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S GD&T THANH HA KIM TRA CHT LNG MN THI I HC LN 1
Trng THPT Ba nh Nm hc 2012 - 2013
Mn: Ting Anh
Thi gian : 90 pht (Khng k thi gian pht )


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A.generally B. secondary C. education D. specialize
Question 2: A.particular B. variety C. certificate D. supplementary
Question 3: A. promise B. expensive C. constructive D. original
Question 4: A. primitive B. particular C. continuous D. connected
Question 5: A. science B. information C. calculation D. invitation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: Never before . Such a wonderful child.
A. I have seen B. I had seen C. I saw D. have I seen
Question 7: Hardly had we settle down in our seats .. the lights went out.
A. than B. when C. then D. after
Question 8: Can you probadly make _______ what he has written here ?
A. up B. up for C. with D. out
Question 9: Without my parents' support, I _______ my overseas study.
A. will not complete B. did not complete
C. had not completed D. would not have completed
Question 10: J ohns score on the test is the highest in the class. He _______.
A. Should study very hard B. must have studied very hard
C. must have to study well D. should have studied all the time
Question 11: _______ , the results couldnt be better.
A. No matter what he tried hard B. No matter how hard he tried
C. Although very hard he tried D. Despite how hard he tried
Question 12: Assessment is commonly _______ form of written test.
A. on B. of C. at D. in
Question 13: _______ the end of the course, the students have to take an exam on four basic skills of
the target language.
A. In B. At C. On D For
Question 14: What time would we get there _______ the subway?
A. we took B. if we take
C. unless we take D. provided that we took
Question 15: The interpreter gave only a ________ version of the old mans long rambling account.
A. minimum B. miniature C. marginal D. condensed
Question 16: Were they present______ the lecture yesterday ?
A. at B. in C. to D. on
Question 17: J ohn swims very well and_______does his brother.
A. either B. nor C. so D. too
Question 18: The teacher found _______ mistakes in his writing .
A. a large number of B. a great deal of C. a little D. a large amount of
Question 19: Reagan _______ an actor years ago.
A. is said to be B. was said being
C. was said have been D. is said to have been
Question 20: The preparations _______ by the time the guests _______.
A. had been finished / arrived B. have finished / arrived
C. had finished / were arriving D. have been finished / were arrived
Question 21: Mrs. Lindon has ________ that she is unable to get a job.
A. but not enough education B. so little education
C. however little education D. such little education
M : 123
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Question 22: J ohn would rather ________ class yesterday than today
A. go to B. went to C. have gone to D. him went to
Question 23: Farmers make their soil more productive by distributing _______.
A. fertile B. fertility C. fertilizers D. fertilizable
Question 24: Does she have a hard time _______ English ?
A . to speak B. speak C . speaking D . spoken
Question 25: You look great in this new dress.- ________.
A. With pleasure C. Not at all
B. I am glad you like it D. Do not say anything about it
Marks the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from question 26 to 30.
REUNIFICATION CONFERENCE HALL
Previously on the ground of the present structure was Norodom Palace built in 1868 as a
residence of the French- Governor General of Cochinchina. On September 7, 1954 Norodom Palace
was renamed the Independence Palace and became the Presidential Palace in which President Ngo
Dinh Diem of the Sai Gon administration and his family lived and worked. In February 1962, a
dissident of the Diem regime launched an air bombardment of the palace and heavily damaged it. After
that, Diem decided to demolish the damaged structure and built a new one which was designed by
Western-trained architect Ngo Viet Thu. The construction was undertaken by Sai Gon sappers and
completed in 1966. At 11:30 on April 30, 1975, tanks of the Liberation Army overran the palace. The
then Sai Gon president, Mr. Duong Van Minh, who had just assumed the post of president together
with his 45-member cabinet surrendered unconditionally. After the liberation of Sai Gon, the
Independence Palace was turned into the Headquarters of Municipal Military Administrative Com-
mittee. In December 1975, the palace was the venue of a consultative conference for national
reunification. To mark the historical significance of that event, the building was renamed Reunification
Conference Hall.
Question 26: Reunification Conference Hall _______
A. is also called Norodom Palace.
B. is on the ground of Norodom Palace.
C. was built in 1873.
D. was a residence of the French Governor General of Cochin china.
Question 27: What happened to the original structure?.
A. It was named the Independence Palace.
B. It was designed by architect Ngo Viet Thu.
C. It was demolished by a dissident of the Diem regime.
D. It was heavily damaged by an air bombarrnenta
Question 28: According to the passage, _______
A. The Independence Palace witnessed the collapse of the government of South Viet Nam on 30
April 1975.
