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2.Regarding tetanus: A) failure to culture Clostridium tetani from the wound would make the
diagnosis doubtful B) infection confers lifelong immunity C) there is a characteristic EEG
D) Clostridium-specific intravenous immunoglobulin is of no benefit once spasm has started
E) cephalic tetanus causes severe dysphagia
4. Cutaneous anthrax: A) causes a black eschar which overlies pus B) lesions are usually painful and
tender C) lesions are associated with marked oedema D) has a mortality of 20% despite antibiotics
E) is very likely to occur in people exposed to anthrax spores
8. Falciparum malaria: A) acute infection is not associated with splenomegaly B) is associated with
periodic fever in a minority of cases C) has an incubation period of 8-15 days D) may present as a
gastroenteritis E) may be treated with primaquine
9. Corynebacterium diphtheriae A) may cause skin infection B) is most unlikely to cause infection
in an individual with a positive Schick test C) mitis strain is generally more virulent than the intermedius
strain D) infection is often complicated by myocardial fibrosis after recovery from severe infection
E) toxin is better absorbed through the nasal than the pharyngeal mucosa
10. In amoebic dysentry: A) symptoms may resemble those of duodenal ulcer B) periods of
alternating diarrhoea and constipation suggest an underlying carcinoma C) the motions have a
characteristic sweet smell D) hepatic amoebiasis is a rare complication E) metronidazole is the
treatment of first choice
12. The following are features of Legionnaire's disease: A) it has a mortality of 15-20% in all cases
B) it has an attack rate of approximately 5% C) it is caused by a gram negative bacillus
D) fatal cases usually have renal failure E) patients who recover may have long term lung damage
from the disease
13. Insect borne diseases include: A) trypanosomiasis B) lymphogranuloma venereum
C) Dengue fever D) onchocerciasis E) schistosomiasis
14. In the CNS infected with the HIV: A) toxoplasma may give rise to focal neurological signs
B) HIV may be isolated from brain tissue C) pyrazinamide is effective sole treatment
D) Cyrptococcus neoformans most commonly cause cryptococcoma E) progressive multifocal
leucoencephalopathy is a direct result of HIV virus
15. The following typically cause multiple, painful genital ulcers: A) Circinate balanitis
B) Herpes simplex C) Chancroid D) Primary syphilis E) Granuloma inguinale
16. The follwing are true of rabies virus infection: A) it can be carried by foxes for several weeks
B) it can be harmless to small animals C) it is found only in the brain at autopsy D) fatal infections
always make dogs mad E) it can have an incubation period longer than 6 months
20. Some of the features of infectious mononucleosis are: A) Vesicular rash on the neck and body
B) Haemorrhagic spots on the palate C) Increased levels of AST (aspartate aminotransferase)
D) Arthritis E) Aseptic meningitis
21. The following statements are true of typhoid fever: A) the initial clinical presentation may be
mistaken for a psychiatric disorder B) spastic paraparesis is a recognised complication
C) neutrophil leucocytosis is usually a feature during the first week of illness D) can treated
successfully with cefotaxime E) heart failure is a recognised complication
23.In kala Azar A) Sandfly is the vector and promastigote is the infected form. B)Culture is not
possible in artificial laboratory media C) kedrowsky’s bacilli is used for CFT D) Oppourtunistic
infections lead to fatality E) PKDL is not diagnosed serologically
24. HIV reservoir in the body: A) Peripheral Blood B)Kidny C) Spleen D)Tonsil E)Lymph node.