Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________ ID: A

1
Micro Semester Review Mods 57-78
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Which of the following is a necessary condition for perfect competition?
a. A small number of firms control a large share of the total market.
b. Entry and exit into the market is limited.
c. Firms produce a standardized product.
d. Extensive advertising is used to promote the firm's product.
e. Firms engage in extensive research and development spending.
____ 2. When a firm cannot affect the market price of the good that it sells, it is said to be a:
a. price-taker.
b. natural monopoly.
c. dominant firm.
d. cartel.
e. price discriminating monopoly.
____ 3. Oligopolies are industries:
a. dominated by one seller who shares market power equally with all other sellers.
b. made up of few firms, each with some market power and therefore aware of their
interdependence with the other firms.
c. composed of many buyer and sellers, all of whom are price-takers.
d. that are the same as monopolistically competitive industries except that they sell a
standardized product.
e. made up of few firms, each with some market power, with no barriers to entry in the long
run.
____ 4. In monopolistic competition:
a. there is free entry and exit in the long run.
b. each firm produces a standardized product.
c. there are few producers.
d. there are barriers to entry.
e. firms are price-takers.
____ 5. A(n) ________ is a single firm with ________, whereas ________ implies an industry with ________ firm(s)
that has(have) ________.
a. oligopoly; no barriers to entry; monopoly; many; easy entry and exit
b. monopoly; barriers to entry; monopolistic competition; many; easy entry and exit
c. monopoly; barriers to entry; oligopoly; few; no barriers to entry
d. monopolistic competitor; barriers to entry; monopoly; one; barriers to entry
e. monopoly; barriers to entry; monopolistic competition; a small number of; easy entry and
exit
Name: ________________________ ID: A
2
____ 6. Zoe's Bakery determines that P < ATC and P > AVC. Zoe should:
a. continue to operate even though she is experiencing an economic loss.
b. continue to operate as she is making an economic profit.
c. shut down immediately as she is experiencing an economic loss.
d. raise the price until she has maximized her profits.
e. continue to operate because economic profit is equal to zero.
____ 7. A perfectly competitive firm maximizes profit by producing the quantity at which:
a. TR = TC.
b. MR = MC.
c. Q*(P ATC) = 0.
d. P >= AVC.
e. P = ATC.
Figure 59-3 : Profit Maximizing
____ 8. (Figure 59-3: Profit Maximizing) The figure shows cost curves for a firm operating in a perfectly competitive
market. If the market price is less than P
2
, the firm will ________ in the short run.
a. produce q
1
and break even
b. produce q
1
and incur a loss
c. produce q
1
and make a profit
d. produce q
3
and make a profit
e. shut down
Name: ________________________ ID: A
3
Quantity
per Period Total Cost
0 $10
1 16
2 20
3 22
4 24
5 25
6 27
7 30
8 34
9 39
10 45
Table 59-2: Total Cost for a
Perfectly Competitive Firm
____ 9. (Table 59-2: Total Cost for a Perfectly Competitive Firm) In the short run, the firm will produce, but at a
loss, if the price is:
a. $2.00.
b. $2.50.
c. $3.50.
d. $4.50.
e. $1.50.
____ 10. If price is less than average variable cost at the profit-maximizing quantity of output in the short run, a
perfectly competitive firm will:
a. produce at a loss.
b. produce at a profit.
c. shut down production.
d. produce more than the profit-maximizing quantity.
e. break even.
____ 11. Suppose that some firms in a perfectly competitive industry are earning positive economic profits. In the long
run, the:
a. industry is in long-run equilibrium.
b. industry supply curve will shift to the left.
c. number of firms in the industry will not change.
d. industry demand curve will shift to the right.
e. number of firms in the industry will increase.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
4
____ 12. A perfectly competitive industry with constant costs is initially operating in long-run equilibrium. When
demand increases, one will observe that:
a. in the short run, prices and profits will be higher, but in the long run, price will fall back
to its original level and firms will incur economic losses.
b. in the long and short runs, prices and profits will be higher relative to what they were
before the demand increase.
c. in the short run, prices and profits will fall, but in the long run, price will rise back to its
initial level as will profits.
d. in the long and short runs, prices and profits will be lower relative to what they were
before the demand increase.
e. in the short run, prices and profits will be higher, but in the long run, price will fall back
to its original level and firms will again earn a normal profit.
