the Thevenins equivalent value in a circuit a. All independent voltage sources are opened and all independent current sources are short circuited b. All voltage and current sources are shorted c. All voltage sources are shorted while current sources are opened d. Both voltage and current sources are open circuited 28. The characteristic impedance of a low pass filter in attenuation band is a. Complex quantity b. Purely imaginary c. Real value d. Zero 29. The real part of the propagation constant shows: a. Reduction in voltage, current values of signal

amplitude b. Reduction of only voltage amplitude c. Variation of phase shift/position of voltage d. Variation of voltage and current on basic unit 30. The control system of electronic switching systems are called as a. Combination Switching System b. Crossbar Systems c. Gigantic Switching System d. Stored Program Control Systems 31. A fully connected network supports full duplex communication using unidirectional links. The total number of links in such a network with n nodes is n a. nC2 c. 2 x C2 d. 2n b. n2 32. Near-end crosstalk refers to: a. Coupling form a transmitter into a receiver at a common location b. Interference caused by other cables routed close to the cable of interest c. Unwanted coupling into a received from transmitter at a distant location d. None of these 33. The horizontal resolution of picture is decided by: a. Aspect ratio b. No. of horizontal lines c. No. of vertical lines d. Pixel a

34. The chrominance signal is a. Result of colour difference signals b. Resultant of modulated quadrature colour difference signals c. Sum of colour difference signals d. Sum of primary colours

35. The patter of scanning lines in a video system a. Interface b. Raster c. Resolution d. Retrace 36. With an increase in temperature, the Fermi level in an intrinsic semiconductor

Moves closer to the conduction band edge b. Moves closer to the valence band edge c. Moves into the conduction band d. Remains at the centre of forbidden gap 37. The purpose of impedance matching between the output of previous stage and input of next stage in a cascaded amplifier a. To achieve high efficiency b. To achieve reduced distortion c. To achieve maximum power transfer d. To achieve reduced noise 38. If one of the diode in a full wave bridge rectifier opens the output is a. 0 V b. of the amplitude of the input voltage c. A half wave rectified voltage d. A 120 Hz voltage 39. The expression for carrying C in the half adder with inputs A and B is given by a. AB b. A.B c. AB d. None of these 40. Bandwidth of MSK is ___ that of QPSK a. Equal to b. Higher than c. Less than or equal to d. Lower than 41. Which of the following modulation schemes provides 4 bits per baud? a. QPSK b. 16-QAM c. 8-PSK d. 64- AQAM 42. Hamming weight (Si) of a code Si is defined as the a. No of 0s in codeword Si b. No. of 1s in codeword Si c. No. of 1s in even locations of Si d. No. of 0s in even locations of Si 43. In the eye pattern, as eye closes a. ISI decreases b. ISI increases c. Timing jitter decreases d. Timing jitter increases

a.

44. The CRC circuit is basically a. Adder circuit b. Decoder circuit c. Multiplexer circuit d. Shift register circuit 45. When a thyristor gets turned on, the gate drive a. May or may not be removed b. Should be removed c. Should be removed in order to avoid increased losses and higher junction temperature d. Should benot be removed as it will turn-off the SCR 46. The intersection of a V-I curve with the load line is called the a. Load point b. Q-point c. Transfer curve d. Transition point 47. If a single diode in a center tapped full-wave rectifier opens, the output a. 0V b. Half-wave rectified c. Reduced in amplitude d. Unaffected 48. The purpose of a small capacitor placed across the output of an IC regulator is to a. Couple the output signal to the load b. Filter the ac c. Improve transient response d. Protect the IC regulator 49. When the collector resistor in a CE amplifier is increased in value , the voltage gain a. Becomes erratic b. Decreases c. Increases d. Is not affected 50. The place where telephone companies terminate customer lines and locate switching equipment to interconnect those lines with other networks a. Central office b. Customer care centre c. Customer premises end d. Network service providers 51. ___ layers of OSI model send frames with the necessary synchronization, error control and flow control a. Data link b. Network c. Physical d. Transport

