1.

It is an illness due to a specific agent transmitted by an agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host through
different modes of transmission:
a. Contagious disease
b. Communicable disease
c. Infectious disease
d. Iatrogenic disease

2. A clinically manifest disease of a man or animal resulting from an infection:

a. Contagious disease
b. Communicable disease
c. Infectious disease
d. Iatrogenic disease

3. Presence of classical sings and symptoms that are highly specific to a certain disease is known as:
a. Tell tall signs
b. Pathognomonic sign
c. Distinctive sign
d. Fastigium sign

4. When will you consider that an infection is acquired in the hospital and called as nosocomial?
a. When infection occurred upon admission
b. When infection is acquired before discharge
c. When infection is validated by the laboratory of the hospital
d. When the patient is within 14 days of hospital stay

5. A infection that is completely manifested by signs and symptoms:

a. Opportunistic infection
b. True infection
c. Communicable infection
d. Contagious infection

6. Which of the following is the main cause of nosocomial infection?

a. Surgical wound infection
b. Sepsis
c. Urinary tract infection
d. Respiratory tract infection

7. Which of the following causative agent are able to live in a non-nutritive environment and is easily transmitted
in the hospital?
a. S. aureus
b. P. aeruginosa
c. E. Coli
d. H. influenza

8. The infection brought by normal biota of the body with low degree of virulence but may take advantage when
the body is immunocompromised:
a. Opportunistic infection
b. Nosocomial infection
c. True infection
d. Parasitic infection

9. When a disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another, such infection is:
a. Communicable
b. Infectious
c. Contagious
d. Virulent
10. What is the difference between gonorrhea and influenza when taking into consideration being infectious and
contagious?
a. Gonorrhea is infectious and influenza is contagious
b. Influenza is infectious and gonorrhea is contagious
c. Both are contagious and infectious
d. Gonorrhea and influenza are not contagious but only infectious

11. Which of the following statements are true?

a. All communicable diseases are infectious and contagious.
b. All contagious diseases are infectious but not all infectious are contagious.
c. Communicable diseases are all contagious but not infectious.
d. Infectious diseases are contagious and also communicable.

12. An organism that is capable of invading and multiplying in the body of the host:
a. Causative agent
b. Reservoir
c. Bacteria
d. Carrier

13. The infecting ability of a microorganism depends on its degree of:

a. Pathogenecity
b. Communicability
c. Teratogenecity
d. Epidemiology

14. Shigella species only requires 10 microorganisms to cause infection while Salmonella must have 1,000
bacteria to initiate disease. This property of microorganism is known as:
a. Viability
b. Toxigenecity
c. Virulence
d. Invasiveness

15. (Refer to number 16) Also, this directly proportional relationship of number and infection refers to what
property of the causative agent?
a. Dose
b. Antigenicity
c. Specificity
d. Mode of action

16. A person whose medical history and symptoms suggest that he may now have or be developing some
communicable disease is known as:
a. Patient
b. Carrier
c. Contact
d. Suspect

17. A special type of toxin found on the cell wall of the gram negative bacteria that causes sepsis especially when
they lyse themselves (suicide bomber):
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin

18. The type of exotoxin that is released in the GI tract that stimulates the vomiting center of the body and
exhibits its harmful effect by the inflammation of the intestinal tract:
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin
19. A non cellular microorganism that contains a nucleus of DNA and/or RNA with a surrounding protein coat and
are self-limiting. Also known as the ultimate parasite:
a. Virus
b. Protozoa
c. Amoeba
d. Bacteria

20. Beds in the hospital are arranged in such a way that droplet transmission of microorganism can be prevented.
This is done by:
a. Letting a single bed occupy a single room
b. Arranging the bed not facing the door or window
c. Positioning the bed 1 meter away from each other
d. Placing blinders in each patient, if possible.

21. When an infective microorganism escaping from the reservoir is suspended in the air and is carried through air
current in the form of droplet nuclei, the mode of transmission is:
a. Airborne
b. Droplet
c. Pressurized
d. Fomites

22. Which of the following is considered a fomite?

a. Staphylococcus aureus carrier
b. Urinals
c. Mosquito
d. Hands

23. A vector that transmits a microorganism by harboring it to its system and serves as its reservoir:
a. Mechanical vector
b. Biological vector
c. Accidental host
d. Intermediate vector

24. Which of the following will most likely acquire an infectious disease?
a. A 30 year old male who is alcoholic
b. A pregnant mother
c. A healthy sexual worker
d. A patient who is discharged from the hospital

25. The pattern of infection where the pathognomonic signs of a specific disease is present is:
a. Incubation period
b. Prodromal period
c. Invasion/ fastigium period
d. Convalescent period

26. Cholera, tetanus, and typhoid fever occurs intermittently or on and off in different parts of the country. This is
pattern of disease occurrence is known as:
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Sporadic
d. Pandemic

27. A newly emerged strain of E. Coli that killed hundreds of hamburger eaters in the United States:
a. Sin Nombre Coli
b. E. coli O157:H7
c. Colicollus coli
d. Legionairre’s coli
28. Level of prevention focused on the early sick and aimed to detect diseases at its early state:
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quarternary

29. Which of the following is a primary level of disease prevention:

a. Mass screening
b. Contact tracing
c. Hand washing
d. Prompt treatment

30. Health education is prevents communicable diseases through IEC. Which of the following refers to the part of
IEC that involves behavioral change?
a. Information
b. Education
c. Communication
d. Integration

31. An information learned and caused a change in behavior of the client will only be effective if:
a. Able to apply everyday
b. If shared with other members of the family or even the society
c. If kept and considered as own
d. Written and well documented

32. Which of the following vaccine is introduced intradermally at right deltoid region?
a. BCG
b. DPT
c. Measles
d. Hep B

33. Which of the following vaccine is very sensitive from heat and should be stored at (-15 C to -25C) at the
freezer?
a. Measles
b. DPT
c. BCG
d. Hep B

34. Hep B is given for three doses and the schedule is:
a. At birth, 6 weeks after the 1st dose and 8 weeks after the 2nd dose
b. At six months with interval of 4 weeks in each doses
c. At birth with 4 weeks interval
d. Given together with DPT and OPV

35. What will the nurse do if a child developed convulsion within 24 hours after giving DPT?
a. Give TSB and paracetamol, as ordered.
b. Do not give the second dose of DPT.
c. Give the child DTaP instead.
d. The child must begin with DT only on the second dose because the child reacted negatively and
developed pertussis with the first dose.

36. Which of the following is true about Tetanus Toxoid?

a. It is given for mothers for two doses with one month interval with booster doses every next pregnancy.
b. It is given with 0.05 cc, IM at deltoid region
c. It provides 99% immunity at the third dose
d. Infant is protected from tetanus for 10 years if TT2 is given
37. Environmental sanitation refers to the study of all factors in man’s physical environment which may exercise
or may not exercise deleterious effect on his health and well-being. Which of the following is not included?
a. Safe and Water Supply
b. Proper Excreta and Waste Disposal
c. Food Sanitation
d. Sexual worker’s occupation sanitation program

38. The four R’s of food sanitation includes all of the following, except:
a. Right Source
b. Right Price
c. Right Storage
d. Right Cooking

39. An adequately cooked food is heated with the temperature of:

a. 10-60 degrees C
b. 70 degrees C
c. 100 degrees C
d. 150 degrees C

40. For right storage, the following is correct except:

a. Foods should not be stored longer than 2 hours
b. Reheat with 60 degrees centrigrade.
c. Food must not be stored with room temperature
d. No rethawing, if possible.

41. Food establishments in the community shall be appraised as to their sanitary conditions. Which of the
following is important for the cook or cook helper to have?
a. Inspection
b. Approval of all food sources
c. Updated health services
d. Compliance to health certificate

42. A patient is removed from the other persons because he is susceptible in acquiring a certain disease. This kind
of isolation is called as:
a. Strict isolation
b. Contact isolation
c. Source isolation
d. Reverse isolation

43. Which of the following is true regarding source isolation?

a. Negative pressure in the room and positive outside
b. Positive pressure in the room and negative outside
c. Equalized pressure from both areas
d. Negative pressure should be maintained inside and out

44. The restriction of activities of well person that has been exposed to a case of communicable disease to prevent
disease transmission during the incubation period but without limitation to movements:
a. Complete quarantine
b. Source isolation
c. Surveillance
d. Separation

45. A patient with typhoid fever and have several bouts of diarrheal stool prompts a nurse to use what kind of
precaution:
a. Contact
b. Reverse Isolation
c. Drainage precaution
d. Enteric precaution
46. Which of the following statements about source isolation is false?
a. Air entering the room is passed through filters
b. The room is under negative air pressure
c. Source isolation is appropriate for patients with meningitis, whooping cough, or influenza
d. Transmission-based precautions will be necessary

47. Which of the following is not part of the standard precaution?

a. Hand washing between patient contacts
b. Placing a patient in a private room having negative air pressure
c. Proper disposal of needles, scalpels and other sharps
d. Wearing gloves, masks, eye protection and gowns when appropriate

48. A patient with suspected tuberculosis has been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following is not
appropriate?
a. Droplet precautions
b. Source isolation
c. Standard precautions
d. Use of a type of N95 respirator by the health care provider

