ENT & Ortho For Anglofibroma of Nasopharynx, The Most Appropriate

KIMS ENT & Ortho I.
1. For anglofibroma of a. Squamous tympanic

nasopharynx, the most fissure
appropriate investigation is b. Lateral margin of Tegmen
a. Plain x-ray tympani
b. MRI scan c. Petrosquamous suture
c. CT scan d. Petrosquamous fissure
d. Angiography 1. External auditory canal is
1. In positional vertigo, formed by groove
semicircular canal involved is a. First branchial
a. Posterior b. First visceral
b. Anterior c. Second branchial
c. Lateral d. Second visceral
d. Superior 1. Orontral fistula is common after
1. Rinne test will be negative if the the extraction of
loss of hearing is at --------dB a. 1st molar
a. 45-60 b. 2nd incisor
b. 0-15 c. 2nd premolar
c. 15-20 d. 1st premolar
d. 30-40 1. Not a contraindication for
1. In atrophic rhinitis nasal tonsillectomy
blockade is due to a. Past history of
a. Polyp Peritonsillar abscess
b. Turbinate hypertrophy b. Uncontrolled diabetes
c. Granuloma mellitus
d. Crusting c. URTI
1. Blood supply of nasal septum is d. Epidemic of poliomyelitis
a. Mainly internal carotid 1. Type IV thyroplasty is for
artery and partly external a. Vocal cord medialization
carotid artery b. Vocal cord lateralization
b. Mainly external carotid c. Vocal cord shortening
artery and partly internal d. Vocal cord lengthening
carotid artery 1. Carhart’s notch in audiogram is
c. Internal carotid artery deepost frequency of
d. External carotid artery a. 0.5KHz
1. Treatment of bilateral abductor b. 2KHz
vocal cord palsy is c. 4 KHz
a. Endotracheal intubation d. 8 KHz
b. Adrenaline 1. In coid caloric stimulation ten,
c. Tracheostomy which of the following is TRUE of
d. None of the above movements of the eye ball
1. Korner’s septum is formed by a. Towards the opposite
which of the following side
1 KAROL INSTITUTE OF MEDICAL SCIENCES

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KIMS ENT & Ortho I.S
b. Towards the same side c. To maintain the

c. Upwards electronic milieu of
d. Downwards Endolymph
1. Which of the following is the d. None of the above
narrowest part of larynx is 1. Adenocarcinoma of ethmoid is
a. Supraglottis most common is
b. Saccule a. Dye industry worker
c. Rima glottidis b. Chimney worker
d. Vestibule of pharynx c. Wood workers
1. Abductors of vocal cord are d. Nickel workers
a. Thycarytenoid 1. In myringotomy, the incision is
b. Cricothyroid applied in the region of the
c. Posterior cricoarytenoid posteroinferior quadrant. This is
d. Lateral cincoarytenoid the preferred site for all the
1. Which of the following does not following reasons EXCEPT?
form nasal septum a. Easily accessible
a. Nasal crest of maxilla b. Less vascular region
b. Perpendicular plate of c. Less damage to ear
ethmoid ossicles
c. Concha of sphenoid d. Less change of injury to
d. Vomer the chorda tympani nerve
1. In which of the following 1. A chronic smoker with a history
conditions, cortical of hoarseness was found on
inastoidectomy is indicated examination to have keratosis
a. Malignant disease of of the larynx. All the following
middle ear are used for treatment except
b. CSOM without a. Partial laryngectomy
Cholesteatoma b. Stripping of the vocal cort
c. Acute coalescent c. CO2 laser vaporizer
mastoiditis d. Stop smoking
d. CSOM with 1. True regarding Reinke’s edema
Cholesteatoma is
1. Floor of middle ear is pierced by a. Cyst of ventricle of larynx
a. Vagus b. Edema of ventricular
b. Tympanic branch of 9th band
nerve c. Edema of free margin of
c. Caroticotympanic nerve vocal cord
d. Deep auricular artery d. Edema of uvula
1. The function of stria vascularis 1. In which of the following
is conditions negative Rinne test
a. To produce perilymph is seen
b. To absorb perilymph a. Meniere’s disease