____ 13. If a change in fixed cost raises average total cost above the demand curve,
a. price and output will remain unchanged in the short run.
b. more firms will enter.
c. the monopoly will exit in the short run
d. marginal cost will be greater than marginal revenue.
e. economic profit in the short run will increase.
Figure 61-4: Monopoly Model
____ 14. (Figure 61-4: Monopoly Model) When the firm is in equilibrium (that is, maximizing its economic profit), its
total revenue is the area of rectangle:
a. SPDB.
b. IPDH.
c. 0SBJ.
d. 0PDJ.
e. ISBH.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
5
____ 15. In a monopoly in the long run:
a. economic profits will be eliminated by the entry of rival firms.
b. economic profits will be reduced, but not eliminated entirely, by the entry of rival firms.
c. entry will not occur.
d. social surplus is maximized.
e. price is equal to marginal cost.
Figure 61-5: A Gadget Monopoly
____ 16. (Figure 61-5: A Gadget Monopoly) The graph shows a monopoly firm that sells gadgets. If the firm acts to
maximize profit, the firm will sell ________ units at a price of ________ per unit.
a. Q
2
; P
1
b. Q
2
; P
5
c. Q
3
; P
2
d. Q
4
; P
3
e. Q
4
; P
2
____ 17. The municipal swimming pool charges lower entrance fees to local residents than to nonresidents. Assuming
that this pricing strategy increases the profits of the pool, we can conclude that nonresidents must have a(n)
________ for swimming at the pool than residents.
a. greater demand
b. lower demand
c. more elastic demand
d. equivalent elasticity of demand
e. less elastic demand
____ 18. To practice effective price discrimination, a monopolist must be able to:
a. estimate its own production and cost functions.
b. avoid detection by government regulatory agencies.
c. prevent the resale of goods among groups of buyers.
d. calculate the utility level of each buyer in the market.
e. equate the price charged to each group to the marginal cost of producing the product to
each group.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
6
____ 19. In order to maximize profits, an airline will offer ________ prices to customers with ________ demand.
a. higher; inelastic
b. higher; elastic
c. lower; inelastic
d. the lowest; the least
e. higher; perfectly elastic
____ 20. If a monopolist can engage in perfect price discrimination, then:
a. it produces at the socially efficient level.
b. consumer surplus is maximized.
c. producer surplus is minimized.
d. the government may impose fines on the monopolist.
e. each consumer pays the lowest possible price.
____ 21. An industry that consists of two firms is:
a. a duopoly.
b. a monopoly.
c. a monopsony.
d. monopolistic competition.
e. perfect competition.
____ 22. In the classic prisoners' dilemma with two accomplices in crime, the Nash equilibrium is for:
a. both individuals to not confess.
b. both individuals to confess.
c. the first player to confess and the second player to not confess.
d. This game does not have a Nash equilibrium.
e. the first player to not confess and the second player to confess.
____ 23. Due to the existence of a large number of similar, but not identical, substitutes in most communities, the
market for financial planners is best considered:
a. a monopoly.
b. an oligopoly.
c. perfect competition.
d. monopolistic competition.
e. a monopsony.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
7
Figure 67-4: Monopolistic Competition VI
____ 24. (Figure 67-4: Monopolistic Competition VI) The figure illustrates a firm in the ________; in the ________,
the demand and marginal revenue curves will shift ________.
a. short run; long run; right
b. long run; short run; left
c. short run; long run; left
d. long run; short run; right
e. short run; short run; right
Figure 67-7: Firms in Monopolistic Competition
____ 25. (Figure 67-7: Firms in Monopolistic Competition) In panel A, the profit-maximizing quantity of output is
generated by the intersection at point:
a. K.
b. P.
c. N.
d. O.
e. L.
