9/30/13 Pilot Practice Page - Graded exam

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Here are your Practice Exam Results for Private Pilot Airplane:
49 question(s) answered correctly (82%) out of 60 questions asked.
You completed the practice session in 22 minutes (on time).
Warning! This Exams4Pilots site will only give you a general feel for the FAA written test -- it is not intended to be a complete test prep. The
FAA now changes test banks as often as several times per month and has changed the tests to discourage memorization (which, let's face it,
helps nobody). Furthermore, the FAA no longer publicly makes readily available the complete test banks which were the primary source of
data for this and all other 'free' sites (and also a few amateurly effort apps and services). Therefore this site (like most other books, sites,
and apps), while an ok 'taster,' is almost certainly not sufficient for you to learn the material and pass your test.
Fear Not! There is a solution. If you want to pass the Private Pilot Airplane knowledge test, truly understand the material, and become a
safe and proficient pilot, we highly recommend that you check out the Dauntless GroundSchool FAA Test Prep Series of products. Dauntless
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importantly, however, the GroundSchool preps contain detailed, often illustrated explanations so that you'll really understand the material
and be maximally ready for any question variations or nuances the FAA might throw your way. Additionally, you'll learn the stuff well enough
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9/30/13 Pilot Practice Page - Graded exam
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3003
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
Your answer:
B) Normal, utility, acrobatic.
4 comments
3011
Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?
Your answer:
B) V
X
.
2 comments
3013
What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
Your answer:
C) 14 CFR Part 43.7.
6 comments
3026
Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance
airplane, that person must have
Your answer:
B) received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that
person's logbook.
3 comments
3036
A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is
entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of
Your answer:
A) 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is
using to tow a glider.
0 comments
3068
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from
Your answer:
A) 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
0 comments
3091
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
Your answer:
A) Aircraft towing other aircraft.
0 comments
3099
9/30/13 Pilot Practice Page - Graded exam
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3099
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
Your answer:
C) 200 knots.
2 comments
3103
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to
operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
Your answer:
C) An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500
feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
4 comments
3105
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
Your answer:
C) The elevation of the departure area.
1 comments
3126
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
Your answer:
C) Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
0 comments
3128
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
Your answer:
C) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
0 comments
3132
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
Your answer:
C) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising
speed.
0 comments
3143
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and
below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
Your answer:
B) 1 mile.
1 comments
3145
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in
controlled airspace is
Your answer:
B) 3 miles.
The correct answer was:
C) 5 miles.
Subject Code: B09, Visual Flight Rules in 14 CFR part 91--General Operating and Flight Rules
0 comments
3170
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than
Your answer:
B) 5 miles.
9/30/13 Pilot Practice Page - Graded exam
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B) 5 miles.
The correct answer was:
C) 3 miles.
Subject Code: B12, Special Flight Operations in 14 CFR part 91--General Operating and Flight Rules
2 comments
3188
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
Your answer:
A) Biannual condition and 100-hour inspections.
The correct answer was:
B) Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.
Subject Code: B13, Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alterations in 14 CFR part 91--General
Operating and Flight Rules
0 comments
3199
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within
how many days?
Your answer:
C) 7.
The correct answer was:
A) 10.
Subject Code: G13, Reporting of Aircraft Accidents, Incidents, and Overdue Aircraft in NTSB 830--Rules
Pertaining to the Notification and Reporting of Aircraft Accidents or Incidents and Overdue Aircraft, and
Preservation of Aircraft Wreckage, Mail, Cargo, and Records
0 comments
3210
An airplane said to be inherently stable will
Your answer:
C) require less effort to control.
3 comments
3213
What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
Your answer:
B) To control yaw.
2 comments
3223
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
Your answer:
A) improved engine performance.
0 comments
3225
The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the
Your answer:
A) difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
0 comments
3256
9/30/13 Pilot Practice Page - Graded exam
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3256
What is true altitude?
Your answer:
B) The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
0 comments
3266
(Refer to figure 4.) What is the caution range of the airplane?
Your answer:
A) 165 to 208 MPH.
0 comments
3275
(Refer to figure 5.) A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
Your answer:
B) movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axis.
0 comments
3381
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a
Your answer:
A) heat exchange.
0 comments
3395
The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction
is primarily due to
Your answer:
B) friction between the wind and the surface.
0 comments
3406
Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to
Your answer:
A) develop convective turbulence.
The correct answer was:
C) produce stratus type clouds.
Subject Code: I25, Stable and Unstable Air in AC 00-6--Aviation Weather
For more information, your best resource is to read the detailed, professionally written explanations available
via the GroundSchool FAA Test Prep software and apps. Also, it is possible to reference the following (note:
links below may be dead):
AC00-06A, Chapter 6, Stable and Unstable Air
0 comments
3407
If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?
Your answer:
A) Stratus clouds with considerable associated turbulence.
The correct answer was:
C) Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.
Subject Code: I25, Stable and Unstable Air in AC 00-6--Aviation Weather
For more information, your best resource is to read the detailed, professionally written explanations available
via the GroundSchool FAA Test Prep software and apps. Also, it is possible to reference the following (note:
links below may be dead):
AC00-06A, Chapter 6, Stable and Unstable Air
9/30/13 Pilot Practice Page - Graded exam
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AC00-06A, Chapter 6, Stable and Unstable Air
1 comments
3427
When may hazardous wind shear be expected?
Your answer:
C) Following frontal passage when stratocumulus clouds form indicating mechanical mixing.
The correct answer was:
A) In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.
Subject Code: I28, Turbulence in AC 00-6--Aviation Weather
1 comments
3431
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?