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b. Acoustic neuroma a. Right lateral basal

c. Tympanosclerosis segment
d. Sensorineural deafness b. Right medial basal
1. False regarding tympanic segment
membrane is c. Right posterior basal
a. It has sensory supply via segment
auriculotemporal nerve d. Right anterior basal
b. It is inclined at an angle segment
of 350 to the mealus 1. Which of the following sinuses is
c. Lined by stratified not present at birth
epithelium in continuity a. Ethmoidal
with external auditory b. Maxillary
canal c. Frontal
d. Tympanic membrane is d. Sphenoid
attached to annulus ring 1. In radical mastoidectomy all the
made of fibrous cartilage following are done EXCEPT
1. Cause of otitis externa a. Lowering of facial ridge
hemorrhagica is b. Mucosa and middle ear
a. Picornavirus muscles are removed
b. Influenza virus c. All the ossicles are
c. Adenovirus removed except the
d. Enterovirus stapes foot plate
1. In hypopharynx which of the d. Maintains patency of
following part is not included Eustachian tube
a. Posterior pharyngeal wall 1. Sensory supply of middle ear
b. Anterior pharyngeal wall cavity is by
c. Posterior cricoid region a. 5th nerve
d. Pyriform sinus b. 10th nerve
1. Gradenigo’s triad includes c. 9th nerve
which of the following d. Greater occipital nerve
a. Abducens nerve 1. Pulver Taft weave is a technique
b. Facial nerve of
c. Optic nerve a. Nerve repair
d. Trigeminal nerve b. Vein repair
1. Acoustic neuroma most c. Bone repair
commonly arises from d. Tendon repair
a. Superior vestibular nerve 1. The antibiotic of choice in acute
b. Interior vestibular nerve epiglottitis culture sensitivity
c. Cochlear nerve report is
d. Facial nerve a. Erythromycin
1. Foreign body in erect position b. Rolitetracycline
lies in c. Doxyclycline

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d. Ampicillin d. Cortical mastoidectomy

1. In plummer Vinson syndorme, 1. CSF rhinorrhoea is commonest
the region involved is in fracture of the
a. Posterior pharyngeal wall a. Temporal bone
b. Valleculae b. Nasal bones
c. Postcricoid region c. Temporo sphenoid
d. Pyriform sinus d. Cribriform plate
1. Most common location of vocal 1. In cerebellopontine angle
nodules is tumor, the ‘earliest’
a. Anterior commissure manifestation is
b. Posterior 1/4th and a. Ipsilateral papillary
anterior 2/3rd junction dilatation
c. Anterior 1/3rd and b. Ipsilateral tongue
posterior 2/3rd junction paralysis
d. Posterior 2/3rd and c. Ipsilateral lateral squint
anterior 2/3rd junction d. Loss of corneal reflex
1. Stapedius is supplied by 1. Antrum of Highmore is also
a. V cranial nerve known as
b. VI cranial nerve a. Frontal
c. VII cranial nerve b. Maxillary
d. IX cranial nerve c. Ethmoidal
1. Which of the following is TRUE d. Mandibular
about Rhinosporidiosis 1. Cartilage which has signet ring
a. The most common sign is
organism is Klebsiella a. Arytenoid
rhinoscleromatis b. Cuneiform
b. Seen only in c. Thyroid
immunocompromised d. Cricoids
patient 1. A diabetic patient complains of
c. Presents as a nasal polyp discharge of blackish crusts.
d. Can be diagnosed by Most likely the cause of this is
isolation of the organism a. Candidiasis
1. A 7 year old child who presents b. Histoplasmosis
with acute otitis media does not c. Aspergillosis
respond to ampicillin. d. Mucormycosis
Examination reveals that the 1. 55 years old, Hema was
tympanic membrane is full and undergoing a face lift operation
bulging. The treatment of to reduce or eliminate facial
choice of rhytids, or wrinkles. While
a. Systemic steroids operation she suffered a nerve
b. Ciprofloxacin injury, which nerve is most
c. Myringotomy likely to be injured

