Vcap5 DCD

VMware VCAP5-DCD
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 5 - Data

Center Design (VCAP5-DCD)
Version: 2.6
QUESTION NO: 1

When designing a storage platform, which of the following should be considered as part of the
overall design?

A. Capacity
B. I/O requirements of the applications to be supported
C. Disk latency tolerance
D. Growth rate
E. All of the above

Answer: E
Explanation:
A storage platform logical design requires in-depth analysis of factors that can affect applications.
In the case of storage, aspects that relate to the physical layersuch as the amount of usable
space required for services; the size, number, and speed of disks; and how fast the data is being
producedcould have a substantial impact to the storage platform.
Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches

QUESTION NO: 2

You are the technical designer for a vSphere platform transformation project. After conducting
SME interviews and using various platform information-gathering methods, you have created a
high-level design document.

This document specifies the following:

Requirements:

R1. The solution must not have a single point of failure.

R2. Production applications must not have an outage of more than 10 seconds.

R3. Data must be based in the UK.

R4. There is a 7-year retention policy for contracts.

R5. Applications should support existing and developing workloads for the next 3 years growth.

Spec of servers:

Web 1 vCPU, 2 GB RAM, 100 GB storage

VMware VCAP5-DCD Exam
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 2
App 1 vCPU, 4 GB RAM, 100 Gb storage

DB 2 vCPU, 16 GB RAM, 750 Gb storage

At a late stage in the software development life cycle of a production application developed in-
house, an unfortunate issue was identified when the application was deployed to the production
vSphere cluster. The production core stacked switch has capacity issues, and this is having a
serious impact on all applications for which the switch is providing network services. Within the
test system, the application works as intended in the single test VLAN and with a single-host
configuration.

Which of the following could be tried to help in this situation, from a vSphere perspective? (Choose
two)

A. Redevelop the application for a virtual platform
B. Place the application into a single-vApp network
C. Add DRS rules to keep network traffic within the same host, where possible
D. Configure network I/O control

Answer: B,D
Explanation:
If you limit the application traffic to a specific dedicated network (that is, a separate VLAN) and
using enforced DRS affinity rules, the application traffic will not traverse the ESXi hosts physical
network interfaces. This will ensure that the impact of the application is minimized, while also
ensuring that the application itself is not limited.
The application servers already have vCPU settings. This suggests that the system has already
being virtualized in both types of environments. Network I/O control could be useful in the event of
contention, but the role of a designer would be to plan to prevent contention where possible; other
options would be more beneficial. In addition, Requirement 5 specifies that the system should
work with workloads over the next 3 years. Network I/O control would suggest contention very
early in the platform history.
Chapter 4, NetWork - Logical and Physical Design to allow applications to flow

QUESTION NO: 3

Based on the information in the high-level design extract you have created a high-level design
document.


Requirements:






Spec of servers:




configuration.

, what storage protocol is unsuitable?

A. NFS
B. iSCSI
C. FC

Answer: A
Explanation:
The requirements state that the application uptime requirements would not be met if using
vSphere HA alone. vSphere HA would invoke a restart of guest virtual machines after at least 10
seconds.
VMware fault tolerance would meet the uptime requirements; a failover would result in zero
downtime of the application. This technology can be used only with VMFS; therefore, NFS cannot
be used in this design.
Chapter 4, NetWork - Logical and Physical Design to allow applications to flow

QUESTION NO: 4

Based on the information in the high-level design extract for question 2, which type of data store
would be required?

A. VMFS
B. NFS

Answer: A
Explanation:
Because fault tolerance would be the only VMware technology that would meet the technical
requirements, VMFS is the only choice here.

QUESTION NO: 5

Which of the following vSphere cluster technologies would meet the application requirements
specified in the high-level design extract you have created a high-level design document.


Requirements:






Spec of servers:




configuration.

A. FT
B. HA

Answer: A
Explanation:
vSphere HA would need to wait at least 10 seconds before a restart would be possible. This would
not meet requirements. In the event of a restart, it could be possible to be without the application
feed database for about 15 minutes. VMware FT would enable the service to be provided without
additional redevelopment.

QUESTION NO: 6

A project requirement _______________

A. must be achieved
B. can be set as aspirational but may never be achieved

Answer: A
Explanation:
A project requirement is a specific deliverable that the business has said must be provided at the
end of a project. It must always be achieved.

QUESTION NO: 7

A logical diagram shows vendor-specific information.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
A logical diagram shows the high-level components of a design or platform. It may include
descriptions such as data flow and entity relationships. However, it does not show specific vendors
(such as Dell or HP).
Chapter 2, Creating the design

QUESTION NO: 8

Storage DRS is enabled by default.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9

Storage DRS can be enabled and can balance I/O levels based on _______________

A. real-time stats
B. historical stats

Answer: B
Explanation:
Storage DRS can balance I/O by using storage vMotion. This would be based on historical values
for a period of time. Storage DRS would make decisions based on these figures. If the system
were using realtime stats, the machines could potentially migrate a lot more. This could have an
effect on the latency figures for some systems. The larger historical sampling in storage DRS
allows the system to make a decision with limited risk of impacting I/Ounlike moving a virtual
machine over and over again.

QUESTION NO: 10

The vCenter database is powered off ungracefully, along with a three cluster nodes in a separate
cluster. Will the failed existing ESXi host nodes restart correctly using Auto Deploy?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Auto Deploy enables an untrained IT professional to increase capacity while ensuring quality and
consistency within a cluster. However, there is a dependency on the vCenter server and Auto
Deploy server roles at different times. In this case, the ESXi hosts have already booted
successfully. This means that all subsequent reboots will be controlled using configuration from
the Auto Deploy server, not vCenter. If the vCenter database is impacted, the ESXi hosts will
automatically restore. Even in the event of no vCenter availability, hosts will use the last-known
copy of a distributed switch or the configured vSphere switch.
Chapter X, Putting it all together

QUESTION NO: 11

A best practice can change over time.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution. A new product will have limited
best-practice information except for vendor- or vendor-partner-based recommendations. The
longer a technology is used in a community, the more potential success; therefore, best practices
can change over time.
Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes

QUESTION NO: 12

Only a software vendor develops a standard process or configuration.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
may be recommended by non-vendor-related people. It is up to a designer to validate this
information rather than ignore it straightaway.

QUESTION NO: 13

A logical design can contain which of the following? (Choose three)

A. BIOS settings
B. Data flow
C. Key component relationships
D. High-level diagrams
E. Server host names

Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
A logical diagram can be used to show service components and how they relate to each other. A
logical diagram is high level in nature and is independent of the hardware used for a solution.
Chapter 2, Presenting the Data Gathered

QUESTION NO: 14

You are a VMware architect employed to design and build application environments and the
underlying platform for a software development company. The company is using a devops
approach and has engaged with you at the beginning of the first planning meeting/pre-sprint.

The software has yet to be written. However, you have some high-level specifications that are
subject to change at each of the early meetings.

The ______ is more logical for virtual machine sizing.
A. predictive sizing approach based on current software
B. adaptive sizing approach

Answer: B
Explanation:
There are two types of scaling approaches in virtual platforms: adaptive and predictive. Both
approaches are usable; however, a designer must work out which is the best approach for each
project.
The adaptive approach to guest virtual machine design is a major advantage that virtualization
technology brings to a datacenter. It allows a guest virtual machine to be created initially on a few
metrics or high-level requirements (such as a limited budget) and scaled (that is, grown, not
shrunk) through the virtual machine life cycle. In many cases, this scaling can be performed
hot/live without outage/downtime to the running applications.
The predictive approach, on the other hand, requires more planning and research, and you must
know the metrics before deployment. The advantage here is that once the virtual machine has
been deployed, only application maintenance is required. The application requirements are known.
Chapter 5, Design Approaches

QUESTION NO: 15

You are working on a hybrid cloud project, where production applications (yet to be fully
developed) are to be deployed. Which of the following is a project requirement?

A. The production data must be in the UK at all times.
B. The hosting partner provides sufficient resources without overcommitment to support
application load.
C. The hosting provider meets uptime expectations.
D. The development team provides the software on time.

Answer: A
Explanation:
A requirement is a definable and measurable project item. It must be part of the delivery, and its
removal cannot be justified.
Chapter 2, Definitions of Key Terms

QUESTION NO: 16

In the project life cycle, the ____________ defines the vision.

A. IT architect
B. software vendor
C. business

Answer: C
Explanation:
By reviewing the current configuration of a system and mapping the final status of components as
described in the vision, the business identifies the gap between the two. A gap state analysis is a
review of the items or tasks that are required to progress between the stages. Such an analysis is
useful in creating milestone plans, implementation orders, and so on.
Chapter 2, Gathering Information and Spotting the Gaps

QUESTION NO: 17

A(n) _____________ is an item that is taken to be true in the design phases but has not been
tested prior to execution.

A. requirement
B. constraint
C. assumption
D. risk

Answer: C
Explanation:
An assumption could impact your design. It is good to ensure that project team and wider business
are aware of assumptions and that they are agreed and validated as part of the design
consideration process.

QUESTION NO: 18

You are a virtualization consultant working on a DR project. You have proposed a solution that
uses SAN replication technology to replicate production virtual machine files. This meets the cold
standby requirement.

Which of the following could be a design constraint?

A. The hardware currently being used in the datacenter is out of support.
B. The company is undecided about the choice of centralized storage to be used in the enterprise.
C. The company is at the end of year 1 of a 3-year contract for the point-to-point link between Site
A and Site
D. This link is currently 10 MB.

Answer: C
Explanation:
An item from the current state analysis that would restrict or change a design choice is potentially
a constraint. Such factors can limit a design and in some cases prevent the realization of a project
vision.

QUESTION NO: 19

You are a technical consultant designing a solution for an online retail company. The project vision
is to deploy a hybrid cloud, with the internal team developing the website on internal infrastructure
and migrating production-ready applications to a hosting provider. The project is expected to ease
deployment and require less infrastructure capital expenditurewithout lowering application
quality.

Which of the following is a risk to the project?

A. The solution must adhere to ISO 27001.
B. Change control of the hosting vCloud platform is not under full control of the internal business.
C. The hosting provider outsources the platform support to the platform vendor.
D. The applications to be deployed on the production hosts are not fully developed, although a
beta exists.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The technical design process enables the platform designer to work in a methodical way and with
others who have similar objectives. A risk is that a project item could potentially prevent the vision
or aspects of it (requirements) from being created.
Chapter 1, The Technical Design Process

QUESTION NO: 20

A DR project requires a recovery time objective (RTO) of 4 hours and has a recovery point
objective (RPO) of 2 hours. The system fails at 8 p.m. on a Sunday evening. At what time is the
application expected to be available to the end users?

A. Midnight
B. 10 p.m.
C. 2 a.m.
D. 11 p.m.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The recovery time objective (RTO)also known as the return to operationis the amount of time
it takes to restore a service after a failure has taken place. The recovery point objective (RPO) is
the point in time to which the system needs to be restored following a failure.
Chapter 3, RTO, RPO, and All That Stuff?

QUESTION NO: 21

A project vision in some cases may not be achieved due to constraints, risks, and other project
factors. However, a project vision is required to guide a project throughout the life cycle.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
The technical design process enables a platform designer to work in a methodical way and with
others who have similar objectives. The vision is the endpointthe environment or situation
whereby the business would ideally like to be following the process.

QUESTION NO: 22

A software vendor-provided best practice should be adhered to ___________. (Choose two)

A. where possible, respecting other project requirements
B. at all times because the vendor wrote and designed the software
C. in the absence of other requirements as a guide to configuration

Answer: A,C
Explanation:
may change over time.

QUESTION NO: 23

An application has an SLA whereby the service must be restored in 4 hours, with 15-minute data
loss. Which of the following statements is valid?

A. The platform must provide the application with RTO of 15 minutes and RPO of 4 hours.
B. The platform must provide the application with RTO of 4 hours and RPO of 15 minutes.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Chapter 3, RTO, RPO, and All That Stuff?

QUESTION NO: 24

Which of the following type of discovery methods used in state-analysis techniques is more likely
to affect application or server performance.

A. Active
B. Passive
C. Both A and B

Answer: A
Explanation:
There are two types of discovery methods: active and passive.
Active discovery methods can run processes that are detrimental and can impact a system. They
normally require an agent.
With passive discovery methods, data is obtained in a non-impact, non-intrusive manner, with no
agents.
Obtaining and interpreting/presenting data such as this normally requires more experience.
Chapter 2, Selecting the Best Tool for the Job

QUESTION NO: 25

Which of the following diagrams which may be included in project documentation shows a
systems components and how they could affect/depend on each other?

