2nd PAPER-2

IIT- JEE MODEL GRAND TEST II
PAPER II
Time: 3 Hrs M.Marks: 243

PHYSICS
INSTRUCTIONS

(Q.Nos 1 (Q.Nos 1 (Q.Nos 1 (Q.Nos 1- -- -9) : Have only one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer 9) : Have only one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer 9) : Have only one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer 9) : Have only one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer
and and and and 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer. 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer. 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer. 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer.
(Q.Nos10 (Q.Nos10 (Q.Nos10 (Q.Nos10- -- -13) 13) 13) 13) : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning type, with only one correct option. : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning type, with only one correct option. : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning type, with only one correct option. : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning type, with only one correct option.
You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer and 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer. 1 marks for wrong answer.
(Q.Nos14 (Q.Nos14 (Q.Nos14 (Q.Nos14- -- -19) 19) 19) 19) : These Questions are Comprehension type, with only one correct option. : These Questions are Comprehension type, with only one correct option. : These Questions are Comprehension type, with only one correct option. : These Questions are Comprehension type, with only one correct option.
(Q.Nos 20 (Q.Nos 20 (Q.Nos 20 (Q.Nos 20- -- -22) : These Questions in column 22) : These Questions in column 22) : These Questions in column 22) : These Questions in column- -- -1 are to be matched with the answers in the column 1 are to be matched with the answers in the column 1 are to be matched with the answers in the column 1 are to be matched with the answers in the column- -- -2. 2. 2. 2.
These may have one or more correct options These may have one or more correct options These may have one or more correct options These may have one or more correct options. . . . You will be awarded 6 marks for You will be awarded 6 marks for You will be awarded 6 marks for You will be awarded 6 marks for
correct answer. There is no negative marking. correct answer. There is no negative marking. correct answer. There is no negative marking. correct answer. There is no negative marking.

1. A thin converging lens is formed with one surface convex and the other plane.
A) image is real only when the convex surface faces the object.
B) image is real only when the plane surface faces the object.
C) image can be real irrespective of what surface faces the object.
D) image cannot be real irrespective of what surface faces the object.

2. When light is refracted into a medium,
A) its wavelength and frequency both increase.
B) its wavelength increases but the frequency remains unchanged.
C) its wavelength decreases but the frequency remains unchanged.
D) its wavelength and frequency both decrease.

3. Consider the following statements about sound passing through a gas.
A) the pressure of the gas at a point oscillates in time.
B) the position of a small layer of the gas oscillates in time.
A) both A and B are correct. B) A is correct but B is wrong.
C) B is correct but A is wrong. D) both A and B are wrong.

4. A string clamped at both the ends is vibrating in its fundamental mode.
A) there is no position on the string which can be touched without disturbing the motion.
B) the only positions on the string which can be touched without disturbing the motion are
the ends.
C) there is only one more position on the string ( other than the ends ) which can be
touched without disturbing the motion.
D) there can be many more positions on the string ( other than the ends ) which can be
touched without disturbing the motion.

5. Consider the following statements:
A) when a glass capillary tube is dipped at one end in water, water rises in the tube. The
gravitational energy is thus increased. This is a violation of conservation of energy.
B) if a liquid rises or is depressed in a capillary tube, it is due to surface tension. Hence if
a liquid neither rises nor is depressed then we conclude that the surface tension of the
liquid is zero.
A) both A and B are correct B) A is correct but B is wrong.
C) B is correct but A is wrong D) both A and B are wrong.

6. A barometer tube reads 76 cm of mercury. If the tube is gradually inclined keeping the
open end immersed in the mercury reservoir,
A) the length of the mercury column will remain 76 cm.
B) the length of the mercury column will be more than 76 cm.
C) the length of the mercury column will be less than 76 cm
D) the length of the mercury column becomes zero.

7. If simple harmonic motion has to take place in a non inertial frame,
A) the force applied need not be proportional to the displacement
B) the ratio of force applied to the displacement should be constant.
C) simple harmonic motion cannot take place in a non inertial frame
D) only a spring-mass system can perform simple harmonic motion in a non inertial
frame.