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a. Lesser occipital nerve c. Chondroma

b. Zygomatic branch of d. Ductal cyst
facial nerve 1. Which of the following virus is
c. Greater auricular nerve associated with Otosclerosis
d. Lesser petrosal nerve a. Mumps virus
1. Audiogram in early Meniere’s b. Measles virus
disease shows c. EBV
a. Notch at 2 kHz in bone d. RSV
conduction 1. Investigation of choice for Acute
b. Notch at 4 kHz in air sinusitis is
conduction a. X-ray (Water’s view)
c. A flat curve b. Computerized
d. A rising curve tomography (CT)
1. Cheval let fracture of nasal scanning
septum is c. MRI
a. Horizontal backwards d. Ultrasonography
b. Vertical backwards 1. The largest cartilage of larynx is
c. Transverse backwards a. Thyroid
d. Oblique backwards b. Cricoids
1. Trotter’s triad included all c. Arytenoids
except d. Corniculate
a. Conductive deafness 1. Most common complication of
b. Ipsilateral temporal tracheostomy is
neuralgia a. Tracheoesophageal
c. Palatal paralysis fistula
d. Contralateral temporal b. Tracheocutaneous fistula
neuralgia c. Surgical emphysema
1. The extent of glomus tumor is d. Tracheal stenosis
best shown by 1. Klippel- Feil syndrome results
a. CT scan from
b. MRI a. Congenital contracture of
c. Angiography the sternocleidomastoid
d. X-rays muscle
1. A 45yr male, trumpet player b. Failure of descent of the
presents with complain of scapula
cough, Dyspnea, hoarseness & c. Failure of closure of the
swelling in neck. Swellign is third branchial arch
reducible & increases in size d. Failure of segmentation
during Valsalva & coughing he’s of mesodermal somites
likely to be suffering from 1. CSF is similar to
a. Thyroglossal cyst a. Endolymph
b. Laryngocccle b. Perilymph

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c. Cortilymph d. Thin odourless fluid

d. None 1. A 3-year old child present with
1. The “cone of light” is seen in fever and earaches on
which quadrant of tympanic examination there is congested
membrane? tympanic membrane with slight
a. Anterosuperior bulge. The treatment of choice
b. Anteroinferior is
c. Posterosuperior a. Myringotomy with
d. Posterorinferior penicillin
1. The most mobile part of b. Myringotomy with
tympanic membrane grommet
a. Central c. Only antibiotic
b. Peripheral d. Wait and watch
c. Both 1. Bezold’s abscess is situated at
d. None a. Diagstric triangle
1. What should be the loss of b. Tip of mastoid, deep to
hearing at least for weber’s test sternomastoid
to lateralize? c. Subtemporally
a. 5 db d. Parotid area
b. 10 db 1. Tobey Ayer test is useful for
c. 15 db diagnosing
d. 20 db a. Lateral sinus thrombosis
1. Which is the investigation of b. Medial sinus thrombosis
choice in assessing hearing loss c. Serous otitis media
in neonates? d. Eustachian tube defect
a. Impedance audiometry 1. Gelle’s test is done in
b. Brainstem evoked a. Senile deafness
response audiometry b. Traumatic deafness
(BERA) c. Otosclerosis
c. Free field audiometry d. Glue ear
d. Behavior audiometry 1. Phlep’s sign is seen in
1. Ear is sensitive to which a. Glomus jugulare
frequency of sound b. Vestibular neuroma
a. 500-3500 Hz c. Glomus tympanicum
b. 1000-3000 Hz d. Meniere’s disease
c. 3000-5000 Hz 1. Caloric test has
d. 5000-8000 HZ a. Slow component only
1. Tuberculous otitis media is b. Fast component only
characterized by all EXCEPT c. Slow and fast
a. Multiple perforation components
b. Pale granulations d. Fast component
c. Earache occasionally