a. 52. In___ coding scheme, 0 is transmission from high to low in middle of interval and 1 is the transition from low to high in middle of interval a. Bipolar AMI b. Differential Manchester c. Manchester d. Pseudoternary 53. The ISDN encoding a. 2B1Q encoding c. 4B2Q encoding b. 1B2Q d. 2B2Q 54. Typical PBX configuration a. Star topology c. bus topology b. ring topology d. mesh topology 55. 3G wireless technology that has a Broadband-like data speed a. WIFI c. EDGE b. WIMAX d. ZIGBEE 56. One of the following if NOT a system specification for 3G wireless system. a. IMT 2000 c. TC/CDMA b. CDMA 2000 d. WCDMA 57. 3G wireless technology that has a Broadband-like data speed c. WIFI b. EDGE c. WIMAX d. ZIGBEE 58. One of the following system specification for system. c. IMT 2000 TC/CDMA d. CDMA 2000 WCDMA if NOT a 3G wireless c. d. b.

43 to 45 Mbps Mbps 138.24 Mbps Mbps

c. 132 d. 32.786

63. Type of antenna array consisting of a linear arrangement of a simple dipoles fed 90 out of phase and have radiation pattern of maximum directivity in plane of the array. a. broadside array b. collinear array c. end-fire array d. parasitic array 64. In integrator, the feedback element is a a. Capacitor b. Diode c. Inductor d. Resistor 65. Wein-bridge oscillations are based on a. High gain b. Negative feedback c. Piezoelectric effect d. Positive feedback 66. A feature in which a data frame has a field to hold the sequence number of the frame as well as sequence number for acknowledgement a. Flow control b. Go-back-N c. Piggy backing d. Stop and wait 67. The data rate provided by DS-I transmission format is a. 2.048 Mbps b. 64 kbps c. 1.544 Mbps d. 51.84 Mbps 68. Virtual needs a. b. c. d. Circuit Packet Switching Dedicated path Fixed bandwidth Non-dedicated path None of the above

59. Room whose boundaries absorbs effectively all incident sound a. acoustic room b. anechoic room c. Helmholtz resonator d. Helmholtz room 60. Navigational display that provides range versus azimuth. a. A-scope c. B-scan b. PPI d. RHI 61. An 802 standard used for wireless regional area network. a. 802.25 b. 802.16 c. 802.19 d. 802.22 62. In broadband ISDN (B-ISDN), the channel rate of H21 is ______

69. In ___ avoidance, the network alerts end systems to growing congestion they intrn reduce the offered load to the network a. Implicit congestion b. Explicit congestion c. Both a and b d. None of the above 70. IEEE 802.ID specification defines the protocol architecture for__ a. LANS b. Bridges c. Gateways

d. None of the above 71. In a transmission line terminated by characteristic impedance, Zo a. The incident current is zero for any applied signal b. The reflection is maximum due to termination c. There are a large number of maximum and minimum on the line d. There is no reflection of the incident wave 72. For a coil with inductance L and resistance R in series with a capacitor C has a. Resonance impedance as infinity b. Resonance impedance as zero c. Resonance impedance L/RC d. Resonance impedance R 73. All pass filter a. Passes all frequencies with very low attenuation b. Passes all frequencies without attenuation but phase is changed c. Passes whole of the audio band d. Passes whole of the radio band 74. A series resonant circuit is inductive at f = 1000Hz. The circuit will be capacitive somewhere at f 1000 Hz. a. f 1000 Hz b. f 1000 Hz c. f equal to 1000 Hz and by adding a resistance in series d. F = 1000 + fo ( resonance frequency) 75. Compensation theorem is applicable to a. Non-linear network b. Linear and non-linear networks c. Linear networks d. None of the above 76. In fast frequency hopping (FFH) a. Hopping rate is equal to or greater than the bit rate of baseband signal b. Hopping rate is equal to or less than the bit rate of baseband signal c. The desired frequency and interference protection is less d. None of the above 77. The use of non-uniform quantization levels lead to a. Increase in maximum SNR b. Increase in SNR for low level signals c. Reduction in transmission bandwidth d. Simplification of quantization process 78. Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative values for 1s? a. NRZ-I b. RZ c. AMI d. Manchester 79. CDMA technique is not used in satellite communication because of a. Complexity of operation b. Increase in delay c. Wastage of bandwidth d. Wastage of power 80. In PCM system, the amplitude levels are transmitted in a 7 unit code. The sampling is done at rate of 10 kHz. The bandwidth should be a. 35 kHz b. 5 kHz c. 5 MHz d. 70 kHz 81. The horizontal deflection circuit helps in the following processes a. Horizontal and vertical deflection b. Horizontal deflection c. Horizontal deflection and H,V generation d. Synchronization 82. In a TV receiver, the colour killer a. Cuts off the chroma stages during monochrome reception b. Ensures that no colour is transmitted to monochrome receivers c. Makes sure that the colour burst is not mistaken for sync pulses by cutting off reception during the back porch d. Prevents overloading 83. CSMA stands for a. Carrier sense multiple access b. Central station mobile applications c. Chart security maintenance application d. Common signaling multi-

