Solved General Pathology MCQs and SEQs

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DEPARTMENT OF PATHOLOGY
RAWALPINDI MEDICAL COLLEGE RAWALPINDI
MCQ`S Paper
Time allowed: 65 minutes
Marks: 65
Attempt all questions. Mark the appropriate square on the
response sheet
1. When a guinea pig is injected subcutaneously with virulent
tubercle bacilli, the puncture wound heals quickly, but a
nodule forms at the site of injection in two weeks. This
nodule ulcerates and the ulcer does not heal. The regional
lymph node develops tubercles and caseates massively.
When the same animal is injected with tubercle bacilli in
another part of the body, 6-8 weeks later the following
phenomenon is observed.
1. a. Regional lymph nodes do not become infected.
2. There is no necrosis of skin and tissue
3. Ulcer does not heals rapidly
4. Rapid spread of mycobacterium in the body
5. Regional lymph nodes become infected.
2. If the patient of tuberculosis left untreated, one person
with tuberculosis will infect
1. 0-5% people per year
2. 1-10% people per year
3. 10-15 people per year.
4. 30-50% people per year
5. 60-80% people per year
3. The major difference between Mycobacterium tuberculosis
and Mycobacterium other than tuberculosis(MOTT) is:
1. MOTT is transmitted by humans to humans
2. MOTT is transmitted by environment
3. MOTT is transmitted by sexual contact
4. MOTT is transmitted by vertical transmission
5. MOTT is transmitted from animal to human
4. The difference between GHON COMPLEX and GHON
LESION is :
1. Primary lesion + Draining Lymph nodes in Ghon
complex.
2. Reinfection or without involvement of draining lymph
nodes in Ghon complex.
3. In Ghon lesions draining lymph nodes are involved.
4. In Ghon complex draining lymph nodes are not involved.
5. In Ghon lesion draining lymph nodes are involved.
5. Mycobacterium Contains complex lipids
1. Phospholipids are responsible for Acid fastness
2. Phospholipids: cause Caseation necrosis
3. Glycolipid cause Caseation necrosis
4. Phospholipids acts as Freunds adjuvant
5. Phospholipids confers Acid fastness
6. A clinician sent a specimen of sputum for Mycobacterium
culture to a microbiology laboratory. The specimen was
inoculated on a solid medium. After 6 weeks incubation
growth was observed on the medium. What are the most
likely colony characteristics on LJ Medium?
a. Whitish colonies
b. Mucoid colonies
c. Rough brownish colonies
d. Swarming growth
e.Fried egg like
7. A 25 years milkman comes to emergency department,
saying that about 2 hours ago he began to feel feverish and
weak; on examination he has a temperature of 40 degree
centigrade, and a history of relapsing fever but no other
pertinent findings. A blood cultures grows small gram positive
rods that cause beta hemolysis on blood agar plate, incubated
at room temperature. Which one of the following bacteria is
most likely the cause?
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Bacillus cereus
d. Listeria monocytogenes
e.Brucella species.
8. A 13 year old girl who return a few days ago from a school
campaign trip is ill from school.she tells her parents that she
has a headache and bouts of chills, over next few days she
develops rashes which begin from palms and soles and spread
to her wrist and ankles and then to her trunk. Her worsening
condition leads her parents to take her to emergency
department. Her blood tests reveals antibodies that react with
proteus antigen, the patient is most likely infected with which
of the following:
a. Borella burgdoferri.
b. Coxiella brunette
c. Coxsasckie virus A
d.Rickettsia
e.Treponema palladium
9.LEPROMATOUS LEPROSY: course progressive and malign,
with nodular skin lesions, symmetric nerve involvement
abundant acid fast bacilli in scrapings continuous Bacteremia,
the lepromin test is :
a. negative lepromin skin test
b.is positive
c. in unequivocal
d.false positive
e.is insignificant for differentiation of the two types of
leprosy.