____ 26. The model of monopolistic competition can characterize the market for plumbing services in a city. Suppose
that the market is initially in long-run equilibrium, and then there is an increase in demand for plumbing
services. We expect that in the short run:
a. the price and output of plumbing services will fall.
b. the price and output of plumbing services will remain unchanged.
c. the price and output of plumbing services will rise.
d. the price of plumbing services will rise and the output will fall.
e. the price of plumbing services will fall and the output will rise.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
8
____ 27. Which of the following is true?
a. Firms in both perfect competition and in monopolistic competition produce the quantity
where P > MC.
b. In the long run in perfect competition, economic profits = 0, and in monopolistic
competition in the long run, economic profits are positive.
c. In perfect competition, P = MC, and in monopolistic competition, MR = MC, but P >
MC.
d. In both perfect competition and monopolistic competition, P equals minimum average
total cost in the long run.
e. In perfect competition, P = ATC in the long run, but in monopolistic competition, P >
ATC in the long run.
____ 28. In order to maximize profits, a firm in monopolistic competition will produce:
a. at the level at which marginal cost equals average total cost.
b. at the level at which marginal cost is greater than marginal revenue.
c. at the level at which marginal cost equals marginal revenue.
d. at the level at which marginal cost equals price.
e. at the level at which marginal revenue equals price.
____ 29. A monopolistically competitive industry shares some of the same characteristics as perfect competition,
including:
a. many firms making economic profit in the long run.
b. easy entry and exit.
c. identical products.
d. downward sloping demand curves.
e. deadweight loss.
____ 30. Which of the following is correct about celebrity spokespersons advertising products?
a. Celebrities are better informed about the relative merits of different products than the
rest of us.
b. Celebrity advertising signals consumers that the product is reliable, because the firm is
willing to pay the high fees associated with hiring a celebrity.
c. Consumers assume that the celebrity has researched the product and that the claims being
made on his or her behalf are true.
d. Celebrities are more rational than the typical consumer and would not purchase an
inferior product.
e. Consumers believe that celebrity spokespersons would not deceive them and have the
consumers best interests in mind.
____ 31. Human capital:
a. consists of man-made resources such as buildings and machines.
b. is the improvement in labor created by education and knowledge that is embodied in the
workforce.
c. has become less important due to the progress in technology.
d. is the same factor as labor.
e. consists of natural resources made more productive by entrepreneurs.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
9
Number
of Workers
Output
of Corn
(units of corn)
0 0
1 30
2 58
3 79
4 94
5 104
6 108
7 110
Table 69-2: Workers and Corn Output
____ 32. (Table 69-2: Workers and Corn Output) Laura is a price-taking farmer who produces corn. Assume the wage
rate for workers is $125 and the price per unit of corn is $10. The table shows Laura's production function.
Suppose Laura is currently employing seven workers. If she lets the seventh worker go and reduces
employment to six workers, her profits will:
a. increase by $20.
b. decrease by $970.
c. increase by $125.
d. increase by $90.
e. increase by $105.
Quantity
of Labor Total Product
0 0
1 20
2 50
3 90
4 120
5 140
6 150
7 150
8 140
Table 69-4: Value of the Marginal Product
of Labor and Demand
____ 33. (Table 69-4: Value of the Marginal Product of Labor and Demand) If the product price is $2 per unit, the
value of the marginal product for the third unit of labor is:
a. $2.
b. $10.
c. $60.
d. $80.
e. $180.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
10
____ 34. (Table 69-4: Value of the Marginal Product of Labor and Demand) If the product price is $2 per unit and the
market wage rate is $20 per unit of labor, the profit-maximizing quantity of labor is ________ units.
a. two
b. four
c. six
d. eight
e. five
____ 35. A factor demand curve will shift to the left because of:
a. an increase in the price of the factor.
b. an increase in the price of the good the factor produces.
c. a decrease in the price of the factor.
d. decrease in the elasticity of demand for the final product.
e. a decrease in the price of the good the factor produces.