8. At noon, the sun and the earth pull the objects on the surface of the earth in opposite
directions. At mid night the sun and the earth pull these objects in the same direction.
A) weight of an object measured by a spring balance on the earths surface, is more at mid
night as compared to its weight at noon.
B) weight of an object measured by a spring balance on the earths surface, is more at noon
as compared to its weight at midnight.
C) weight of an object measured by a spring balance on the earths surface, is equal at
noon as it is at midnight.
D) we cannot weigh an object by a spring balance on the earths surface exactly at noon or
at midnight.

9. For a body to perform S.H.M,
A) frictional force must be absent B) frictional force must be static
C) frictional force may be present and may be kinetic
D) frictional force cannot be kinetic

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE:

Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STII is the correct explanation of ST 1
Bubble(B) if both the statements are TRUE but STII is NOT the correct explanation of ST-1
Bubble (C ) if STATEMENT I is TRUE and STATEMENT II is FALSE
Bubble (D ) if STATEMENT I is FALSE and STATEMENT II is TRUE.

10. Statement-I: if a small plane area is rotated in an electric field, the orientation of the area
for the flux of the electric field through the area to be maximum, is that the area should be
at right angles to the field.
Statement-II: flux of the electric field through the area S is given by = S E

11. Statement-I: a capacitor has a capacitance of C. this information is enough to know what
maximum charge the capacitor can contain
Statement-II: the charge holding capacity of a conductor depends on the medium in which
the conductor is going to be placed.

12. Statement-I: a capacitor with no dielectric is connected to a battery at t = 0 taken two
points A in the connecting wires and a point B in between the plates. There is current
through B as long as the charging is not complete.
Statement-II: when no current is passed through a conductor the average of the velocities
of all the free electrons at an instant is zero.

13. Statement-I: a long straight wire carries a current. The ampere's law is not valid for a loop
that does not enclose the wire.
Statement-II: a long straight wire carries a current. The ampere's law is even valid for a
loop that does not enclose the wire.

COMPREHENSION-I:

An electron gun G emits electrons of energy 2 KeV traveling in the positive X- direction. The
electrons are required to hit the spot S where GS = 0.1 m, and the line GS makes an angle of 60
0

with the x-axis. A uniform magnetic field B parallel to GS exists in the region outside the gun.
14. How many values of B can make the electrons hit S?
A) one B) two C) three D) many

15. The path followed by the electrons in hitting the spot S is
A) circular B) helix with variable pitch
C) helix with constant pitch D) neither circular nor helical.

16. One of the values of B that can make the electrons hit the spot S is

A) 0.73 mT B) 2.73 mT C) 47.3 mT D) 4.73 mT

COMPREHENSION-2:
An ideal mono atomic gas is confined in a cylinder by a spring loaded piston of cross sectional
area 8 x 10
-3
m
2
. Initially the gas is at 300 K and occupies a volume of 2.4 x 10
-3
m
3
and the
spring is in its relaxed (unstretched) state. The gas is heated by a small electric heater until the
piston moves out slowly by 0.1 m. the force constant of the spring is 8000 N/m and the
atmospheric pressure is 10
5
Pa. The cylinder and the piston are thermally insulated. The piston is
massless and there is no friction between the piston and the cylinder. Neglect heat loss through
the lead wires of the heater. The heat capacity of the heater coil is negligible. Assume the spring
to be massless.

17. The final pressure of the gas is
A) 10
5
Pa B) 2 x 10
5
Pa. C) 0.5 x 10
5
D) none of these

18. The final temperature of the gas is
A) 800 K B) 300 K C) 1600 K D) 400 K

19. The heat supplied by the heater is
A) 80 J B) 40 J C) 600 J D) 720 J

Match the following:
20.
A. the radioactive decay rate of a radioactive element is found to be 10
3

disintegrations/sec at a certain time. If the half life of the element is one
second, the decay rate after one second is (in dps)
P. 0.62
B. in an x-ray tube, the electrons accelerated through a potential difference
of 15000 volt strike a copper target. The speed of the emitted x-ray inside
the tube is (x10
8
)
Q. 500
C. the binding energies per nucleon for deuteron (
1
H
4
) and helium (
2
He
4
) are
1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV respectively. The energy released when two deuteron
s fuse to form a helium nucleus is (in MeV)