10. A neonate after delivery develops fever, neck rigidity and
convulsions, CSF findings show markedly decreased glucose
levels, high lactact and outnumber of Polymorphonuclear cells:
the most likely organism is:
a. E.coli
b.Strept. Group B
c. Staph. aureus
d.Listeria monocytogenes
e.Strept, Group A
11. Fungal Meningitis : Insidious onset, history of lung infection,
yeast cells in CSF, slight changes in CSF chemistry. The most
likely fungus involved is :
a. Candida albicans
b.Aspergillum
c. Histoplasma capsulatum
d.Epidermophyton
e.Cryptococcus neoformis.
12. The major cause of blindness in Asia and Africa is because
of :
a. Chlymadia serovars A-C.
b.Chlymadia serovars D-K
c. Chlymadia serovars LGV1
d.Chlymadia serovar -LGV3
e.Chlamydia psittaci
13. Food poisoning caused by Campylobacter species can be
severely debilitating but rarely life-threatening. It has been
linked with subsequent development of Guillain- Barr
syndrome (GBS), which usually develops two to three weeks
after the initial illness. The major cause of this condition is :
a. incorrectly prepared meat and poultry
b.seafood
c. unpasteurized milk
d.Ice creams
e.canned food
14. Peptic ulcer disease: An ulcer is now known to be the result
of an imbalance between aggressive and defensive mechanisms
in the stomach and duodenum. Part of that imbalance can be
attributed to infection by H. pylori . The organism is:
a. Gram negative rod, urease negative,oxidase positive
b. Gram negative rod,urease positive,curved shaped
c. Gram negative rod,urease negative ,curved shaped
d.Gram negative rod,oxidase positive ,curved shaped
e.Gram positive rod,urease positive,curved shaped
15.Infection with the Malassezia furfur organism causes skin
hypopigmentation.It is found most frequently in hot and humid
regions. It is also responsible for causing one of the cutaneous
mycosis. Infectin with malassezia furfur also causes which of
the following disorders:
a. tinea capitis
b.tinea cruris
c. tinea nigra
d.tinea pedis
e.tinea versicolor
16. A 34 year old woman newly diagnosed with HIV is currently
asymptomatic. She is not taking any medication yet and she is
skeptical about the impact medication might have on her fatal
disease. She is aware that if left untreated her disease will
progress and make her susceptible to different infections. She
inquires about the natural course her disease may take and
the different infections she may acquire. Which of the
following infections manifest with the lowest T cell count?
a. Cryptococcus meningitis
b.Dissemenated Mycobacterium avium intracellulare
c. Herpese simplex
d. Herpese zoster
e.Oral thrush
17. A 28 year old male visits his physician complaining of
intermittent pain in his right elbow and left knee of two weeks
duration.He has also noticed a slight drooping of the left side
of his face in last three days.He also gives history of rash on
his right arm two months ago.Rash was clear at the centre. On
examination the physician notices several circular rashes with
central clearing. Which pathogen is responsible for this
condition?
a. Borrelia burgdoferri
b.Borrelia recurrentis
c. Leptospira interogans
d.Rickettsia rickettsii
e.tryponima pallidum
18.After a long camping trip a 29 years old man comes to the
physician complaining of fever and general
malaise.Examination shows a well demarkated skin lesion with a
black base .On further questioning the patient says the lesion
developed over a deer fly bite site, which of the following
organism is most likely responsible for this lesion:
a. brucella melitensis
b. fransicella tulerences
c. Nocardia astroides
d.tryponima pallidum
e.trichenella
19.A 12 year old patient presents to pediatric OPD with history
of hacking cough for three weeks.He has already taken a
course of ampicillin without any improvement of his cough.X-
Ray chest reveals interstitial pneumonia with patchy
infilteration .The physician labels him as a case of Walking
Pneumonia.What is the most probable organism responsible for
this illness?
a. Hemophillus influenza
b.Strep.Pneumoniae
c. Klebsiella Pneumoniae
d.Mycoplasma Pneumoniae
e.Chlamydia spp
20. A 30 years old man presents to his physician with
complaints of dysuria, urgency, and urethral discharge. His
uretheral discharge swab is sent for culture to lab, inoculation
on free cell medium shows pinpoint colonies with fried egg
appearance ,organism is urease positve .What is the most likely
organism responsible for his illness?