Your answer:
B) Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.
0 comments
3434
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
Your answer:
C) Frequent lightning.
The correct answer was:
B) Continuous updraft.
Subject Code: I30, Thunderstorms in AC 00-6--Aviation Weather
0 comments
3444
If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62 F, what type
weather is most likely to develop?
Your answer:
A) Fog or low clouds.
0 comments
3473
(Refer to figure 14.) The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are
Your answer:
C) 080 at 21 knots and -7 C.
0 comments
3533
(Refer to figure 21, area 3; and figure 29.) The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR, and the aircraft is
positioned over Shawboro. Which VOR indication is correct?
Your answer:
B) 2.
10 comments
3558
(Refer to figure 25.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Majors Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro
Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340 at 12 knots, the true airspeed is 36 knots, and the magnetic
variation is 630'E.
Your answer:
C) 078.
14 comments
3609
(Refer to figure 26, area 3.) If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a
9/30/13 Pilot Practice Page - Graded exam
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(Refer to figure 26, area 3.) If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
Your answer:
C) 122.95 MHz.
The correct answer was:
A) 120.3 MHz.
Subject Code: J11, Service Available to Pilots in AIM--Aeronautical Information Manual
The following may help you understand this question:
122.95 is the CTAF frequency 120.3 is the tower frequency (not in operation) 126.35 is ATIS. When the
sectional shows "C" in solid circle, it indicates the tower frequency should be use when ATC is not in
operation, so A is correct.
Learn more efficiently from better explanations: Check out the Dauntless / FAATest.com test preps
which typically have much more detailed (and often illustrated), professionally written explanations for most
FAA questions compared to what you see on this site.
3 comments
3619
(Refer to figure 23, area 2 and legend 1.) For information about the parachute jumping and glider operations
at Silverwood Airport, refer to
Your answer:
B) the Airport/Facility Directory.
1 comments
3641
(Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is
Your answer:
A) 126.0 MHz.
2 comments
3656
What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
Your answer:
A) Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
0 comments
3668
(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits.
Front seat occupants..................415 lb
Rear seat occupants...................110 lb
Fuel, main tanks..........................44 gal
Fuel, aux. tanks..........................19 gal
Baggage....................................32 lb
Your answer:
B) Weight within limits, CG out of limits.
0 comments
3684
(Refer to figure 37.) Determine the maximum wind velocity for a 45 crosswind if the maximum crosswind
component for the airplane is 25 knots.
Your answer:
A) 35 knots.
14 comments
3697
(Refer to figure 39.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.
Pressure altitude3,750 ft
Headwind 12 kts
Temperature Std
Your answer:
9/30/13 Pilot Practice Page - Graded exam
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Your answer:
B) 836 feet.
The correct answer was:
C) 816 feet.
Subject Code: H946, Takeoff and Landing Performance in FAA-H-8083-25--Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical
Knowledge--Aircraft Performance
The following may help you understand this question:
Note The associated figure and Knowledge Code have not been verified.
Learn more efficiently from better explanations: Check out the Dauntless / FAATest.com test preps
which typically have much more detailed (and often illustrated), professionally written explanations for most
FAA questions compared to what you see on this site.
0 comments
3765
(Refer to figure 48.) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is
Your answer:
C) on the glide slope.
3 comments
3771
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits
Your answer:
B) two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
0 comments
3772
How can a military airport be identified at night?
Your answer:
C) Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
0 comments
3774
(Refer to figure 49.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?
Your answer:
C) Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at
position B.
2 comments
3780
The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is
Your answer:
B) 20 nautical miles.
6 comments
3788
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport,
requires radio communications be established and maintained with the
Your answer:
A) primary airport's control tower.
0 comments
3793
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360:
''TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...''
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
Your answer:
A) Northwest.
9/30/13 Pilot Practice Page - Graded exam
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A) Northwest.
0 comments
3797
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?
Your answer:
A) Ground control, on initial contact.
0 comments
3801
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code
should be selected?
Your answer:
C) 1200.
1 comments
3803
If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace,
the transponder should be set to code
Your answer:
B) 1200.
1 comments
3806
(Refer to figure 50.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on
Your answer:
A) Runway 22 directly into the wind.
The correct answer was:
B) Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
Subject Code: J13, Airport Operations in AIM--Aeronautical Information Manual
The following may help you understand this question:
The figure shows the wind direction using a TETRAHEDRON. This device points in the direction the wind is
coming FROM, in this case, the SouthWest. If we could land on runway 22, we would have a direct
headwind, but we can't since that runway is closed (marked with an 'X'). So answer A is out. So our only
choices are runway 18 or 36. Since the wind is from the South West, 18 would be the runway of choice, so
Answer B is correct. Answer C is incorrect because it would result in a tailwind, significantly increasing our
landing distance.
Learn more efficiently from better explanations: Check out the Dauntless / FAATest.com test preps
which typically have much more detailed (and often illustrated), professionally written explanations for most
FAA questions compared to what you see on this site.
11 comments
3817
(Refer to figure 52.) What information should be entered in block 12 for a VFR day flight?
Your answer:
B) The amount of usable fuel on board expressed in time.
0 comments
3822
Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been
activated?
Your answer:
A) Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.
1 comments
3829
When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
Your answer:
9/30/13 Pilot Practice Page - Graded exam
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Your answer:
A) above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.
0 comments
3833
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
Your answer:
A) All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
0 comments
3937
Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she
holds a current medical certificate?
Your answer:
B) The pilot.
0 comments
3938
What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?
Your answer:
C) Human error.
0 comments