tone access 84. Materials which can store electrical energy are called a. Magnetic materials b. Semi-conductor c. Dielectric materials d. Super conductor 85. A FET has a. Current controlled features b. Forward biased p=n junction c. Very high input resistance d. Very low input resistance 86. A PN junction offered a. Conducts in forwarded direction only b. Conducts in reverse direction only c. High resistance in forwarded as well as reverse direction d. Low resistance in forwarded as well as reverse direction 87. Wireless access network unit (WANU) consists of: a. Base station transceivers b. Access manager c. Radio controller d. All of the above 88. The design process of selecting and allocating channel groups for all cellular base station within a system is called: a. Adjacent channel interference b. Co-channel interference c. Frequency planning d. Near far affect 89. If the subscriber moves from one cell to other cell within BSC then this type of hand off is called: a. Inter MSC handover b. Inter-cell-inter BSC handover c. Inter-cell-intra BSC handover d. Intra-cell-intra BSC handover 90. The expression Pe = Q (2Eb/No)1/2 is probability of error for which of the following: a. QPSK b. BPSK c. DPSK d. /4 QPSK 91. If the bandwidth of signal is greater than that of channel then it is: a. Fast fading

b. Frequency selective fading c. Multipath fading d. Slow fading 92. The major problem in a unipolar format of coding a. Aliasing b. Complexity c. DC component d. Synchronization 93. The detector that minimizes Pe if P(S1)= P(S2) is known as a. Ratio detector b. Minimum likelihood detector c. Discriminator d. Maximum likelihood detector 94. Shannons Hartley Law is a. C = B log (1 +S/N) bits/sec b. B = C log ( 1 + S/N) bits/sec c. C= B log ( (1+S)/N) bits/sec d. C = B log (1/N +S) bits/sec 95. Which protocol working at the Transport layer provides a connectionless service between hosts? a. IP b. ARP c. TCP d. UDP 96. In OSI network architecture , the dialogue control and token management are responsibility of a. Data link layer b. Network layer c. Session layer d. Transport layer 97. A router a. Determines on which outgoing link a packet is to be forwarded b. Forwards a packet to all outgoing links c. Forwards a packet to the next free outgoing link d. Forwards a packet to all outgoing links except the link upon which the packet originated 98. In AM a message signal of 5 kHz is modulated by a carrier of 100 kHz, the bandwidth of the modulated signal is a. 5 kHz b. 10 kHz c. 100 kHz d. 105 kHz 99. An FM signal with a deviation is

passed through a mixer, and it has frequency reduction fivefold. The deviation at the output of the mixer is a. b. 5 c. /5 d. 25 100.If the transmission line is properly matched, then the VSWR is a. O b. 1 c. Less than 1 d. Greater than 1

(C) is unity. (D) is infinity. 7. The unit impulse response of a linear time invariant system is the unit step function u(t ). For t > 0, the response of the system to an excitation e-at u(t), a > 0, will be (A) ae-at (B) (C) a(1 - e-at) (D) (1 - e-at) 8. The auto-correlation function of a rectangular pulse of duration T is (A) a rectangular pulse of duration T. (B) a rectangular pulse of duration 2T. (C) a triangular pulse of duration T. (D) a triangular pulse of duration 2T. 9. The FT of a rectangular pulse existing between t = -T / 2 to t = T / 2 is a (A) sinc squared function. (B) sinc function. (C) sine squared function. (D) sine function. 10. An analog signal has the spectrum shown in Fig. The minimum sampling rate needed to completely represent this signal is (A) 3 KHz . (B) 2 KHz . 1 KHz . (C) (D) 0.5 KHz .