a. Neisseria ghonorrea
b.Chlamydia spp
c. Ureaplasma urealyticum
d.tryponema pallidum
e.E.coli
21.A 35 years old man with the history of pain and swelling of
his axillary lymph nodes, high grade fever, myalgias and
generalized weakness. On examination the affected nodes are
extremely tender. Pus from the node is sent for evaluation to
microbiology lab.Waysonns staining of his specimens smear
shows safety pin appearance of the organism. What is the most
probable organism responsible for his illness?
a. Yerisinea pestis
b.fransicella tularensis
c. pasturella multocida
d.Brucella spp
e.mycobacterium avium
22. A 40 years old male presents to his physician with
maculopapular rashes on his palm and soles, low grade fever,
malaise, anorexia, weight loss, headache and myalgias.
Examination reveals generalized lymphadenopathy.On further
questioning he gives a history of non tender ulcer in his groin
regions 2 months prior to his present symptoms what is the
most likely organism responsible:
a. Borellia recurrentis
b.leptospira interrogans
c. Borellia burgdoferri
d.Mycoplasma hominis
e.treponema pallidum
23. Spore-forming anaerobic bacteria are usually present as
normal flora of colon of animals, which one of them is
responsible for causing flaccid paralysis after food poisoning.
a. C. perfringens
b. C. tetani
c. C. botulinum
d. C. difficile
e.C. welchi
24.In association with anaerobic fusiform bacteria gingivo-
stomatitis and Vincents angina is caused by :
a. Borrelia vincenti
b.Borellia burgdoferri
c. Leptospira interogans
d.Treponema carateum
e.Treponema Pertenuae
25. Nontreponemal Ag tests measure anti-treponemal antibody
using a cross reactive cardiolipin lecithin as an antigen rather
than the actual bacterial antigens. The advantage of these
test is that they have a:
a. Diagnostic index
b. Prognostic index
c. Do not require spirochetes
d.High specificity
e.High sensitivity
26.A diagnosis of diphtheria is confirmed by:
a. Microscopic appearance of organisms stained with methylene
blue
b.Isolation of a typical colony on Tindals agar
c. Isolation of typical organisms from materials such as blood,
showing invasiveness
d.Detection of " phage plagues in cultures of suspicious isolates
e.Demonstration of toxin production by a suspicious isolate.
27. Listeria monocytogenes shows which of the following
characteristics?
a. It can grow at refrigerator temperatures (4 degree calcius)
b.It is an extracellular pathogen
c. It is catalase-negative
d.It is a gram-negative coccus
e.It is strictly a human pathogen
28. Which of the following is true of Haemophilus influenzae?
a. Invasive infections are most commonly associated with
encapsulated strains
b.Most invasive infections occur in infants during the neonatal
period
c. Most human infections are acquired from domestic pets
d.The organism can be readily cultured on sheep blood agar in
an environment of elevated CO2
e.Older adults are rarely at risk for infection with this
organism because they typically have a high level of immunity
29.A distinguishing feature of human Mycoplasma species is
that they:
a. Stain well with Giemsa, but not by Gram stain
b. Contain no bacterial pepidoglycan
c. Are not immunogenic because they mimic host cell membrane
components
d.Cannot be cultivated in vitro
e.Are dependent on host sources of ATP
30.Which one of the following is most characteristic of
Mycoplasma pneumonia infection?
a. Infection results in a fever of sudden onset accompanied by
a productive cough
b.Infection most commonly occurs in the upper respiratory
tract
c. Infection is definitively diagnosed by direct microscopic
examination of sputum
d.Re-infection is rare and less severe than primary infection
e.Infection causes extensive scarring and calcification of
affected lung tissue
31.Selective media needed for isolation of shigella species can
be:
a. ss agar
b.blood agar
c. chocolate agar
d.sabaroud`s agar
e.LJ agar
32. The mycobacterium tuberculosis Contains complex lipids
including Mycolic acids, which property is conferred to the
mycobacterium by them?
a. Acid fastness
b.Freunds adjuvant
c. Caseation necrosis.
d.Cord factor.
