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ANALOG IAS INSTITUTE TEST SERIES - 2014

C.S.(P)-2014
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
T.B.C. : P-PFC-L-CGJB TEST BOOKLET SERIES

Serial No.

TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER I)
INDIAN POLITY - 2

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write
anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is
printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to
mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have
to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you will your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should handover to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away
with you the Test Booklet.
9. USE ONLY BALL BLACK OR BLUE PEN TO MARK IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
10. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
11. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i)There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.3c) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.


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GENERAL STUDIES TEST SERIES 2014: INDIAN POLITY - 2

Number of Questions: 100 Marks: 200 Time : 120 Min

1. Which one of the following is not a characteristic
of a departmentally managed Public sector
undertaking in India?
(a) It is financed and annual appropriation is
from the treasury
(b) Its permanent staff consists of Civil servants
(c) It is created by an Executive order of
Government
(d) The price of products and Services of the
enterprise are determined by the market
forces

2. Consider the following Statements
1. The number of Election Commissioners will
be fixed by president
2. Regional Election Commissioners conduct
elections to local bodies
3. Regional Election Commissioner tenure will
be fixed by State Election Commission.
Which of the above are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

3. Consider the following Statements
1. President cant suspend the member of UPSC
while enquiry is going on him for proved
misbehavior
2. SC advice after enquiry into misbehavior of
UPSC chairperson or members is binding on
President
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) neither

4. Consider the following Statements
1. Constitution specified specific condition for
UPSC membership in categorical sense.
2. Any member of UPSC can have paid
employment outside of duties of his office,
Constitution didnt bar private employment
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) neither

5. Consider the following Statements
1. Election Commission is a permanent and an
independent body
2. Elections to office of Vice President is done by
Rajya Sabha secretariat
3. Election Commission is common to Central
and State Governments.
Which of the above are true?
(a) 1, 2 only (b) 1, 3 only
(c) 2, 3 only (d) All of the above


6. Consider the following Statements
1. UPSC needed to ratify the recommendation of
Government departments promotions and
transfer policies relating to Civil servant
2. Any irregularity in the consultation process
with the UPSC or acting without UPSC advice
in matters of removal and dismissal from
Service invalidates the Governments
decisions.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) neither

7. Consider the following Statements
1. The grounds mentioned in Constitution for
removal of members of UPSC can be altered
by President.
2. The Chairman of UPSC can be given
appointment in GOI after retirement
3. Member of UPSC is not eligible for
reappointment in UPSC
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) none of the above

8. Consider the following Statements
1. Presiding officer can take up defection case
only when he receives complaints from a
member of house.
2. Anti Defection Law banned only retail
defections and legalized wholesale defections
3. The Government of India not sued for
contracts but can be sued for torts in respect
of its Sovereign functions
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) all of the above

9. Consider the following Statements
1. Constitution authorize the Governor to
determine the conditions of Services of
Chairman and members of Commission of
SPSC
2. Governor can remove the Chairman and
member of SPSC (State Public Service
Commission)
3. The expenses including salaries, allowances
and pensions of Chairman and members of
SPSC are charged from Consolidated fund of
India
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) none of the above


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10. Consider the following Statements
1. It is the duty of Election Commission to
determine the territorial areas of electoral
constituencies throughout the country on the
basis of Delimitation Commission Act of
Parliament
2. Election Commission advice on matter
relating is disqualification of members is not
binding on President
3. Collector acts as District returning officer in
case of elections
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

11. Match the following
List-I
(Types of
Delegation)
List-II
(Explanation)
A. Specific
delegation
1. Subordinate can
delegate his authority to
his immediate superiors
B. Accured
delegation
2. Authority is delegated
on the basis of custom
or usage
B. Unwritten
delegation
3. A person delegates
authority to another
who is also in the same
rank in the organization
D. Sideward
delegation
4. Orders, instructions or
directions are delegated
to a particular person
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1

12. Consider the following Statements
1. Criminal proceedings can be initiated against
Civil servants for acts done in their capacity,
with prior permission from Governor or
President, where necessary
2. Any Inclusion or exclusion from the
Presidential notification of any caste or tribe
can be done by the State assembly with
previous consent of Governor.
3. State can make special provisions for SC, ST
regarding their admission to educational
institutes including private educational
institutes
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 (b) 2, 3
(c) 1, 3 (d) all of the above