49. Which of the following precautions doesn’t require any private room?
a. Reverse isolation
b. Strict isolation
c. Droplet precaution
d. Universal precaution

50. Which of the following statements about medical asepsis is false?

a. Disinfection is a medical aseptic technique
b. Hand washing is a medical aseptic technique
c. Medical asepsis is considered a clean technique
d. The goal of medical asepsis is to exclude all microorganisms

51. It is the killing of microorganisms by chemical and physical means. It can be done through dry heat, moist heat
and radiation:
a. Disinfection
b. Sterilization
c. Sanitation
d. Disinfestation

52. You are caring a client in isolation. After nursing care is done what will you remove first after handling the
patient?
a. Mask
b. Gown
c. Gloves
d. Bonnet

53. The process of weakening microorganism through consecutive steps of freezing and dessication. This process
is used for making vaccine:
a. Use of formaldehyde
b. Lyophilization
c. Attenuation
d. Moist heat application

54. The process of rendering surface that has been heavily exposed to infectious pathogen safe to handle is
known as:
a. Disinfection
b. Decontamination
c. Sterilization
d. Anti-septic
55. When a nurse uses alcohol on the client’s skin before an injection, she uses what kind of chemical-removing-
microorganism?
a. Antiseptic
b. Disinfectant
c. Decontaminant
d. Antimicrobial

56. The removal of stains and any contaminants from a kitchen utensils done at home is also known as:
a. Sanitization
b. Sanitation
c. Decontamination
d. Disinfection

57. The client with tuberculosis is expelling large amount of sputum. The nurse, every time the client coughs,
removes the soiled linen and discards the tissues and burns it. This technique is what kind of disinfection?
a. Terminal
b. Concurrent
c. Longitudinal
d. Post-expulsion

58. The process of filling animal forms through use of gaseous agent.
a. Indoor Residual Spraying (IRS)
b. Disinfestation
c. Sanitation
d. Gaseous Desentisization

59. Medical hand washing can be done for ___ and with elbows ___ :
a. 10 – 15 seconds: down
b. 10 – 15 seconds: up
c. 3 - 5 minutes: down
d. 3 – 5 minutes: up

60. The removal of all harmful microorganisms is also known as:

a. Medical asepsis
b. Surgical asepsis
c. Sterilization
d. Decontamination

61. Clostridium tetani has the following characteristics, except:

a. Drum-stick in appearance and normal inhabitant of intestine
b. Aerobic, spore-forming rod shape bacteria
c. Found in soil fomites and excretion animals and human
d. Produces one of the most potent toxin

1. Incubation period of Clostridium tetani is:

a. 3 to 30 days
b. 3 days to 3 weeks
c. 3 to 9 days
d. 3 to 3 months

1. The incubation period of tetanus among infants is:

a. 3 to 30 days
b. 3 days to 3 weeks
c. 3 to 9 days
d. 3 to 3 months

1. Tetanolysis causes RBC destruction while tetanospasmin causes:

 a. Inhibition of impulses that stops muscle contraction
b. Direct control over contraction of muscles
c. Absence of sodium potassium pump that inhibits contraction
d. Stimulation of salivary which produces excessive salivation

1. The initial sign of tetanus is:

a. Trismus
b. Abdominal rigidity
c. Opisthotonus
d. Risus sardonicus

1. The pathognomonic sign of tetanus is:

a. Trismus
b. Abdominal rigidity
c. Opisthotonus
d. Risus sardonicus

1. Which of the following management neutralized the toxins present in the body with tetanus?
a. Anti-tetanus toxin
b. Tetanus immunoglobulin
c. Penicillin
d. Equine anti toxin

1. DPT immunization provides how many years of protection?

a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years

1. Tetanus toxoid for mothers are given, except:

a. Two doses at the 2nd trimester
b. With one month interval
c. At thigh region , IM, 0.5 cc
d. Booster dose in every other pregnancy

1. Prevention of tetanus neonatorum among infants is best achieved through:

a. Adequate and effective maternal and child health
b. Provision of adequate medicine to tetanus infected child
c. Proper wound care
d. Frequent hand washing among health care providers especially during child birth

1. Wounds with patients with suspected tetanus infection is best cleaned by:
a. Soap and water
b. 3% hydrogen peroxide
c. Iodophor
d. Cydex

1. Which of the following facts about meningitis is not true:

a. 2/3 of humans are asymptomatic carrier
b. It is caused by gram negative sphere bacteria
c. Can be caused by other bacteria other than Neisseria meningitides
d. Non-infectious after one week of treatment

1. The following strains of N. meningitides do not have vaccines?

a. A
b. Y
c. C
d. B
1. Which of the following causative agents of meningitis which is common among children?
a. Hemophilus influenza
b. Streptococcus pneumonia
c. Meningococcus
d. E. coli

1. The drug of choice for this meningitis causative agent is Penicillin:

a. Hemophilus influenza
b. Streptococcus pneumonia
c. Meningococcus
d. Clostridium tetani

1. Meningoccocemia is a result of the systemic profileration of the microorganism in the body characterized by
except:
a. Petechial rash
b. Hypotension
c. DIC
d. Convulsion

1. Meningitis is the characterized by flexion of the hip and knee while in supine position, when neck is flexed. This
is known as:
a. Kernig’s sign
b. Brudzinski’s sign
c. Opisthotonus
d. Nuchal rigidity

1. Chemoprophylaxis for meningitis includes which of the following pharmacological intervention for 2 days and 2
dose and is contraindicated for pregnant mothers and taking contraceptives:
a. Rifampicin
b. Penicillin
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Tetracycline

1. The drug of choice for Meningitis is:

a. Rifampicin
b. Penicillin
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Penicilin

1. The following management decreases tendency of increased intra-cranial pressure, except:

a. Avoid valsalva maneuver
b. Administer anti-diuretics
c. Lessen environmental stimuli
d. Elevate head part

1. Which of the following causes of encephalitis is brought by a mosquito?

a. Japanese B encephalitis
b. Amoebic meningoencephalitis
c. Toxic encephalitis
d. Spongiform encephalopathy

1. West Nile Encephalitis and St. Louis Encephalitis are mosquito-related encephalitis and is caused by:
a. Flavivuris
b. Togavirus
c. Bunyavirus
d. Paramyxovirus
1. It is a kind of encephalitis that resulted from complication of communicable disease of viral origin due to
ascending infection:
a. Secondary encephalitis
b. Amoebic encephalitis
c. Toxic encephalitis
d. Mosquito-borne encephalitis

1. La crosse virus is very potent to patients who are:

a. Under 15 years old
b. Elderly
c. Pregnant
d. Male

1. The only mosquito borne encephalitis that have vaccine made from inactivated brain of mouse, given for three
doses of I cc:
a. Australian X Encephalitis
b. Equine Encephalitis
c. Japanese B encephalitis
d. St. Louise encephalitis

1. Mad cow disease is a kind of encephalitis and medically called as:

a. Kuru
b. Creudzfeldt Jakob Disease
c. Scrapie
d. Bovine spongiform encephalitis

1. Amoebic encephalitis is brought by a microorganism from waters containing organic waste and enters body
through nasal passages, olfactory nerve reaching the CNS. What is this amoeba?
a. N. fowleri
b. Acanthamoeba
c. Plasmodium ovale
d. T. brucei

1. Increase ICP among infants is manifested primarily by all of the following, in exception of:
a. High-pitched cry
b. Bulging of fontanels
c. Decrease pulse rate
d. Projectile vomiting

1. The following are the diagnostic procedures for encephalitis, except:

a. EEG
b. Blood culture
c. Nose and throat swab
d. Lumbar puncture

1. Which of the following intervention can be a preventive measure against encephalitis?

a. Avoid nasopharyngeal secretions from infected individuals with toxic encephalitis
b. CLEAN program of DOH
c. Influenza virus vaccine
d. Proper food handling

1. The following are included in the CLEAN program of DOH:

a. Stream seeding
b. Zooprohylaxis
c. Stream clearing
d. IRS
2. Drug of choice for encephalitis is:
a. Penicillin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Variable
d. Azithromycin

1. In 1955, Jonas Salk introduced this vaccine to prevent poliomyelitis caused by Sabin’s vaccine?
a. OPV
b. IPV
c. OPT
d. OPM

1. Which of the following strain of Legio-debilitans causes permanent immunity?

a. Brunhilde
b. Lansing
c. Leon
d. Paquita

1. Stage of poliomyelitis where no evident involvement of CNS noted?

a. Invasive
b. Pre-paralytic
c. Paralytic
d. Poliotic

1. Pathognomonic sign of poliomyelitis includes all of the following, except:

a. Hoyne’s sign
b. Poker’s sign
c. Stimson’s sign
d. Paralysis

1. How many days will it take to have an irreversible paralysis among client with Poliomyelitis?
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 100 days

1. Which kind of paralysis that affects the cranial nerves and respiratory muscles?
a. Spinal
b. Bulbar
c. Bulbo-spinal
d. Laundry’s paralysis