R. 23.6
D. A potential difference of 20 kV is applied across an x-ray tube. The
minimum wavelength of x-rays generated is ( in A
o
)
S. 3

21.
A. as per Bohr model, the minimum energy in eV required to remove an
electron from the ground state of a doubly ionized Li atom ( Z = 3)
P. 1.6
B. the work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of
light that can cause photo electron emission from this substance is
approximately ( in nm )
Q. 122.4
C. a ray of light traveling in a transparent medium falls on a surface
separating the medium from air at an angle of incidence 45
o
. The ray
undergoes T.I.R. If n is the refractive index of the medium with respect
to air, the possible value of n is
R. 310
D. a coil of inductance 8.4 mH and resistance 6 is connected to a 12 V
battery. The current in the coil is one A at approximately the time (in ms)
S. 1

22.
A. in a Y.D.S.E bi-chromatic light of wave lengths 400 nm and 560 nm
are used. The distance between the slits is 0.1 mm and the distance
between the plane of the slits and the screen is 1 m. the minimum
distance between the two successive regions of complete darkness is (
in mm )
P. 28
B. in a Y.D.S.E 12 fringes are observed to be formed in a certain
segment of the screen when light of wavelength 600 nm is used. If the
wave length of the light is changed to 400 nm, the number of fringes
observed in the same segment of the screen is
Q. 6

C. a point object is placed at the center of a glass sphere of radius 6 cm
and refractive index 1.5. the distance of the virtual image from the
surface of the sphere is
R. 5
D. light of wavelength 6000 A
0
in air, enters a medium with refractive
index 1.5 Inside the medium its frequency is ( x10
14
)
S. 18
CHEMISTRY

(Q.Nos 23 (Q.Nos 23 (Q.Nos 23 (Q.Nos 23- -- -31) : Have only one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer 31) : Have only one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer 31) : Have only one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer 31) : Have only one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer
and and and and 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer. 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer. 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer. 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer.
(Q.Nos 32 (Q.Nos 32 (Q.Nos 32 (Q.Nos 32- -- -35) 35) 35) 35) : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning type, wi : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning type, wi : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning type, wi : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning type, with only one correct option. th only one correct option. th only one correct option. th only one correct option.
(Q.Nos 36 (Q.Nos 36 (Q.Nos 36 (Q.Nos 36- -- -41) 41) 41) 41) : These Questions are Comprehension type, with only one correct option. : These Questions are Comprehension type, with only one correct option. : These Questions are Comprehension type, with only one correct option. : These Questions are Comprehension type, with only one correct option.
(Q.Nos 42 (Q.Nos 42 (Q.Nos 42 (Q.Nos 42- -- -44) : These Questions in column 44) : These Questions in column 44) : These Questions in column 44) : These Questions in column- -- -1 are to be matched with the answers in the column 1 are to be matched with the answers in the column 1 are to be matched with the answers in the column 1 are to be matched with the answers in the column- -- -2. 2. 2. 2.
These may have one or more correct options These may have one or more correct options These may have one or more correct options These may have one or more correct options. . . . You will be awarded 6 marks for You will be awarded 6 marks for You will be awarded 6 marks for You will be awarded 6 marks for
correct answer. Ther correct answer. Ther correct answer. Ther correct answer. There is no negative marking. e is no negative marking. e is no negative marking. e is no negative marking.