13. In India, who among the following can only be
removed from the office in like manner and on
the like grounds as a Judge of SC.
1. CAG
2. CEC Chief of Election Commission
3. Chairman UPSC (Union Public Service
Commission)
4. Attorney General of India
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 1, 2 (d) 2, 3 only

14. Consider the following Statements
1. There is a provision under an Article of the
Constitution of India that may by law provide
for adjudication of disputes related to
waters of interstate rivers or river valleys
2. Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, has been
amended by the centre to empower states to
abolish the State administrative tribunals, if
they desire so.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) neither

15. Assertion (A): The Classification of Services in
USA is more scientific than that of Great Britain
Reason (R): In America, the system of position
classification prevails as against the Great
Britain where in the system of rank classification
has been adopted.
Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R
is correct explanation of A
(b) Both R and A are individually true, but R is
not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

16. Assertion(A): The District Collector in
independent India has less judicial authority
than in pre-independent India
Reason(R): Article 50 of the Constitution of
India separates Judicial from Executive
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R
is correct explanation of A
(b) Both R and A are individually true, but R is
not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

17. Consider the following Statements
1. Since at the time of initial years of
independence, we had three All India
Services
2. All India Services Act of 1951 authorized the
Central Government to make rules in
consultation with the State Governments for
the regulation of recruitment and Service
conditions of the members of All-India
Services.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) neither

18. Consider the following Statements
1. Constitution imposes the duty upon the
centre to promote the spread and
development of Hindi language so that it may
become the Lingua-Franca of the composite
culture of India.
2. Every State and Local authority in the State
should provide adequate facilities for
instruction in the mother-tongue at the
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primary stage of education to children
belonging to the linguistic minority group.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) neither

19. Consider the following Statements
1. UPSC is concerned with classification of
Services, pay and Service conditions and
cadre management and training
2. UPSC is Central Personal agency in India.
3. The emergence of CVC in 1964 affected the
role of UPSC in disciplinary matters
Which of the above are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) all of the above

20. With regards to judicial control over
administration, what does Malfeasance stand
for?
(a) Error of procedure (b) Abuse of authority
(c) Error of fact (d) Error of law

21. Consider the following Statements:
1. The President should place before Parliament
the report of UPSC and also the reason for
non-compliance of recommendation
2. An individual ministry has power to reject the
advice of UPSC
3. All such reasons for non-acceptance of UPSC
report recommendation should be approved
by Appointment Committee of Cabinet.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) all of the above

22. Consider the following Statement
1. Zonal Councils have been setup under a
provision of Constitution of India
2. Parliament may by law provide for the
exclusion of the jurisdiction of all courts,
except the SC for the adjudication of any
dispute with respect to use, distribution or
control of waters of, or in, any inter-State
river or river valley
Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) neither

23. Which of the following are exemptions regarding
appointments by UPSC?
1. For making reservations of appointments or
posts in favour of BC citizens
2. For taking into consideration the claims of
SC and ST in making appointments to
Services and posts
3. Selections for Chairmanship of Tribunals
4. For posts of highest diplomatic nature
5. The selection for temporary or officiating
appointment to post, if the person appointed
is not likely to hold the post for more than a
year
Code:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4, 5
(c) 1, 2, 4, 5 (d) All of the above

24. Consider the following Statements
1. The Chairman of SPSC can be appointed as
Chairman of other SPSC after his term
2. State Legislature can confer new functions to
the SPSC which were not specified in the
Constitution
3. The Joint Public Service Commission is a
Constitutional body and its members
appointed by President.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

25. Consider the following Statements
1. Finance Commission is quasi judicial body
2. Finance Commission members can be
reappointed
3. Constitution specified the qualifications for
the Chairman and members of Commission
4. The Chairman should be a person having
specialized knowledge of Finance and
accounts of State.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1, 2, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) All of the above

26. Which of the following audit reports submitted by
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) to
President?
1. Report on Appropriation accounts
2. Report on Finance accounts
3. Report on Public sector undertakings
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