B. The Independence Palace was built by the army.
C. The Independence Palace used to be the place from which military action was controlled.
D. All are correct.
Question 29: The word overran means _______
A. occupied B. passed C. approached D. attacked
Question 30: Which of the following is not true?
A. The Independence Palace used to be the president's home.
B. After 1975, the Independence Palace was renamed Reunification Conference Hall.
C. The US-backed government of South Viet Nam surrendered without conditions.
D. Reunification Conference Hall marked the historical significance of the liberation of Sai Gon.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 31: When GCSEs are taken in secondary school, they can often combined with other
A B C
qualifications, or diplomas.
D

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Question 32: Entry standards at Cambridge University require students who have studied to the highest
A B C
level available for school students, and having achieved top grades.
D
Question 33 : Mumps are a very common disease which usually affects children
A B C D
Question 34 : I saw a man to jump through the window five minutes ago, but I could not remember his face.
A B C D
Question 35: The pupils havent done their homework which is too bad.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence which is closest in
meaning to each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 36: They got success since they took my advice.
A. They took my advice, and failed.
B. If they did not take my advice, they would not get success.
C. But for taking my advice, they would not have got success.
D. My advice stopped them from getting success.
Question 37: Unless you come on time, we will go without you.
A. Come on time or we will go without you.
B. Come on time, we will go without you.
C. Because of your punctuality, we will go without you.
D. Without your coming on time, we will go.
Question 38: _____ instructed me how to make a good preparation for a job interview.
A. J ohn Robbins to that I spoke by telephone,
B. J ohn Robbins, that I spoke to by telephone,
C. J ohn Robbins I spoke to by telephone,
D. J ohn Robbins, whom I spoke to by telephone,
Question 39: After the funeral, the residents of the apartment building ______
A. sent faithfully flowers all week to the cemetery.
B. sent flowers faithfully to the cemetery each week.
C. sent to the cemetery each week flowers faithfully.
D. sent each week faithfully to the cemetery flowers.
Question 40: It is not a habit of mine to sleep in the afternoon.
A. I am not of the habit of sleeping in the afternoon.
B. I am in the habit of sleeping in the afternoon.
C. I am not in the habit of sleeping in the afternoon.
D. I have the habit of sleeping in the afternoon.
Question 41: _______, the man felt panic and even considered killing his dog to keep himself warm,
but he failed.
A. Because it got colder and colder.
B. Although it got more and more cold.
C. If only it had got colder and colder.
D. As though he had got colder and colder.
Question 42: exchange / allows / computers / and / us / to / the / ideas / connect / to / other / Internet
A. The Internet allows us to connect to other computers and exchange ideas.
B. The Internet exchange ideas and allows us to connect to other computers.
C. The Internet allows us and exchange ideas to connect to other computers.
D. The Internet connect to other computers and allows us to exchange ideas.
Question 43: He is getting them to mend the windows .
A. He is having the windows to mend.
B. He is having the windows mended.
C. He is having to mend the windows.
D. He is having to be mended the windows.
Question 44: How beautiful is the dress you have just bought!" Peter said to Mary.
A. Peter promised to buy Mary a beautiful dress.
B. Peter said thanks to Mary for her beautiful dress.
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C. Peter complimented Mary on her beautiful dress.
D. Peter asked Mary how she had just bought her beautiful dress.
Question 45: Why don't you ask the teacher for help?" Peter asked me.
A. Peter advised me to ask the teacher for help.
B. Peter recommended me not to ask the teacher for help. ,
C. Peter told me the reason why I did not ask the teacher for help.
D. Peter suggested that he should ask the teacher for help.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 46: Tuan Chau Island is _______ 150kms north east of Hanoi.
A. stood B. located C. placed D. bordered
Question 47: He turned off the lights before going out ________waste electricity.
A. so that not B. as not to C. in order that not D. so as not to
Question 48: Remember to ask before you ________a cigarette if you are with a nonsmokers.
A. light up B. get up C.take up D. put up
Question 49: By this time next week, he _______ his novel for 6 months
A. will have been writing B. will have written C. will be writing D. has been
writing
Question 50: Hung : Thanks you very much for a lovely party.