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1. A 30-year old woman with b. Behind the opening of

family history of hearing loss Eustachian tube
from her mother’s side c. In posterior pharyngeal
developed hearing problem wall
during pregnancy. Hearing loss d. Behind the opening of
is bilateral, slowly progressive, parotid duct
with audiometry shows 1. All of the following are true
conductive hearing loss with an about fungal sinusitis
apparent bone conduction a. Steroids spray may be
hearing loss at 2000 Hz. What is useful
the most likely diagnosis ? b. Heterogenous
a. Otosclerosis echogenicity
b. Acoustic neuroma c. Endoscopic surgery is
c. Otitis media with effusion TOC
d. Sigmoid sinus thrombosis d. Tissue invasive is seen
1. Nasolacrimal duct opens into 1. Opening in Caldwell Luc
a. Superior meatus operation is made in which of
b. Middle meatus the following
c. Inferior meatus a. Middle meatus
d. Sphenoethmoidal recess b. Inferior meatus
1. Abel’s bacillus auses c. Canine fossa
a. Rhinoscleroma d. Dental sulcus
b. Rhinosporodiosis 1. Dacrocystorhinostomy (DCR) is
c. Atrophic rhinitis contraindicated in all the
d. Rhinolith following EXCEPT
1. Mylasis is a. Atrophic rhinitis
a. Maggots seen in nose b. Deviated nasal septum
b. Maggots in the anus c. Carcinoma lacrimal gland
c. Inflammatory disease of d. Chronic dacrocystitis
nose 1. View for superior orbital fissure
d. Necrotic inflammation is
with maggots in ear a. Basal view
1. The most important cause b. Occipitomental view
unilateral nasal obstruction is c. Towne’s view
a. Atrophic rhinitis d. Basal skull view
b. Allergic rhinitis 1. The most common malignancy
c. Nasal polyp of the oropharynx
d. Deviated nasal septum a. Tonsil
1. Fossa of Rosenmuller is situated b. Soft palate
at c. Tongue base
a. Base of skull d. Valleculae
1. Killiance dehiscence is seen in

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a. Oropharynx d. Obstruction by foreign

b. Nasopharynx body
c. Cricopharynx 1. Vocal cord is linked by
d. Vocal cords a. Stratified columnar
1. Which of the following epithelium
statements is true for Ludwig’s b. Pseudostratified
angina? columnar epithelium
a. It is an ischemic, painful c. Stratified Squamous
condition of pectoralis epithelium
minor muscle d. Cuboidal epithelium
b. It is diffuse cellulitis 1. Recurrent laryngeal nerve is
affecting the floor of the closely related to
mouth a. Superior laryngeal artery
c. Glycerin nitrate, local b. Superior thyroid artery
application is quite c. Inferior thyroid artery
helpful d. Middle thyroid vein
d. None of the above 1. Most common cause of stridor
1. All muscles of tongue are after birth is
supplied by hypoglossal nerve a. Laryngeal web
EXCEPT b. Laryngeal stenosis
a. Myoglossus c. Laryngomalacia
b. Palatoglossus d. Vocal cord palsy
c. Genioglossus 1. “Mouse nibbled” appearance of
d. Hyoglossus vocal cord is seen in
1. Lower esophageal sphincter a. Carcinoma larynx
a. Has no tonic activity b. Papilloma
b. Has a tone which is c. Syphilis
provided by the d. TB
sympathetic system 1. “kiss ulcer” of larynx is due to
c. Relaxes on increasing a. Vocal abuse
abdominal pressure b. Papilloma
d. Relaxes ahead of the c. Vocal nodule
peristaltic wave d. Tuberculosis
1. Dysphagia lusoria is commonly 1. Commonest cause of unilateral
due to vocal cord palsy is
a. Abnormal origin of left a. Idiopathic
subclavian artery b. Thyroid surgery
b. Abnormal origin of right c. Trauma
subclavian artery d. Epiglottic tumor
c. Compression by aortic 1. A 10-year old body developed
arch hoarseness of voice following an
attack of diphthera. On