27. Consider the following Statements
1. There should be special officer for Linguistic
Minorities, who is to be appointed by
President.
2. The Linguistic Minorities Commissioner
Office falls under the Ministry of Social
Justice.
Which of the above are true?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) none of them

28. Consider the following Statements
1. Finance Commission recommends the
measures needed to augment the
Consolidated Fund of State to complement
the resources of Panchayats and
Municipalities.
2. President can refer any other matter for
Finance Commission in the interests of
sound finance.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) neither

29. Consider the following Statements
1. Article 338, of Constitution provided for
appointments of a Special officer for SC and
STs to investigate all issues relating to
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constitutional safeguards for the SCs and
STs.
2. National Commission for SC has the powers
of a Civil court
3. The President will forward any report of the
Commission pertaining to a State
Government to the state Governor
Which of the above are true?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 1 only

30. Consider the following Statements
1. The National Commission for ST was created
by 65
th
Constitutional Amendment Act of
1990
2. National Commission for ST came to
existence in 2004.
Which of the above is/ are true?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) Neither

31. Consider the following Statements
1. Finance Commission recommendations are
binding on the Government
2. The reference in Article 275 to grants-in-aid
to revenue of States is not confined to
revenue expenditure only.
3. So far 13 Finance Commissions were
appointed by GOI
Which of the above is/are not true?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

32. Consider the following Statements
1. CAG is the Head of the Indian Audit and
Accounts department
2. CAG is eligible to be reappointed to any post,
under the Government of India
3. The Service conditions of audit officers can be
prescribed by President
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) none of them

33. Which of the following is statutory Commission?
1. National Commission for women
2. National Commission for Minority
3. National Commission for SCs
4. National Commission for BC
5. National Commission for protection of HR
6. National Human Rights Commission
(a) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 (b) 1, 3, 5, 6, 2
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (d) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6

34. Consider the following Statements
1. CAG is responsible only to Parliament
2. CAG can audit secret Service expenditure of
CBI
3. CAG of Britain and CAG of India were
designed on same lines.
Which of the above are true?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) neither

35. Consider the following Statements
1. Election Commissioner will hold post on the
satisfaction of President
2. Constitution specified minimum qualification
for the members of Election Commission
3. Constitution debarred retiring Election
Commissioners for any further appointment
by the Government.
Which of the above incorrect
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of the above

36. Consider the following Statements
1. CAG audits Consolidated Fund of Union
Territories also
2. CAG audits Contingency Fund of each State
and Public accounts of each State also
3. CAG ascertains and certifies the net proceeds
of any tax or duty. His certificate is final.
4. CAG is the member of the PAC ( Public
Accounts Committee) of Parliament
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 4 (d) All of the above

37. Consider the following Statements
1. No ordinance can be withdrawn by the
Administrator except after obtaining
instructions from the President in that
behalf with respect to Union Territories.
2. Lt. Governor can promulgate ordinance
during the period of dissolution or
suspension of legislature of Delhi.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) both (d) none of them

38. CBI was estimated under Delhi special police
establishment (DSPE) act 1946 under overall
supervision of CVC, DOPT. Consider the
following statements:
1. CBI can take up suo moto cognizance of any
crime ONLY in Union territories
2. CBI, entertains anonymous complaints but
CVC does not entertain anonymous
complaints.
3. National investigation agency (NIA) can be
asked by the Central Government to inquire
in States without previous sanction from
concerned State Government.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) none

39. Consider the following Statements
1. State Information Commissioners are
appointed by the Governor on the
recommendations of committee consisting
of Chief Minister as chairperson.
2. Governor has exclusive power to remove
State Information Commissioners from the
post, on his pleasure.
3. ARC-2(Administrative Reforms Commission)
kept the judiciary out of Lok Pal purview.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of the above

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40. Consider the following Statements
1. If any question arises as to the age of a
Judge of High court, the question shall be
decided by President after consultation with
Chief Justice of High court and the decision
of President shall be final
2. Permanent Judge of a High court can plead
before the other High courts and Supreme
Court.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) both of them (d) none of the above

41. Consider the following Statements:
1. For the time being, official language of Union
would be the link language for
communications between Union and State.
2. President should direct the particular
language to be /shall be officially recognized
in any State.
3. The Governor can change the language of the
decree of High Court with the previous
permission of President
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) all of the above