1. The discrete-time signal x (n) = (-1)n is periodic with fundamental period (A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 0 2. The frequency of a continuous time signal x (t) changes on transformation from x (t) to x ( t), > 0 by a factor (A) . (B) 1/ (C) 2. (D) . 3. A useful property of the unit impulse (t) is that (A) (at) = a (t) . (B) (at) = (t) . (C) (at)= (D) (at) = [ (t)]a. 4. Two sequences x1 (n) and x2 (n) are related by x2 (n) = x1 (- n). In the z- domain, their ROCs are (A) the same. (B) reciprocal of each other. (C) negative of each other. (D) complements of each other. 5. The Fourier transform of the exponential signal ejw0t is (A) a constant. (B) a rectangular gate. (C) an impulse. (D) a series of impulses. 6. If the Laplace transform of f (t ) is ( ), then the value of (A) cannot be determined. (B) is zero.

11. A given system is characterized by the differential equation:

The system is: (A) linear and unstable. (B) linear and stable. (C) nonlinear and unstable. (D) nonlinear and stable. 12. The system characterized by the equation y(t ) = ax(t )+ b is (A) linear for any value of b.

(B) linear if b > 0. (C) linear if b < 0. (D) non-linear. 13. Inverse Fourier transform of u(w) is (A) (B) (C) (D) 14. The impulse response of a system is h(n) = an u(n). The condition for the system to be BIBO stable is (A) a is real and positive. (B) a is real and negative (C) a > 1. (D) a < 1. 15. If R1is the region of convergence of x (n) and R2 is the region of convergence of y(n), then the region of convergence of x (n) convoluted y (n) is (A) R1+R2 . (B) R1 - R2 . (C) R1 R2 . (D) R1 R2 . 16. The continuous time system described by y(t) = x (t2) is (A) causal, linear and time varying. (B) causal, non-linear and time varying. (C) non causal, non-linear and timeinvariant. (D) non causal, linear and timeinvariant. 17. If G(f) represents the Fourier Transform of a signal g (t) which is real and odd symmetric in time, then G (f) is (A) complex. (B) imaginary. (C) real. (D) real and non-negative. 18. If white noise is input to an RC integrator the ACF at the output is proportional to

(A) (B) (C) (D) 19. x(n) = a|n|, |a|<1 is (A) an energy signal. (B) a power signal. (C) neither an energy nor a power signal. (D) an energy as well as a power signal. 20. The spectrum of x (n) extends from - 0 to + 0 , while that of h(n) extends from -2 0 to + 2 0. The spectrum of y(n) = extends from (A) -4 0 to + 4 0. (B) -3 0 to + 3 0. (C) -2 0 to + 2 0. (D) - 0 to + 0 21. The signals x1(t ) and x2 (t) are both bandlimited to (- 1, + 1) and (- 1, + 1) and respectively. The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal x1(t) x2 (t) will be (A) 2 1 if 1 > 2 (B) 2 2 if 1 < 2 (C) 2 1+ 2) (D) + )/2 1 2 22. If a periodic function f(t) of period T satisfies f(t) = -f(t + T/2), then in its Fourier series expansion, (A) the constant term will be zero. (B) there will be no cosine terms. (C) there will be no sine terms. (D) there will be no even harmonics.
23. A band pass signal extends from 1 KHz to 2 KHz. The minimum sampling frequency needed to retain all information in the sampled signal is (B) 2 KHz. (A) 1 KHz. (C) 3 KHz. (D) 4 KHz. 24. The region of convergence of the z-transform of the signal 2n u(n) 3n u(-n 1) (A) is |z| >1. (B) is |z| <1. (C) is 2 < |z| < 3 . (D) does not exist.

25. The number of possible regions of convergence of the function is (A) 1. (C) 3. (B) 2. (D) 4.

(C)

(D) none of these.