A. Logical diagram
B. Entity relationship diagram
C. Physical diagram

Answer: B
Explanation:
An entity relationship diagram is a form of logical diagram than can be used to map service
component dependencies. It is independent of the hardware used for a solution.
Chapter 2, Presenting the Data Gathered

QUESTION NO: 26

Infrastructure qualities are guiding design considerations that can be used ___________. (Choose
two)

A. in the absence of project requirements
B. instead of project requirements
C. in addition to project requirements

Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Good design should meet the project requirements and consider the properties of assumed
platform design. Protecting data requires that a system be available and manageable, that it have
good performance, and that it be easy to recover and be secure.
Chapter 3, What Makes a Good Choice for Virtualization, and What Is a Good Design?

QUESTION NO: 27

In a stateless Auto Deploy design, which of the following is correct?

A. The vCenter has a direct impact in the event of an outage of this component.
B. The Auto Deploy server has a direct impact in the end of an outage of this component.
C. Both of the above statements are correct

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Auto Deploy feature is an excellent design choice for managing a mass installation of ESXi.
The vCenter is required for implementation; however, the requirement is independent of vCenter
version.
Chapter 4, Management/Platform Design

QUESTION NO: 28

VMware HA can reduce the requirement for disaster recovery planning and documentation.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
VMware HA can satisfy the majority of RTO scenarios. In general, a business can tolerate small
outages of less than a few minutes. When designed correctly, HA can satisfy this requirement
while providing hardware-level protection.
Chapter 4, The Importance of vMotion, VMware HA, and Fault Tolerance

QUESTION NO: 29
You are tasked with ensuring that a multitier application will restart correctly during an HA event.
Which of the following is required? (Choose two)

A. A specified restart priority for each machine in the application tiers
B. A vApp object
C. A DR and validation process for operations staff manual processes

Answer: A,B
Explanation:
A vApp is a logical container for guest virtual machine objects. When you use a container, you
have the ability to use key management functionality, which can dramatically help a virtualized
platform.
Automation allows a small number of staff to manage lots of virtual machines. Chapter 5, vApps

QUESTION NO: 30

Before the implementation phase of a project, all design choices should be ______________.

A. validated and justified to the business and project team members
B. documented, validated, and verified as vendor-based best practices
C. validated

Answer: A
Explanation:
The best validation is to place a platform under a typical test of what it will be faced with in the
fieldfor example, having a simulated number of users go through a workflow (perhaps a
website). A lot of these tasks vary with the type of application and are primarily application
functionality based. In addition, platform or infrastructure metrics are key for validation and for
information to be used within the operational documentation (for example, troubleshooting guide,
monitoring recommendations).

QUESTION NO: 31

You have been asked to review a vSphere HA design. The admission control policy is set to "The
number of host failures tolerated." The virtual machines vary in size, and use of VM-based
reservations is common. Which of the following should be recommended? (Choose three)

A. The platform has reservations removed unless specifically required by an application vendor
verified or workload verified requirement.
B. The platform should be configured with reservations based on resource pools
C. The platform should be configured with an appropriate slot size or the admission control policy
changed to a percentage based policy.
D. The platform should not be configured with reservations based on resource pools

Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
An admission control policy tells VMware HA how to calculate the resources it needs to reserve for
a cluster. It uses a combination of memory and CPU reservation configuration or, if no
configuration exists, a default low reservation.

QUESTION NO: 32

When given a project requirement for RTO to be satisfied, VMware HA can be used with
admission control enabled.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 33

DRS rules can help satisfy availability concerns within a cluster; however, if used extensively, they
may cause a performance issue with vCenter.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
DRS rules can be extremely useful for a number of reasons, such as redundancy, network
bandwidth, and performance management. However, if they are used extensively, functionality
such as DPM may become less effective (that is, hosts will not be able to power off due to rules
and will use more power than required).

QUESTION NO: 34

You are reviewing a VMware vSphere 5 cluster design. The system is designed to run DPM in fully
automated mode. DPM in fully automated mode ____ evacuate all templates when placed into
standby mode.

A. will
B. will not

Answer: B
Explanation:
DPM will not move powered-off virtual machines or templates. A real-life workaround is to turn off
fully automated DRS for these machines on a case-by-case basis and register them to a specific
host in the cluster for deployment usage.

QUESTION NO: 35

Has the configurable option "Failure Detection Time" in VMware HA has been removed in vSphere
5?

A. No. It is an advanced setting.
B. Yes. It is no longer needed due to additional storage checks in the VMware HA isolation
response process.

Answer: B
Explanation:
vSphere 5 will use datastore heartbeats in a disaster. Thus, this setting is no longer available or
supported in VMware vSphere 5.

QUESTION NO: 36

You are considering the correct option for a VMware HA cluster admission control policy. The
system is a hosted platform, and for business reasons, reservations will not be used. Which of the
following statements is correct?

A. The only admission control policy possible is based on failover host.
B. A default slot size will be used in place of reservations.
C. The percentage-based admission control policy should be used.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 37

You are designing a VMware HA cluster. In vSphere 5, VMware HA will take cluster resource
fragmentation into account and ask DRS to defragment the cluster, if required.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
In VMware vSphere 5, this HA functionality is fully automated and does not use any specific
custom settings with regard to reservations or slot sizes. VMware HA functions can request DRS
to migrate workloads across the system in multiple rounds of vMotion tasks. This can help
defragment the cluster and restart VMs that have been affected by a failed host.

QUESTION NO: 38

You are designing a VMware HA cluster. Due to project requirements, it has been agreed that the
admission control policy is based on the number of host failures tolerated per cluster. However,
because there are a number of small web servers and one large database server with large
reservations, the slot size has been manually configured. What is the impact of this configuration?

A. DRS will not automatically defragment the resources in the event of a failure.
B. DRS will automatically defragment the resources in the event of a failure.
C. DPM cannot be used in this configuration.

Answer: A
Explanation:
With the rebuild of vSphere 5 HA functionality, it is possible for VMware HA to ask DRS to
defragment a cluster if systems are not going to restart correctly. However, this functionality is
disabled if the default or automatic slot size calculation is changed using the override setting. In
situations like this, from a design perspective, a percentage-based admission control policy would
be more beneficial.

QUESTION NO: 39

You are designing a vSphere 5 HA cluster. One of the requirements is to ensure full collection of
log files in the event of an issue. Which of the following is correct? (Choose two)

A. By default, ESXi logs are not persistent following reboots.
B. The logs should be forwarded to a syslog server or vCenter dump collector.
C. The ESXi logs are persistent through reboots.

Answer: B,C
Explanation:
By default, ESXi hosts do not store logs persistently through reboots. To ensure full visibility of
logs, a syslog and/or vCenter dump collector is required for compliance and root cause analysis.

QUESTION NO: 40

You are designing a VMware HA cluster as part of a solution for a large enterprise. One of the
specific requirements is to remove the risk of impact to a DRS outage due to possible
fragmentation of resources leading to performance issues. Which of the following statements is
correct?

A. VMware HA will automatically protect DRS in the event of a HA event.
B. A virtual vCenter cannot be used in this solution.
C. vCenter heartbeat would need to be implemented to protect the vCenter and dependent
services DRS uses for this level of protection.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The vCenter can be protected by VMware HA but is a requirement for HA configuration. The
vCenter is also a requirement for DRS, DPN, network vMotion, and vMotion. For cases in which
functionality such as this cannot tolerate outages of several minutes in the event of a major event,
VMware has a product called vCenter heartbeat. It can give true application protection without an
outage to the vCenter application.

QUESTION NO: 41

You are designing a VMware HA platform based on vSphere converged network hardware and
softwarebased iSCSI storage. Which of the following is true?

A. vSphere 5 can provide protection for workloads in this design, using datastore heartbeats and
management networks.
B. vSphere 5 datastore heartbeats may not provide additional protection in this design if a physical
card containing the management and storage networks fails.

Answer: B
Explanation:
VMware HA will check storage heartbeats or a lock file (NFS v3) on datastores in the event that
the management network is impacted. By using a CNA and slicing the 10 GB up into smaller
chunks, it could be possible perspective to have a smaller number of physical NICs but with
multiple logical networks defined.
As a CNA can define network and storage configuration, it could be a major outage if the NIC
failed, and this would remove the extra protection the network storage heartbeats provide.

QUESTION NO: 42

DRS and vMotion can help increase consolidation ratios.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
DRS can be configured for fully automated mode and can review performance statistics on hosts.
Assuming that all workloads will not have the same peak period of time, you can load balance
workloads across the hosts and reuse resources in different scenarios through the working day to
increase consolidation ratios.

QUESTION NO: 43

A guest VM should be sized using ____________. (Choose two)

A. minimum applications specifications
B. initial workload
C. anticipated workloads

Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Allocated resources are shown in the guest operating system and are not guaranteed. The amount
depends on the unreserved resources available at the time. Assuming no functionality issues, you
can configure a production application to be guaranteed its projected workload, and the system
should deliver. Without a reservation, there is potential for a performance impact if there is
contention.
Chapter 5, Virtual MachinesFrom the Design Perspective

QUESTION NO: 44

You are a VMware architect designing a solution for a client with an existing site who wishes to
build a disaster recovery site. The operations manager has presented some information in the
kickoff meeting. The company has 1,000 VMs, and the average VM has the following specs:
18 GB memory

2 vCPU

100 GB

The company already has an existing vendor relationship with a hardware vendor and would like
to keep the existing storage solution roadmap in place. The following requirements are stated:

RTO: 15 minutes

RPO: 15 minutes

Uptime: 99.99%

The existing vendor relationship is a ______________.

A. risk to the project
B. constraint
C. vision

Answer: B
Explanation:
An assumption could impact your design. It is good to ensure that project team and wider business
are aware of assumptions and that they are agreed and validated as part of the design
consideration process.

QUESTION NO: 45

The RTO and RPO objectives can be achieved using VMware HA.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
The majority of applications do not require 100% uptime. VMware HA can be configured to restart
workloads within a few seconds. The software can be configured to produce a fully automated DR
and BC system. It is, however, not completely application aware and will depend on application
requirements to be proved useful. From a VMware admin point of view, VMware HA is very
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important and worth exploring in the design process.

QUESTION NO: 46

You are a VMware consultant working at a small managed services company. The company has
won a contract with a large company, Company A, to host its test and dev platform, with the
chance on annual review to host the production platform.

Although you have been engaged early in the project due to business requirements, the budget for
the project has already been combined with that for another DR project for another company,
Company B. The thought process for this decision is that, if needed, the test systems from
Company A have a lower requirement in the unlikely event of Company B having a DR event.

All the items have been bought and are to be delivered. Your role is to take the equipment
provided and construct, develop, and implement a scalable working vSphere platform. The
following requirements are stated:

Company A test machines must be provided with sufficient resources for BAU.
Company B systems can be made available with minimum impact to Company A.
For Company A, RTO is 7 days, and RPO is 1 month.
For company B, RTO is 1 hour, and RPO is 15 minutes.

Using a shared infrastructure in this way is a risk to the project.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
The technical design process enables the platform designer to work in a methodical way and with
others with similar objectives. A risk is an object that could prevent the delivery of the project
requirements.

QUESTION NO: 47

You are a VMware consultant working at a small managed-services company that has won a
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contract with a large Company A to host its test and dev platform, with the chance on annual
review to host its production platform.

Although you have been engaged early in the project, because of business requirements, the
budget for the project has already been combined with another DR project for another Company
B. The thought process for this decision is that, if needed, the test systems from Company A have
a lower requirement in the unlikely event of Company B having a DR event.

All the items have been bought and are to be delivered. Your role is to take the equipment
provided and construct, develop, and implement a scalable working vSphere platform.

The requirements stated are:

Company A test machines must be provided with sufficient resources for BAU.
Company B systems must be made available with minimum impact to Company A.
The RTO for Company A is seven days, with an RPO of one month.
Company B's RTO is 1 hour, and its RPO is 15 minutes.

The use of a shared infrastructure used in this way is a constraint to the project.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
An item from the current state analysis that would restrict or change a design choice is potentially
a constraint. These factors can limit the design and in some cases prevent the realization of the
project vision.

QUESTION NO: 48

You are a VMware consultant who has been hired to take over a mismanaged VMware vSphere 5
platform estate. You are presented with the vCenter administrator password and given the
following information.

1. The system has full production support from VMware.

2. The platform has been suffering from performance problems for two weeks.

3. No documentation exists.

Your role is to design and implement a platform that meets the following requirements:
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-
-
R001: Stable for current workloads
R002: Supportable by operations staff

Which of the following discovery methods should be used?

A. Active discovery
B. Passive discovery

Answer: B
Explanation:
There are two types of discovery methods:
Active discovery can run processes which are detrimental and can impact a system, and normally
requires an agent.
With passive discovery, data is obtained in a non-impactful, non-intrusive manner with no agents.
Data such as this normally needs more experience to obtain and interpret/present.

QUESTION NO: 49


The system has full production support from VMware.

The platform has been suffering from performance problems for two weeks.

No documentation exists.