42. Consider the following Statements
1. Constitution presented the Devanagari form
of numerals in the official language of the
Union.
2. Official Language Act, 1963, provided for the
continued use of English, in addition to
Hindi, for all official purposes of Union and
also for transaction of business in Parliament
3. Constitution specified the official languages
of different States.
Which of the above are not true?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) none of the above

43. Consider the following Statements
1. There is no uniformity in the jurisdiction of
Lokayukta in general for all States.
2. Lokayutas have power to start investigation
on suomoto
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) both (d) None of the above

44. Consider the following Statements
1. Chief Information Commission has the
power of Civil court in respect of summons
and enforcing attendance of persons
2. Information Commissions should be persons
of eminence in law, science, technology,
administration, social Service
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) neither

45. Consider the following Statements
1. Central Vigilance Commission members hold
office for a term of 4 years or until they attain
the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
2. Central Vigilance Commission gives
directions to the CBI for the purpose of
discharging the responsibility entrusted to it
under the Delhi police special establishment
Act, 1946
3. Central Government, need not to
communicate the reasons, if it does not
agree with Central Vigilance Commission
recommendation
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) all of the above

46. Consider the following Statements
1. State Human Rights Commissions doesnt
have authority to inquire into concurrent list
2. The protection of Human Rights Act (1993)
provides for the establishment for the human
rights court in every distinct for the speedy
trial of violation of Human Rights.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) neither (d) both

47. Consider the following Statements
1. The NHRC is not empowered to inquire into
any matter after the expiry of 2yr from the
date on which the acts consisting of human
rights is alleged to have been committed.
2. Commission can treat violations of Human
rights cases by members of armed forces like
the rest of the cases.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 only (c) both (d) neither

48. Consider the following Statements
1. NHRC (National Human Rights Commission)
has 4 ex-officio members as its membership
2. Sitting Judge of HC can be made as NHRC
member but prior approval of Chief Judge of
HC is required
3. Members of NHRC can be reappointed by
Government, after their term.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

49. Consider the following Statements
1. Dr. Gadgil recommended for removing
membership of Prime Minister and Finance
minister in the Planning Commission
2. The secretary of Planning Commission also
acts as the secretary of the NDC (National
Development Council)
3. Among the advisory bodies of NDC, Planning
Commission is one such and plays a primary
role.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) all of the above

50. Consider the following Statements
1. Attorney General of India represents GOI in
SC only not in High Court.
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2. Attorney General enjoys the immunities
available to Members of Parliament.
3. He can defend accused persons in Civil
prosecutions.
Which of the above one true?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) all of the above

51. Consider the following Statements:
1. The whole of the normal administrative
machinery operating in the State is not
extended to the scheduled areas and the
Central Government has somewhat greater
responsibility
2. Tribal advisory council has to be established
to advice on welfare and advancement of
scheduled tribes in scheduled areas.
3. Governor is empowered to direct that any
particular act of Parliament or State
legislature does not apply to a scheduled area
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) all of the above

52. State may, by law, can make provisions with
respect to the incorporation, regulation, winding
up of cooperative societies based on which of the
following functions
1. Principles of voluntary participation
2. Democratic member control
3. Member-economic participation
4. Autonomous functioning
Code:
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 4 (d) all of the above

53. Which of the following are correctly matched?
UT Executive Judiciary
1. Andaman &
Nicobar
Lt Governor Madras
High Court
2. Lakshadweep Administrator Kerala High
Court
3. Pondicherry Administrator Madras
High Court
4. Chandigarh Lt Governor Punjab-
Haryana
High Court
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 4 (d) none of the above

54. Consider the following Statements
1. Existence of Union territories is a
conspicuous departure from the federation in
India.
2. Parliament can make legislation on all 3 lists
in all Union territories except Delhi and
Pondicherry
3. Constitution specifies provisions for
administration of acquired territories
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) all of the above

55. Consider the following Statements
1. Multi-State cooperative society means a
society with objects not confined to one State
2. Maximum number of directors of a
cooperative society shall not exceed 21.
3. Banking Regulation Act, 1949 provisions will
be applies to cooperative society in case of
society carrying business of banking.
4. Government can supersede cooperative
society, if Government has given financial
assistance, guarantees, loan, or if having
shares in Cooperative society.
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) none of the above