1. Diagnostic procedure for poliomyelitis includes all of the following, except:

a. Muscle Grading Scale
b. Electroencephalogram
c. Lumbar puncture
d. Stool exam

1. Priority nursing diagnosis for clients with poliomyelitis is:

a. Impaired gas exchange
b. Impaired Physical Mobility
c. Self Care deficit
d. Ineffective airway clearance

1. IPV is given for three doses and:

a. 2 doses are given at 1 to two months interval
b. 3rd dose after 6 to 12 months
c. Given at 2, 4, 6-18 months
 d. Booster dose at 10 years old

1. Incubation period of Rabies virus for man is:

a. 10 days to 10 years
b. 3 to 8 weeks
c. 3 to 10 days
d. Hours to 3 days

1. Rhabdovirus is:
a. Bullet shaped
b. Drum-stick in appearance
c. Chinese characters-like
d. Cork-screw appearance

1. Intense salivation of a rabid animal is seen in what form?

a. Dumb form
b. Furious form
c. Both dumb and furious
d. None of the above

1. The pathognomonic sign of rabies is:

a. Hydrophobia
b. Intense salivation
c. Bizarre behavior
d. Laryngospasm

1. Which of the following factors determines treatment of rabies, except?

a. Nature of contact
b. Animal species
c. Vaccination or clinical status of animal
d. Amount of saliva present during biting period

1. Absence of laryngospasm during the paralytic stage indicates:

a. Poor prognosis
b. Recovery
c. Paralysis of extremities
d. Aerophobia

1. Pre-exposure vaccine is not given:

a. To high risk individuals such as veterinarians
b. For 3 doses of 1 ml IM
c. At 0, 7, 21 to 28 days
d. to animals quarantined and observed for 10 days

1. Post-exposure prophylaxis is given for:

a. 14 doses plus 2 booster doses
b. 3 doses and no booster doses
c. 21 doses included of which is the 3 booster doses
d. 10 doses plus 2 doses for the animal

1. A dog can be vaccinated as early as:

a. During at birth
b. 3 months
c. 6 weeks
d. One year

1. Which of the following neutralizes virus and said to be safe if given to human bitten by an infected dog?
a. ERIG, 40 IU/kg
b. HRIG , 20 IU/kg
 c. HyperRab 40 IU/kg
d. Imogam 60 IU/kg

1. If an animal dies after 10 days, the following are the considerations, except:
a. Animal should not be cooked for food
b. Keep the brain frozen
c. Send animal’s head immediately to the laboratory for the detection of Negri bodies
d. Put it in a cool dawg

1. Management for the wound includes all of the following, except:

a. 70 % alcohol antisepsis
b. Running water and soap cleaning
c. Suture site if wound is large to prevent excessive bleeding
d. Place blockage tie above the injury site

1. A wild animal if even though unprovoked bit, animal should be:

a. Observed for 10 days
b. Killed at once
c. Send to PAWS
d. Donated to Malabon Zoo

1. The following are the characteristics of Cornyebacterium diptheriae, except:

a. Aerobic, non motile
b. Gram positive
c. Arrange like Chinese letters
d. Drum stick in appearance

2. The causative agent of diphtheria manifest its infective property by:

a. Invasion in the throat by adhesion and initiates inflammatory response
b. Exotoxin kills leukocytes and forms congregation in the throat
c. Staying latent in the lungs after non-recognition of macrophages
d. Increase mucus production and impedes entry air going to lungs

3. The type of diphtheria where hoarseness of voice, DOB, and aphonia is observed:
a. Nasal
b. Pharyngeal
c. Laryngeal
d. Mucous membrane

4. What type of diphtheria is manifested where the client has exudative pseudomembrane on throat and vulva
and considered uncommon yet very dangerous?
a. Nasal
b. Pharyngeal
c. Laryngeal
d. Mucous membrane

5. Pharyngeal type of diphtheria with 2 cultures already sent to the laboratory must have a strict isolation for:
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 2 to 4 days
d. 14 days

6. Patients with diphtheria must have how many negative results should be taken to confirm absence of
infection?
a. Three
b. Two
c. One
 d. None, clinical sign is enough to confirm presence

7. The pathognomonic sign of diphtheria is:

a. Inspiratory whoop
b. Hemoptysis
c. Pseudomembrane
d. Coryza

8. Equine diphtheria anti-toxin must be given for patients with diphtheria:

a. After three positive result to nose and throat culture
b. Even without laboratory result
c. Together with penicillin or erythromycin to eliminate toxin that has already been absorbed
d. If not allergic to equine; otherwise, human equine anti-toxin must be given

9. If client is experiencing diphtheria, which of the following is a must at the client’s bedside?
a. Pair of scissors
b. Mechanical ventilator
c. Tracheostomy set
d. Bottle

10. Which of the following complications is likely to happen for clients with diphtheria?
a. Meningitis
b. Orchitis
c. Myocarditis
d. Gastro-intestinal affectations

11. Contact isolation is needed for client with what kind of diphtheria?
a. Nasal
b. Laryngeal
c. Cutaneous
d. Mucous membrane

12. Preventive measure against diphtheria is through vaccination. Which of the following considerations are not
intended for diphtheria vaccine?
a. 3 doses, given first at 6 weeks
b. Injected IM at deltoid region
c. Booster dose every two years especially for travelers
d. DPT antigen is a whole cell vaccine

13. Which of the following about pertussis, is considered incorrect?

a. Patients under 6 months and vaccinated do not create a whoop
b. Whooping cough is characterized by repeated violent coughing followed by rapid
expiration
c. It produces pertussis toxin that increases mucus production
d. Pertussis is characterized also by increase in thoracic and intracranial pressure

14. Presence of whooping cough, increase thoracic pressure and involuntary micturition occurs on what stage of
pertussis?
a. Invasive
b. Spasmodic
c. Catarrhal
d. Convalescence

15. The diagnostic procedure for pertussis is:

a. Shick’s test
b. Maloney’s test
c. Bordet-gengou test
 d. Pandy’s test

16. The client with Pertussis taking Penicillin is considered non-infective after:
a. Negative result on the laboratory test
b. Five days after continued therapy
c. Increased WBC up to 20 per cent
d. Absence of whooping cough

17. Possible complication of Pertussis include, except:

a. Abdominal hernia
b. Increase ICP
c. Secondary infection
d. Blindness

18. Patient with pertussis should be seggrated for 3 weeks from the appearance of paroxysmal cough through:
a. Contact isolation
b. Airborne isolation
c. Droplet isolation
d. Transmission based precaution

19. If a child experienced convulsion after a DPT immunization, which of the following intervention would the nurse
do?
a. Give the next dose as scheduled
b. Give DTaP on the next dose
c. Give DT for the next dose
d. No vaccination on the next schedule

20. It is a acute and mutative highly communicable diseases that cause 20 M deaths (1918) rendering more
mortality than the World War I.
a. Malaria
b. Tuberculosis
c. AIDS
d. Influenza

21. The influenza virus is very virulent to those immunocompromised and extremes of age and has the ability to:
a. Reactivate after latent infection
b. Mutate and create another strain
c. Infiltrate other organs; hence, multiple organ failure
d. Affect gonads and may lead to sterility

22. Strain of influenza that is most severe and major cause of epidemics and endemics:
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D

23. The drug of choice for influenza, especially for type A is:
a. Amantidine
b. Acyclovir
c. Zidovoudine
d. Zanamivir

24. Zanamivir (Reenza) and Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) are both effective to influenza virus type:
a. A
b. B
c. Both A and B
d. Type C
25. Which of the following is a preventive measure against influenza?
a. Contact isolation
b. Vaccination each year especially for travelers
c. Chemoprophylaxis of Amantidine
d. Adequate nutrition

26. The major cause of disability in the world is brought by:

a. Leprosy
b. Tuberculosis
c. Pneumonia
d. Poliomyelitis

27. The following are characteristics of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, except:

a. Gram positive and rod shape
b. Acid-fast and highly aerobic
c. Can be killed by drying and disinfectants
d. May cause delayed hypersensitivity reaction

28. The patient is considered non-infective after:

a. Two to four weeks after therapy
b. one week after therapy
c. after negative Microscopic Examination result
d. after negative chest X-ray

29. The tuberculosis-causing microorganism can be transmitted through the following means, except:
a. Coughing, sneezing, singing
b. Direct invasion through mucus membrane or break in the skin
c. Feco-oral route
d. Unpasteurized milk or dairy products

30. Granuloma or tubercles that resist digestion and removal by macrophages are called:
a. Ghons complexes
b. Caseous necrosis
c. Consumption
d. Cavity

31. TB in the bones is also known as:

a. Miliary Tuberculosis
b. TB meningitis
c. Pott’s disease
d. Extrapulmonary TB

32. A tuberculosis patient have moderately advanced extent of disease progression if:
a. Lesions are demonstrated without excavation and confined to small part of one or both lungs
b. One or both lungs are involved with a total diameter of cavities less than 4 cm
c. Lesions are more than the volume of a single lung
d. Microorganisms traveled in the systemic circulation affecting only proximal organs

33. Which of the following TB category according to DOH, has a new smear negative PTB with minimal
parenchymal lesions on Chest X-ray?
a. Category I
b. Category II
c. Category III
d. Category IV