The preferred method for information gathering in this case should be a passive discovery.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
There are two types of discovery methods:
Active discovery can run processes which are detrimental and can impact a system, and normally
-
-
requires an agent.
With passive discovery, data is obtained in a non-impactful, non-intrusive manner with no agents.
Data such as this normally needs more experience to obtain and interpret/present.

QUESTION NO: 50


The system has full production support from VMware.

The platform has been suffering from performance problems for two weeks.

No documentation exists.



The performance problem mentioned in the initial project information can be classified as:

A. A constraint
B. An assumption

Answer: A
Explanation:
An assumption is an item which could more than likely impact your design. It is good to ensure
that the project time and wider business are aware of these assumptions, and that they are agreed
upon and validated as part of the design consideration process.
VCAP5-DCD Practice Exam #2

QUESTION NO: 51

Active discovery methods require agents.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:

agents. Obtaining and interpreting/presenting data such as this normally requires more
experience.

QUESTION NO: 52

Active discovery methods require agents.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
agents.

QUESTION NO: 53

Passive discovery methods may impact the platform used for monitoring.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
agents.

QUESTION NO: 54

Active discovery methods may impact the platform used for monitoring.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
agents.

QUESTION NO: 55

An entity relationship diagram shows the physical attributes of a solution.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
component dependencies. It is independent of the hardware used for the solution.


QUESTION NO: 56

An entity relationship diagram shows the logical attributes of a solution.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
component dependencies. It is independent of the hardware used for the solution.

QUESTION NO: 57

If a vendor best practice details configuration that would not meet a project requirement, a solution
should ignore that requirement.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 58

A project requirement must always be met.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 59

A current state analysis is a project phase that is carried out to ensure that an architect
understands the complete environment at the beginning of a project.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
A current state analysis gives an architect a way to examine the road ahead. Any oversights at this
stage could have major implications for the project later on. By ensuring that the current state
analysis is completed thoroughly, you can prevent many potential problems.

QUESTION NO: 60

A current state analysis is a project phase that is carried out to validate the end of a project.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
A current state analysis gives an architect a way to examine the road ahead. Any oversights at this
stage could have major implications for the project later on. By ensuring that the current state
analysis is completed thoroughly, you can prevent many potential problems.

QUESTION NO: 61

A design choice guided by a best practice does not need to be justified.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
You should always be sure to include your justifications and selection criteria in your logical design
documents. These justifications are useful when you explain your approach during design and
milestone meetings, and they ensure that you are aware of the impact of the technical approach
and the components of the platform or solution you are building.

QUESTION NO: 62

The difference between the beginning of a project and the vision is also known as the
____________.

A. current state analysis
B. gap state analysis
C. upstream relationship
D. downstream relationship

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 63

The analysis of the difference between the beginning of a project and the vision is also known as
the current state analysis.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 64

An upstream relationship is a logical object or component that has dependency on other items in a
solution.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
In an upstream relationship, a logical object or component has a dependency on other items in the
solution. For example, a service running on an application server requires an Active Directory user
account to be authenticated. The application service must be started after the Active Directory
service. Therefore, the application server has an upstream relationship with the Active Directory
service.
In an downstream relationship, a logical object or component does not have a dependency on
other items in the solution. For example, say that a multisite web server crashes. The web tier
hosting multiple websites will crash; however, the downstream objects such as the database
server will continue to function. Backend processes that are dependent on the downstream objects
from the web servers can continue to function.

QUESTION NO: 65

An downstream relationship is a logical object or component that has a dependency on other
items in a solution.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
service.


QUESTION NO: 66

A gap state analysis is a review of the items or tasks required to progress from the current
environment to the vision.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 67

A component relationship diagram can be used to establish impact analysis.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
service.


QUESTION NO: 68

The vCenter is an example of a(n) _____ discovery tool.

A. active
B. passive

Answer: B
Explanation:
agents.

QUESTION NO: 69

A logical diagram illustrates how components relate to each other in a solution.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
logical diagram is a high-level diagram that is independent of the hardware used for the solution.

QUESTION NO: 70

A logical diagram may contain ____________. (Choose two)

A. relationship information
B. Data flow information
C. IP addresses
D. vendor information

Answer: A,B
Explanation:
logical diagram is a high-level diagram that is independent of the hardware used for the solution.

QUESTION NO: 71

VMware Capacity Planner is an example of a(n) __________ discovery tool.

A. active
B. passive

Answer: B
Explanation:
agents.

QUESTION NO: 72

Design choices are normally _____________.
A. justified to the business and project team
B. presented in a vendor-based best practice
C. presented in a business-led project requirement
D. all of these are correct

Answer: A
Explanation:
You should always be sure to include your justifications and selection criteria in your logical design
documents. These justifications are useful when you explain your approach during design and
milestone meetings, and they ensure that you are aware of the impact of the technical approach
and the components of the platform or solution you are building.

QUESTION NO: 73

During the information-gathering stage, an architect should _____________.

A. complete a current state analysis, using an active or passive discovery tool
B. interview and discuss the project with other colleagues and users of the platform
C. both of these answers are correct

Answer: C
Explanation:
The information-gathering stage gives an architect a way to examine the road ahead. It is a time to
validate requirements and current documentation. This should involve technical discovery and
interviews with users of all levels to ensure that information is not missed at this early stage.

QUESTION NO: 74

A project vision _______________.

A. is the required endpoint of a projectthe purpose for completing the process
B. can be achieved after several iterations of a project life cycle
C. both of these are correct

Answer: C
Explanation:
The project vision indicates the final state the platform should be in. It is the business-led
objective, which provides value and incorporates the infrastructure qualities.

QUESTION NO: 75

Which of the following is not a vSphere component to consider from a design perspective?

A. Network layer component
B. Security layer component
C. Storage layer component
D. Management layer component
E. Compute layer component

Answer: B
Explanation:
From a design perspective, the vSphere platform consists of five components, all of which are
highly linked. Good design is needed to aggregate these five components into a stable and
scalable platform.

QUESTION NO: 76

Vendor-best practices can be used to guide ______________.

A. configuration and design choices in the absence of project requirements
B. configuration and design choices in addition to project requirements
C. both these answers are correct

Answer: C
Explanation:
A best practice is normally based on experience with a successful implementation. By using these
configurations, known issues could possibly be avoided. Best practices should not replace project
requirements but can be used as a starting point, as long as the project requirements are satisfied.

QUESTION NO: 77

A vendor-best practice can be used regardless of project requirements.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
A best practice is normally based on experience with a successful implementation. By using these
configurations, known issues could possibly be avoided. Best practices should not replace project
requirements but can be used as a starting point, as long as the project requirements are satisfied.

QUESTION NO: 78

You are planning a vSphere 4.1 to 5.0 upgrade. The production datastores are 6 TB. Each
datastore consist of thee extents of 2 TB and is currently 65% full. The operations team would like
to keep the system as close to the current configuration as possible. The upgrade process also
requires as little service impact as possible. In addition, you wish to use storage I/O control as
soon as possible, due to a mission-critical business application requirement. Which of the
following would be the correct approach?

A. Create a new VMFS 5 datastore of 6 TB
Enable storage I/O control
Migrate the VMs using storage vMotion
Configure storage I/O shares as required
B. Upgrade the VMFS 3 datastore
Enable storage I/O control
Configure storage I/O shares as required

Answer: A
Explanation:
When a datastore with VMFS v3 is upgraded with extents to VMFS v5, the logical attributes and
extents are not changed. Storage I/O control cannot be used with datastores composed of extents.

QUESTION NO: 79

A logical diagram does not include ____________.

A. high-level components and how they relate to the solution
B. detailed information regarding the components, such as model of systems, IP addresses, and
configurations

Answer: B
Explanation:
logical diagram is a high-level diagram that is independent of the hardware used for the solution. It
shows components and relationships. In this example, the diagram would should the number of
datastores, size, and logic, such as replication and other settings.

QUESTION NO: 80

You develop a physical storage design after you develop a logical storage design.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
A logical design is used to create a physical design. The logic and relationships should be capable
of being deployed using any vendor.

QUESTION NO: 81

Which of the following VMware vSphere functionality can help control real-time storage issues?

A. Storage DRS
B. Storage I/O control

Answer: B
Explanation:
Storage I/O control can be used to monitor and ensure the amount of I/O at contention time. This
is based on real-time stats and requires a support storage system. Storage DRS uses an average
of I/O usage.

QUESTION NO: 82

You are working as a platform designer for a large hosting provider. You are considering the
scalability of a solution that is projected as 50 hosts and 1,500 virtual machines. A VCSA is a
project requirement. Which of the following is true?

A. The VCSA will scale to 5 hosts and 50 VMs and thus is a risk to project scalability.
B. The VCSA can be configured to use a remote SQL database to meet project scalability.
C. The VCSA should be configured to use a remote DB2 or Oracle database.

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 83

A host has four dual-port network cards. What is the maximum number of vSwitches that can be
integrated with the physical network, assuming that network redundancy is not a requirement?

A. 8
B. 4
C. 64
D. 512

Answer: A
Explanation:
An ESXi physical NIC can be assigned to only one vSwitch at a time. For example, a host with five
NICs can have a maximum of five vSwitches that can link to the outside world.

QUESTION NO: 84

How do you understand and predict the resources available for VMware HA to meet specific
project requirements?

A. Configure the appropriate admission control policy
B. Disable admission control policy

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 85

The admission control policy Host failure the cluster tolerates calculates slot size using the
combination of the ______________.

A. largest reservation for memory and CPU in the cluster
B. average usages of memory and CPU in the cluster

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 86

You are considering the use of the VCSA. Which of the following use cases would invalidate
VCSA as a design choice?

A. VMware View Composerlinked clones
B. Auto Deploy
C. Use of sys prep and virtual guest template
D. vCenter linked mode

Answer: A
Explanation:
The simplicity of VCSA makes it a compelling design choice for deployments. However, items that
are not supportedsuch as linked mode and linked clonesare showstoppers if they are
declared project requirements.

QUESTION NO: 87

Auto Deploy can be used with _______________.

A. The VCSA only
B. the Windows version of the vCenter only
C. both versions of the vCenter

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Auto Deploy feature is an excellent design choice for managing a mass installation of ESXi.
The vCenter is required for implementation; however, the requirement is independent of vCenter
version.

QUESTION NO: 88

If the event of a vCenter failure, which of the following is not true?

A. VMware vMotion is not possible.
B. DRS functionality is lost.
C. Auto deployment of existing ESXi hosts is impossible.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Auto Deploy feature requires the vCenter for the original deployment and configuration.
Following the first boot, unless a change has been added in the Auto Deploy rules, the subsequent
reboots have a dependency on the Auto Deploy server, not the vCenter.

QUESTION NO: 89

Network vMotion requires ______________.

A. network I/O control
B. distributed switches
C. a Vmkernal port marked as Network vMotion

Answer: B
Explanation:
Network vMotion is an Enterprise plus feature provided by the vDS that allows network stats to be
collected, regardless of guestto-host migrations (vMotion). Without a vDS, metrics are lost after a
machine is migrated.

QUESTION NO: 90

VMware HA can protect application corruption issues by using VM monitoring functionality.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
VM monitoring is the function whereby a virtual machine is restarted when the virtual machine
heartbeat has stopped (such as with a blue screen of death on a Windows machine). The machine
is simply restarted on the same host (that is, not migrated). However, the system would lose data
from the point of corruption.

QUESTION NO: 91

VMware HA may not restart all guest workloads if _______________.

A. admission control policy is disabled
B. the resources are fragmented between nodes in the cluster and DRS is not in fully automated
mode
C. the master ESXi node has crashed

Answer: B
Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 92

During a vCenter outage caused by a host power issue, a member of the operations team created
an emergency guest VM by connecting directly to one of the hosts. The cluster was enabled for
VMware HA at the time of the vCenter outage. In the event of further problems in the datacenter,
is the newly created VM protected by HA?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
The vCenter manages the update of the VMware HA protected list. When you add a machine
while the vCenter is out of service, the list will not be updated.

QUESTION NO: 93

When designing a system for VMware HA functionality, which of the following considerations is not
an impact to the design?

A. The size of the host
B. The number of hosts
C. Application compatibility with VMware platforms using HA

Answer: C
Explanation:
The simplicity of VMware HA is one of the many design benefits. If an application or guest virtual
machine is running on a vSphere platform, the system is compatible from a high level with
VMware HA. It is purely an automated restart from a functionality perspective.

QUESTION NO: 94

VMware fault tolerance requires a cluster-aware application within the guest workload.

A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
VMware fault tolerance, subject to its requirements, can add redundancy without affecting the
application configuration. The guest workload can be a single-instance item.

QUESTION NO: 95

The use of VMware host profiles can aid in _____________.

A. configuration management
B. change management
C. both these answers are correct

Answer: C
Explanation:
Host profiles are an enterprise plus feature which allows a configuration to be applied to a host of
group of hosts. Following scanning, the systems can be automatically repaired or reported in
terms of status when compared to the scan reference point.