56. Consider the following Statements
1. Recently Government of India has declared
Jats as Other Backward Castes.
2. The statutory body National Commission for
Backward Castes., had given a nod to the
proposal few yrs ago.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only true (b) 2 only true
(c) both are true (d) none true

57. VIGEYE is a project launched by Central
Vigilance Commission. Choose the incorrect
statement:
1. Its a citizen centre initiative where citizens
join hands with CVC in fighting corruption in
India.
2. Here citizens can complain to CVC through
mobile/intend/voice calls where the
complaint is processed.
Code:
(a) only 1 (b) only 2 (c) both (d) none

58. The Model Code of Conduct comes into force a
few weeks before elections. Which of the
following comes as violation of Model code of
Conduct?
1. The party in power making promise of
construction of roads, provision of drinking
water
2. Any political party using any individuals
property even with his permission for
propaganda is violation of Model code.
Code:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) none

59. The Supreme Court in 2013 judgment in
Subramaniam Balaji vs Government of TN has
directed EC to frame guidelines for manifestos for
political parties.
1. The Directive principles of State policy can be
no objection to promise of welfare measure in
manifestos
2. The manifestos should also reflect the
rationale for promises and shall indicate the
ways to meet financial requirements for it.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both (d) neither

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60. Consider the following Statements:
1. The Tenth Schedule contains provisions
for Anti-Defection.
2. Originally the tenth schedule was formed
related to Sikkim but was repealed later
after Sikkim was made a State.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) only 1 (b) only 2
(c) Both are correct (d) Both are wrong

61. Recently Supreme Court passed few guidelines
over Civil Services Board (CSB).
Consider the following and choose the incorrect:
1. States are mandated to constitute the CSB,
headed by Chief Secretary to deal with
transfers, posting etc.
2. The competent authority may reject the
recommendation of CSB by recording the
reasons for same
3. CSB shall include above provisions for IAS,
IPS, Indian forest Services also.
(a) all are true except 1
(b) all are true except 2
(c) all are true except 3
(d) all are true

62. Which of the following officials take the Oath
that has the following lines: To preserve
protect and defend the constitution
1. President.
2. Governor.
3. Chief Justice of India.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 & 2 only
(c) 1, 2 & 3 (d) None of the above.

63. Which of the following funds / authorities /
bodies can be audited by CAG:
1. Consolidated Funds of India, States & UTs
having legislative assembly.
2. Contingency Funds of India.
3. Public Account of States.
4. Receipts and expenditures of PPP.
5. Local bodies.
(a) 1, 2 & 3 only (b) 1, 2 & 5 only.
(c) 1, 3, 4 & 5 only (d) All

64. Which of the following are quasi judicial
bodies?
1. Finance Commission.
2. Central Vigilance Commission
3. National Human Rights Commission.
4. Central Information Commission.
5. Competition Commission of India.
6. Union Public Service Commission.
7. National Commission for SCs
Code:
(a) All except 1, 2 & 6
(b) All except 2, 4 & 6.
(c) All except 6.
(d) None of the above options are correct.

65. Which is the correct order for approval of
five year plans:
(a) Planning CommissionNDCCabinet
Parliament.
(b) Planning Commission Cabinet NDC
Parliament
(c) Planning Commission NDC Cabinet.
(d) Planning Commission Cabinet NDC.

66. Which of the following Statements are correct?
1. The salary, allowances and other Service
conditions of the Chief Information
Commissioner are similar to those of the
Chief Election Commissioner.
2. The salary, allowances and other Service
conditions of the State Information
Commissioner are similar to those of the
Chief Justice of High Court.
3. The salary, allowances and other Service
conditions of the Chief Vigilance
Commissioner are similar to those of the
Chairman of UPSC.
Code:
(a) 1 & 3 only (b) 1 & 2 only.
(c) 2 & 3 only (d) 1, 2 & 3.