34. Immediate reporting of this category to the Regional Tuberculosis Program Center is a must:
a. Category I
 b. Category II
c. Category III
d. Category IV

35. Which of the following signs and symptoms may prompt a patient to seek medical attention suspecting
tuberculosis?
a. Chest pain
b. Afternoon fever
c. Cough for two weeks
d. Shortness of breath

36. The standard diagnostic procedure for tuberculosis is:

a. Direct sputum smear microscopy
b. Chest X-ray
c. Mantoux test
d. Purified protein derivative

37. Induration of 8 to 10 mm, according to DOH, means?

a. Past exposure to tuberculosis
b. Positive tuberculosis case
c. Immunocompromised patient
d. Possible with HIV

38. Which of the following patient does not confirm positive test for Mantoux test?
a. 5 mm induration for those positive granuloma formation after CXR
b. 10 mm induration for those with DM, Renal Failure and hematological problem
c. 10 mm induration for those with sudden weight loss
d. 10 mm for HIV patient

39. Which of the following drug for TB is the only one in capsule form?
a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutol
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Isoniazid

40. TB formulation of anti-TB drugs that are prepared separately:

a. Single drug formulation
b. Fixed dose combination
c. DOTS
d. MDT paucibacillary

41. Allergic reaction is frequently observed with:

a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutol
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Isoniazid

42. Which of the following is also used as a chemoprophylaxis for TB:

a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutol
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Isoniazid

43. Side effect of Ethambutol is:

a. Peripheral neuritis
b. Orange bodily secretions
c. Optic neuritis
 d. Ototoxicity

44. The best method of prevention of TB and leprosy especially among children is:
a. Taking INH for prophylaxis
b. Good nutrition
c. Healthy environment
d. BCG immunization

45. Patients taking isoniazid primarily, must:

a. Take medication with food
b. Take vitamin B6
c. Be assessed every 2 to 4 weeks for vision
d. Have kidney and liver function test

46. The recommended regimen for patients under category 2 is:

a. HRZES for 2 months, HRZE for 1 month (intensive phase) and five months of HRE
(maintenance phase)
b. 2 months of HRZE (intensive phase) and 4 months of HR (maintenance phase)
c. HRZES for 3 months (intensive phase) and five months of HRE (maintenance phase)
d. 2 months of HRZE and 2 month of HR (intensive phase) and 4 months of HR (maintenance phase)

47. BCG immunization came from what mycobacterium strain?

a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Mycobacterium africanum
c. Mycobacterium bovis
d. Mycobacterium caninum

48. Which of the following food handling measures are said to be incorrect?
a. Boil food approximately reaching 60 degrees Celcius.
b. Avoid tasting unusual or foods with peculiar odor.
c. Sanitization is the process of disinfecting kitchen utensils.
d. Wash hand before, during and after food preparation.

1. According to WHO, the following are the keys on how to maintain safety of food, except:
a. Cook thoroughly
b. Use safe water
c. Separate raw and cook
d. Use hand sanitizer

1. Diet that is frequently ordered for a client with diarrhea:

a. Acid ash diet
b. Alkaline ash diet
c. Bland diet
d. High fiber diet

1. Which of the following bleeding episodes indicates upper GI bleeding

a. Hematemesis
b. Hematochezia
c. Melena
d. Hemoptysis

TYPHOID FEVER
1. The causative agent of typhoid fever is:
a. Salmonella enterica
b. Salmonella typhosa
c. Salmonella enteritidis
 d. Salmonella choleraesuis

1. A vector that transmits typhoid bacillus to its infective host:

a. Mosquito
b. Snail
c. Fly
d. Feces

1. The pathognomonic sign of typhoid fever is:

a. Rose spots on the abdomen
b. Butterfly rash
c. Stimson’s sign
d. Forscheimer spots

1. Salmonella enterica / typhosa microorganism is virulent because which of the following mode of action?
a. Pushing itself from one cell to another by adhesin and actin tail
b. Attracts electrolytes and then expelled causing diarrhea
c. Burrowing to the Peyer’s patches of the small intestine
d. Penetrating the intestinal wall and travels systemically

1. The following clinical manifestations are observed during the fastidial stage, except:
a. Typhoid psychosis
b. Carphologia
c. Subsultus tendinum
d. Intestinal perforation

1. A cook of a restaurant is free from typhoid bacillus only if:

a. 3 consecutive cultures are done, with one month interval and found negative
b. After 48 hours of continued therapy and found negative during culture
c. After a negative scotch tape result
d. After 10 days of fecalysis and found negative

1. The following immunoglobulin findings indicate the early infection of typhoid fever:
a. Increase IgG
b. Increase IgM
c. No Ig increase
d. Increase in both IgG and IgM

1. The drug of choice for typhoid fever is:

a. Chloramphenicol
b. Ampicillin
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Penicillin

1. Chloramphenicol is contraindicated for children in the United States because it may cause:
a. Liver cirrhosis
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Sterility
d. Blindness

1. Possible complication of typhoid fever includes, except:

a. Intestinal perforation
b. Hemorrhage
c. Extraintestinal typhoid fever
d. Peritonitis
1. Shigellosis is also known as, except:
a. Asylum dysentery
b. Bacillary dysentery
c. Blood flux
d. El tor

1. The group of Shigella or dysentery bacillus that produces a Shiga toxin and is said to be the most virulent:
a. Shflesneri
b. Shboy-dii
c. Sh-dysenteriae
d. Sh-connei

1. The following are the means of transmitting Shigella or dysentery bacillus, except:
a. Feco-oral transmission
b. Contaminated water, milk and food
c. Droplet transmission
d. Transmission by fly

1. Which of the following nursing intervention in collecting stool specimen with Shigellosis?
a. Must be of sufficient amount to obtain accurate result, approximately one half of a drinking cup
b. 2 successive fecal sample twice a day
c. Must be sent in the laboratory at once
d. Must be refrigerated first to halt the growth of other microorganisms

1. The drug of choice for Shigellosis which is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimetropin:
a. Ampicillin
b. Tetracycline
c. Cotrimoxazole
d. Loperamide

1. Another term to connote cholera is, except:

a. Violent dysentery
b. El tor
c. Washerwoman’s disease
d. Flux

1. Possible effects of diarrhea is:

a. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Hypokalemia
c. Hypernatremia
d. Respiratory acidosis

1. During the collapse stage of cholera, the client will be experiencing what sign of dehydration which is
considered also a pathognomonic sign of cholera:
a. Marked mental depression
b. Sultus tendinum
c. Washerwoman’s sign
d. Rose spots on the abdomen

1. Drug of choice for cholera is:

a. Ampicillin
b. Tetracycline
c. Cotrimoxazole
d. Loperamide

1. Cholera, dysentery and typhoid fever can be prevented by CDT immunization given deltoid area and gives:
a. 6 months immunity
b. 1 year immunity
 c. 3 years immunity
d. 5 months immunity

1. Which of the following gastro-intestinal disease is caused by protozoa?

a. Violent dysentery
b. Typhoid fever
c. Bacillary dysentery
d. Amebic dysentery

1. The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is:

a. Larva
b. Cyst
c. Trophozoites
d. Gametocytes

1. The possible complication of amebiasis which is of greatest concern and most severe is:
a. Extraintestinal amebiasis
b. Dehydration
c. Hemorrhage
d. Shock

1. The drug of choice for amebiasis is:

a. Chloramphenicol
b. Cotrimoxazole
c. Metronidazole
d. Tetracycline

PARAGONOMIASIS
1. The main and primary intermediate host of Paragonomiasis
a. Antemelania asperata
b. Varona litterata
c. Paragonimus westermani
d. Paragonimus siamenses

1. The following are the possible modes of transmission of Paragonomiasis

a. Ingestion of raw or insufficiently cooked crabs
b. Contamination of food and utensils
c. Drinking contaminated water
d. Sexual contact

1. Paragonomiasis is endemic in the following areas, except:

a. Mindoro, Camarines region
b. Sorsogon, Samar and Leyte
c. Albay, Cebu and Basilan
d. Guimaras, Pangasinan and Zambales

1. Patients with Paragonomiasis are misdiagnosed because it has this disease manifestation:
a. PTB
b. Diptheria
c. Pneumonia
d. Pertussis

1. Diagnostic examination for Paragonomiasis are the following, except:

a. Sputum examination
b. CSF analysis
c. Immunology
d. Fecalysis
1. Drug of choice for Paragonomiasis is:
a. Praziquantel
b. Hetrazan
c. Chloroquine
d. Penicilin

1. Alternative drug choice for Paragonomiasis

a. BITIN
b. Rifampicin
c. Chloroquine
d. Tetracycline

1. The most important means of preventing Paragonomiasis is:

a. Sanitary disposal of excreta
b. Food sanitation
c. Avoid bathing in infected water
d. Anti-mollusk campaign

1. Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning (PSP)is commonly known as:

a. Red Tide
b. Green algae Poisoning
c. Sting Ray Poisoning
d. Paragonomiasis

1. Which of the following facts about PSP’s causative agent is not true?
a. Caused by Dinoflagellates
b. Common term is plankton
c. Less than 30 kinds of 2000 varieties ca cause poisoning
d. Increases because of continuous high temperature and/or summer

1. Which of the following mollusks is the cause of PSP, except:

a. Tahong
b. Talaba
c. Halaan
d. Pamaypay

1. Which of the following facts about shellfish with poison is not true:
a. It contains a toxin known as Pyromidium
b. The toxin affects the CNS primarily
c. It can be neutralize by vinegar or any acidic solution
d. It can tolerate extreme heat and temperature

1. Classical clinical manifestations of PSP are the following, in exception to:

a. Paralysis
b. Ataxia
c. Dysphagia
d. Urticaria

1. Which of the following victims would probably have the highest rate of survival after ingesting a poisonous
shellfish?
a. Those who have eaten pamaypay, the least poisonous shellfish
b. Those who have survived the first 12 hours after ingestion
c. Those who have drank immediately sea water to counterpart shellfish’s poison
d. Those who urged and successfully vomited

1. A person who have eaten and manifested signs and symptoms of PSP must first:
a. Drink decaffeinated coffee
 b. Take the shellfish and let it be examined by the laboratory technicians to know antibiotic of choice.
c. Induce vomiting.
d. Take metronidazole, as ordered.