QUESTION NO: 96

The method of guest VM backup can have an effect on the size of datastores used in a vSphere
platform.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
The RTO and RPO requirements and available hardware used in a solution can impact the size of
datastores by limiting the amount of data that can be practically restored. This amount of data is
the max size of the datastore.

QUESTION NO: 97
From an operations management perspective, a design should not plan to use a virtual vCenter in
a fully automated DRS cluster.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
There are no reason a virtual vCenter should not be used from an operations management
perspective. There should, however, be a process for managing the handling of a virtual vCenter
outage (for example, DRS VM-to-host affinity rules and lockdown mode behavior).

QUESTION NO: 98

You have been sent a query regarding a platform you have just designed and implemented.
Following a maintenance window where VMware HA was disabled, the VMware HA settings were
lost. How would you prevent this issue?

A. Back up the vCenter database and restore it if the problem reoccurs.
B. Instruct the team to use the Host monitoring tab functionality.
C. Instruct the team to use the VM monitoring tab functionality.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Disabling the vSphere HS cluster settings will change the entire configuration of the cluster from
the HS perspective. If the Host Monitoring checkbox is selected, it will allow the configuration to
remain; however, the isolation response or outage response will not occur.

QUESTION NO: 99

VMware HA in vSphere 5.0 cannot survive more than five primary host failures. Thus, hosts
should be physically placed in different racks, where possible, to avoid substantial impact.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
This was true for VMware HA solutions prior to version 5. vSphere 5 can withstand multiple
failures and uses a master/slave topology with a reelection process.

QUESTION NO: 100

The size of a host can affect the business impact in the event of a VMware HA event.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
The size and number of VMs running on a system can affect the impact of a system failure. For
example, a larger per-host configuration with a smaller number of hosts per cluster would normally
have a larger consolidation ratio; however, in the event of a failure, more guest VMs would be
restarted, and this would be more likely to impact more applications.

QUESTION NO: 101

A guest VM has a 8 GB allocated to it. What is the size of the swap file?

A. 8 GB minus the reservation
B. It depends on the limit configuration.
C. 8 GB

Answer: A
Explanation:
The size of the swap space is the maximum amount of allocated memory that could be reallocated
to another VM in the event of contention. This is expressed as the size of configured memory
minus the reservation.

QUESTION NO: 102
A guest VM has a 24 GB allocated to it and a 13 GB reservation. What is the size of the swap file?
B. 8 GB
C. 24 Gb plus the Reservation

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 103

Which of the following settings could be utilized when performing a performance test on an
application server?

A. CPU Limits
B. Share Values
C. Reservations

Answer: C
Explanation:
To accurately understand the resource allocation , and compare against other tests in a virtual or
physical platform, an administrator can guarantee resources.

QUESTION NO: 104

How many vApps can a guest virtual machine be placed into?

A. 1
B. 64
C. 8
D. 12

Answer: A
Explanation:
A vApp is a logical container of guest virtual machine objects. The use of a container provides the
ability to use key management functionality, which can dramatically help a virtualized platform.
Automation allows lots of VMs to be managed by fewer staff. Although vApps can be nested, a
single virtual machine can be defined in only one vApp.

QUESTION NO: 105

You are a VMware technical contact for an application development project. The system consists
of a multitier application. In addition to you, the project team consists of three developers and a
project manager. You are required to create various environments for different stages of the
SDLC. The developers will be developing in silos on various hardware (laptops, Windows 7
desktops, vSphere hosted). Which of the following delivery methods would be the easiest to
manage and deploy?

A. Create the virtual servers using an in-house template and export each VM and present the
server OVFs to each developer for copying and importing.
B. Create servers for an environment and place them within a vApp object, export the vApp object
as OVF files, and present the OVF files to the dev team for editing and importing.
C. Create servers for an environment and place them within a vApp object, export the vApp object
as an OVF file, and present the file to the dev team for copying and importing.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Automation allows lots of VMs to be managed by fewer staff.

QUESTION NO: 106

VMware HA respects vApp startup order.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
Automation allows lots of VMs to be managed by fewer staff. Although the objects have startup
and shutdown automation features, VMware HA does not currently understand this feature;
therefore, at present, a manual process should be used to restart applications in the event of a
VMware HA event.

QUESTION NO: 107

vApp startup order can be configured to work with VMware Heartbeat status.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
Automation allows lots of VMs to be managed by fewer staff. The virtual machine Heartbeat is part
of the VMware tools service. Other application services can be made a high priority or a parent of
the VMware Tools service; in this case, on startup, waiting for the VMware tools service to start
before starting the next guest virtual machine in the vApp would assume that the application
service has started successfully.

QUESTION NO: 108

A vApp can be created with its own resource settings and requirements.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
Automation allows lots of VMs to be managed by fewer staff. A vApp can have resource
allocations applied at the vApp level, outside the resource pool configuration.

QUESTION NO: 109

Which of the following is true?

A. An OVF export of a custom vApp consists of multiple files.
B. An OVF export of a customer vApp consists of a single OVA file.

Answer: B
Explanation:
OVF (Open Virtualization Format) files are prepackaged virtual machines that can be created with
attributes such as EULA, IP settings, and so on. They can be imported into most modern
virtualization hypervisors, not just VMware, thus enabling businesses to deploy and share
applications simply by importing and exporting files, as opposed to going through a long,
complicated installation process. The OVF export has a number of files, while an OVA file is the
same logical product but exists as a single file.

QUESTION NO: 110

A guest VM has 50 GB allocated to it and a 2 GB reservation. What is the size of the swap file?

B. 48 GB minus the reservation
C. 52 GB minus the reservation
D. 2 GB minus the reservation

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 111

You are working on a virtual guest design for the deployment of a critical business application. The
software vendor has provided you with detailed application requirements for the projected
workloads. Which of the following scaling approaches does this describe?

A. Adaptive
B. Predictive

Answer: B
Explanation:
project.

QUESTION NO: 112

software vendor has provided you with very few application requirements for projected workloads.
Which of the following scaling approaches does this describe?

A. Adaptive
B. Predictive

Answer: A
Explanation:
project.


QUESTION NO: 113

You are a VMware technical consultant for an application development project. The system
consists of a multitier application. The team consists of you, five developers, and a project
manager. At the project kickoff meeting, you are tasked with creating the servers for each stage of
the development life cycle the team is using: development, testing, staging, and production. During
the meeting, you come to the conclusion that the technical specifications have yet to be defined or
will likely change. Which of the following scaling approaches for guest workload design would be
most appropriate?

A. Adaptive
B. Predictive

Answer: A
Explanation:
project.

QUESTION NO: 114

software vendor has provided you with some projected workloads. One of the project requirements
is to ensure that business application performance is guaranteed. Which of the following would be
the best approach for guest configuration?

A. Configure the virtual guest with a reservation, as specified, as the minimum requirement for the
application to run.
B. Configure the virtual guest with a reservation, as specified, as the projected initial workload
requirement.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Allocated resources are shown in the guest operating system and are not guaranteed. The amount
depends on the unreserved resources available at the time. Assuming no functionality issues, you
can configure a production application to be guaranteed its projected workload, and the system
should deliver.
Without a reservation, there is potential for a performance impact if there is contention.

QUESTION NO: 115

The VMware hot add and hot plug functionality is most useful for a(n) __________ scaling
approach.

A. adaptive
B. predictive

Answer: A
Explanation:
project.

QUESTION NO: 116

Application performance test cases are most accurate if based on ____________.

A. quantitative success criteria
B. vendor best practices

Answer: A
Explanation:
The best validation is to place a platform under a typical test of what it will be faced with in the
fieldfor example, having a simulated number of users go through a workflow (perhaps a
website). A lot of these tasks vary with the type of application and are primarily application
functionality based. In addition, platform or infrastructure metrics are key for validation and for
information to be used within the operational documentation (for example, troubleshooting guide,
monitoring recommendations).

QUESTION NO: 117

An installation guide should contain _____________. (Choose two)

A. basic troubleshooting and baseline monitoring for verification purposes
B. entry criteria or requirements
C. justifications for design choices
D. best practices.

Answer: A,B
Explanation:
An installation guide provides engineers a detailed reference and process to install and verify a
solution. All relevant components and processes are detailed. It is also useful to include
troubleshooting or known issues, if any were experienced during the development and test
phases.

QUESTION NO: 118

An implementation plan should contain _____________.

A. a milestone plan
B. risks, assumptions, and dependencies on the activities in the implementation plan
C. order

Answer: A
Explanation:
-
-
An implementation plan gives all members of a project team a level of understanding of the
technical approach of a project, the number of phases, major tasks in each phase, and the correct
order for completing the tasks.

QUESTION NO: 119

You are a VMware consultant for a large enterprise running VMware vSphere 4.1. You are
reviewing the upgrade documentation created to take the company to version 5.X of the software.
The upgrade has several requirements, including the following:

Minimize the impact to the business applications
Do a full rollback, if required, for any issues not foreseen by the project team

You notice in the documentation that the upgrade to VMFS 5 is mentioned as being nondisruptive
and having zero impact on the technical solution. Is this technically correct?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
In this example, a VMFS 5 upgrade cannot be rolled back without extra scratch space and without
using storage vMotion. These things could add extra I/O load on the systems and affect the first
requirement.

QUESTION NO: 120

During an upgrade of VMware vSphere 4.1 to vSphere 5.0, several virtual machines appeared to
have lost network configuration. What is the possible cause of the issue?

A. DHCP server not available
B. Incorrect order of upgrade implementation steps
C. Incorrect drivers.

Answer: C
Explanation:
This can be experienced when migrating from a virtual machine hardware level and have an old
version of VMware tools installed. The guest operating system may not understand the hardware
and may create or lose information such as the MAC address and network settings. By upgrading
VMware tools first and then upgrading the hardware the correct drivers and software are present
for a non-impacting upgrade.

QUESTION NO: 121

An implementation plan is a set of instruction that provide sufficient detail for an engineer to
configure or install a platform according to a physical design.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
technical approach of a project, the number of phases, the major tasks in each phase, and the
correct order for completing the tasks. This documentation can be used to bring in skilled people
and to judge the project stability and progress throughout the implementation. The plan should be
detailed enough for technical personnel to understand the tasks being completed but without
detailing specific configuration and installation processes.

QUESTION NO: 122

A validation plan is a set of processes which prove that a project or a function of a platform has
been configured correctly and behaves as designed.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
A validation plan can range from a detailed test plan to high-level statements. It should not be
subjective. The best validation is to place a platform under a typical test of what it will be faced
with in the field for example, having a simulated number of users go through a workflow
(perhaps a website). A lot of these tasks vary with the type of application and are primarily
application functionality based. In addition, platform or infrastructure metrics are key for validation
and for information to be used within the operational documentation (for example, troubleshooting
guide, monitoring recommendations).

QUESTION NO: 123

A validation plan can be used to gather further requirements.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 124

A platform validation plan is primarily concerned with guest VM settings and application delivery
rather than VMware platform functionality.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 125

For effective VMware platform validation to take place, that platform should be _____________.

A. running test guest workloads
B. running workloads of projected application resource requirements
C. stress tested until failure to understand capacity

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 126

A good design ______________. (Choose two)

A. meets project requirements and considers infrastructure qualities
B. uses the latest best practices and considers infrastructure qualities
C. removes all single points of failure
D. considers the impact of component failure and subsequent mitigation

Answer: A,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 127
Vendor support may prevent an application from being virtualized.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
good performance, and that it be easy to recover and be secure. In this example, if an application
is not supported by the vendor, the business may be unable to meet SLAs.

QUESTION NO: 128

Which of the following are the infrastructure qualities?

A. Availability, manageability, best practices, scalability, backup
B. Availability, manageability, performance, recoverability, security
C. CPU, memory, network, storage
D. Management, virtual machine, compute, network, storage

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 129

You are VMware designer working at a company where a new business application is being rolled
out. The SLA requirements are RTO of 2 hours and RPO of 10 minutes. During a project team
meeting, the business user misunderstands this requirement. To illustrate the situation, you give
an example where the system becomes unavailable at 4 p.m. To meet the project SLA,
_____________. (Choose two)

A. the application must be brought online and be accessible to users by 6 p.m.
B. the application must be brought online and be accessible to users by 4:10 p.m.
C. when the application is brought online, the data must be from a version as of 3:50 p.m.
D. when the application is brought online, the data must be from a version as of 2 p.m.

Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 130

You are a VMware architect working at a company where a new business application is being
rolled out. Based on a conversation with the business, you establish that the RTO requirement is 1
hour, and the RPO requirement is 10 minutes. After months of successful use, the system crashes
at 3 p.m. To meet the project SLA, ______________. (Choose two)

A. the application must be brought online and be accessible to users by 4 p.m.
C. when the application is brought online, the data must be from a version as of 2:50 p.m.
D. when the application is brought online, the data must be from a version as of 2 p.m.

Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 131

You are a VMware architect working at a company where a business application is being rolled
out. Based on conversations with the business, you establish that the RTO requirement is 2 hours,
and the RPO requirement is 3 hours. Consider a situation in which the VMware platform is out of
service following multiple hardware issues. The application dropped from service at 2 p.m. To
meet the application business SLA, which of the following is true?

A. When the application is brought online, the data must be from a version as of 4 p.m.
B. When the application is brought online, the data must be from a version as of 11 a.m.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 132

You are a VMware designer working on virtualizing a business application. The SLA specifies that
the RTO requirement is 4 hours, and the RPO requirement is 9 hours. After months of successful
use, the system crashes at 1 p.m. To meet the project SLA, which of the following is true?

A. The application must be brought online and be accessible to users by 10 p.m.
B. The application must be brought online and be accessible to users by 5 p.m.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 133

You are VMware architect working at a large enterprise where a new VMware platform is being
installed.

Based on conversations with the business, you establish that the RTO requirement is 8 hours, and
the RPO requirement is 15 minutes. After months of successful use, the system crashes at 4 p.m.
To meet the project SLA, _____________. (Choose two)

A. the application must be brought online and be accessible to users by midnight.
C. when the application is brought online the data must be from a version as of 3:45 p.m.
D. when the application is brought online the data must be from a version as of 8 p.m. the night
before.

Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 134

The recovery time objective is the point in time to which a system needs to be restored following a
failure.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
it takes to restore a service after a failure has taken place.

QUESTION NO: 135

The recovery point objective is the point in time to which a system needs to be restored following a
failure.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
The recovery point objective (RPO) is the point in time to which the system needs to be restored
following a failure.

QUESTION NO: 136

When considering incorporating redundancy into design, which of the following should be
considered?

A. The impact of the failure
B. The likelihood of the failure
C. RTO and RPO values
D. All of these are correct

Answer: D
Explanation:
the point in time to which the system needs to be restored following a failure. In some cases a
business may be interested in functionality and just assume items such as redundancy. The
infrastructure qualities help consider aspects considered as good design.

QUESTION NO: 137

Which of the following factors should influence the decision of whether to virtualize an application?
(Choose three)

A. Whether it is supported on a virtualization platform
B. Licensing costs in a virtualization platform
C. Compliance considerations (such as inability to share infrastructure due to regulations)
D. Whether the software is custom and has not be widely virtualized in the field

Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 138

Which of the following describes the anticipated time until a solution component may fail?

A. Recovery time objective
B. Recovery point objective
-
-
C. Mean time between failures

Answer: C
Explanation:
the point in time to which the system needs to be restored following a failure. The MTBF is the
amount of time a component is predicted to fail and can be used with operational management or
design concepts.

QUESTION NO: 139

A well-thought-out request for change document contains __________. (Choose three)

A. configuration based on a known vendor based best practice
B. an implementation plan
C. a verification process
D. a change summary

Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
technical approach of a project, the number of phases, major tasks in each phase, and the correct
order for completing the tasks.

QUESTION NO: 140

You are a VMware platform designer at a large service provider reviewing a network design.

Two of the requirements are as follows:

R001: All traffic must be encrypted or separated.
R002: All components must be fault tolerant.

The current design involves software-based iSCSI storage with teamed 1 GB network cards for
the storage network. The iSCSI network has a uniqiue vLAN and network ID. The design ensures
that a different password is used for each LUN.

The current design meets both requirements.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
By using NIC teaming, iSCSI is configured in a fault-tolerant manner. However, it is not encrypted
but is separated; therefore R001 and R002 are satisfied.

QUESTION NO: 141

The use of software-based iSCSI storage allows encryption to be used in logical designs.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
iSCSI traffic is not encrypted by default. However, CHAP can be used with software-based
iSCSI.

QUESTION NO: 142

You are reviewing a vSphere platform design. The system is planning to use a virtual vCenter
server. Which of the following is not true if the vCenter fails when using this design?

A. DRS is unaffected.
B. VMware HA can protect and restart the vCenter.
C. The VCSA cannot be used.
D. vCenter must be configured in Linked mode.

Answer: A
Explanation:
DRS is controlled by the vCenter. vCenter invokes vMotion based on metrics. During the period
where the vCenter is out of action, DRS is not functional.


QUESTION NO: 143

You are reviewing a vSphere platform design. The system is planning to use a virtual vCenter
server. Which of the following is true if the vCenter fails when using this design?

A. DRS is unaffected.
B. VMware HA can protect and restart the vCenter.
C. The VCSA cannot be used.
D. vCenter must be configured in Linked mode.

Answer: B
Explanation:
DRS is controlled by the vCenter. vCenter invokes vMotion based on metrics. During the period
where the vCenter is out of action, DRS is not functional. VMware HA can mitigate against issues
by restarting the vCenter in the event of an outage.

QUESTION NO: 144

Which of the following is a logical boundary for vMotion?

A. Cluster
B. vDC
C. Folder
D. Resource Pool

Answer: B
Explanation:
By design, vMotion is possible from a logical perspective between the vDC. It is possible,
however, to have a stretched cluster and to not satisfy vMotion requirements. The logical
boundary is limited to vDCs.

QUESTION NO: 145

You have been asked to design a system with the following VMware functionality enabled:

-
-
-
R001: VMware HA must be functional.
R002: VMware SRM can be used between two sites for DR processes.
R003: You must be able to see all hosts from a single pane of glass.

From these requirements:

A. A vSphere 5.0 VCSA can provide an acceptable solution.
B. A vSphere 5.0 Windows-based vCenter can provide an acceptable solution.
C. The requirements cannot be met.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The VCSA can function with VMware SRM. However, for SRM functionality, both sites require a
vCenter installation. This would limit the choice of single-glass-pane management to Linked mode.
A Linked mode installation requires Microsoft technology in the ADAM instance, and thus
eliminates the VCSA choice.

QUESTION NO: 146

When using VMware HA, the larger the consolidation ratio, the smaller the potential impact to the
business in the event of a VMware HA event.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
VMware HA can satisfy the majority of RTO scenarios. In general, businesses can tolerate small
outages of shorter than a few minutes. Designed correctly, HA can satisfy this requirement while
providing hardware-level protection. Some design considerations are the restart time and impact
of the outage; the fact that the more VMs per host, the higher the consolidation ratio; and the
possibly longer time to restart along with its larger impact to the business.

QUESTION NO: 147

In a platform with two vCenters configured with Linked mode, one vCenter can be configured
using the VCSA.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
A Linked mode installation requires Microsoft technology in the ADAM instance, and thus
eliminates the VCSA choice.

QUESTION NO: 148

When considering scalability, the VCSA is not as effective as the vCenter installed on a Windows
platform.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
The VCSA can scale to the same size of the Windows-based platform when using a remote
database based on Oracle or DB2. Microsoft SQL, however, is not supported. The built-in
database is a DB2 version, which is only supported for small platforms.

QUESTION NO: 149

When deploying a vCenter solution for a vSphere design, continuous uptime is stated as a
requirement.

The use of vCenter heartbeat has been agreed upon and budgeted. The design consists of two
VCSAs.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
vCenter heartbeat requires a Windows-based vCenter installation, rather than the appliance.


QUESTION NO: 150

You are a platform designer reviewing a colleague's design. Based on vSphere 5, the platform is
designed to be scalable and provide continuous availability of the vCenter. The proposed design
utilizes VMware FT.

Does the design meet requirements?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
VMware FT currently only supports 1vCPU. The vCenter requires 2vCPU and above, depending
on the location of the Microsoft SQL database.

QUESTION NO: 151

Which of the following is not a basic component of a good design?

A. Vision
B. Scope
C. Conceptual design
D. Assumptions

Answer: C
Explanation:
The basic components of a good design are vision, scope, requirements, constraints,
assumptions, and risks.

QUESTION NO: 152

Which component of a good design is described as the quantitative statement of what the project
does and does not include?

A. Scope
B. Constraint
C. Vision
D. Assumption

Answer: A
Explanation:
The scope is the quantitative statement of what is included in a project, or, more pertinently, what
is not included in the project.

QUESTION NO: 153

A nonfunctional requirement _____________.

A. specifies what the system should do
B. is a detail that happens to be true but has not been tested or verified
C. specifies how the system should behave
D. is an attribute that can prevent a project from being completed

Answer: C
Explanation:
A functional requirement states something the system should do (for example, the system should
process transactions). A nonfunctional requirement states how the system should behave (for
example, the system should update its performance metrics every 5 seconds). An assumption is a
detail that happens to be true but has not been tested or verified is an assumption, and a risk is an
attribute that can prevent ta project from being completed.

QUESTION NO: 154

A functional requirement ____________.

A. specifies what the system should do
B. is a detail that happens to be true but has not been tested or verified
C. specifies how the system should behave
D. is an attribute that can prevent the completion of the project

Answer: A
Explanation:
A functional requirement states something the system should do (for example, the system should
process transactions). A nonfunctional requirement states how the system should behave (for
example, the system should update its performance metrics every 5 seconds). An assumption is a
detail that happens to be true but has not been tested or verified is an assumption, and a risk is an
attribute that can prevent ta project from being completed.

QUESTION NO: 155

A ____________ is an iterative process used to define a technical solution.

A. constraint
B. best practice
C. logical design
D. design methodology

Answer: D
Explanation:
A design methodology is an iterative process used to create a technical design.

QUESTION NO: 156

A ______________ design requires IP addresses and specific hardware selections.

A. conceptual
B. physical
C. logical
D. None of the above

Answer: B
Explanation:
A conceptual design is a high-level overview of the suggested system. Logical designs show how
subsystems interconnect or communicate. No attempt is made to select vendors or map out
physical products; rather, the logical design shows how the suggested components align together.
A physical design puts specific components and settings into place. It lists items such as vendor
products, IP addresses, and specific communication protocols. A physical design is a blueprint of
an architecture.


QUESTION NO: 157

Which design is created first?

A. Conceptual design
B. Physical design
C. Logical design

Answer: A
Explanation:
A conceptual design is a high-level overview of the suggested system. The conceptual design is
created first and is usually the starting point for the logical design.

QUESTION NO: 158

A logical design includes basic subsystems that the design will use and data flow directions, but it
does not include specific hardware or settings details.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
A logical design shows a high-level overview of the design without going through the details of the
design such as hardware and software selections and storage and network settings. The logical
design is usually the starting point for the physical design.

QUESTION NO: 159

A nonfunctional requirement is similar to a(n) _______.

A. constraint
B. functional requirement
C. risk
D. assumption

Answer: A
Explanation:
A constraint is an attribute that may limit a design choice. A nonfunctional requirement is a
behavior of the system, which may also limit design choices. A functional requirement is
something the system must do. An assumption is something that is decided to be true, without
testing or verification. A risk is an attribute that can prevent a project from being completed.

QUESTION NO: 160

Best practices should always be followed.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
Best practices are recommendations based on practical standards collected by VMware and
should always be used unless company business rules or functional requirements prevent their
use.

QUESTION NO: 161

Best practices can change over time.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
Over time best practices can change. For example, in older versions of vSphere, it was a best
practice to install vCenter Server on a physical host. Today, VMware recommends installing
vCenter Server in a virtual machine.


QUESTION NO: 162

Which of the following is not a reason to use virtualization?

A. Save money
B. Improve system performance
C. Save time
D. Make disaster recovery easier

Answer: B
Explanation:
Administrators often feel compelled to virtualize their server infrastructure for reasons such as the
following:

QUESTION NO: 163

Which of the following tools can be used to gather information for a current state analysis?

A. VMware vCenter Server
B. VMware Orchestrator
C. VMware Operations Manager
D. VMware Capacity Planner

Answer: D
Explanation:
VMware Capacity Planner records performance metrics over time to give a clear picture of the
current architectures performance. This information can be used to help build a current state
analysis that can be used to help build the new virtual architecture.

QUESTION NO: 164

Information gathered during the current state analysis include the number of sites, servers, or
devices; a list of applications and their dependencies; current usage; and known issues.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
Data such as the following may be gathered for a current state analysis:
Number of sites, servers, or devices
A list of applications and their dependencies
Current use and capacity
Known issues (for example, a specific piece of software is not supported in a virtualized platform,
an application requires certain hardware to run)
Forthcoming projects and future growth plan (for example, Will extra capacity be needed soon? Is
a critical point in the business year approaching?)
Licensing, support, and maintenance information
Business standards, policies, and compliance information

QUESTION NO: 165

If the design specifies an RTO of 3 hours and an RPO of 2 hours, and the system crashes at 8:00
p.m., the application be back online _______________.

A. by 10:00 p.m
B. ASAP
C. by 11:00 p.m
D. by 9:00 p.m

Answer: C
Explanation:
The RTO is the amount of time until a crashed application should be back online. The RPO is the
tolerated amount of data loss.