____ 36. If marginal product is ________, value of marginal product must be ________.
a. rising; falling
b. falling; falling
c. falling; rising
d. rising; zero
e. zero; rising
____ 37. When a person receives more education, this is referred to as ________. When a firm buys a new copy
machine, this is referred to as ________.
a. human capital; physical capital
b. labor; labor
c. labor; capital
d. human capital; land
e. human capital; natural capital
Name: ________________________ ID: A
11
Scenario 69-1: Perfectly Competitive Market
Assume the product market is perfectly competitive and that the labor market is also perfectly competitive.
Also assume that the price of the firm's product is $5. The firm's total product with respect to labor is given in
the table below.
Quantity
of Labor
(number
of workers)
Quantity
of Output
0 0
1 7
2 13
3 18
4 21
____ 38. (Scenario 69-1: Perfectly Competitive Market) Holding everything else constant, if the demand for this firm's
product decreases, then this firm will:
a. notice a shift in its value of marginal product curve to the right and it will hire more
workers.
b. notice a shift in its value of marginal product curve to the left and it will hire more
workers.
c. notice a shift in its value of marginal product curve to the left and it will hire fewer
workers.
d. not experience any change in its hiring since it is a perfectly competitive firm.
e. notice a shift in its value of marginal product curve to the right and it will hire fewer
workers.
____ 39. Pollution has ________ and ________.
a. no benefits; only costs
b. benefits; costs
c. no opposition; only advocates
d. short-term impacts; very little long-term impact
e. no costs; only benefits
Name: ________________________ ID: A
12
Figure 74-3: MSB and MSC of Pollution
____ 40. (Figure 74-3: MSB and MSC of Pollution) The graph shows the marginal social cost and marginal social
benefit of pollution. What level of pollution represents the socially optimal level?
a. Q
1
b. Q
2
c. Q
3
d. Q
4
e. 0
____ 41. (Figure 74-3: MSB and MSC of Pollution) The accompanying graph shows the marginal social cost and
marginal social benefit of pollution. If the current level of pollution is at Q
1
:
a. not enough pollution is being emitted, as the MSB > MSC.
b. not enough pollution is being emitted, as the MSB < MSC.
c. too much pollution is being emitted, as the MSB > MSC.
d. the socially optimal amount of pollution is being emitted, as the MSB = MSC.
e. too much pollution is being emitted, as the MSB < MSC.
____ 42. Since the 1960s, power plants have taken actions, such as switching to low-sulfur coal and installing
scrubbers in their smokestacks, which have significantly reduced the problem of acid rain. Power plants took
these actions mainly because:
a. of concern about the environment.
b. large firms in the United States have a history of being good citizens and doing what is
best for society, even if this reduces their profits somewhat.
c. government policies provided power companies with incentives to take these actions.
d. these actions lower production costs and allow the power companies to earn more profit.
e. the marginal social benefit of pollution has increased over time.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
13
____ 43. The organized exchange of licenses that enable the holder to pollute up to a specified amount during a given
time period is called:
a. emissions taxes.
b. environmental standards.
c. pollution controls.
d. Pigouvian taxes.
e. tradable emissions permits.
____ 44. Suppose government officials have set an emissions tax to reduce pollution. Assume the optimal tax would
be $500, but government officials have set the tax equal to $900. Then we can conclude that at equilibrium:
a. there will be too much pollution.
b. the marginal social cost of pollution will be less than $900.
c. the marginal social benefit of pollution will be $900.
d. the marginal social benefit of pollution will be more than $900.
e. there will not be enough pollution.
____ 45. When the government attempts to reduce the noise from airplanes by restricting the noise level from a jet
engine to less than 50 decibels, it is using a(n):
a. Pigouvian subsidy.
b. emissions tax.
c. Pigouvian tax.
d. tradable emissions permit.
e. environmental standard.
____ 46. Assume the federal government determines the total level of pollutants that can be discharged by city
industries. A city is able to exchange the rights to this total discharge level with other cities. This is an
example of:
a. emissions taxes.
b. Pigouvian taxes.
c. tradable emissions permits.
d. environmental standards.
e. Pigouvian subsidies.