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examination his right vocal cord b. Bilateral incomplete

was paralysed. The treatment of paralysis
choice for paralysed vocal cord c. Unilateral complete
will be paralysis
a. Gel foam injection of right d. Bilateral complete
vocal cord paralysis
b. Fat injection of right vocal 1. In bilateral abductor palsy of
cord vocal cords, the voice described
c. Thyroplasty –type1 is
d. Wait for spontaneous a. Mogiophonia
recovery of vocal cord b. Phonasthenia
1. Sideropenic Dysphagia is seen c. Goor or normal
in d. Woody voice
a. Iron deficiency anaemia 1. For androphonia in females,
b. Vitamin B12 deficiency which thyroplastry is useful?
anaemia a. Type I
c. Folic acid deficiency b. Type II
anaemia c. type III
d. Any of the above d. type IV
1. The laryngeal mask airways 1. hoarseness of voice with little or
(LAM) used for securing the no affection of respiration is the
airway of a patient in all of the feature of
following conditions except a. bilateral recurrent
a. In a difficult intubation laryngeal nerve palsy
b. In cardiopulmonary b. unilateral recurrent
resuscitation laryngeal nerve palsy
c. In a child undergoing an c. carcinoma of pyriform
elective/ routine eye fossa
surgery d. retropharyngeal abscess
d. In a patient with a large 1. partial recurrent laryngeal
tumor in the oral caviry nerve palsy produces vocal cord
1. Reinke’s oedema is in which positon?
a. Oedema of the uvula a. Cadaveric
b. Oedema of the free b. Adducted (median)
margin of the vocal cord c. Abducted
c. Oedema of the d. Paramedian
ventricular band 1. The commonest cause of
d. Cyst of the ventricle of pathological fracture is
the larynx generalized affection is
1. Maximum stridor is seen in a. Carcinoma
a. Unilateral complete b. Osteoporosis
paralysis of cord c. Cyst

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d. All of the above c. Fracture neck of femur

1. The treatment of choice in d. Anterior dislocation of
pathological fracture is shoulder
a. Internal fixation 1. Following anterior dislocation of
b. Plaster of paris casts the shoulder, a pt develops
c. Skin traction weakness of flexion at elbow
d. External skeletal fixation and lack of sensation over the
1. What is March fracture? lateral aspect forearm; nerve
a. Fracture of 2nd metatarsal injured is
b. Fracture of 4th metatarsal a. Radial nerve
c. Fracture of cuboids b. Musculocutaneous nerve
d. Fracture of cuboids c. Axillary nerve
1. Marker for bone formation is d. Ulnar nerve
a. Tartrate resistance acid 1. A 6 year old boy has a history of
phosphate recurrent dislocation of the right
b. Osteocalcin shoulder. On examination, the
c. Urinary calcium orthopedician puts the patient
d. Serum nucleotidase in the supine position and
1. Non “union is a complication of abducts his arm to 90 degrees
a. Scaphoid # with the bed as the fulcrum and
b. Colle’s # then externely rotates it but the
c. Inter – trochanteric # of boy does not allow the test to
hip be perfomed. The test done by
d. Supra condylor # of the the opthopedician is
humerus a. Apprehension test
1. Hill sachs lesion in recurrent b. Sulcus test
shoulder dislocation is c. Dugas test
a. Injury to humeral head d. MC Murray’s test
b. Rupture of tendon of 1. “figure of eight” bandage used
supraspinatus muscle commonly in the fracture of
c. Avulsion of glenoid a. Scapula
labrum b. Humerus
d. None of the above c. Clavicle
1. Which nerve is damaged in ant d. Metacarpals
dislocation of shoulder 1. All are true regarding clavicular
a. Axillary fracture except
b. Median a. May be caused by a fall
c. Radial on to the outstretched
d. Musculocutaneous arm
1. Duga’s test is helpful in b. Commonly occurs
a. Dislocation of hip between the insertions of
b. Scaphoid fracture caraco-clavicular and the