1. During the early stage of poisoning, let the client do which of the following first aid measures to neutralize
toxin, except?
a. Drinking pure coconut milk
b. Drinking milk
c. Drinking sodium bicarbonate solution
d. Drinking vinegar

1. The most common reason of botulism among infants is:

a. Eating fecal material of the child
b. Eating commercially prepared food such as Cerelac
c. Introduction of honey to baby
d. Inadequately boiled drinking milk

1. Which of the following facts about botulism is not true:

a. Manifest within 12 to 36 hours
b. First 24 hours – critical
c. Initial signs and symptoms includes dry mouth, sore throat, weakness, vomiting diarrhea
d. Infants are rigid and muscle contraction is evident.

1. Which of the following facts about STH is not true?

a. third most prevalent infection worldwide
b. ranked top 10 among the World’s Top Ten Infectious Diseases Killer
c. Deworming is the number one cost effective priority intervention among five to fourteen year group
d. 2-5 years old are the reservoirs; while 6 to 14 are easily infected

1. The three major causes of intestinal parasitic infection in the Philippines are, except:
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Trichuris trichuria
c. Hookworms (Ancylostoma duodonale and Necator americanus)
d. Oxyuris vermicularis

1. Causative agent of pinworm:

a. Oxyuris vermicularis
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Strogyloides stercoralis
d. Trichuris trichuria

1. Another term for pinworm:

a. Enterobiasis
b. Strongyloidiasis
c. Trichuriasis
d. Ancylostosomiasis

1. Primarily, pinworms are transmitted through:

a. Droplet
b. Soil
c. Fomites
d. Airborne

1. The pathognomonic sign of Pinworm infection is:

a. Aplastic anemia
b. Nocturnal ani
c. Eczema
 d. Hemorrhoids

1. Ascariasis lumbricoides is also known as:

a. Pinworm
b. Tapeworm
c. Roundworm
d. Threadworm

1. It has a strong affinity to this part of the body where the eggs matures for 3 weeks:
a. Liver
b. Lungs
c. Kidneys
d. GI tract

1. Threadworms are also known as:

a. Enterobiasis
b. Strongyloidiasis
c. Trichuriasis
d. Ancylostosomiasis

1. Threadworms are different from other roundworms because it has the following capacity, except:
a. Reproduce even without host
b. Eggs hatch into larvae in the intestine
c. Have an increase viability form known as the rhabdozoite
d. Eggs are the infective stage

1. Whipworm infection is caused by:

a. Oxyuris vermicularis
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Strogyloides stercoralis
d. Trichuris trichuria

1. Ancylostomiasis is also known as:

a. Pinworm
b. Hookworm
c. Roundworm
d. Tapeworm

1. Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodanale infection can result:

a. Eczema
b. Ear infection
c. Anemia
d. Vitamin B 12 deficiency

1. Tapeworm or flatworms are found in fish, beef and pork. Tapeworm infection from pork is caused by:
a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Taenia saginata
c. Taenia solium
d. Taenia baraziliense

1. Pinworms are embedded in the animal meat through what form?

a. Cysticerci
b. Proglottids
c. Rhabdozoites
d. Sporozoites

1. The most efficient and cost-effective method done to determine worm infection is:
 a. Stool Exam
b. Scotch tape method
c. Direct fecal smear
d. Sigmoidoscopy

1. Mebendazole and its drug family kills worms by:

a. Paralyzing the worms
b. Inhibiting the glucose intake of the worms
c. Detoxifying their toxins
d. Chemically altering their component

1. The most effective measure against worm infections is:

a. Avoid walking bare footed
b. Promoting hygiene
c. Vaccination
d. Isolation

HEPATITIS
1. Considered AIDS’ twin, it is the 2nd leading cause of cancer, second to tobacco:
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D

1. Also known as post-infusion hepatitis:

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D

1. Another term for hepatitis B is:

a. Homologous serum jaundice
b. Epidemic hepatitis
c. Catarrhal jaundice
d. Post-transfusion hepatitis

1. Most common type of hepatitis:

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D

1. Transmission of hepatitis E includes which of the following?

a. Feco-oral route
b. Blood, sexual contact
c. Semen
d. Transfusion

1. Post infection of a fulminant hepatitis B:

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis C
c. Hepatitis D
d. Hepatitis F

1. Which of the following intervention is appropriate for the Hepatitis A:

a. Blood screening for blood donation.
b. Use of disposable equipment especially syringe and needles.
c. Avoid oro-anal sexual intercourse
 d. No sharing of personal items which may cause break in the skin. (e.g. razor)

1. Jaundice, a pathognomonic sign of hepatitis, appears on what stage of illiness:

a. Pre-icteric
b. Icteric
c. Latent
d. Post-icteric

1. Diet of patients with a fulminant hepatitis includes all the following except:
a. small, frequent feedings
b. high CHO
c. increase CHON
d. high in vitamins, especially Vitamin B Complex

1. Which of the following is not nursing management intended to clients with hepatitis?
a. Relieve pruritus – warm, moist compress or emollient lotion
b. Health teaching – avoid alcohol
c. Isolation precaution
d. Administer medications as ordered (Corticosteroids, Liver protector – Essentiale)
1. Eruptions in the skin that present in the mucus membrane:
a. Exanthem
b. Enanthem
c. Papule
d. Lesions

1. Which of the following management is not included for the care of patients with integumentary problems?
a. Use calamine lotion
b. Administer anti-histamine
c. Trim nails and wear mittens among children
d. Wear constrictive clothing to alleviate itching

MEASLES
1. Measles is also known as, except:
a. Three-day measles
b. Rubeola
c. Little Red Disease
d. Morbili

1. The pathognomic sign of measles is:

a. Forscheimer spots
b. Koplik’s spots
c. Stimson’s sign
d. Postherpetic Neuraglia

1. The following are the clinical manifestations of Measles, except”

a. Conjuctivitis with photophobia
b. Bright red spot with a blue-white spot at the center at the buccal mucosa
c. Low grade fever
d. Deep red macula-papular eruptions

1. The appearance of rashes of measles is characterized by all of the following, except:

a. Begins at the hairline and behind the ears
b. Appears at the trunk first (unifocal)
c. Desquamation occurs after rashes
d. Cephalocaudal appearance of rashes is observed

1. A complication of Measles wherein a defective virus enters the brain and causes seizure, paralysis and coma:
 a. Bovine Spongiform Encephalitis
b. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis
c. Herpes Zoster
d. African Sleeping Sickness

1. Measles vaccine is given with the following considerations, except:

a. Introduced once at nine months
b. O.5 cc is introduced at deltoid muscle, ID
c. AMV can be given as early as 6 months
d. Report experience of fever and mild rashes for 3 to 4 days

1. Possible complication of measles include, except:

a. Pneumonia
b. Otitis media
c. Encephalitis
d. Renal failure

1. Measles can be prevented by a vaccine known as MMR and is given during the:
a. 9th months
b. 15th month
c. 12th month
d. 14th month

GERMAN MEASLES
1. German measles is also known as, except:
a. Rubella
b. Rubeola
c. Roseola
d. Rothein

1. Characteristics of German measles rash include all of the following, except:

a. Pink-red maculopapular rash
b. Rashes are slightly bigger than measles
c. Rashes appears on face going to the trunk to the extremities
d. Rash disappearance is characterized by fine flaking

1. Avoidance of German measles is a must for pregnant mothers specifically for the first trimester because of its
possible effect to the baby. This is observed because:
a. The virus produces inflammatory response that is not conducive for the zygote.
b. The virus can readily pass through the placenta and produce its effects to the fetus
c. It causes abortion
d. It dilates the cervix that causes propulsion of the fetus.