e.Ability to grow on LJ medium
33. Swimming pool granuloma``in which treatment by
tetracycline effective is caused by:
a. M. kansasii
b.M. marinium
c. M. scorfulaceum.
d. M. avium- intracellulara
e.M. fortuitum-chelonei complex
34An AIDS patient with a persistent cough has shown
progressive behavioral changes in the past few weeks after
visiting a zoo. A CSF sample is collected and encapsulated
yeast like organism is observed. What is the most likely
organism?
a. aspergillus
b.cryptococcus neoformans
c. histoplasma
d.pseudomonas aeruginosa
e.blastomyces
35. A woman who pricked her finger while pruning some rose
bushes develops a local pustule that progresses to an ulcer.
Several nodules then develop along the lymphatic drainage.
The most likely agent is:
a. cryptococcus neoformans
b.candida albicans
c. sporothrix schenkii
d.aspergillus fumigatus
e.histoplasma capsulatum
36. Which of the following media is used to culture fungi?
a. mac conkey medium
b.chocolate agar
c. sabouraud`s agar
d.eosin-methylene blue agar
e.lowenstein jensen mediu
37. A sample sent to microbiological lab for fungal culture
yields growth on sabourods medium .which stain would you use
for further fungal identification?
a. Calcoflour white stain
b.Zeihl Nelson stain
c. Gram stain
d.Geimsa stain
e.Sudan black stain
38. Dermetophyts are responsible for the following infection:
a. Fungal diseases that are confined to the outer layers of the
skin, nail, or hair
b.Deep, ulcerated skin lesions
c. Fungating masses, most commonly involving the lower
extremities
d.May involve deep viscera
e.May become widely disseminate
39.Aspergillosis is recognized in tissues by the presence of:
a. Budding cells
b. Septate hyphae
c. Metachromatic granules
d.Pseudohyphae
e.conidio spore
40. A 35 years old man is HIV antibody positive and has a CD4
count of 50 /mm3.He has had a fever of 1000 degree F.for a
few weeks and feels tired all the time. He has no other
symptoms .Findings on physical examination are normal. Blood
counts, urine analysis and X-ray chest are normal.A bone
marrow biopsy reveals granuloma and culture grows an
organism that is a budding yeast at 37 degree centigrade but
produces hyphae at 25 C.Which of the following is the most
likely cause?
a. Aspergillus fumigates
b.Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Mucour spp
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
e.Coccidioides immitis
41. A 60 years old woman had an adenocarcinoma of colon that
was surgically removed. Several blood transfusions were given
and she did well 3 weeks after surgery,when fever ,vomiting
and diarrhea began. Blood and stool cultures were negative
for bacteria.Test for clostridium difficile and HbsAg were
negative.A liver biopsy revealed intra-nuclear inclusion
bodies.Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Cytomegalovirus
b.Dengue virus
c. Hepatitis A virus
d.Rota virus
e.Yellow fever virus
42. A 12 year old girl had a seizure this morning and was
rushed to the hospital. On examination her temperature was
400 C and she had no nuchal rigidity.CT scan revealed no
abnormality. A spinal tap was done and the protein and glucose
were normal.Gram stain of CSF shows no organism or
polymorphs.Routine blood culture and CSF cultures grew no
organisms.She was treated with various antibiotics but became
comatose and died 2 days later.Autopsy of brain showed
eosinophilic inclusion bodies in the cytoplasm of the
neurons.Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Prions
b.J-C virus
c. Rabies virus
d.Parvovirus B-19 virus
e.Herpese simplex virus type I
43.A 35 year old man who is HIV antibody positive and has a
CD 4 count of 30 says I can not remember the simplest
things.You are concerned about dementia. An MRI indicates
several widely scattered lesions in the brain.Over the next 4
months he develops visual field defects,becomes paralysed and
dies.Autopsy reveals that many neurons of the brain has lost
myeline and contained intra-nuclear inclusions.Electrone
microscopy reveals the inclusions contain non-enveloped
viruses.Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Adenovirus
b.Cytomegalovirus
c. Herpese simplex virus
d. J-C virus
e.Coxsackie virus
44. A 66 years old woman is being treated with chemotherapy
for lymphoma.She develops fever of 380 C and a non
productive cough.Chest X-ray reveals an infiltrate.She is
treated with an appropriate antibiotics.The following day
several vesicles appear on her chest.Which of the following is
the most likely cause?