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costo Clavicular c. Hammate

ligaments d. Pisciform
c. May jeopardize blood 1. In classical Scaphoid cast
supply to the overlying position of wrist is
skin a. Dorsal & ulnar flexion
d. Usually requires careful b. Dorsal & radial flexion
reduction c. Ventral & ulnar flexion
1. In fracture surgical neck of d. Ventral & radial flexion
humeus, the following nerve 1. Which carpal bone fracture
injury is common causes median nerve
a. Axillary involvement?
b. Radial a. Scaphoid
c. Ulnar b. Lunate
d. Median c. Trapezium
1. Treatment of choice in 65 year d. Trapezoid
of old female with impacted # 1. Commonest dislocation of the
neck of humerus is hip is
a. Triangular sling a. Posterior
b. Arm chest strapping b. Anterior
c. Arthroplasty c. Central
d. Observation d. None
1. Hanging cast is used in 1. Traumatic dislocation of hip is
a. # femur characterized by
b. # Radius a. Adduction internal
c. # Tibia rotation deformity
d. # humerus b. Abduction external
1. The best radiological view for rotation deformity
fracture Scaphoid c. Adduction external
a. AP rotation deformity
b. PA d. Abduction internal
c. Lateral rotation deformity
d. Oblique 1. Vascular sign of Narath is
1. Avascular necrosis of bone is noticed is
most common in a. Fracture neck of femur
a. Scapula b. Perthes disease
b. Scaphoid c. Posterior dislocation of
c. Calcaneus hip
d. Cervical spine d. All of the above
1. Carpal bone which fracture 1. Kumar, a 31 yrs old motorcyclist
commonly sustained injury over his right
a. Scaphoid hip joint. X-ray revealed a
b. Lunate posterior dislocation of the

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Right hip joint. The clinical 1. True regarding Hangman’s

attitude of the affected lower fracture is
limb will be a. Odotoid process fracture
a. External rotation, of C2
extendion & abduction b. Spondylolisthesis of C2
b. Internal rotation, flexion over C3
& adduction c. Whiplash injury
c. Internal rotation, d. Fracture of hyoid bone
extension & abduction 1. The compression fracture is
d. External rotation, flexion commonest in
& abduction a. Cervical spine
1. In anterior dislocation of hip, the b. Upper thoracic spine
positive of lower limb will be c. Lower thoracic spine
a. Abduction, externally d. Lumbosacral region
rotated and extension 1. A paralysed bladder following
b. Abduction, externally spinal injury is best manged by
rotated and flexion a. Gibbon’s catheter
c. Abducted externally b. Malicot catheter
rotated and flexion c. Foley’s catheter
d. Adducted, internally d. Metallic catheter
rotated and flexion 1. “Tinel ‘s sign “ indicates
1. In per rectal examination, a. Neurofibroma
femora head is palpable in b. Injury to peripheral
a. Anterior dislocation of hip nerves
b. Posterior dislocation of c. Atrophy of nerves
hip d. Regeneration of nerves
c. Central dislocation of hip 1. In seddon’s classification,
d. Lateral dislocation of hip complete division of nerve is
1. ‘Whip-lash’ injury is caused due a. Neuropraxia
to b. Axonotmesis
a. A fall from a height c. Neurotmesis
b. Acute hyperextension of d. None of the above
the spine 1. Most common cause of
c. A blow on top to head neurological deficit in upper
d. Acute hyper flexion of the limb is
spine a. Polio
1. Jefferson’s # is b. Erb’s palsy
a. C1 c. C1-C2 dislocation
b. C2 d. Fracture dislocation of
c. C2 C1 cervical spine
d. C2 C3

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1. All of the following are features 1. X-ray showing decreased

of musculocutaneous nerve intervertebral space and
injury at axilla except presence of para vertebral
a. Loss of flexion of shadow. What could be the
shoulder diagnosis?
b. Loss of flexion of elbow a. Tuberculosis of spine
c. Loss of supination of b. Ankylosing spondylitis
forearm c. Eosinophilic granuloma
d. Loss of sensation on d. Multiple myeloma
radial side of forearm 1. The ideal surgical treatment for
1. The following is the commonest pott’s paraplegia is
cause of loose body in joint a. Laminectomy and
a. Osteoarthritis decompression
b. Osteochondral fracture b. Anterior decompression
c. Synovial chondromatosis and bone grafting
d. Osteochondritis dissecans c. Anterolateral
1. Disease where distal decompression
interphalangeal joint is d. Costotransversectomy
characteri-stically involved 1. Short long bones of hand and
a. Psoriatic arthritis foot are commonly infected by
b. Rheumatoid the following organism
c. SLE a. Pyogenic
d. Gout b. Tuberculosis
1. Biamboo spine is seen in c. Fungal
a. Tuberculosis d. All of the above
b. Rheumatoid arthritis 1. All are feature of joint
c. Ochronosis tuberculosis except
d. Ankylosing spondylosis a. Synovium is involved
1. MC joint involved in Gout b. Synovial fluid has < 20%
a. Knee blood sugar
b. Hip c. Kissing arthritis –
c. MP joint of the big toe subchondral bone is
d. MP joint of thumb involved
1. Earliest radiological sign of d. Pain is a common feature
spinal tuberculosis is 1. Simple bone cyst is seen most
a. Wedging of vertebra commonly in
b. Syndesmophyte a. Tibia
formation b. Radius
c. Formation of c. Femur
paravertebral abscess d. Humerus
d. Decreased joint space