67. My friend described a tribunal in the following
manner: The Tribunal shall not be bound by
the procedure laid down under the Code of
Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by
principles of natural justice.
He/she is probably referring to:
(a) Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT).
(b) National Green Tribunal (NGT).
(c) He/she is either referring to CAT or to
NGT.
(d) He/she is neither referring to CAT nor to
NGT

68. Which of the following Statement/s is/are
correct?
1. Indian Territory can be ceded to a foreign
State without amending the constitution
as mentioned in article 368.
2. Resolution of boundary dispute between
India and another country does not
require constitutional amendment.
Code:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both (d) None

69. Which of the following subject/s is/are
enumerated in the concurrent list:
1. Actionable wrongs.
2. Education.
3. Protection of wild Animals and Birds.
Code:
(a) 1 & 2 only (b) 2 & 3 only.
(c) 1 & 3 only (d) 1, 2 & 3.

70. Articles 358 & 359 describe the effect of a
National Emergency on the Fundamental
Rights. Which of the following Statements are
correct with regard to Article 358 & 359.
1. Article 358 operates only in the case of
External Emergency and not in the case of
Internal Emergency.
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2. Article 359 operates in case of both
External & Internal Emergencies.
3. Article 358 suspends Fundamental Rights
under Article 19 for the entire duration of
emergency.
4. Article 358 extends to the entire country
whereas Article 359 may extend to entire
country or part of it.
Code:
(a) 1 & 2 only (b) 1, 2 & 3 only.
(c) 2, 3 & 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4.

71. Consider the following Statements:
1. Mandamus may be issued to prevent court
martials from exceeding their jurisdiction
2. The maxim Memo judex in causa sua is one
of the cardinal principles of natural justice.
3. Writ petition once allowed can be dismissed
in appeal of facts of case, on the ground of
alternative remedy.
4. Constitution empowered legislature of the
State to increase, restrict or abolish the
jurisdiction of High courts over the Union
Territory.
Which of the above are true?
(a) 1, 2, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) all of the above

72. Consider the following Statements:
1. Governor of State can appoint persons other
than District Judges to the Judicial Services
of a State.
2. Governor should consult State Public Service
Commission along with High Court
3. Session Judge, Chief presidency magistrate,
Chief Judge of small cause court, Assistant
District Judge-all the mentioned terms can
be referred under the term- District Judge
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) all of the above

73. Consider the following Statements:
1. There shall be Council of Ministers consisting
of not more than 10% of the total members in
the Legislative Assembly, with the Chief
Minister as the Head to aid and advice the
Lieutenant Governor.
2. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the
President and the other minister shall be
appointed by the Lieutenant Governor on the
advice of Chief Minister.
3. The Administrator of Union Territories can
promulgate ordinances even when the
legislature is in session
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) all of the above

74. Consider the following Statements
1. High Court can exercise power to issue
directions, order or writs to any Government
or persons in relation to the its jurisdiction
territories within which the cause of action,
wholly or partly a raised, though the
authority or residence of such person is not
within those territories
2. Generally, the writ of Habeas Corpus applies
only after a person has been arrested
3. In exceptional cases, Habeas Corpus can be
granted even when detention is threatened.
4. Supreme Court can issue writ of Habeas
Corpus against State and private individuals,
where as High court can issue writ only
against State.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 3, 4 (d) all of the above

75. Consider the following Statements regarding LM
Singh Committee:
1. The Panchayati Raj institutions should be
constitutionally recognized, protected and
preserved
2. Judicial tribunals should be established in
each State to adjudicate controversies about
the elections to Panchayat Raj institutions.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) neither

76. In the wake of cricket betting, Mudgal Committee
was appointed and it submitted its report.
In this context, consider the following about
prevention of Sporting Fraud Bill Draft 2013 and
choose the correct code?
1. Disclosing inside information is an offence
2. If a person proves that the act offence
committed was without his knowledge, he is
not liable to punishment
3. No Court shall have suo motu cognizance
regarding sports fraud
Code:
(a) 1, 2 (b) 1 only (c) 2, 3 (d) all

77. There has been uproar about opinion and exit
polls regarding their ban etc.
In this context consider the following & opt true
statement.
1. Exit poll is a poll of voters taken before they
cast their vote and opinion poll is the one
taken after they cast the vote
2. Election Commission is empowered under
Article 324 to restrict the opinion polls.
3. Existing Law allows Election Commission to
ban opinion polls prior to voting.
(a) 1, 2 (b) 2, 3 (c) 1, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3.