QUESTION NO: 166

An application has an SLA which states that the application must be restored within 12 hours, with
no more than 10 minutes of data loss. This means the application has an RTO of 12 hours and an
RPO of 10 minutes.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 167

An application has an SLA which states that the application must be restored within 12 hours, with
no more than 10 minutes of data loss. This means the application has an RTO of 10 minutes and
an RPO of 12 hours.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 168

The _____________ shows the system components and how they interact with each other.

A. logical design
B. implementation plan
C. statement of work
D. entity relationship diagram

Answer: D
Explanation:
An entity relationship diagram shows how a systems components relate to each other.

QUESTION NO: 169

The ___________ would not be considered a stakeholder in a design.

A. backup administrator
B. project sponsor
C. key application owners
D. data center manager

Answer: A
Explanation:
Key stakeholders should include the following:
Project sponsor
Key application owners
Server architecture leads
LAN/WAN architecture leads
Data center managers

QUESTION NO: 170

The phrase Lack of virtualization expertise on site is an example of a ______________.

A. constraint
B. risk
C. nonfunctional requirement
D. functional requirement

Answer: B
Explanation:
A risk is an issue that can affect the overall success of a project. A constraint is a limiting factor in
a design, based on current system behavior. A nonfunctional requirement is a system behavior,
and a functional requirement is what the system should do.

QUESTION NO: 171

The customer has decided that it will use the NAS it has in-house as its storage solution. What
type of design factor is this?

A. SLA
B. Risk
C. Nonfunctional requirement
D. Functional requirement

Answer: C
Explanation:
The customer is stating that NFS must be used in the design. This is a form of a nonfunctional
requirement. Often, nonfunctional requirements are similar to constraints.

QUESTION NO: 172

A recovery time objective (RTO) is ___________.

A. the point to which data has to be recovered after a failure
B. the amount of time it takes to recover a system from a failure
C. the plan to restore a system after a failure
D. an agreement with the customer on a predefined level of service

Answer: B
Explanation:
RTO is the amount of time it must take to recover a system from failure.

QUESTION NO: 173

A recovery point objective (RPO) is ______________.

A. the point in time to which data has to be recovered after a failure
B. the amount of time it takes to recover a system from a failure
C. the plan to restore a system after a failure
D. an agreement with the customer on a pre-defined level of service

Answer: A
Explanation:
RPO is the point in time to which the system must be restored after a failure.

QUESTION NO: 174

Mean time between failures (MTBF) is the ____________.

A. point to which data has to be recovered after a failure
B. amount of time it takes to recover a system from a failure
C. plan to restore a system after a failure
D. anticipated amount of time until a solution component will fail

Answer: D
Explanation:
MTBF is the agreed upon amount of time it takes to recover a system from failure.

QUESTION NO: 175

High Availability (HA) can prevent virtual machine downtime.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
HA restarts virtual machines when an ESXi host crashes. HA can reduce downtime, but it cannot
prevent it.

QUESTION NO: 176

VMware Fault Tolerance can prevent virtual machine downtime in the event of an application
failure.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
Fault Tolerance can only prevent virtual machine downtime in the event of an ESXi host crash.


QUESTION NO: 177

The infrastructure qualities of a good design are availability, manageability, performance,
recoverability, and security.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
The infrastructure qualities of a good design are availability, manageability, performance,
recoverability, and security.

QUESTION NO: 178

Which quality of a good design deals with backup and restoration?

A. Availability
B. Manageability
C. Performance
D. Recoverability

Answer: D
Explanation:
Recoverability deals with recovering from a component or system outage with minimal data loss,
in accordance with an organizations RTO and RPO.

QUESTION NO: 179

Which quality of a good design does NIC teaming and storage multipathing help achieve?

A. Recoverability
B. Performance
C. Availability
D. Manageability

Answer: C
Explanation:
Availability in a design permits the system to always be available, even in the event of outages.
NIC teaming, redundant hardware, and clustering applications are examples of availability options.

QUESTION NO: 180

Which design quality is concerned with creating an architecture that is easy to maintain and
operate?

A. Recoverability
B. Security
C. Availability
D. Manageability

Answer: D
Explanation:
When a system is manageable, the infrastructure is easy to maintain and operate.

QUESTION NO: 181

Performance requirements are usually presented as a service-level agreement (SLA).

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
SLAs are written to give the designer an idea about how the architecture is expected to perform

QUESTION NO: 182

The design process involves creating a conceptual design, using the conceptual design to aid in
creating the logical design, and then using the logical design to assist in creating the physical
design.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
A conceptual design brings forth the scope of the project. A logical design starts to show the
relationship between components, without selecting specific equipment. The physical design is the
exact drawing of the design, as intended.

QUESTION NO: 183

Which of the following is not part of the logical design?

A. BIOS settings
B. Key component relationships
C. Data flow diagrams
D. High-level diagrams

Answer: A
Explanation:
A logical design shows the relationship between components, without selecting specific
equipment. It shows the basic flow of data between components, key component relationships,
and high-level diagrams.

QUESTION NO: 184

Which of the following is not a component of a virtual design?

A. compute layer
B. resource layer
C. network layer
D. storage layer

Answer: B
Explanation:
The components of a virtual design include the management layer, the networking layer, the
storage layer, the guest VM layer, and the compute layer.

QUESTION NO: 185

What are the main types of storage? (Choose two)

A. Fibre Channel
B. local storage
C. VMFS
D. shared storage

Answer: B,D
Explanation:
From a VMware platform design perspective, the storage is agnostic. Logically, there are two
types of storage: local and shared.

QUESTION NO: 186

Storage tiering involves ______________.

A. priority locations to migrate virtual machines
B. grouping storage to be used first
C. categorizing storage by the size of the LUNs
D. categorizing storage based on performance to meet SLAs

Answer: D
Explanation:
Storage tiering categorizes LUNs by the performance they can provide to enable architects to
place workloads on the appropriate storage tiers to ensure that the workloads are within the SLA
standards.

QUESTION NO: 187
As a result of multiple design meetings, it has been stated that the company creating the virtual
architecture will be using a NAS device as its storage choice. There is a functional requirement to
run a Microsoft application in a Microsoft Cluster Service (MSCS) environment. What is the risk in
this setup?

A. The cluster will not perform well in a virtual environment.
B. The cluster will take up a lot of storage space, requiring an abnormal amount of storage.
C. MSCS requires raw device mappings, which cannot be created on a NAS.
D. There will be excessive IOPS as a result of the cluster.

Answer: C
Explanation:
If the organization uses only NFS datastores, raw device mappings cannot be created. A NAS
creates shares that accesses storage at the file level, rather than LUNs that access storage at the
block level.

QUESTION NO: 188

What practice should not be considered when using IP-based storage?

A. Using an isolated network for storage
B. Using jumbo frames
C. Placing the storage network on the physical switch as the management network
D. Using a 10GbE network

Answer: C
Explanation:
It is a good idea to keep the storage network physically isolated from all other networks. If this
cannot be done, at least consider logically separating the storage network via a VLAN.

QUESTION NO: 189

An activepassive storage array should be configured with the fixed multipathing policy.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
An activepassive array will have only one active path at a time. An array like this should be
configured with the MRU multipathing policy. An activeactive array has multiple active paths and
should be configured with round-robin or fixed-multipathing policies.

QUESTION NO: 190

What multipathing options can be configured with an activepassive array? (Choose two)

A. Fixed
B. MRU
C. SATP
D. Round-robin

Answer: A,D
Explanation:
An activepassive array will have only one active path at a time. An array like this should be
configured with the MRU multipathing policy. An activeactive array has multiple active paths and
should be configured with round-robin or fixed-multipathing policies.

QUESTION NO: 191

Which of the following could be considered a single point of failure for storage?

A. Using RAID 5 instead of RAID 10
B. Using single-port HBAs in an ESXi host
C. Using a dual-port HBA in an ESXi host
D. Not using jumbo frames

Answer: C
Explanation:
Using a dual-port HBA can result in a single point of failure if the HBA malfunctions, taking out
both ports. It is better to use two single-port HBAs.

QUESTION NO: 192

When selecting a storage device, you do not need to consider _______ metrics.

A. vendor
B. throughput
C. IOPS
D. capacity

Answer: A
Explanation:
IOPS, throughput, and capacity all have profound effects on how workloads will perform on a
storage array. Although vendor is an important decision, it typically has no effect on workload
performance.

QUESTION NO: 193

To balance IOPS and capacity within a datastore cluster, which of the following technologies
should be implemented?

A. vMotion
B. High Availability
C. Storage I/O control
D. Storage DRS

Answer: D
Explanation:
Storage DRS will automatically migrate powered-on VMs to datastores within a storage cluster in
order to balance the capacity and IOPS among member datastores.

QUESTION NO: 194

HA is a disaster recovery solution.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
HA provides automatic recovery of virtual machines in the event of an ESXi host crash.

QUESTION NO: 195

A physical adapter can belong to only one virtual switch.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
A physical adapter can be assigned to only one virtual switch. Once it is assigned, it no longer
shows up on the available adapter list.

QUESTION NO: 196

Consider leaving about 20% of a datastore available for _____________.

A. larger virtual machines
B. vMotion
C. snapshots
D. I/O overhead

Answer: C
Explanation:
About 20% of a datastore should be left unused to provide space for swap files, snapshots,
storage overhead, and future growth.

QUESTION NO: 197

Which of the following is not considered vSphere network traffic?

A. IP storage
B. VM network
C. Storage vMotion
D. vMotion

Answer: C
Explanation:
vSphere network traffic includes VM network, vMotion, IP storage, FT traffic, and management
network traffic.

QUESTION NO: 198

By default, Storage DRS is enabled.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
Storage DRS is used to balance IOPS and capacity among member datastores within a storage
cluster. By default, it is disabled.

QUESTION NO: 199

Which type of VLAN requires no configuration of vSphere?

A. Virtual switch tagging
B. VLAN trunking
C. Virtual guest tagging
D. External switch tagging

Answer: D
Explanation:
External switch tagging applies to VLANs that are created on physical switches only. The
vSphere environment is not aware of the VLANs.

QUESTION NO: 200

In which type of VLAN does adding and removing the VLAN tag occur at the virtual switch?

B. VLAN trunking

Answer: A
Explanation:
When VLANs are configured on a virtual switch, the VLAN tag is added to outbound traffic and
removed on inbound traffic.

QUESTION NO: 201

A network design has a requirement to have five total networks that are physically separated from
one another.

The design requires that there be no single points of failure on the network. Based on this
information, how many network adapters are needed?

A. 5
B. 2, with the use of VLANs
C. 1
D. 10

Answer: D
Explanation:
Since there is a requirement that physical separation is required for the five different networks,
VLANs will not satisfy the design. To ensure that there is no single point of failure, each virtual
switch will require 2 adapters per virtual switchfor a total of 10.

QUESTION NO: 202

In which type of VLAN does adding and removing the VLAN tag occur at the virtual switch?

B. VLAN trunking

Answer: C
Explanation:
Virtual guest tagging occurs when the guest operating systems inside the virtual machines adds
the VLAN tags the network traffic.

QUESTION NO: 203

What topics need to be considered when creating a storage design?

A. Application I/O requirements
B. Growth rate
C. Latency
D. All of the above

Answer: D
Explanation:
When creating a storage design, you have to ensure that the architecture can tolerate the
application storage requirements. This includes providing the proper IOPS, limiting latency, and
being able to adjust to growth over time.

QUESTION NO: 204

A functional requirement ____________.

A. should be a part of the design
B. is important only when youre putting together the logical design
C. must be accounted for in the design
D. is not important

Answer: C
Explanation:
A functional requirement is an operation the design must perform. All functional requirements must
be accounted for in the design.


QUESTION NO: 205

A physical design includes specific vendor information, IP addresses, IQN addresses, and exact
wiring connections.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
A physical design is an exact diagram of how the system is intended to be built. The technical
design should answer all technical questions.

QUESTION NO: 206

Private VLANs are required for the design. Which vSphere licensing edition is required?

A. Essentials
B. Enterprise Plus
C. Enterprise
D. Standard

Answer: B
Explanation:
Private VLANs require distributed virtual switches, which are available only with the Enterprise
Plus licensing edition.

QUESTION NO: 207

A functional requirement in a design requires management, IP-based storage, vMotion, and virtual
machine traffic to be physically separated. Which option best fulfills the functional requirement?

A. Using a single virtual switch, applying VLANS for each traffic type, and configuring the physical
adapters to use different physical switches
B. Using distributed virtual switches
C. Using a different virtual switch for each type of traffic and having all network adapters use the
same physical switch
D. Using a different virtual switch for each type of traffic and having the physical adapters use
different physical switches

Answer: D
Explanation:
VLANs can be used to logically separate network traffic. Separate virtual switches will physically
separate the traffic on the ESXi host, but using a single physical switch introduces a single point of
failure. The best answer is D: Using different physical switches will allow for redundancy.