23. If E
0
Fe
2+
/Fe = 0.441v and E
0
Fe
3+
/Fe
2+
= 0.771v, the standard emf of the reaction
Fe + 2Fe
3+
3 Fe
2+
will be
A) 1.212 v B) 0.111v C) 0.330 v D) 1.653 v

24. The covalent radius of Li is 123 pm. The crystal radius of Li will be
A) 123 pm B) <123 pm C) >123 pm D)
123
2
pm

25. Which of the following exhibit diamagnetic behavior
A) NO B) O
2
2-
C) O
2
+
D) O
2

26. The correct formula of borax is
A) Na
2
B
4
O
7
.8H
2
O B) Na
2
B
4
O
7
.4H
2
O C) Na
2
[B
4
O
5
(OH)
4
].8H
2
O D) none

27. Which of the following oxide is least stable to slight heating
A) CuO B) ZnO C) Sb
2
O
3
D) Ag
2
O

28. Iodide of millions base is
A) K
2
[HgI
4
] B)
Hg
NH
2
OHgI
C) [Hg
2
O. NH
2
OH]H
2
O D)
[Hg (NH
2
)I + Hg]

29. A salt of
2
MgCl
Na X white ppt. on boiling. Thus the anion X is
A)
3
HCO
B)
3
NO
C)
2
3
CO

D)
2
4
SO

30.
2 5 3
3
P O / CH li
3 2
H O
CH CONH X Y
+
. Y is
A) CH
3
CONHCH
3
B) ( )
3
2
CH C NOH = C) CH
3
COCH
3
D) CH
3
COOH

31.
HO
SeO
2
X (major).
X is

A)
OH
HO
B)
OH
HO
C)
CH
2
OH
D) None

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE:


32. Statement I: Polar protic solvent favours SN
1
reaction
Statement II: Polar protic solvent initiates formation of carbocation intermediate

33. Statement I: Solubility of M
II
(OH)
2
increases down the group
Statement II: Hydration energy of M
II
(OH)
2
decreases down the group

34. Statement I: [Cr(OX)
3
]
3
does not exhibit geometrical isomerism
Statement II: Oxalate ion acts as a mono dentate ligand
35. Statement I: Propanone and propanal can be distinguished by SeO
2

Statement II: SeO
2
oxidizes propanal to 2-Keto propanal

COMPREHENSION-1:
Basic property of ammonia and alkyl amines mainly depends on their degree of solvation.
Electron donating groups increase the basic strength while electron withdrawing groups decrease
the basic strength.

36. Order of basic strengths among methyl substituted anilines follows:
A) o m p > > B) o p m > > C) p o m > > D) m o p > >

37. Which of the following is least basic

N
H
A)
N
H
B)
N
H
O
C) D)
N
N
H

38. The most basic among the following is
A) Ph
2
NH B) (CH
3
)
2
NH C) (CH
3
CH
2
)
2
NH D) Ph NH
2

COMPREHENSION-2:
Diamagnetic substances are those which are repelled by an applied magnetic field. Such
substances have no unpaired electrons. Paramagnetic substance are attracted by the applied
magnetic field and can have unpaired electrons. Most of the transition metals and their
compounds as well show magnetic property due to presence of unpaired electron. The magnetic
moment of a substance can be calculated as follows. n(n 2) = + BM where n is the number
of unpaired electrons.

39. Which of the following has maximum magnetic moment?
A) Se B) V C) Cr D) Fe

40. Magnetic moment of [Ni(H
2
O)
4
]
2+
is
A) 1.87 BM B) 2.83 BM C) 3.87 BM D) 0

41. Which of the following has least magnetic moment?
A) Cr
2+
B) Mn
2+
C) Ti
2+
D) Cu
2+


42. Column-I Column-II
A) Be(OH)
2
P) Oxidising agent
B) HNO
3
Q) Amphoteric
C) HNO
2
R) Gelatinous white ppt
D) Al(OH)
3
S) Reducing agent

A) Enthalpy P) Extensive property
B) Entropy Q) State function
C) Gibbs free energy R) Units : KJ
D) Heat S) Energy in transit

A)
2 4
Br /CCl
RCOOAg . . . P) Benzoin condensation

B)
2 4
H / Pd BaSO
RCOCl

Q) Wittig rearrangement
C)
Aq.alc KCN
Ph CHO R) Rosenmund Reduction
D)
2
NaH/ H O
2 3
R CH OCH S) Hunsdiecker reaction