1. The following are the possible complication of German measles, except:

a. Congenital anomaly
b. Otitis media
c. Bronchopneumonia
d. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis

CHICKEN POX
1. The causative agent of chicken pox is:
a. Herpes simplex
b. Human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus)
c. Paramyxovirus
d. Morbili virus

1. The possible sequelae of chicken pox when reactivated during the later years if life is:
 a. Pneumonia
b. Peripheral Neuropathy
c. Cataract
d. Shingles

1. The appearance of rashes among clients with chicken pox start from the trunk and is initially characterized by
what kind of lesion?
a. Maculae
b. Papulae
c. Vesicle
d. Pustule

1. Penicillin is administered to patients with chicken pox is given because:

a. Penicillin inhibits the growth of microorganisms of chicken pox.
b. Penicillin alleviates signs and symptoms of chicken pox.
c. Penicillin prevents other infection accompanied possible by chicken pox.
d. Penicillin prevents prolonged exposure to virus.

1. Aspirin is not given for patient with Chicken pox to prevent:

a. Creutzfeld-Jakob Syndrome
b. Reye’s syndrome
c. Herpes Zoster
d. Postherpetic neuralgia

1. Which of the following assessment procedures will diagnose chicken pox?

a. Varicella Zoster Ig is more than 10
b. Physical assessment
c. Fecalysis
d. CSF analysis on the 2nd day

1. The burning pain experienced along the cluster of skin vesicles, along courses of peripheral sensory nerves
experienced by those with shingles is called:
a. Postherpetic neuralgia
b. Herpetic Blisters
c. Dermatologic pain
d. Shingle’s pain

1. Involvement of the facial nerve in herpes zoster with facial paralysis, hearing loss, loss of taste in half of the
tongue and skin lesions around the ear and ear canal is known as:
a. Ramsay-hunt syndrome
b. Cushing’s sydrome
c. Psychotic syndrome
d. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

1. The first disease where microorganism is discovered through the ages and in the bible:
a. Leprosy
b. Cholera
c. Typhus
d. Bubonic plague

1. Multidrug therapy was first introduced in the Philippines through a pilot study in Cebu and Ilocos Norte in:
a. 1985
b. 1987
c. 1989
d. 1991

1. MDT was implemented nationwide after the successful pilot study in Cebu and Ilocos Norte in:
 a. 1985
b. 1987
c. 1989
d. 1991

1. Leprosy is still a health problem among 4 provinces in the Philippines, except:

a. Ilocos region
b. Basilan
c. Sulu
d. Aparri

1. Which of the following leprosy type indicates skin lesions that are sharply demarcated and bilaterally
symmetrical?
a. Lepromatous
b. Tuberculoid
c. Indeterminate
d. Borderline

1. In this type of leprosy, nodules, papules and macules are diffuse, infiltrations are bilaterally symmetrical,
numerous and extensive, and crusting of the nasal mucosa, obstructed breathing and epistaxis occurs.
a. Lepromatous
b. Tuberculoid
c. Indeterminate
d. Borderline

1. Leprosy type with hypopigmented macule with ill defined borders:

a. Lepromatous
b. Tuberculoid
c. Indeterminate
d. Borderline

1. A patient with more than 5 lesions is categorized as:

a. Single lesion paucibacillary
b. Paucibacillary
c. Multibacillary
d. Tuberculoid

1. Paucubacillary is a non-infectious type of leprosy that is treated for how many months?
a. 6 to 9 months
b. 24 to 30 months
c. 12 to 24 months
d. 8 to 16 months

1. Which of the following manifestations is not considered a late sign of leprosy:

a. Anhydrosis
b. Lagopthalmos
c. Madarosis
d. Gynecomastia

1. Diagnosis of leprosy is currently based on:

a. Positive slit skin smear
b. Clinical signs and symptoms
c. ELISA
d. Antibody test

1. The use of two or more drugs for the treatment of leprosy and considered as a public health program:
a. MDT
b. DOTS
 c. IMCI
d. MBS

1. A person is considered non-infectious after undergoing how many weeks of MDT?

a. Three weeks
b. One week
c. After the complete treatment of the Paucibacillay or Multibacillary treatment
d. Four weeks

1. How many blister pack should be completed for a patient with Multibacillary leprosy?
a. 6 blisters packs for a maximum period of nine months
b. 12 blister packs to be taken within a maximum period of 18 months
c. 6 blister packs for a maximum period of 18 months
d. 12 blister packs to be taken within nine months

1. All but one is an early sign of leprosy:

a. Madarosis
b. Change in skin color
c. Nasal obstruction or bleeding
d. Ulcers that doesn’t heal

2. Leprosy can be transmitted through:

a. Blood
b. Semen
c. Sex
d. Prolonged skin to skin contact

3. A negative slit skin smear requires a single dose of the following drugs except:
a. Ofloxacin
b. Rifampicin
c. Clofazimine
d. Minocycline

1. The drug that has a side effect of skin discoloration is:

a. Clofazimine
b. Rifampicin
c. Dapsone
d. Streptomycin

1. Clofazimine is given how many times for a patient with Paucibacillary leprosy:
a. Once a month then daily
b. Once a month only
c. Daily
d. None

1. Rifampicin in both Multibacillary and Paucibacillary treatment is given once a day with how many mg is
recommended for a child with leprosy?
a. 600 mg
b. 450 mg
c. 100 mg
d. 50 mg

1. Should the patient fail to complete the regimen prescribed for MB, the patient should continue treatment until
how many blister packs are consumed?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 18
d. 24
 1. Which of the following management can prevent leprosy?
a. BCG immunization
b. Leprosy vaccine
c. Slit skin smear
d. Chemoprophylaxis of rifampicin

1. The disease that is the most common concern in the Philippines is:
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomoniasis

1. The leading mode of transmission of HIV and STI in the Philippines is:
a. Sharing needles for injecting drug use
b. Sexual contact
c. Vertical transmission
d. Blood transfusion

1. What is the most effective means of preventing STI?

a. Use of condom
b. Contact tracing
c. Drug compliance
d. Routine screening of sexual workers

GONORRHEA
1. The pathognomonic sign of gonorrhea is:
a. Nocturnal ani
b. Gleet
c. Dyspareunia
d. Chancre

2. Another term to connote gonorrhea is, except:

a. Strain
b. Morning drop
c. GC
d. Bad blood

3. The most common reportable sexually transmitted disease is:

a. Trichomoniasis
b. Chylamydia
c. Syphilis
d. Gonorrhea

4. Neisseria gonorrhea and Treponema pallidum is contracted only during sexual intercourse because:
a. These microorganisms need physical contact to transfer from one another.
b. These microorganisms love heat and grow fast when body temperature is high.
c. These microorganisms are active only during sexual intercourse.
d. These microorganisms possess the ability to penetrate only during sexual contact.

5. Neisseria gonorrhea have the ability to be transferred from the infective male going to the partner through:
a. Adhesion of the microorganism to the sperm during expulsion
b. Enterotoxin production that is transmitted by the sperm
c. Penile contact to the mucosa of the vagina transmits the microorganism
d. Oral and anal sex even without withdrawal

6. The female who contracted the microorganism may have sterility because:
a. Microorganism attacks the ovaries and kills egg cells
b. Endotoxin paralyze cilia in the fallopian tube
 c. The microorganism clogs in the cervical opening preventing sperm to enter
d. Uterus keeps on contracting expulsing sperm away due to toxins produced by the microorganism

7. The drug of choice in the treatment of gonorrhea is:

a. Penicillin
b. Azithromycin
c. Tetracycline
d. Metronidazole

8. Which of the following is true about gonorrhea?

a. Females are asymptomatic carriers making transmission of disease very easy and
undiagnosed
b. Males do not manifest any signs and symptoms for the first 10 days
c. Females produces a vaginal discharge that is cheesy in appearance
d. Infection of the eyes among infants is not possible unlike tetanus neonatorum

9. Which of the following are the possible complications of gonorrhea, except?

a. PID
b. Arthritis
c. Kidney damage
d. Liver cirrhosis

10. Syphilis is also known as:

a. Lues
b. Trich
c. Gleet
d. Jack

11. The incubation period of syphilis is:

a. 10 to 90 days
b. 2 to 10 days
c. 2 to 21 days
d. 4 to 20 days

12. The pathognomonic sign of syphilis is:

a. Chancre
b. Gumma
c. Gleet
d. Painful urination

13. The presence of rashes, where the blood vessels are severely damaged, is an indicator that the stage of
syphilis is now at what stage?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Latent
d. Tertiary

14. Syphilis microorganism is sensitive with antibiotics, specifically a single injection of:
a. Tetracycline
b. Benzathine Penicillin
c. Vancomycin
d. Metronifazole

15. The stage when a syphilis-infected individual remains infectious but not to other people:
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Latent
d. Tertiary
16. The only sexually transmitted disease that may cause insanity is:
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Nonspecific vaginitis

17. The disease that manifests and same microbial invasion mechanism like that of Chylamydia and can only be
differentiated through culture test is:
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Herpes simplex

18. Cases of chylamdia is difficult to trace and diagnose because:

a. Microorganism is resistant to staining
b. Females who are infected are usually asymptomatic
c. Males do not report it because of cultural factors
d. Microorganism looks like that of Treponema pallidum

19. One of the most common cause of ectopic pregnancy brought by a sexually transmitted disease is:
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
c. Chylamydia
d. Herpes simplex

20. The incubation period of Trichomonas vaginalis is

a. 10-20 days
b. 14-21 days
c. 10-30 days
d. 4-20 days

21. The distinguishing characteristic of vaginal discharge of those with is Trichomoniasis is:
a. White-greenish discharge with fish like odor
b. Cheesy like discharge
c. Whitish with red spots discharge
d. Vinegar smelling greenish discharge