78. Consider the following about voting rights o Army
personal and Supreme Court recent observations
about it. Choose the incorrect statement(s):
1. Defense personnel used to exercise their vote
through postal ballot or through a proxy vote
2. SC ruled that voting rights be granted to
Defense personnel by registration and
Election Commission gave right to vote for
them but at peace stations only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) none

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79. Consider the following Statements regarding
Ashok Mehta committee?
1. The three tier system of Panchayat raj should
be replaced by the two tier system, that is,
Zilla Parishad at the District level and
Mandal Parishad below it.
2. There should not be official representation of
political parties at all levels of Panchayat
Elections
3. The Panchayati Raj institutions should have
compulsory powers of taxation to mobilise
their own financial resources
4. Nyaya Panchayats should be abolished and
power to try pretty cases should be given to
developmental Panchayats
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 4 only (d) 2, 4 only

80. Which of the following are true regarding the
criteria to declare a party as National party
1. It is to be decided by Parliamentary
committee on legislative affairs
2. If a party secures at least 6% of valid votes
polled in a four or more States
3. If a party wins at least 4 seats in LS
4. If a party wins at least 2% seats in LS
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4 (c) 2, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4

81. Consider the following Statements
1. The President can make regulations for the
Union Territory irrespective creation of
legislature for Union territories on the
grounds of peace, progress and good
governance.
2. The Administrator should not promulgate
ordinances without the prior permission of
President
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both (d) none of the above

82. Consider the following Statements
1. Governor can regulate and amend and repeal
any act of Parliament or State legislature,
which is applicable to scheduled areas.
2. Such regulations dont require the
assent of President.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) none

83. Consider the following Statements
1. 4/5
th
of the members of the metropolitan
Planning committee should be selected by
the elected members of the municipalities
and chairpersons of the pachayats in the
metropolitan area from amongst themselves
2. The representation of these members in the
metropolitan Planning committee should be
in the proportion to the ratio between
population of the municipalities and the
Panchayats in that metropolitan area
Which of the above is/arecorrect?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) none
84. Consider the following Statements:
1. Autonomous Districts constituted in the
States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura,
Mizoram falls outside the Executive authority
of State concerned.
2. Each Autonomous District constituted under
6
th
schedule, consists of 5 nominated
member from Governor, whose tenure is 3
year in District Council.
3. All laws made by District and Regional
councils must have the assent of Governor.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1 and only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) none of the above

85. Consider the following Statements:
1. The Governor can dissolve the District or
regional council of Autonomous Districts of
6
th
schedule areas, based on the report of
Commission appointed for the examination of
administration of autonomous council.
2. Lai, Mara, Chakma Districts in the Mizoram
are declared as Tribal areas under 6
th

schedule
3. Regional councils can make laws with
respect to marriage, inheritance, and social
customs.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) all of the above

86. Consider the following Statements:
1. A Nominated member of house becomes
disqualified for being a member of house. If
he joins the political party before expiry of 6
months from the date on which he takes his
seat
2. An Independent member of a house becomes
disqualified to remain a member of house if
joins any political party after such election
before 6 months.
Which of the above are true?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) neither

87. Consider the following Statements:
1. The Chairperson of a Panchayat at the village
level shall be elected in such manner as the
State legislature determines
2. 73
rd
amendment act 1992 also applies to
area of Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland,
Mizoram.
3. The President may direct that provisions of
this act shall apply to any Union territories
subject to such exceptions and modifications
as he may specify
4. The act doesnt bar the interference by courts
in the electoral matters of Panchayats
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 2

88. Which of the following are correct Statements?
1. The Interim Government members formed
in 1946 were members of Viceroys
Executive Council.
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2. The President of the Viceroys Executive
Council was the Viceroy and Vice-
President of the Council was Jawaharlal
Nehru in the Interim Government.
Code:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both correct (d) both wrong

89. Consider the following Statements
1. Gramsabha means body consisting of
persons present in the villages comprised
within the area of Panchayat at the village
level.
2. Panchayats at the intermediate level may not
be constituted in a State having a population
not exceeding 20 lakh people.
3. The establishment of scheme of democratic
decentralization, which ultimately came to
be known as Panchayati Raj, is given by
Ashok Mehta.
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) all of the above