MATHEMATICS

(Q.Nos 45 (Q.Nos 45 (Q.Nos 45 (Q.Nos 45- -- -53) : 53) : 53) : 53) : Have only one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer Have only one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer Have only one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer Have only one correct option. You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer
and and and and 1 mark (mi 1 mark (mi 1 mark (mi 1 mark (minus one mark) for wrong answer. nus one mark) for wrong answer. nus one mark) for wrong answer. nus one mark) for wrong answer.
(Q.Nos54 (Q.Nos54 (Q.Nos54 (Q.Nos54- -- -57) 57) 57) 57) : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning type, with only one correct option. : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning type, with only one correct option. : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning type, with only one correct option. : These Questions are Assertion & Reasoning type, with only one correct option.
(Q.Nos58 (Q.Nos58 (Q.Nos58 (Q.Nos58- -- -63) 63) 63) 63) : These Questions are Comprehensi : These Questions are Comprehensi : These Questions are Comprehensi : These Questions are Comprehension type, with only one correct option. on type, with only one correct option. on type, with only one correct option. on type, with only one correct option.
(Q.Nos 64 (Q.Nos 64 (Q.Nos 64 (Q.Nos 64- -- -66) : 66) : 66) : 66) : These Questions in column These Questions in column These Questions in column These Questions in column- -- -1 are to be matched with the answers in the column 1 are to be matched with the answers in the column 1 are to be matched with the answers in the column 1 are to be matched with the answers in the column- -- -2. 2. 2. 2.
These may have one or more co These may have one or more co These may have one or more co These may have one or more correct options rrect options rrect options rrect options. . . . You will be awarded 6 marks for You will be awarded 6 marks for You will be awarded 6 marks for You will be awarded 6 marks for
correct answer. There is no negative marking. correct answer. There is no negative marking. correct answer. There is no negative marking. correct answer. There is no negative marking.

45. If a( p + q)
2
+ 2bpq + c = 0 and a(p + r)
2
+ 2bpr + c = 0, (a 0) then
A)
2 c
a
qr p = + B) qr = p
2
C) qr = p
2
D) none of these

46. If x is a positive real number, then
x 1
x
2 2
+
(
(
+
(

where [ ] denotes step function,
A)
1
2
x
(
+

B) [x] C)
1
4
x
(
+

D)
1
4
2x
(
+

47. The point of intersection of the curves arg (z 3i) =
3
4
and arg (2z + 1 2i) =

4
is
A)
1
4
(3 9i) + B)
1
4
(3 9i) C)
1
2
(3 2i) + D) none of these

48. If a, b, c, d are distinct integers in A.P. such that d = a
2
+ b
2
+ c
2
, the a + b + c + d is
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) none of these

49. The coefficient of x
50
in the expansion of (1 + x)
1000
+ 2x (1 + x)
999
+ 3x
2
(1 + x)
998
+ . . . . .
. . + 1001 x
1000
is:
A)
1000
c
50
B)
1001
c
50
C)
1002
c
50
D) 2
1001

50. There are three coplanar parallel lines. If any p points are taken on each of the lines, the
maximum number of triangles with vertices at these points is
A) 3p
2
(p 1) + 1 B) 3p
2
(p 1) C) p
2
(4p 3) D) none of these

51. The matrix X for which
1 4 16 6
X
3 2 7 2
( (
=
( (

; is
A)
2 4
3 1
(
(

B)
1 2
5 5
3 1
10 5
(
(
(

C)
11
5
6 2
2
(
(
(

D)
16 6
7 2
(
(

52. Let f(x) =
2
3 4
X 1 1
sin x 2x 1
x 3x 1
(
(
(
(
(

. If f(x) be an odd function and its odd value is equal to g(x).
Then f(1) g(1) is
A) 1 B) 4 C) 5 D) 1

53. The ratio of the greatest value of 2 cos x + sin
2
x is to its least value is
A)
7
4
B)
11
4
C)
13
4
D) none of these