22. The medicine of choice for female who are infected with Trichomonas vaginalis is?
a. Metronidazole
b. Tetracycline
c. Penicillin
d. Erythromycin

23. The possible complication of trichomoniasis is:

a. PID
b. Cervical cancer
c. Sterility
d. Blindness

24. A kind of candidiasis manifested in the nails is known as:

a. Onychomycosis
b. Moniliasis
c. Thrush
d. Diaper rash

25. Which of the following may likely contribute to the development of Candidiasis, except?
a. Cancer
 b. Diabetes
c. Broad spectrum antibiotics
d. Hereditary factors

26. Which of the following medication is effective against oral thrush?

a. Nystatin solution taken 4 to 6 times a day, swished and swallowed
b. Imidazole suppository five times a day for 2 weeks
c. Myconazole retained for five minutes in the mouth then discarded
d. Amphotericin B via IV

27. Nursing management for Candidiasis includes:

a. Provide a diet high in alkaline
b. Provide care for itching
c. Increase fluid intake
d. Weigh the client everyday

28. Herpes simplex type that is transmitted through kissing, sharing kitchen utensils and/or sharing towels:
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Latent type
d. Type 3

29. Herpes simplex type that causes minor rash, itching, muscular pain and burning sensation is:
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Latent type
d. Type 3

30. The leading sexually transmitted disease among industrialized countries is:
a. Herpes simplex
b. Syphilis
c. Gonorrhea
d. Candidiasis

31. The first name for the end stage of HIV infection and coined on 1981 is:
a. Gay-related immunodeficiency syndrome
b. Hypo-immunity syndrome
c. Acquired immune deficiency disease
d. Venereal disease

32. The year when Philippines had its first case of AIDS:
a. 1983
b. 1984
c. 1985
d. 1986

33. The second to largest region where AIDS is prevalent:

a. Africa
b. South East Asia
c. Latin America
d. Europe

34. The causative agent of AIDS is:

a. Retrovirus – HTLV-3
b. Human lentivirus immuno-deficiency virus
c. Human immunocompetent virus
d. G6 PD virus
35. The period where no manifestations are observed for patient infected with HIV and laboratory results shows no
remarkable immune system defect?
a. Sero-conversion period
b. Cell-mediated period
c. Fastigium period
d. Early asymptomatic period

36. How many times would a laboratory technician to withdraw blood sample from a patient to satisfy ELISA and
Western Blot diagnostic procedure?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

37. The golden standard for confirming a positive individual infected with HIV:
a. ELISA
b. Western Blot
c. Immunosorbent test
d. Fluorescent Antibody test

38. A patient infected with HIV is said to be on its late stage when his/her CD4 cells are:
a. Below 200 cells/mm3
b. Below 300 cells/mm3
c. Below 400 cells/mm3
d. Below 100 cells/mm3

39. The transmission of HIV of a mother to her baby is known as:

a. Vertical transmission
b. Horizontal transmission
c. Definitive transmission
d. Diagonal transmission

40. Transmission of HIV is possible through, except:

a. Sexual contact
b. Kissing
c. Blood transfusion
d. Use of contaminated syringe

41. Opportunistic infection present during the early symptomatic stage includes all of the following, except:
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Herpes Simplex
c. Candidiasis
d. Pneumocystic carinii Pneumonia

42. The leading cause of death among patients with AIDS is:
a. Herpes Simplex
b. Candidiasis
c. Tuberculosis
d. AIDS-related Dementia

43. An enzyme of an HIV that causes transformation of RNA to DNA is known as:
a. Protease
b. Reverse transcriptase
c. Integrase
d. Nuclease

44. The following are the consideration in taking good care of clients with HIV except:
a. Gloves should be worn when handling blood specimen, soiled linen or any body fluids.
 b. Thermometer is washed with warm soapy water and soaks it with 40% alcohol for 10
minutes.
c. Avoid contact to open wound or lesions.
d. Universal precaution and body substance isolation is a must.

45. Blood spills should be cleaned up promptly with a disinfectant solution of:
a. Household bleach
b. Alcohol
c. Iodine
d. Hydrogen peroxide

46. Patients with AIDS are said to immunocompromised. Which of the following intervention is the nurse would
likely best perform to prevent further infection:
a. Administration of antibiotics, as ordered
b. Hand washing
c. Monitor for oral infection and meningitis
d. Always check laboratory records of WBC and CD4 cells

47. Drug of choice for HIV is:

a. Indinavir
b. Zidovoudine
c. Ritonavir
d. Acyclovir

48. Client refused to answer some of the questions asked by the nurse during the assessment phase. What will the
nurse do?
a. Respect client’s inability to discuss problem
b. Encourage verbalizations until information is extracted
c. Let the patient sign a refusal slip
d. Report patient to DOH at once

49. According to the goals of Reproductive health, all are true, except,
a. Every pregnancy should be intended
b. Every birth should be healthy
c. Every women should be given condom to protect herself from STD and pregnancy
d. Every sex should be free of coercion and infection

50. The four C’s of STD management includes all of the following, except:
a. Condom
b. Contact-tracing
c. Counseling
d. Cooperation

51. Which of the management is included in the proposed strategy by the DOH to prevent mosquito-causing
diseases such as dengue and malaria?
a. Insecticide treated mosquito net
b. Breeding of larva-eating fish
c. Stream clearing
d. Use of OFF lotion to the skin

1. A mosquito net is said to be effective against mosquito, if the following characteristics is observed, except:
a. It is treated with pyethroid or pyethrinoids.
b. It must have 156 holes/ square inch.
c. It must be tuck under the bed or mat.
d. With a seal by the DOH, as inspected.

1. Stream seeding involves the following considerations, except:

a. Janitor fish is an effective fish that eats larva.
b. 2-4 fish per square meter should be placed for immediate result
 c. 200 – 400 fish per hectare for delayed impact are bred.
d. Bio-ponds will be created by the Local Government Unit.

1. N-diethyl-D-toluamide is an effective chemical against mosquito because it provide protections for how many
hours?
a. 24 hours
b. 4-12 hours
c. 12 to 24 hours
d. 2-3 hours only

1. The mosquito instead of biting distal humans , bits an animal proximal to it. This technique is also known as:
a. Chemoprophylaxis
b. Zooprophylaxis
c. Faunoprophylaxis
d. Malaria-dengue animal technique

1. A soap that is recommended by DOH that will propel mosquitoes away:

a. Safeguard
b. Lifebuoy
c. Likas Papaya
d. Lanzones soap

2. A local plant that is proven to repel mosquito away:

a. Talahib
b. Tanglad
c. Tsaang gubat
d. Talong

DENGUE HEMORRHAGIC FEVER

1. Another term for dengue hemorrhagic fever is:
a. Brickback fever
b. Brokenbone syndrome
c. Breakbone fever
d. Brokeback fever

1. The first dengue case in the Philippines was reported last:

a. 1953
b. 1958
c. 1984
d. 1985

1. Dengue cases usually peaks in months of:

a. July to November
b. February to April
c. September to December
d. January to December

1. Among the viral strain of Dengue, the most common is, dengue virus type:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

1. The following are the vectors that can carry the dengue virus, except:
a. Culex fatigans
b. Aedes Aegypti
c. Aedes albopictus
 d. Aedes poecilus

1. Characteristics of mosquito causing dengue includes all of the following, except:

a. Low flying mosquito
b. Bites at the lower extremities
c. Bites before sunrise and sunset
d. Breeds on a flowing water

1. The virus attacks what blood formed element:

a. Thrombocytes
b. Megakaryocytes
c. Eryhtrocytes
d. Leukocytes

1. Which of the following manifestations of the client, that according to WHO, may lead to definitive diagnosis of
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever, except:
a. Fever lasting 2-7 days
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Positive tourniquet test plus petechiae, ecchymoses, purpura
d. Abdominal pain plus joint fever

1. In what stage is Herman’s sign clinically manifested by the client?

a. Febrile stage
b. Hemorrhagic stage
c. Circulatory failure stage
d. Hypovolemic Shock

1. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of bleeding among clients with Dengue, except?
a. Hemoptysis
b. Melena
c. Hematochezia
d. Hematemesis

1. Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate that the client is in the late stage of dengue
infection?
a. Vomiting of blood
b. Herman’s sign
c. Hypotension, rapid weak pulse, narrow pulse pressure
d. Abdominal pain with bone pain

1. A positive Rumpel Lead’s test indicates that:

a. Decrease blood supply is observed in the arm with tourniquet
b. 20 or more petechiae are present per 1 inch square
c. The client manifests general flushing of the skin
d. Melena is observed in the stool

1. Which of the following laboratory results will the nurse consistently monitors to those patients with Dengue?
a. Troponin
b. Platelet count
c. Liver Enzymes
d. Viral count

1. Which of the following management are not included to patients with Dengue?
a. Administer Vitamin K.
b. Complete bed rest
c. Provide warmth to patients, if possible comforters.
d. Do not give aspirin in cases of fever.
1. Majority of patients with dengue are candidate for transfusion if their platelet level is:
a. Below 150
b. Below 100
c. Below 50
d. Below 25