90. GVK Rao committee appointed by Planning
Commission in 1985, given the phrase Grass
without roots and suggested the following
1. Some of the Planning functions at the State
level should be transferred to the District
level Planning units for effective decentralized
District Planning
2. Post of District development Commissioner
should be created, who should act as the
Chief Executive officer of Zillaparishad and
should be in charge of developmental
activities.
3. A Ministry for Panchayat raj should be
created for looking after the affairs of
Panchayat Raj institutes
4. Chief electoral officer of State in consultation
with Chief Election Commissioner should
organize and conduct the Panchayat Raj
institutions
Which of the above are true?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3

91. Consider the following Statements
1. The Executive officer of Cantonment Board is
appointed by Governor of State
2. The Military officer commanding the station
is the ex-officio President of the board and
presides over its meetings
3. Port trust can also created by State
Government legislation
4. Housing Boards, Town improvement trusts
established by State Governments acts as
sub-ordinate agencies of the local municipal
bodies
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
(a) all of the above except 1
(b) all of the above except 2
(c) all of the above except 3
(d) all of the above except 4

92. Consider the following Statements
1. Municipalities are created for administration
of smaller cities, whose establishment does
not require legislation of State legislature
2. Members of notified area committee are
partly nominated and partly elected, based
on the provisions of State Municipal Act.
3. Members of Town area committee are totally
nominated
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 1 (d) all of the above

93. Consider the following Statements
1. Municipality shall be given a reasonable
opportunity of being heard before its
dissolution
2. The question of disqualification of members
of municipality, shall be referred for the
decision of such authority as the legislatures
of State may provide.
3. The Standing committees are created for
Municipal Corporation, which facilitates the
working of municipal council and it is headed
by municipal Commissioner
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

94. Which of the following are functional items
place within the purview of Municipalities?
1. Fire Services
2. Slum improvement and up gradation
3. Registration of births and deaths
4. Regulations of slaughter houses and fineries
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 4 (d) all of the above

95. Consider the following Statements
1. A Panchayat constituted upon the
dissolution of Panchayat before the
expiration of its duration shall continue only
for the remaining for the period for which the
dissolved Panchayat would have continued.
2. The functions of District Planning Committee
in relation to District Planning will be defined
by State Legislature
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) both (d) none of them

96. Which of the following are not compulsory
provisions for the 73
rd
Constitutional
Amendment Act:-
1. Holding fresh elections within 6 months in
the event of supersession of any Panchayat
2. Reservation of 1/3
rd
seats for women in
Panchayats at all 3 levels
3. Providing reservations of seats for backward
classes in Panchayats at all levels
4. Granting financial powers to Panchayats,
authorizing them to levy, collect and
appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees
(a) 1, 3 (b) 1, 4 (c) 3, 4 (d) 1, 2
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97. Which of the following items placed in the
purview of Panchayats (Eleventh Schedule?)
1. Fuel and fodder
2. Non conventional energy sources
3. Adult and non formal education
4. Public distribution system
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 4 (d) All of the them

98. State Finance Commission should recommend
the Governor on which of the following principles:
1. The distribution between States and
Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes,
duties, tolls and fees levied by State
2. The determination of taxes, duties, tolls, fees
that may be assigned to the Panchayats
3. The grant-in-aids to Panchayats from
Consolidated fund of State.
4. The measures needed to augment the
Consolidated fund of State to supplement the
resources for Panchayats in the States
Which of the above are true?
(a) 1, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) all of the above
99. President of India appoints High Court Judge. He
must consult which one of the following in
appointment process under Article 217.
1. Chief Judge of India
2. Governor of State
3. Chief Justice of High court
4. Senior Judges of Supreme Court
Code:
(a) 1, 2, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) all of the above

100. Consider the following Statements:
(a) Finance Minister and Prime Minister are
ex-officio members of the Planning
Commission
(b) Programme Advisors acts as a link between
Planning Commission and States of Indian
Union in the field of Planning
(c) Planning Commission also referred as Fifth
wheel of the Coach
Which of the above are true?
(a) a and b (b) b and c
(c) a and c (d) all of the above
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