____ 47. Suppose the production of roses generates a positive externality in that travelers enjoy the scenic rural vistas
where roses are grown. Then the market price of roses:
a. is less than the marginal social benefit of roses.
b. is more than the marginal social benefit of roses.
c. equals the marginal social benefit of roses.
d. is less than the marginal social cost of roses.
e. is greater than the marginal social cost of roses.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
14
Figure 75-7: Positive Externalities and Production of Semiconductor Chips
____ 48. (Figure 75-7: Positive Externalities and Production of Semiconductor Chips) If the marginal external benefit
of producing a chip is $10, then the socially optimal quantity of chips is ________ and the socially optimal
price is ________.
a. 200; $20
b. 300; $25
c. 500; $35
d. 600; $20
e. 400; $40
____ 49. Television programs are nonrival because:
a. the supplier cannot prevent consumption by people who do not pay for it.
b. the program is subject to the free-rider problem.
c. individuals ignore the effect their use has on the amount of the resource remaining for
others.
d. the market suffers from inefficiently low consumption.
e. more than one person can consume the same unit of the good at the same time.
____ 50. A public good is a good or service for which exclusion is:
a. possible and which is rival in consumption.
b. possible and which is nonrival in consumption.
c. not possible and which is rival in consumption.
d. not possible and which is nonrival in consumption.
e. not possible and which is rival in production.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
15
____ 51. The free-rider problem is a direct result of:
a. the inability to exclude nonpayers.
b. marginal-cost pricing.
c. full-cost pricing.
d. horizontally summed supply curves.
e. rivalry in consumption.
Figure 76-1: Market Failure
____ 52. (Figure 76-1: Market Failure) If the market produces quantity G, then:
a. marginal benefit is less than marginal cost.
b. marginal benefit is equal to marginal cost.
c. marginal benefit is greater than marginal cost.
d. price is equal to marginal cost and less than marginal benefit.
e. the market is underproducing this good.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
16
Quantity of
Security
Guards
Total
Cost
Total Individual
Benefit to
Each Resident
0 $ 0 $ 0
1 150 10
2 300 16
3 450 18
4 600 19
Table 76-2: Security in a
Residential Community
____ 53. (Table 76-2: Security in a Residential Community) The table shows the total cost of hiring a 24-hour security
service in a residential community of 100 residents, and each individual resident's total benefit from the
service. The marginal social cost of the fourth security guard is ________, and the marginal social benefit is
________.
a. $150; $200
b. $150; $100
c. $150; $600
d. $600; $1,900
e. $600; $19
Quantity of
Streetlights in
the Neighborhood
Dave's
Individual
Marginal Benefit
Art's
Individual
Marginal Benefit
0
1 $15 $20
2 10 15
3 5 10
4 2 3
Table 76-4: Marginal Benefit from Additional Streetlights
____ 54. (Table 76-4: Marginal Benefit from Additional Streetlights) Dave and Art live in a new housing development
and would like to have streetlights installed to illuminate the streets and sidewalks at night. The table shows
Dave and Art's individual marginal benefits of different quantities of streetlights that could be installed in the
neighborhood. Suppose that the marginal cost of installing a streetlight is $6. What is the optimal number of
streetlights in the neighborhood?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 0
Name: ________________________ ID: A
17
Figure 77-1: Natural Monopoly
____ 55. (Figure 77-1: Natural Monopoly) The figure above shows a natural monopoly. If the firm is unregulated,
what will be the profit-maximizing monopoly price and quantity?
Price Quantity
(A) ATC
m
Q
m
(B) P
r
Q
r
(C) P
m
Q
m
(D) P
c
Q
c
(E) MC Q
c
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 56. (Figure 77-1: Natural Monopoly) The figure above shows a natural monopoly. If the firm is regulated such
that zero economic profits are earned, what will be the corresponding price and quantity?
Price Quantity
(A) ATC
m
Q
m
(B) P
r
Q
r
(C) P
m
Q
m
(D) P
c
Q
c
(E) MC Q
c
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
Name: ________________________ ID: A
18
____ 57. Children raised in poverty have a greater likelihood of living in poverty as adults than do those raised in
nonpoor families. Which of the following are positively correlated with poverty?