Hoa : ____________
A. Have a good day. B. Thanks C. you are welcome D. cheer
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 51 to 60
You will make the interview process easier for the employer if you prepare relevant information
about yourself. Think about how you want to present your (51) ____, experiences, education, work
style, skills, and goals. Be prepared to supplement all your answers with examples that support the
statements you make. It is also a good idea to review your resume with a critical eye and (52) ____
areas that an employer might see as limitations or want further information. Think about how you can
answer difficult questions (53) ____ and positively, while keeping each answer brief.
An interview gives the employer a (54) _____ to get to know you. While you do want to market
yourself to the employer, answer each question with an honest (55) _____. Never say anything
negative about past experiences, employers, or courses and professors. Always think of something
positive about an experience and talk about that. You should also be (56) ____. If you are genuinely
interested (57) _____ the job, let the interviewer know that.
One of the best ways to show you are keen on a job is to demonstrate that you have researched the
organization prior to the interview. You can also (58) ____ interest by asking questions about the job,
the organization, and its services and products. The best way to impress an employer is to ask
questions that build upon your interview discussion. This shows you are interested and (59) ____ close
attention to the interviewer. It is a good idea to prepare a few questions in advance, but an insightful
comment based on your conversation can make an even stronger statement. At the (60) _____ of an
interview, it is appropriate for you to ask when you may expect to hear; from the employer.
Question 51: A. pressures B. practices C. promotions D. strengths
Question 52: A. hide B. identify C. express D. limit
Question 53: A. sharply B. hardly C. accurately D. rightly
Question 54: A. chance B. way C. change D. practice
Question 55: A. expression B. respect C. response D. ability
Question 56: A. enthusiastic B. enthusiast C. enthusiasm D. enthusiastically
Question 57: A. on B. for C. with D. in
Question 58: A. appear B. show C. cover D. conceal
Question 59: A. make B. pay C. choose D. spend
Question 60: A. final B. finish C. close D. end
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase which is closest in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 61: Aquatic sports have long been acknowledged as excellent ways to take physical exercise.
A. reduced B. encouraged C. recognized D. practiced
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Question 62: Computer models help to determine whether a particular area is lilely to flood.
A. make up B. find out C. take over D. put up
Question 63: Three great stretches of sandy deserts almost circle the center of Australia.
A. dunes B. valleys C. lands D. areas
Question 64: Van Mieu was representative of Confucian ways of thought and behaviors.
A. traditional B. typical C. memorial D. cultural
Question 65: Power plants are increasingly located outside metropolitan areas.
A. belonging to a big or capital city B. in an industrial city
C. of a busy suburb D. relating to a remote suburb
Marks the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 66 to 70.
The American education system requires that students complete 12 years of primary and
secondary education prior to attending university or college. This may be accomplished either at public
or government-operated schools, or at private schools. These 12 years of schooling or their equivalent
may also be completed outside the USA, thus giving foreign students the opportunity to pursue the
benefits of the American education system and obtain a quality American education. Perhaps one of
the most impressive facts is that a large number of presidents, prime ministers and leaders from other
countries have experienced the American education system and graduated from a university or school
in the USA. In many fields and industries, the American education system offers the most cutting-
edge, sought-after programs at the world's best schools. That is why graduating from an accredited
American school and being exposed to the rigors of the American education system is an investment in
your future.
Whether you want to study at a top USA university, a top USA college, a vocational or high
school, a thorough understanding of how the American education system works is essential. Without a
clear grasp of the American education system, an international student will find it difficult to make the
right academic choices. It is no surprise that the American education system and the American school
system host more international students than any other country in the world!
Question 66: The expression government-operated could best be replaced by _____.
A. independent B. state C. vocational D. boarding
Question 67: According to the text, students in the USA _______.
A. are made to take primary and secondary education in the country.
B. are not necessarily take primary and secondary education in the country.
C. spend less than 12 years for primary and secondary education.
D. needn't take primary and secondary education.
Question 68: The writer _______ the US education.
A. appreciates B. underestimates C. overstates D. dislikes
Question 69: Which of the following is true?
A. The US education is not good enough for foreign students.
B. Foreign students are not offered opportunities in the US:
C. There are not many foreign students in the US.
D. Many leaders all over the world have studied in the US.
Question 70: What is the writer's advice?
A. International students should not invest their future education in the US.
B. International students should not study at a top USA university, a top USA college, a vocational
or high school.
C. Without a clear grasp of the American education system, an international student can make the
right academic choices.
D. International students should have a thorough understanding of how the American education
system works before going there to study.
Marks the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 71 to 80.