1. To prevent hypovolemic shock for patients with dengue, the nurse understands that this management is aimed
to prevent such case:
a. Give ORS 75 ml/kg in 4 to 6 hours for children
b. Give ORESOL up to 2 to 3 L for children
c. Give one to three cups oral rehydration solution, in every bout
d. ORESOL will only be given to patients with those who are experiencing vomiting and diarrhea

1. In cases that the client is experiencing melena, what would be the most appropriate nursing response?
a. Provide ice chips
b. Ice bag over the abdomen
c. Low fat, low fiber diet
d. Assume dorsal recumbent position

1. Which of the following diet can be given to patient with Dengue?

a. DAT
b. Noodle soup
c. Pineapple and watermelon
d. NPO

1. Which of the following nursing intervention is best aimed against the prevention of dengue cases?
a. Insecticide use
b. Health education
c. Hand washing
d. Contact tracing

1. Another term for malaria is:

a. Brokeback fever
b. Ague
c. Bilharziasis
d. Weil’s disease

1. The Plasmodium species that is most common in the Philippines and accounts for 70% of all malarial cases:
a. P. falciparum
b. P. vivax
c. P. malariae
d. P. ovale

1. Which of the following species of plasmodium doesn’t exist in the Philippines?

a. P. falciparum
b. P. vivax
c. P. malariae
d. P. ovale

1. The following are the characteristics of malaria-causing mosquito, except:

a. Only female mosquito bites
b. Breeds on partly shaded water
c. Bites at night
d. Clean stagnant water is a good breeding site

1. Which of the following vectors is the most common mosquito transmitting the Plasmodium species in the
country?
 a. Anopheles litoralis
b. Anopheles flavistoris
c. Anopheles balabacensis
d. Anopheles mangyanus

1. Plasmodium as an amoeba undergoes cycle. Which of the following is considered the definitive host of
malaria?
a. Humans
b. Streams
c. Mosquito
d. Fly

2. What is the protozoan form that is present in the salivary glands of the mosquito?
a. Sporozoites
b. Merozoites
c. Thropozoites
d. Gametocytes

1. The protozoan stage present in the RBC, multiplies and causes lysis:
a. Sporozoites
b. Merozoites
c. Thropozoites
d. Gametocytes

1. The initial and primary site of merozoite multiplication is found in the:

a. Lungs
b. Kidneys
c. Liver
d. Gall bladder

1. The protozoa Plasmodium causes organ failure due to:

a. Production of toxins that causes cell death
b. Clogging of rigid RBC’s infected by the plasmodia
c. Formation of merozoites that inhibits cellular metabolism
d. Sequestration of water from the cell causing cellular lysis or dehydration

1. Amazingly, patients with malaria have a cycle of cold, hot and diaphoretic stage. Fever is evident in a
particular period of time and not all through the disease process because:
a. During febrile stage toxins are present.
b. During febrile stage, the microorganisms simultaneously reproduce.
c. During febrile stage, iron is sequestered by the liver.
d. During febrile stage, the gametocytes are produced.

1. A diagnostic procedure that is a must in every case of Malaria in a certain community:

a. Malarial Blood Smear
b. Quantitative Buffy Coat
c. ELISA
d. Nocturnal Blood Examination

1. The drug of choice against malaria is:

a. Chloroquine
b. N-diethyl-D-toluamide
c. Pyethrinoids
d. Biltricide

1. Blood Schizonticides are given with the following dose:

a. Given at a dose of 10 mg/kg once a day for two days, then 5mg/kg single dose on the third
day
 b. Given at a dose of 5 mg/kg once a day for two days, then 10 mg/kg single dose on the third day
c. Given at a dose of 10 mg/kg twice a day for two days, then 5mg/kg single dose on the third day
d. Given at a dose of 5 mg/kg twice a day for two days, then 5mg/kg single dose on the third day

1. Which of the following health teachings will be included if the patient is taking chloroquine?
a. Advise patient that the urine may turn rust brown in color.
b. It should be given before meals.
c. Can be given even before C and S is completed or confirmed.
d. Frequent ambulation is required when taking the medication.

1. Which of the following term is use to connote Filariasis?

a. Elephantiasis
b. Schistosomiasis
c. Ascariasis
d. Trichenelliasis

1. Causative agent of Filariasis that accounts for 90% of all the cases:
a. Wuchureria bancrofti
b. Brugia malayi
c. Brugia timori
d. Oncomelania quadrasi

1. The following regions in the Philippines, where Filariasis is said to be endemic are, except:
a. Region V
b. Region IX
c. Region X
d. Region XI

1. The immediate source or vector of Filariasis is:

a. Aedes Aegypti
b. Anopheles flavistoris
c. Aedes poecilus
d. Anopheles mangyanus

1. Lymphadenitis, Lymphangitis, epidydimitis is evidently seen in what clinical stage of Filariasis?

a. Asymptomatic stage
b. Acute stage
c. Chronic stage
d. Immune stage

1. The enlargement and thickening of the skin of the lower extremities and/or upper extremities, scrotum or
breast is known as:
a. Lymphedema
b. Lymphadenitis
c. Elephantiasis
d. Funiculitis

1. A clinical diagnostic procedure for Filariasis that can be done at daytime:

a. NBE
b. ICT
c. MBS
d. ELISA

1. Drug of choice for filarisis is:

a. Hetrazan
b. Biltricide
 c. Chloroquine
d. Praziquantel

1. Medication given to client that kills the microfilirae may be given with this drug to prevent side effects:
a. Corticosteroids / antihistamine
b. Penicillin
c. Metronidazole
d. Amoxicillin

1. Hydrocele among infected individuals with filariasis is surgically intervened through:

a. Ligation and stripping of the lymphatics of pedicle of affected kidneys
b. Lymphoveous anastamosis
c. Inversion and resection of tunica vaginalis
d. Fistulectomy

1. Nocturnal form of filariasis-causing microorganism is active during:

a. 10 PM to 2 AM
b. 8 PM to 12 PM
c. 12 PM to 5 AM
d. 7 PM to 10 AM

1. The medical term similar to schistosomiasis is :

a. Brokeback fever
b. Ague
c. Bilharziasis
d. Weil’s disease

1. The causative agent of the Schistosomiasis that have the strong affinity with the urinary system is:
a. S. haematobium
b. S. mansoni
c. S. japonicum
d. S. schistosomium

1. The intermediate host of schistosoma species is:

a. Oncomelania quadrasi
b. Aedes poecilus
c. Humans
d. Cattle

1. The infective stage of Schistosoma is:

a. Oncomelania
b. Cercariae
c. Trophozoite
d. Gametocytes

1. The drug of choice for schistosomiasis:

a. Hetrazan
b. Doxycycline
c. Chloroquine
d. Praziquantel

1. Alternative drug for S. mansoni is:

a. Hetrazan
b. Biltricide
c. Metrifonate
 d. Oxamniquine

1. After exposure to water, the susceptible individual must:

a. Drink the medication that has been prescribed as prophylaxis
b. Apply 70% alcohol to exposed area of the body
c. Treat water with iodine, standing 48 to 72 hours before use
d. Use rubber boots

1. Leptospirosis is also known as, except:

a. Weil’s disease, mud fever
b. Trench fever, flood fever
c. Spiroketal jaundice, Japanese seven days fever
d. Swineherd’s disease, infectious jaundice

1. Which of the following characteristics does not refer to Leptospira species:

a. Species is divided into 19 serogroups and 200 serovar
b. Icterohemorrhagiae subspecies causes Weil’s disease and is most virulent
c. It is a slender spirochete with hooked ends
d. Attacks and have a strong affinity to liver and gall bladder

1. Which of the following are the correct consecutive steps in the disease progression of leptospirosis?
a. Anicteric - septicemic and immune; icteric – jaundice and hemorrhagic
b. Icteric – septicemic and immune; anicteric – jaundice and hemorrhagic
c. Anicteric - jaundice and hemorrhagic; icteric – septicemic and immune
d. Anicteric – septicemic and jaundice; icteric hemorrhagic and immune

1. The clinical phase where jaundice is an evident clinical manifestation of Leptospirosis:

a. Leptospiremic phase
b. Immune phase
c. Septicemic phase
d. Hemorrhagic phase

1. The following are the test for leptospirosis and with its respective day of specimen collection. Which of the
following is incorrectly paired:
a. Blood – after 7 to 10 days
b. Urine – 7 days after
c. CSF – during the 10th day
d. Feces – 3rd day

1. Which of the following is the primary carrier of Leptospira species?

a. Snails
b. Rats
c. Dog
d. Bats

1. Which of the following preventive measures is the most effective against leptospirosis?
a. Use of rubber boots
b. Eradication of rats
c. Use of chemoprophylactic drugs
d. Water treatment

1. Which of the following measure is the most effective method of preventing communicable diseases?
a. Information dissemination
b. Education provision
c. Communication
 d. Hand washing

2. The following statement refers to the objective of EPI?

a. Reduce the morbidity among infants and children
b. To reduce the morbidity among children
c. Reduce the mortality among the children
d. Reduce the maternal mortality