Assertion-Reason Type


54. Statement I: tan + 2 tan 2 + 4 tan 4 + 8 tan 8 16 cot 16 = cot
Statement II: cot tan = 2 cot 2

55. Statement I: The value of
1 1 3 1
4 7
tan tan

( (
+

is
4

Statement II: If x > 0, y > 0 then tan
1
x
y
(
(

+ tan
1
y x
y x
+
(
(

=
4

56. Statement I: The incentre of the triangle formed by the lines
9 9
x cos y sin

+ = ,
x cos
8 8
9 9
y sin

+ = , x cos
13 13
9 9
y sin

+ = is (0, 0)
Statement II: The point (0, 0) is equidistant from the three vertices of the triangle formed
by the lines.
9 9
x cos y sin

+ = , x cos
8 8
9 9
y sin

+ = , x cos
13 13
9 9
y sin

+ =

57. Statement I: The common tangents of the circles x
2
+ y
2
+ 2x = 0, x
2
+ y
2
6 = 0 from an
equilateral triangle
Statement II: The given circles touch each other externally.

COMPREHENSION 1:
A.P. is a diameter of a unit circle with centre at O. Let AC be an arc of this circle, which
subtends angle radian at centre O. A tangent line is drawn to the circle at the point A and
segment AB on this tangent is laid off whose length is equal to that of the arc AC. A straight line
BC is drawn to intersect the extension of the diameter AP at Q. CD is the perpendicular let fall
from the point C upon the diameter AP.

58. The area of the trapezoid ABCD is
A)
1 cos
sin

B)
2
2
( sin ) sin

+ C)
2
2
2cos ( sin )
D) ( sin ) +

59. The length AQ equals to
A)
(1 cos )
sin

B)
(1 cos )
sin

+
C)
(1 cos )
sin
+

D)
(1 cos )
sin
+
+

60. The value of the limit
0
lim
+
AQ is
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

COMPREHENSION 2:
A function f : R R satisfies the following conditions:
1) f(x) 0 for any x R 2) f(x + y) = f(x). f(y) for all x, y in R
3) f(x) is differentiable 4) f (0) = 2

61. The derivative of f(x), i.e., f satisfies the equation
A) f (x + y) = f(x) + f(y) B) f(x + y) = f(x) f(y)
C) f(x + y) = f(x) f(y) D) none of these

62. The ratio
f (x)
f (x)
for all x, equals to

A) 1 B) 2 C) x D) 2x

63.
f (x) f ( x)
x
x 0
lim

=
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4


64. Let f(x) be a real valued function defined by f(x) = x
2
2|x| and g(x) =
[ ]
[ ]
minimum{f (t): 2 t x}, x 2, 0
max imum {f (t):0 t x}, x 0, 3

LIST-I LIST-II
A) f(x) is not continuous at x equal to P) -2

B) g(x) is not derivable at x equal to Q) 0

C) Number of points of local extremum of g(x) is equal to R) 1

D) Absolute maximum value of g(x) is equal to S) 2

65. Observe the following lists:
LIST-I LIST-II

A) Area enclosed by the curve (y sin
-1
x)
2
= x x
2
is P) 0
equal to

B) The area of the region represented by the expression
2 x y x y 2 2 + + is equal to Q) 1

C) If the area bounded by y = x
2
3 and the line y = ax + 2
attains its minimum value then the parameter a is
equal to R) /4

D) If k is a positive number and the area of the region
bounded by the curves. y = x kx
2
and ky = x
2
attains
its maximum value then k is equal to S) 6

66. Observe the following:
LIST-I LIST-II

A) If the coordinates of the mid-points of the sides BC, P)
3
4

CA, AB of ABC are (a, 0, 0), (0, b, 0), (0, 0, C)
respectively then
2 2 2
2 2 2
AB BC CA
a b c
+ +
+ +
is equal to

B) The distance of the image of the point (1, -2, 3) in the
plane x y + z = 5 from the origin is equal to Q) 8

C) If be the angle between a diagonal of a cube and an
edge of the cube, intersecting the diagonal then tan
is equal to R) 2

D) If the equation px
2
+ y
2
+ pz
2
+ 2yz + zx + 3xy = 0
represents a pair of mutually perpendicular planes
then q is equal to S) 5 2

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IIT- JEE MODEL GRAND TEST II

and arg (2z + 1 2i) =

for all x, equals to

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