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1. Soap bubble appearance at

lower end of radius, the
treatment of choice is
a. Local excision
b. Excision and bone
grafting
c. Amputation
d. Radiotherapy
1. Most common site of origin of
adamantinoma is
a. Mandible near molar
tooth
b. Middle alveolar margins
c. Hard palate
d. Mandible near symphisis
menti
1. Most common benign tumor of
the bone is
a. Giant cell tumor
b. Simple bone cyst
c. Osteochondroma
d. Enchondroma
1. A 60 yrs old male has bone
pain, vertebral collapse,
fracuture pelvis, the probable
diagnosis is
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Secondaries
c. TB
d. Hemangioma of bone
1. Metastases least common in
a. Skull
b. Pelvis
c. Proximal part of long
bones of the upper limb
d. Small bones of the hand

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1. C 46.D 91 13
2. A 47.D . A 6. D
3. C 48.B 92 13
4. D 49.D . C 7. A
5. B 50.B 93 13
6. C 51.B . A 8. D
7. C 52.B 94 13
8. A 53.B . C 9. C
9. A 54.A 95 14
10.A 55.D . B 0. D
11.D 56.D 96 14
12.B 57.A . B 1. A
13.A 58.B 97 14
14.C 59.A . C 2. B
15.C 60.B 98 14
16.C 61.B . C 3. B
17.C 62.A 99 14
18.B 63.C . B 4. B
19.D 64.A 10 14
20.C 65.B 0. B 5. D
21.D 66.A 10 14
22.A 67.C 1. B 6. B
23.C 68.C 10 14
24.C 69.C 2. A 7. A
25.B 70.A 10 14
26.B 71.C 3. A 8. C
27.B 72.C 10 14
28.A 73.A 4. B 9. A
29.A 74.D 10 15
30.C 75.B 5. A 0. D
Answer 31.C 76.A 10
32.D 77.C 6. A
33.C 78.D 10
34.D 79.D 7. A
35.D 80.A 10
36.C 81.C 8. D
37.C 82.B 10
38.C 83.B 9. B
39.C 84.D 11
40.C 85.A 0. A
41.D 86.A 11
42.D 87.C 1. C

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43.B 88.C 11 13
44.D 89.D 2. D 3. C
45.D 90.A 11 13
3. A 4. B
11 13
4. A 5. A
11
5. D
11
6. D
11
7. B
11
8. A
11
9. B
12
0. B
12
1. A
12
2. A
12
3. C
12
4. B
12
5. B
12
6. C
12
7. B
12
8. A
12
9. B
13
0. C
13
1. C
13
2. D

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ENT & Ortho For Anglofibroma of Nasopharynx, The Most Appropriate

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ENT & Ortho For Anglofibroma of Nasopharynx, The Most Appropriate

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KIMS ENT & Ortho I.

1. For anglofibroma of a. Squamous tympanic

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b. Towards the same side c. To maintain the

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b. Acoustic neuroma a. Right lateral basal

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d. Ampicillin d. Cortical mastoidectomy

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a. Lesser occipital nerve c. Chondroma

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c. Cortilymph d. Thin odourless fluid

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1. A 30-year old woman with b. Behind the opening of

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a. Oropharynx d. Obstruction by foreign

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examination his right vocal cord b. Bilateral incomplete

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d. All of the above c. Fracture neck of femur

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costo Clavicular c. Hammate

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Right hip joint. The clinical 1. True regarding Hangman’s

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1. All of the following are features 1. X-ray showing decreased

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1. Soap bubble appearance at

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