I. higher school dropout rates.
II. higher risk of mental problems and behavioral disorders.
III. higher rates of illness and hospitalization.
a. I only.
b. II only.
c. III only.
d. I and III only.
e. I, II and III.
____ 58. Programs designed to provide benefits to those people whose incomes fall below some minimum are called:
a. means-tested programs.
b. relative income programs.
c. absolute income programs.
d. nominal income programs.
____ 59. Welfare state programs are believed to create deadweight loss since they:
a. impact government's budgets.
b. affect incentives to work and to save in a society.
c. are supported by many political parties.
d. are based on the ability-to-pay principle.
e. lessen income inequality in a nation.
____ 60. Means-tested programs:
a. provide benefits for all.
b. are poverty programs that specifically help those with low incomes.
c. provide benefits only for those households that earn below the mean household income
in the United States for a given year.
d. provide only in-kind benefits.
e. benefit the wealthy at the expense of the poor.
ID: A
1
Micro Semester Review Mods 57-78
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: Module 57/21
MSC: Definitional
2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: Module 57/21
MSC: Definitional
3. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: Module 57/21
MSC: Definitional
4. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: Module 57/21
MSC: Definitional
5. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 57/21
MSC: Definitional
6. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 58/22
MSC: Concept-Based
7. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 58/22
MSC: Concept-Based
8. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 59/23
MSC: Critical Thinking
9. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: Module 59/23
MSC: Analytical Thinking
10. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 59/23
MSC: Concept-Based
11. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 60/24
MSC: Concept-Based
12. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 60/24
MSC: Critical Thinking
13. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: Module 61/25
MSC: Critical Thinking
14. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 61/25
MSC: Critical Thinking
15. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 61/25
MSC: Concept-Based
16. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: Module 61/25
MSC: Analytical Thinking
17. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: Module 63/27
MSC: Critical Thinking
18. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 63/27
MSC: Fact-Based
19. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 63/27
MSC: Concept-Based
20. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 63/27
MSC: Concept-Based
ID: A
2
21. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: Module 62/48
MSC: Definitional
22. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 65/29
MSC: Critical Thinking
23. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 67/31
MSC: Critical Thinking
24. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: Module 67/31
MSC: Critical Thinking
25. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 67/31
MSC: Critical Thinking
26. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 67/31
MSC: Critical Thinking
27. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: Module 67/31
MSC: Concept-Based
28. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 67/31
MSC: Concept-Based
29. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 67/31
MSC: Concept-Based
30. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 68/32
MSC: Fact-Based
31. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 69/33
MSC: Definitional
32. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: Module 69/33
MSC: Analytical Thinking
33. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 69/33
MSC: Critical Thinking
34. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 69/33
MSC: Critical Thinking
35. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 69/33
MSC: Concept-Based
36. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 69/33
MSC: Critical Thinking
37. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: Module 69/33
MSC: Definitional
38. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 69/33
MSC: Analytical Thinking
39. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 74/38
MSC: Fact-Based
40. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 74/38
MSC: Critical Thinking
41. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 74/38
MSC: Critical Thinking
42. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: Module 75/39
MSC: Fact-Based
43. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: Module 75/39
MSC: Definitional
ID: A
3
44. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: Module 75/39
MSC: Analytical Thinking
45. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 75/39
MSC: Fact-Based
46. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 75/39
MSC: Concept-Based
47. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: Module 75/39
MSC: Critical Thinking
48. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 75/39
MSC: Critical Thinking
49. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: Module 76/40
MSC: Concept-Based
50. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: Module 76/40
MSC: Definitional
51. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: Module 76/40
MSC: Concept-Based
52. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 76/40
MSC: Critical Thinking
53. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 76/40
MSC: Critical Thinking
54. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: Module 76/40
MSC: Analytical Thinking
55. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 77/41
MSC: Concept-Based
56. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 77/41
MSC: Concept-Based
57. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: Module 78/42
MSC: Fact-Based
58. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: Module 78/42
MSC: Definitional
59. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 78/42
MSC: Critical Thinking
60. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: Module 78/42
MSC: Definitional