QUESTION NO: 208

The vCenter Server should be deployed as a virtual machine and should be configured with fault
tolerance.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
Fault tolerance works only with a virtual machine that uses a single virtual CPU. One of the
requirements of vCenter Server is to use at least two virtual CPUs. Using fault tolerance with the
vCenter Server is not supported.

QUESTION NO: 209

A number of factors determine how many physical adapters are needed in a host design. Which of
the following is not one of them?

A. Virtual machine size
B. Amount of bandwidth required
C. Security requirements
D. Hardware fault tolerance

Answer: A
Explanation:
Virtual machine size has no effect on the network.

QUESTION NO: 210

It is a best practice to physically separate storage networks from the rest of the network traffic.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
From a security standpoint, it is a risk to mix storage traffic with user traffic. Users can attempt to
interrogate the storage traffic. A separate storage network helps prevent oversubscribing of the
network.

QUESTION NO: 211

Which networking feature should be configured to improve storage performance?

A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Traffic shaping on the storage network
C. Jumbo frames
D. Promiscuous mode for the storage port group

Answer: C
Explanation:
Jumbo frames provide a larger MTU (maximum transmission unit) that enables a typical frame to
hold more actual payload data, which can result in better storage performance.

QUESTION NO: 212

____________ can be configured to ensure that a type of traffic receives priority for bandwidth
when bandwidth is congested?

A. SIOC
B. NIOC
C. Shares
D. Reservations

Answer: B
Explanation:
Network I/O Control (NIOC) allows you to assign shares to different types of network traffic. The
more shares a type of network traffic has, the higher percentage of the available bandwidth the
traffic type will get when network bandwidth is completely congested.

QUESTION NO: 213

Which of the following needs to be considered when determining the amount and size of the hosts
required for a virtual design?

A. Aggregate CPU and memory requirements
B. Future growth
C. Number of vCPUs to be hosted per box
D. All of the above

Answer: D
Explanation:
When attempting to determine the host requirements of a virtual design, you need to determine
aggregate CPU and memory requirements, number of virtual CPUs, number of cores available,
maximum utilization, socket and core availability, and future growth.

QUESTION NO: 214

In scaling an architecture, scaling up involves __________.

A. selecting a smaller number of large hosts
B. selecting a larger number of smaller hosts
C. using a combination of large and small hosts to satisfy virtual machine requirements
D. none of the above

Answer: A
Explanation:
Scaling up involves building your architecture using a few hosts that have large amounts of CPU
cores and memory. This method involves fewer hosts than a scaled-out architecture.

QUESTION NO: 215

In scaling an architecture, scaling out involves ___________.

A. selecting a smaller number of large hosts
B. selecting a larger number of smaller hosts
C. using a combination of large and small hosts to satisfy virtual machine requirements

Answer: B
Explanation:
Scaling out involves building your architecture using more hosts that have smaller amounts of
CPU cores and memory than what you would use in a scaled-up architecture.

QUESTION NO: 216

When selecting a compute server, the architecture should use servers that are identical in every
way possible, including components and the slots the components are installed in.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
Using identical servers ensures fewer issues with vMotion and aids in managing resource
utilization among servers.

QUESTION NO: 217

When considering server consolidation, plan on running ___________ vCPUs per core.

A. 1 to 2
B. 3 to 4
C. 4 to 6
D. 6 to 8

Answer: C
Explanation:
VMware best practices recommend running 4 to 6 virtual CPUs per core.

QUESTION NO: 218

When planning on resource use for the servers, you should plan on leaving resources available for
all the following except __________.

A. patching
B. maintenance mode
C. future growth
D. log file space

Answer: D
Explanation:
Consider leaving extra capacity for items such as maintenance mode, upgrades, patching, and
short-term surges in resource usage.

QUESTION NO: 219

Which of the following will still function if vCenter crashes?

A. HA
B. DRS
C. FT
D. Storage DRS

Answer: A
Explanation:
Although all the options listed require the vCenter Server for configuration, HA will work even if the
vCenter Server crashes. For this reason, VMware recommends running the vCenter Server in a
virtual machine so HA can provide the vCenter Server availability.


QUESTION NO: 220

Options for running the vCenter Server include _____________.

A. installed on a physical server.
B. installed on a virtual machine.
C. deploying the vCenter Virtual Appliance
D. all of the above

Answer: D
Explanation:
All of the listed options are supported.

QUESTION NO: 221

vCenter Server Linked mode allows you to view up to 10 vCenter Servers in a single window.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
vCenter Server will allow you to view up to 10 vCenter Servers and up to 30,000 virtual machines
in a single view.

QUESTION NO: 222

When configuring HA, which admission control policy should be used?

A. Host Failure Cluster Tolerates
B. CPU and Memory Percentage for Failover
C. Standby Host

Answer: B
Explanation:
CPU and Memory Percentage for Failover sets aside a percentage of the resources to be left
unused in the event of a failover.

QUESTION NO: 223

An organization is trying to determine whether it should use the Windows version of the vCenter
Server or use the vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA). The organization will be using an external
Oracle database, and it will manage about 30 ESXi hosts and about 200 virtual machines on 1
vCenter Server, but it would also like to see another groups vCenter Server from the same
vSphere client window. Which type of vCenter Server should it use, and why?

A. The vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA) because it can be used with Oracle
B. The VCSA because it can support 30 ESXi hosts
C. The Windows version because it can support Oracle
D. The Windows version because it can support Linked mode

Answer: D
Explanation:
The VCSA does not support Linked mode, so it cannot be used in this instance, based on the
requirement that the user should be able to see multiple vCenter Servers in a single vSphere client
window.

QUESTION NO: 224

The VCSA can be configured with a small internal Oracle database that can be used to manage
up to 5 ESXi hosts or 50 virtual machines.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
The VCSA comes with an internal IBM DB2 database that supports up to 5 ESXi hosts or 50
virtual machines.


QUESTION NO: 225

Which of the following is an advantage of a scaled-out architecture?

A. Fewer larger hosts means less hardware.
B. Larger servers come with more bells and whistles, like completely redundant hardware.
C. Smaller hosts translate to less time needed to recover using HA.
D. Larger servers are cheaper.

Answer: C
Explanation:
In a scaled-out architecture, the cluster is configured with many smaller hosts rather than fewer
large hosts. Because of this, when an ESXi host crashes in a scaled-out cluster, you lose a
smaller percentage of your cluster, which translates to fewer virtual machines crashing, which
translates to faster recovery times.

QUESTION NO: 226

Which of the following is an advantage of a scaled-up architecture?

A. Fewer Larger hosts means less hardware to manage
B. Smaller hosts mean more DRS options
C. Smaller hosts translate to less time needed to recover using HA
D. Smaller servers are cheaper.

Answer: A
Explanation:
In a scaled-up architecture, Fewer servers are needed because each server can handle more
virtual machines that what a typical scaled-out server can handle. So the cluster will require fewer
servers.

QUESTION NO: 227

An organization is considering buying hosts that have one three-port NIC rather than buying hosts
that have three one-port NICs. Is this a good idea? Why or why not?

A. This is a good idea; one three-port NIC means fewer PCI slots.
B. This is a good idea; one card is cheaper than three.
C. This is not a good idea; one card translates to a single point of failure.
D. This is not a good idea; three-port NICs are expensive

Answer: C
Explanation:
If the one three-port NIC fails, you will usually lose all three ports on the NIC. It would be a better
solution to use three one-port NICs instead. You lose one card, and you lose only one port.

QUESTION NO: 228

During the design phase, one of the constraints listed is that because the organization is already
using SQL Server 2008 in-house, a SQL Server database would have to be used for the vCenter
Server. Because of the constraint, ______________.

A. the organization would have to use VCSA since it supports SQL Server
B. the organization would have to use the Windows versions of the vCenter Server, but the
database would have to be internal to the vCenter Server
C. either the VCSA or the vCenter Server can be used
D. the Windows version of vCenter Server would have to be used because VCSA does not
support SQL Server

Answer: D
Explanation:
The VCSA is a Linux appliance and at this time does not support SQL Server. The Windows
version of the vCenter Server would have to be used because it does support SQL Server.

QUESTION NO: 229

A design calls for 10 virtual machines, each with 2 GB of RAM, to be located on a single VMFS
datastore. Only 5 virtual machines will be powered on at one time. If the virtual machines are using
default resource settings, how much space on the datastore will be utilized by swap files?

A. 20 GB
B. 10 GB
C. No swap files will be created.

Answer: B
Explanation:
By default, the swap file is the same size as the available memory of a VM. The swap file is
created when you power on a virtual machine and removed when you power it off. With 5 virtual
machines powered on and with each virtual machine having an available memory setting of 2 GB,
10 GB of space will be used for the swap files.

QUESTION NO: 230

You have a requirement to create a three-tiered application as part of a virtual machines design.
The requirement includes the ability to start up and shut down the tiers in a given order and to be
able to ensure that the three-tiered application gets the resources it needs. Which would be the
best option?

A. Put all the tiers in a resource pool and manage resources via the resource pool settings
B. Create a vApp and place the three tiers in it. Configure the startup/shutdown options and
configure resources via the vApp
C. Ensure that all three tiers are on the same vSwitch and use the ESXi host VM startup and
shutdown options
D. Manage the three tiers as three separate virtual machines

Answer: B
Explanation:
Of all these options, only a vApp can offer startup, shutdown, and resource control options.

QUESTION NO: 231

You have been tasked with creating a new domain controller in the vSphere environment to
replace the physical domain controller. You are trying to determine how much memory to give the
virtual machine. What is your best option?

A. Create the VM to match the memory of the domain controller
B. Give the VM as much memory as possible to ensure optimal performance
C. Read the vendor documentation and base your memory setting on that
D. Look at the long-term memory metrics of the server and have the memory setting match the
maximum memory used by the domain controller

Answer: D
Explanation:
Viewing the memory performance data of the physical host can give you a solid understanding of
how memory is used on the host and gives a good indication of the amount of memory you should
set up for the replacement virtual machine.

QUESTION NO: 232

It is a best practice to give a virtual machine a single virtual CPU unless there is a compelling
reason to give a virtual machine more than one virtual CPU.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:
A majority of your virtual machines can run with a single vCPU. Unless the application specifically
requires multiple vCPUs, try to start with one.

QUESTION NO: 233

When is it appropriate for a virtual machine to use the virtual machine swap file?

A. Always
B. Never
C. When youre trying to save memory
D. When the swap file is on fast storage

Answer: B
Explanation:
A virtual machine using the swap file as memory is usually an indication that there is not enough
memory on the ESXi host to provide memory resources to all the virtual machines on the host.
Steps should be taken to alleviate the problem.


QUESTION NO: 234

The swap file must always be stored with the other virtual machine files.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
A virtual machines swap file can be stored separately on a local or shared datastore. This is a
good option if you are replicating storage to another location and do not wish to replicate files that
are not needed at the replicated site.

QUESTION NO: 235

The ________ virtual machine scaling approach allows a VM to be created initially on a few
metrics or highlevel requirements and scaled through the virtual machines life cycle.

A. comprehensive
B. predictive
C. adaptive
D. literal

Answer: C
Explanation:
The adaptive approach is used when a virtual machine is built with only a few requirements and
then can be scaled once the application is in place and performance is measured based on the
few requirements. Then the VM can be scaled according to what the performance indicates.

QUESTION NO: 236

Which virtual machine scaling approach requires the most planning and research before the VM is
actually created?

A. Comprehensive
B. Predictive
C. Adaptive
D. Literal

Answer: B
Explanation:
The predictive approach requires you to have a full understanding of how the application will utilize
resources before the virtual machine is created. There will be no actions taken to scale once the
VM is complete. The advantage of this is that once the VM is complete, only periodic application
maintenance is required.

QUESTION NO: 237

As a designer, you must either use a predictive or adaptive approach to creating virtual machines.
You cannot use a combination of the two approaches.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
In some instances, a combination of the two approaches might be best.

QUESTION NO: 238

Part of your design includes updating VMware tools and virtual hardware to a newly updated
vSphere 5.1 architecture. What is the best method for updating tools and hardware?

A. Manually update each virtual machine
B. Dont bother updating the VMs; the new version of hardware and tools are not necessary
C. Use Update Manager to update all the virtual machines at once
D. Use Update Manager to help update the virtual machines in groups, as maintenance windows
allow

Answer: D
Explanation:
Using Update Manager is the best way to upgrade multiple virtual machines in an automated
fashion. You would not want to update them all at once because it would be time-consuming and
would require a lot of resources and lots of reboots. As a result, there might not be enough time to
finish within a maintenance window.

QUESTION NO: 239

Which of the following is a good way to set a memory reservation?

A. Use reservations on all virtual machines to ensure that they are all guaranteed memory.
B. Set a reservation to a virtual machines available memory to avoid creating a swap file.
C. Never set a reservation on a virtual machine.
D. Set a reservation only on a critical virtual machine, with the reservation set to the minimum
amount of memory needed for acceptable performance.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Setting reservations should be the exception and not the rule. The reservation should be set to the
minimum amount required for acceptable performance.