a. Measle virus
b.Respiratory syncytial virus
c. Varicella zoster virus
d.Rubella virus
e.Oncovirus
45.A 35 years old man who is HIV antibodies positive and has a
CD 4 count of 85 cells. He recently had a seizure and an MRI
scan indicates a lesion in the temporal lobe.A brain biopsy
specimen reveals multinucleated giant cells with intra-nuclear
inclusions.Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Herpes Simplex virus
b.Parvovirus B-19
c. Coxsackie virus
d.western Equine encephalitis virus
e.Oncovirus
46.Which of the following statement is correct about viruses?
a. obligate intracellular parasites and have only RNA or DNA
b.obligate intracellular parasites and have both RNA or DNA
c. Nuclic acid is surrounded by a lipid coat
d.Icosahedral helical form cannot exist without an envelope
e.they replicate by binary fission
47.Which of the following is a DNA virus?
a. Herpes virus
b.Picorna virus
c. Rhabdovirus
d.Deltavirus
e.Paramyxovirus
48.Some patients who are being infected with certain viruses
continue to produce significant amount of the virus for long
period. Which of the following viruses can cause this carrier
state?
a. Neonatal Rubella virus
b.Yellow fever virus
c. Rabies virus
d.Mumps virus
e.Influenza virus
49.A tumour has to grow larger than 1-2mm. What supportive
mechanism will be required? Identify the correct statement.
a. Angiogenesis
b. Application of promotors
c. Application of initiators
d. Growth factors
e. Secondary mutations
50.Genes that promote autonomous cell growth in cancer cells
are called as;
a. Anti-apoptotic genes
b.DNA repair genes
c. Oncogenes
d.Tumour suppressor genes
e.RNA repair genes
51.A patient of adenomacarcinoma of prostate is treated by
the oncologist and is under regular follow-up. Which serum
tumour marker will help in determining tumour recurrence
a.CA 125
b. CEA
c. HCG
d. PSA
e. Prolactin
52.Individuals who have hereditary predisposition to cancer,
the detection of mutated alleles may allow the patient and
physician to devise an aggressive screening program and
consider the option of prophylactic surgery and counseling of
relatives at risk. This is not seen in germ line mutation of:
1. 1. APC
2. BRCA1
3. BRCA2
4. RET
5. KRAS
53.The incidence of carcinoma of cervix has fallen down in
West because of the effective screening program for early
detection of premalignant lesions. Select one diagnostic
modality for screening of cervical cancer in your population.
1. 1. Cervical biopsy
2. CT scan
3. Serum CA-125 levels
4. Pap smear
5. PCR
54. In evolution of colorectal cancers through adenoma-
carcinoma sequence identify mutation of gene which is an
early event.
1. 1. APC
2. P53
3. KRAS
4. SMAD1
5. SMAD4
55. An athelete develops acute throat infection. In addition to
local acute inflammatoryt changes he develops fever and
malaise. These constitutional symptoms are mediated by:
1. Histamine
2. IL-1 & TNF
3. C3a
4. Prostacyclin
5. Thromboxane A2
56.After a minor trauma to the big toe, a child develops
painful swelling over it which is red warm and tender. The
swelling is fluctuant. The surgeons diagnose it to be an abscess
which is:
1. 1. An area of chronic inflammation with granulomas in it.