26. Given a unit step function u(t), its time-derivative is: (A) a unit impulse. (B) another step function. (C) a unit ramp function. (D) a sine function. 27. The impulse response of a system described by the differential equation will be (A) a constant. (B) an impulse function.. (C) a sinusoid. (D) an exponentially decaying function. 28. The function is denoted by:

34. The system having input x(n) related to output y(n) as y(n) = log10 x(n) is: (A) nonlinear, causal, stable. (B) linear, noncausal, stable. (C) nonlinear, causal, not stable. (D) linear, noncausal, not stable. 35. To obtain x(4 2n) from the given signal x(n), the following precedence (or priority) rule is used for operations on the independent variable n: (A) Time scaling Time shifting Reflection. (B) Reflection Time scaling Time shifting. (C) Time scaling Reflection Time shifting. (D)Time shifting Time scaling Reflection. 36. The unit step-response of a system with impulse response h(n) = (n) (n 1) is: (A) (n 1). (B) (n). (C) u(n 1). (D) u(n). 37. Zero-order hold used in practical reconstruction of continuous-time signals is mathematically represented as a weighted-sum of rectangular pulses shifted by: (A) Any multiples of the sampling interval. (B) Integer multiples of the sampling interval. (C) One sampling interval. (D) 1 second intervals. 38. The region of convergence of the z-transform of the signal x(n) ={2, 1, 1, 2} is (A) all z, except z = 0 and z = (B) all z, except z = 0. (C) all z, except z = . (D) all z. 39. When two honest coins are simultaneously tossed, the probability of two heads on any given trial is: (A)1 (B) 3/4 (D) (C)1/2 40. A continuous-time periodic signal x(t) , having a period T, is convolved with itself. The resulting signal is (A) not periodic

(A) sin c( u). (B) sin c(u). (C) signum. (D) none of these. 29. The order of a linear constantcoefficient differential equation representing a system refers to the number of (A) active devices. (B) elements including sources. (C) passive devices. (D) none of those. 30. z-transform converts convolution of time-signals to (A) addition. (B) subtraction. (C) multiplication. (D) division. 31. Region of convergence of a causal LTI system (A) is the entire s-plane. (B) is the right-half of s-plane. (C) is the left-half of s-plane. (D) does not exist. 32. The DFT of a signal x(n) of length N is X(k). When X(k) is given and x(n) is computed from it, the length of x(n) (A) is increased to infinity (B) remains N (C) becomes 2N 1 (D) becomes N2 33. The Fourier transform of u(t) is (B) (A)

(B) periodic having a period T (C) periodic having a period 2T (D) periodic having a period T/2 41. If the Fourier series coefficients of a signal are periodic then the signal must be (A) continuous-time, periodic (B) discrete-time, periodic (C) continuous-time, non-periodic (D) discrete-time, non-periodic 42. The region of convergence of a causal finite duration discrete-time signal is (A) the entire z-plane except z = 0 (B) the entire z-plane except z = (C) the entire z-plane (D)a strip in z-plane enclosing j axis

(A) Duality. (B) Scaling. (C) Time Scaling. (D) Frequency Shifting. 48. What is the Nyquist Frequency for the signal x(t) =3cos 50 t +10 sin 300 t cos100 t? (A) 50 Hz (B) 100 Hz (C) 200 Hz (D) 300 Hz 49. The step response of a LTI system when the impulse response h(n) is unit step u(n) is (A) n+1 (B) n (C) n-1 (D) n2 50. The function which has its Fourier transform, Laplace transform, and Z transform unity is (A) Gausian (B) impulse (C) Sinc (D) pulse

43. The transfer function of a stable system is H(z) = Its impulse response will be

(A) (0.5)n u[n] + (2)n u[n] (B) (0.5)n u[-n 1] + (2)n u[n] (C) (0.5)n u[n] (2)n u[-n 1] (D) (0.5)n u[-n 1] (2)n u[-n 1]

44. The probability cumulative distribution function must be monotone and (A) increasing (B) decreasing (C) non-increasing (D) non-decreasing 45. Convolution is used to find: (A) The impulse response of an LTI System (B) Frequency response of a System (C) The time response of a LTI system (D)The phase response of a LTI system 46. The Fourier Transform of a rectangular pulse is (A) Another rectangular pulse (B) Triangular pulse (C) Sinc function (D) Impulse. 47. The property of Fourier Transform which states that the compression in time domain is equivalent to expansion in the frequency domain is