In 776 B.C., The first Olympic games were held at the first of Mount Olympus to honor the
Greeks chief god, Zeus. The warm climate for outdoor activities, the need for preparedness in war,
and their lifestyle caused the Greeks to create competitive sports. Only the elite and military could
participate at first, but later the games were open to all free Greeks males who had no criminal record.
The Greeks emphasized physical fitness and strength in their education of youth. Therefore, contests in
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running, jumping, discus and javelin throwing, boxing, and horse and chariot racing were held
individual cities, and the winners competed every four years at Mount Olympus. Winners were greatly
honored by having olive wreaths placed on their heads and having poems sung about their deeds.
Originally these contests were held as games of friendship, and any wars in progress were halted to
allow the games to take place. They also helped to strengthen bonds among competitors and the
different cities represented.
The Greeks attached so much importance to the games that they calculated time in four-year
cycles called Olympiads, dating from 776 B.C. The contests coincided with religious festivities and
constituted an all-out effort on the part of the participants to please the gods. Any who disobeyed the
rules were dismissed and seriously punished. These athletes brought shame not only to themselves, but
also to the cities they represented.
Question 71: Which of the following is NOT true ?
A. Winners placed olive wreaths on their heads.
B. The game were held in Greece every four years.
C. Battles were interrupted to participate in the games.
D. Poems glorified the winners in song.
Question 72: The word elite is closest in meaning to
A. aristocracy B. intellectuals C. brave D. muscular
Question 73: Why were the Olympic Games held ?
A. To stop wars . B. To honor Zeus.
C.To crown the best athletes . D. To sing songs about the athletes.
Question 74: Approximately how many years ago did these games originate ?
A. 800 years B. 1.200 years C. 2.300 years D. 2.800 years
Question 75: What conclusion can we draw about the ancient Greeks ?
A. They were pacifists. B. They believed athletic events were important.
C. They were very simple. D. They couldnt count, so they used Olympiads for
dates.
Question 76: What is the main idea of this passage ?
A. Physical fitness was an integral part of the lives of the ancient Greeks.
B. The Greeks severely punished those did not participate in physical fitness programs.
C. The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate iin the games.
D. The Greeks had the games coincide with religious festivities so that they could go back to war
when the games were over.
Question 77: The word deeds is closest in meaning to
A. accomplishments B. documents C. ancestors D. property
Question 78 : The word halted means most nearly the same as
A: encouraged B. started C. curtailed D. fixed
Question 79. which of the following was ultimately required of all athletes competing in the
Olympics?
A. They must have completed militery service. B. They had to attend special training
sessions.
C. They had to be Greek males with no criminal record. D. They had to be very religious.
Question 80. What is an Olympiad ?
A. The time it took to finish the games. B. The time between games.
C. The time it took to finish a war. D. The time it took the athletes to train


The end







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P N KIM TRA CHT LNG MN THI I HC ( LN I)
Nm hc 2012 2013
Mn Ting Anh

80 CU = 10 IM
Cu M 123 M 234 M 345 M 456 Cu M 123 M 234 M 345 M 456
1 C A A B 41 A D B A
2 D A C D 42 A B B A
3 A B C A 43 B C A D
4 A D B A 44 C A D B
5 A B B C 45 A C D C
6 D A D A 46 B A B A
7 B A B A 47 D D D A
8 D C D B 48 A B A B
9 D C D D 49 A B A C
10 B B B B 50 C D C B
11 B C B A 51 D C C B
12 D D D A 52 B B A D
13 B A B C 53 C D D A
14 D A D C 54 A B B A
15 D A D B 55 C A C C
16 A B A C 56 A A A D
17 C D C D 57 D C A B
18 A A A A 58 B A B C
19 D A D A 59 B D A A
20 A C A A 60 D A B C
21 B B C D 61 C B D A
22 C A D B 62 B C B D
23 C D A D 63 D C C B
24 C B A D 64 B C A B
25 B C A B 65 A B C D
26 A A B B 66 B B A C
27 C A D D 67 B D D B
28 C B A B 68 A A B D
29 B C A D 69 D A B B
30 B A C D 70 D C D A
31 B D B A 71 A B A B
32 D B C C 72 A B A B
33 A D C A 73 B A B A
34 A D C D 74 D D D D
35 C B B A 75 B D B D
36 C B C B 76 A A A A
37 A D B C 77 A C A C
38 D B D C 78 C C C C
39 B D B C 79 C B D B
40 C D A B 80 B B B B