2. A localized collection of transudate.
3. A localized collection of granulation tissue
4. A localized collection of pus
5. An area of collagen deposition
57. The most potent microbicidal mechanism in neutrophils is:
1. Myeloperoxidase
2. MPO-halide system
3. H2O2-MPO-halide system
4. Lysosomal enzymes
58. The earliest mechanism for increased vascular permeability
in acute inflammatory response is:
1. 1. Increased transcytosis
2. Direct endothelial cell damage
3. Leucocyte mediated endothelial injury
4. Cytoskeletal reorganization
5. Endothelial cell contraction
59. Which of the following vaccines is live-attenuated:
a) BCG
b) Rabies
c) Pertussis
d) Tetanus
e) Hepatitis B
60. Type III hypersensitivity reaction develops when:
a) Antigens are trapped in macrophages and cannot be
cleared
b) Antibody binds to either self antigen or foreign antigen
on cells
c) An IgE antibody response is directed against harmless
environmental antigens
d) Immune complexes are formed in large quantities and
cannot be cleared
e) IgM is produced as a part of primary humoral response
61. Harmful aspect of complement activation is:
a) Opsonization to enhance phagocytosis
b) Lysis of bacteria, tumor and infected cells
c) Enhancement of antibody production
d) Inflammation & anaphylaxis
e) Clearance of immune complexes
62. A 55-year-old woman has been treated in the hospital for
pancreatitis for the past three weeks. She is examined one
morning on rounds and found to have a swollen right leg. It is
tender to palpation posteriorly but is not warm. This condition
is most likely to be the result of which of the following vascular
complications?
a. Venous thrombosis
b.Septic embolization
c. Congestive heart failure
d.Cellulitis
e.Infarction
63. Causes of localized Oedema include:
1. 1. Obstruction of lymphatics
2. Loss of proteins through kidneys
3. Loss of proteins through gut
4. Loss of proteins through gut
5. Congestive cardiac failure.
64. Maternal age is strongly related to incidence of trisomy
21. What information does this give us about the pathogenesis
of this disease?
a) All cases are familial
b) Trisomy 21 is an X linked disease
c) Meiotic non disjunction occurs in the ovum
d) The extra chromosome is of paternal derivation
e) Only females are carriers
65.Genetic sex is determined by:
a) The number of X chromosomes
b) Phenotype
c) Type of gonads
d) Secondary sexual characters
e) The presence or absence of Y chromosome
DEPARTMENT OF PATHOLOGY
RAWALPINDI MEDICAL COLLEGE RAWALPINDI send up
SEQ`S Paper Time allowed: 70 minutes
Total Marks: 70
Where there is love of medicine, there is love of humankind.--
Hippocrates]
1. Name three species of CHLAMYDIA which cause HUMAN
DISEASE. 3
b. Name the DISEASES caused by different species of
CHLAMYDIA and its SEROTYPES. 2
KEY 1: Medical Microbiology and Immunology ; Earnest Jawetz
7th ed chapter 25.
a. Chlamydia three species 1. Chlamydia trachomitis. 2. C.
pscittaci. 3. C. pneumonia. 4.
TWAR 1 mark for each
name = 3
. Diseases caused by different serotypes
1. Ocular Infections:
2. Trachoma and inclusion conjunctivitis. Serotype A-C
3. Serotype D-K STI`S
3. Genital Infections or STI`s: non gonococcal uretheritis,
salpingitis, cervicitis PID, etc.
4. LGV-1 serotype. Lymphogranuloma venereum
5. C. pneumoniae. Respiratory Infections:
6. (TWAR organism ) causes atypical pneumonitis in humans
0.5 mark for name of
disease and serotype
2. KEY : Medical Microbiology and Immunology ; Earnest
Jawetz 7th ed Chapter 21.
2. Outline LABORATORY DIAGNOSIS of TUBERCULOSIS.
3
b. Tabulate difference between PRIMARY AND
REACTIVATION TUBERCULOSIS 2
a .
1 Specimens: sputum. Bronchial washings, biopsy material etc.
2 Staining ZN, Fluorescence. 3. Culture LJ medium, Dubo`s
medium, synthetic medium etc. Bactec. Chemilumesence, DNA
probes, Luciferase assays.
0.5 marks each for mentioning any of the
methods
b PRIMARY & REACTIVATION DISEASE
Tissue destruction results from presence of Organism & Host
response (cell-mediated hypersensitivity)
Two types of lesions:
1. Exudative Lesions: Acute inflammatory response mainly
polymorphonuclear.