QUESTION NO: 240

While viewing the ESXi host resource tab, you notice that you have 1 GB of available memory.
You attempt to turn on a virtual machine with a 1 GB reservation, and the virtual machine will not
power on. What is preventing the virtual machine from powering on?

A. There are too many virtual machines on the host.
B. For a virtual machine to start, there must be enough available memory for the reservation and
memory overhead.
C. A reservation was set too high.
D. A CPU reservation was not set.

Answer: B
Explanation:
All virtual machines require some memory to use as overhead to handle virtualization. Even if a
virtual machine did not have a reservation, real memory would still be required for the overhead.

QUESTION NO: 241

Which type of virtual disk takes the longest to create but performs the best?

A. Thin provisioned
B. Eager-zero
C. Lazy-zero
D. Flat

Answer: B
Explanation:
An eager-zero disk allocates and zeros out all the block at once. While this type of disk takes
significantly longer to create, the disk performs better than the others because the other disks
require the block to be zeroed out before writing to the block. Since the blocks have already been
zeroed with eager-zero, that is not necessary.

QUESTION NO: 242

All virtual machine files should always be on the same datastore.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
Some applications require different types of performance on the multiple disks they require. If this
is the case, it is acceptable to put virtual disks on two different datastores that have different
performance and RAID features.

QUESTION NO: 243

Which metric displays the amount of time, in milliseconds, it takes for a virtual CPU to get
processing time on a physical CPU?

A. CPU Wait
B. Ballooning
C. CPU Ready
D. pCPU

Answer: C
Explanation:
CPU Ready is a metric that can be viewed using performance charts on the Web client or the
vSphere client that shows how long a virtual CPU had to wait for a physical CPU to become
available.

QUESTION NO: 244

A(n) _______ is a set of processes which proves that a design has been properly configured and
that the design works as planned.

A. validation plan
B. implementation plan
C. design blueprint

Answer: A
Explanation:
A validation plan is used to ensure that a design is implemented and configured properly and to
ensure that the design functions as intended.

QUESTION NO: 245

An implementation plan is a(n) ______________.

A. test plan to ensure proper system operation
B. blueprint of the design
C. operations manual
D. document or set of documents that provides detailed instructions for installing the system

Answer: D
Explanation:
Implementation plans should provide detailed steps on how the designer expects the architecture
to be built. The plan should provide the engineers enough detail to build the system without
architect assistance.

QUESTION NO: 246

A validation plan does not validate _____________.

A. the design
B. system functionality
C. that system requirements match the functionality of the design
D. topics outside the scope of the design

Answer: D
Explanation:
A validation plan should validate the design, should verify that the system operates in accordance
with the functional requirements, and should ensure that all requirements are met.

QUESTION NO: 247

Documentation requirements for different designs require the same deliverables.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:
Documentation requirements can vary based on the customer, the customer requirements, or the
design.

QUESTION NO: 248

A key memory metric to view during system testing is _____________.

A. Ballooning
B. Compression
C. Swap In/Swap Out
D. All of the above

Answer: D
Explanation:
Monitoring Ballooning, Compression, and Swap In/Swap Out memory metrics during testing will
verify to the designer that sufficient memory is in place. If any of the listed metrics shows
significant usage, there may be a memory issue somewhere in the design.

QUESTION NO: 249

Which VMware tools driver is the balloon driver?

A. VMMEMCTL
B. VSS
C. VLance

Answer: A
Explanation:
VMMEMCTL is the balloon driver. It is installed on any virtual machine that has VMware tools
installed.

QUESTION NO: 250

Operational testing ____________.

A. provides an acceptable user experience and meets or exceeds expectations from all
stakeholders
B. verifies that scripts work
C. ensures C-level sign-off of the project
D. ensures that hardware passes stress tests

Answer: A
Explanation:
Operational testing ensures that the user experience meets or exceeds the users expectation and
that the design system operates as all stakeholders expect it to.


QUESTION NO: 251

In the project life cycle, who defines the vision?

A. The IT architect
B. The software vendor
C. The business

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 252

You are a VMware architect attending a project kickoff meeting. The project vision is to
consolidate all existing physical workloads to a vSphere 5 platform.

The high-level requirements are defined during the design kickoff meeting. Which of the following
is true?

A. You should make design choices based on current best practices and case studies from
previous vendor implementations.
B. You should review the current server estate to ensure the viability of the project in relation to
the requirements and establish the tasks required to achieve the vision.
C. You should construct a logical and physical design, based on requirements and guide best
practices from previous implementations in the community.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 253

Which of the following can a gap state analysis help achieve?

A. The vision
B. The logical design
C. A list of best practices

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 254

Which of the following type of discovery methods is least likely to impact the platform it is
discovering?

A. Active
B. Passive

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 255

A component relationship diagram can be used to establish the order of component change or
impact analysis.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 256

Which of the following tools would enable a Windows administrator to complete a state analysis of
a virtual Windows 2008 Server guest machine without requiring access to the vSphere platform?

A. VMware Perfmon DLL
B. resxtop
C. PowerCLI monitor script

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 257

Which of the following is a list of attributes that can be used as a checklist for ensuring good
design thoughts?

A. The project requirements
B. The infrastructure qualities
C. The project design choices

Answer: A
Explanation: The project requirements are always paramount to a design. Infrastructural qualities
are secondary and can be changed to meet the project requirements.

QUESTION NO: 258

Which of the following could prevent a physical system from being converted to a virtual workload?

A. The physical system uses legacy operating systems, such as Windows
B. NT 4.
C. The application running on the physical server is not supported in a virtual platform.
D. The application has not been tested in a virtual platform.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 259

The infrastructure qualities are attributes you can use to ensure that major aspects are considered
to help with good design processes. What are the infrastructure qualities?

A. RTO, RPO, and MTBF
B. Availability, manageability, performance, recoverability, and security
C. Capacity, change control, security, DR, and supportability

Answer: B
Explanation:
-

QUESTION NO: 260

A platform has an RPO of 4 hours. The platform crashes at 2 p.m. Which of the following is
correct?

A. The platform must be ready for users to access by 6 p.m., with data versions from at least from
10 a.m.
B. The platform must be ready for users ASAP, with data versions from at least 10 a.m.
C. The platform must be ready for users to access by 6 p.m., and the data age is unknown from
the RTO.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 261

A multitier website has an RTO of 4 hours and an RPO of 15 minutes. The database crashes at 5
p.m. and causes the website to be unavailable. Which of the following is true? (Select all that
apply.)

A. The website must be restored by 5:15 p.m.
B. The website must be restored by 9 p.m.
C. At restore time, the data must be correct from at least from 4:45 p.m.
D. At restore time, the data must be from at least 1 p.m.

Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 262

You are the VMware consultant at a large enterprise. A senior manager is in charge of a project
that needs new infrastructure for its application. The application will be used by 3,200 users. Three
virtual machines are requested via the help desk. One of the three is a virtual machine with 32
vCPUs allocated for processing. The notes of the request say that the large number of vCPUs (the
company template is 2 vCPUs) is justified by the senior manager. The notes also reference the
following details from the application manual:

For every 100 users in the workload, the processing tier of the application requires one agent
-
handler service.
Each agent handler requires one single-core CPU.

Which of the following should the VMware consultant do next?

A. Configure the 32-vCPU box as requested and talk to the users during the rest of the project to
understand the application as much as possible for ease of support and to understand the impact.
B. Create a proof of concept server with 2 vCPUs and engage with the user/application vendor to
understand actual resources required for the company workload and support requirements.
Suggest other deployment strategies, such as scaling out the processing tier with a lower number
of vCPUs per guest virtual machine but more virtual machines within the tier.
C. Deny the virtual machine request and suggest that the processing tier be physical.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 263

According to HA best practices, which of the following admission control policies is most
appropriate for a cluster of hosts with virtual machines of very different memory and CPU
reservations?

A. CPU and Memory % Configuration
B. Number of Hosts Tolerate
C. Failover Host

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 264

A requirement in a server consolidation project states: The consolidation ratio must be as high as
possible. This has resulted in a lower number of larger-capacity hosts in the vSphere HA cluster.
Which of the following is true?

A. The restart time of a VM could be greater than when using smaller hosts.
B. The restart time of a VM could be lower than when using smaller hosts.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 265

A host has three dual-port network cards. What is the maximum number of vSwitches that can be
integrated with the physical network, assuming that network redundancy is not a requirement?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 256
D. 512

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 266

As a platform designer, you have been asked to create a design for a vSphere 5 platform. Based
on existing capacity state analysis, the platform will require 30 hosts and 250 guest VMs. Due to
an existing vendor relationship with the enterprise, the preferred database for all datacenter
systems is Microsoft SQL 2008. Which of the following vCenter deployments can be used based
on this constraint?

A. VCSA with a remote Microsoft SQL 2008 database
B. Windows-based vCenter with a local Microsoft SQL 2008 database
C. VCSA with an embedded Microsoft database
D. Any of the above would meet the requirements.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 267

RTO and RPO requirements can have a direct impact on the size and number of virtual datastores
used in a vSphere platform.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 268

You are a platform designer constructing a physical design from an existing approved logical
design. Out of the vendor proposals, there are two proposed solutions that could be used. Which
of the following options is the most important factor when making a decision?

A. Community and vendor-based best practices
B. Existing vendor relationships
C. Project requirements
D. Project budget

Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 269

You have been asked to design a virtual machine for a new application developed in-house. The
application will be load tested before it is finally made production ready. The application
developers have created documentation based on data flow and entity dependency. The
functionality of the application is critical to the business for a defined project with a client base of a
maximum of 12,000 users. Which of the following scaling approaches would best suit this
scenario?

A. Predictive
B. Adaptive

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 270

You are a virtualization consultant at a company that develops its own inhouse website trading
systems. The new website will be deployed in a vSphere 5 platform, which consists of two clusters
and four ESXi hosts (one for each projectthe SDLC hostsfor all levels of testing and
development prior to production deployment).
The production cluster has been configured for fully automated DRS and VMware HA. During the
SDLC, the website platform was developed on a single development ESXi host inside a single
VLAN. The system was successfully tested within the SDLC ESXi hosts and then deployed to the
production cluster in a single vApp and a single VLAN.

Following a successful midweek, the new application starts to show signs of latency. Suddenly
several applications across the cluster are being impacted by network latency issues. Metrics are
collected and show that the amount of network traffic between the database and application
servers of the new website platform are at 96% utilization on the physical switch links between
ESXi hosts in the production cluster. What should you do?

A. Recommend that the website platform be fixed and removed from the production system.
B. Create a DRS affinity rule to ensure that the database and applications servers stay on the
same ESXi host and do not traverse the physical network when communicating.
C. Configure Network I/O Control to ensure that the network latency is alleviated between the
database and applications servers.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 271

You are working on a project to deploy a critical multitier web application. The application is as
follows:

In the scenario described, the SAN space is limited. Which of the following options would help
save space while still providing the infrastructure shown above?

A. Confirm that 80 GB is actually used on the servers in each tier and configure thin provisioning
to save space.
B. Reduce the amount of memory in each web server by 2 GB to reduce the amount of swap
space created.
C. Create a resource pool hierarchy for the web, processing, and database tiers in the application
and configure a reservation for the total amount in each tier. This would reduce the amount of
space used within the datastore.

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 272

follows:

In the scenario described, which of the following would be a good design choice for memory
management in the vSphere platform?

A. Configure each web server in the application to have a limit of 4 GB.
B. Create a business-as-usual task to monitor the usage and increase it as required.
C. Configure a DRS affinity rule to split 50% of the web servers between two hosts.
D. Configure web servers to have high share values.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 273

follows:


In the scenario described, which of the following would be a good alternate design choice to
discuss with the vendor/web development team?

A. Consider consolidating the database servers into one large server for ease of management,
backup, and licensing costs.
B. Consider creating a file server with UNC file shares presenting the read-only data for web
servers. This would reduce the amount of space required from approximately 3 TB to
approximately 150 GB.
C. Reduce the specifications of each web server and increase the number of servers to distribute
the load more widely across the cluster.

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 274

Entry criteria should be included in all areas of documentation designed for implementation and
validation.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 275

A validation plan should be based on estimated workloads and user behavior.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 276

A validation plan is used to do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A. Verify the design
B. Verify that the system is functional
C. Verify that the system meets requirements
D. Meet current best practices

Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 277

vSphere cluster functionality such as DRS and HA does not need to be part of a validation plan.
This kind of documentation is only concerned with guest VM workload validation, not platform-wide
validation.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 278

The technical approach and order of delivery can have an impact on which of the following?
(Select all that apply.)

A. Overall delivery time
B. People resource contention (right person, right time, right task)
C. Validation phase duration

Answer: A,B,C


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