Primary lesion: lower lobes in lungs: Parenchymal Exudative
lesion and the draining lymph nodes are called GHON
COMPLEX.
2. Granulomatous Lesions: Central area of Giant cells
containing tubercle bacilli, surrounded by epitheloid cells.
Reactivation lesions: In apices, also Kidney Brain & Bones. 0.5
marks each
3. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease 7th Ed
324-27
3. A patient of chronic Hepatitis develops a space occupying
lesion in right lobe of the liver. If the hepatitis is of viral
etiology:
a. Which two virus types may be associated with the
development of this tumor?
b. List three other viruses oncogenic in man along with the one
principle type of cancer associated with each. (2+3)
2. KEY : Medical Microbiology and Immunology ; Earnest
Jawetz 7th ed Chapter 21.
Virus types associated with HCC
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis C virus
Other viruses oncogenic in man:
Human papilloma virus cancer of cervix
Epstein Barr virus Burkitt lymphoma, head
and neck cancers
Human T cell leukemia virus type I T cell
leukemia/lymphoma
4. A medical student who has been suffering from cough
fever, fatigue, weight loss and night sweats, for the last many
months develops, neck rigidity and meningeal irritation,
insidiously (noted by elicitation of Brudzinski's and/or
Kernings sign) and convulsions. He has received routine
antibiotics occasionally from his doctor. Lumber puncture is
done and CSF is sent to the hospital laboratory for
investigations. No bacteria are isolated on routine laboratory
media in 24-48 hours.
4. a. Name the causative organism?
1
b. Tabulate 4 differences in Normal, Bacterial, Viral and
Tuberculous meningitis. 4
5. Name 2 ETIOLOGICAL AGENT of Menigitis in Neonates
(0-2 weeks Infants (2 weeks to 3 months) Children (3 months
- 6years) Normal adults (6 years to 21) each in tabulated
form. 5
6. a. Tabulate four differences between bacteria and
fungi. 4
b. Name 2 opportunist fungi
1
7. a. Name three genera of Spirochetes with one example
each. 1.5+1.5
b. Mention two nonspecific and two specific Serological tests
for diagnosis of Syphilis 1+1
8. a. Name 2 Bacterial 2 NGU`s and 2 Viral
STI`s.
3
b. Briefly describe in less than fifty words the recent
increase in the incidence of S.T.I`s in our community, and what
measures will you advise for their
prevention. 2
9. a. Define
Zoonosis.
1
b. Name four infections and the animal involved in their
transmission 4
10 a. Describe in less than 70 words the salient features for
eradication of Dengue fever from your community. 2.5
b. Which tests are used to diagnose Dengue fever in the
lab? 2.5
11. a. Give an equation showing the relationship between
the killing g of bacteria & the concentration of the agent
used.
1b. Name three groups of disinfectants that work by
causing disruption of the cell membrane.
3c. Which is the preferred method of sterilization for
solutions containing heat sensitive components?
112. A six month old infant is brought to the Pediatric OPD
with complaints of vomiting, fever, and failure to thrive, on
examination he is found to have a protuberant
abdomen with enlarged liver and spleen, and generalized
lymphadenopathy. Biochemical assays of bone marrow biopsy
established the diagnosis Nieimann - Pick disease.
a. What inherited deficiency causes this diseases, and how
many variants of this disease can be seen.
2b. Give the Salient morphological features of this diseases.
.
14. The following proto-oncogenes; SIS, RET, CMYC, NMYC,
Cyclin-D are associated with human tumors
like Astrocytoma, Leukemia, Burkitt lymphoma, Breast
carcinoma and Neuroblastoma.
1. Enlist four modes of activation of Protooncogenes. 2
2. Summarize why P53 is called as guardian of genome. 3.
Now I lay me down to study
I pray the Lord I won't go nutty;
And if I fail to learn this junk
I pray the Lord that I won't flunk.
But if I do, don't pity me at all
Just lay my bones in the study hall;
Tell my teacher I did my best
Then pile my books upon my chest.
Now I lay me down to rest,
I pray I'll pass tomorrow's test.
If I should die before I wake
That's one less test I'll have to take.
-- Author