DI (Basics) Final

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Simple Counting:

Questions 1 to 5:
The following table gives the IIM calls received by 10 cat aspirants A, B, C, D, E, F,
G, H, I, J. The calls received by the students are indicated by S

A B C D E F G H I J
IIM-A S S S S S S S
IIM-B S S S S S S S
IIM-C S S S S S
IIM-I S S S S S
IIM-K S S S S S S
IIM-L S S S S S
IIM-S S S S S S

Answer the following questions:
1. How many of these candidates got IIM B and IIM C calls but not IIM l call?
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1

2. The number of calls received by B and C but not by E is:
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1

3. Who got the maximum number of IIM calls?
1) D 2) J 3) A 4) None

4. Three of the following pairs of students have same number of common IIM calls.
Which is the odd one out?
1) D and F 2) B and D 3) G and I 4) H and A

5. Which IIM calls were received by maximum number of students?
1) IIM I and B but not A 2) IIM A and C but not B
3) IIM A and B but not K 4) IIM A and K but not L

Questions 6 9:
Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
In a 5 year management course, students studying in 2
nd
year are asked to select four
optional subjects from the seven given subjects. There are 10 students whose roll numbers
are from 1 to 10. They have selected four optional subjects each. Their subjects selected are
indicated by Y.

Roll No. TA MBCA YCA DMBC XA PG PM
1 Y Y Y Y
2 Y Y Y Y
3 Y Y Y Y
4 Y Y Y Y
5 Y Y Y Y
6 Y Y Y Y
7 Y Y Y Y
8 Y Y Y Y
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9 Y Y Y Y
10 Y Y Y Y
6. Which roll numbers have the same optional subjects?
1) 3 and 6 2) 1 and 3 3) 6 and 8 4) 9 and 10

7. Which optional subject was chosen by the maximum number of students?
1) XA 2) TA 3) MBCA 4) DMBC

8. Which of the following triple courses have maximum number of students in common?
1) TA, MBCA, YCA 2) DMBC, TA, PG
3) YCA, PM, XA 4) DMBC, PG, XA

9. Which roll numbers have the maximum common number of optional subjects?
1) 1 and 8 2) 3 and 6 3) 9 and 10 4) 2 and 5

Questions 10 12:
Answer these questions based on the frequency distribution of workers in a factory given
below according to the number of children they have.

Number of children Number of workers Number of illiterates
1 40 15
2 60 25
3 35 20
4 40 20
5 15 10
6 10 5

10. Find the total number of children of all the workers?
1) 200 2) 560 3) 600 4) 700

11. The number of illiterate workers with more than 3 children is:
1) 30 2) 35 3) 40 4) 50
12. How many literate workers have at least 2 children but not more than 5
children?
1) 75 2) 80 3) 85 4) None

Questions 13 17:
The following table represents the IIM calls received by 10 candidates (A, B, C, D, E,
F, G, H, I, J) in cat 2008.

IIM-A A, B, C, F, G
IIM-B D, E, F, H, J
IIM-C A, C, D
IIM-I A, B, E, I
IIM-K I, J
IIM-L E, G, H
IIM-S A, C, D, I

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13. Which candidate got the maximum number of IIM calls?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) None

14. How many students got calls from IIM A or B and IIM C or L?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) None

15. How many students got at least three IIM calls?
1) 0 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) None

16. The candidate who got IIM A, B, C, I, K, L, S calls were given 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 points
respectively, which student gets the maximum points?
1) A 2) C 3) I 4) D 5) None

17. How many students got IIM B or IIM C call and IIM A call
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) None

Questions 18 23:
The table below gives the information of eight companies (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H) and the
cities in which they have their offices.

Company Branches are in cities:
A Hyderabad, Bangalore, Chennai, Delhi, Mumbai
B Mumbai, Kolkata, Chandigarh, Pune, Hyderabad
C Ahmedabad, Baroda, Delhi, Bangalore, Chennai
D Delhi, Hyderabad, Chandigarh, Pune
E Pune, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Indore
F Indore, Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata, Bhopal
G Pune, Chandigarh, Bhopal, Ahmedabad
H Bangalore, Mumbai, Delhi, Baroda, Indore

Answer the following Questions:

18. How many of the above mentioned companies have their branches either in
Hyderabad or in Chandigarh but not in both?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

19. How many cities have branches of company A or C but not B?
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6

20. How many cities have branches of companies C & D but not E?
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) None

21. How many of the above mentioned companies have their branches in Bangalore and
Delhi but not in Chennai?
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3

22. Which of the following is true?
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1) There are exactly four cities in which company A has its branch but company B
does not.
2) Exactly three companies have their branches in both Bangalore and Chennai
3) No city has branches of more than 5 companies.
4) None of these

23. Which city has the branches of maximum number of companies?
1) Hyderabad 2) Delhi 3) Pune 4) Mumbai

Questions 24 26:

Chandigarh is connected by four cities Bangalore, Delhi, Hyderabad and Mumbai
(represented by BLR, DLI, HYD and MUM respectively) by direct flights. Three airline
companies Kingfisher, Indigo and Go air operate flights between Chandigarh and the
above mentioned cities. Each airline has one flight a day from Chandigarh to each of
these four cities.
The following table gives the details of number of passengers travelled through these
airlines in a particular week from Sunday to Saturday. (B

KINGFISHER INDIGO GO AIR
BLR DLI HYD MUM BLR DLI HYD MUM BLR DLI HYD MUM
SUN 150 240 120 160 190 175 164 125 98 146 200 263
MON 120 148 210 133 124 139 199 185 215 224 230 100
TUE 198 212 216 189 115 170 191 178 160 190 200 208
WED 215 90 128 244 217 224 245 260 240 210 188 193
THU 244 216 229 240 189 156 133 112 190 238 260 190
FRI 112 212 233 245 266 188 195 146 121 137 198 219
SAT 134 121 120 165 189 185 191 219 220 245 261 277

24. On which day, maximum number of passengers travelled from Chandigarh to
Mumbai?
1) Wednesday 2) Friday 3) Saturday 4) Tuesday

25. On which day maximum number of passengers travelled using Kingfisher?
1) Sunday 2) Wednesday 3) Thursday 4) Friday

26. On Thursday, the maximum number of passengers travelled to which city?
1) Bangalore 2) Delhi 3) Hyderabad 4) Mumbai

Questions 27 30:

The following is a table describing garments manufactured based upon the colour and size
of each lay. There are four sizes: M-Medium, L-Large, XL-Extra Large and XXL-Extra-Extra
Large.
There are three colours: Yellow, Red and White.

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27. How many lays are used to produce Yellow-coloured fabrics?
1) 10 2) 11 3) 12 4) 14

28. How many lays are used to produce Extra-Extra Large fabrics?
1) 15 2) 16 3) 17 4) 18

29. How many lays are used to produce Extra-Extra Large Yellow or Extra-Extra Large
White fabrics?
1) 8 2) 9 3) 10 4) 15

30. How many varieties of fabrics, which exceed the order have been produced?
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
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Questions 31 - 33: Answer these questions based on the table given below.
The table below gives information about four different crops, their different quality categories
and the regions where they are cultivated. Based on the information given in the table
answer the questions given below.

31. How many regions produce medium qualities of Crop-1 or Crop-2 and also produce
low quality of Crop-3 or Crop-4?
1) Zero 2) One 3) Two 4) Three

32. How many low quality Crop-1 producing regions are either high quality Crop-4
producing regions or medium quality Crop-3 producing regions?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Zero

33. Which of the following statement is true?

1) All medium quality Crop-2 producing regions are also high quality Crop-3
producing regions.
2) All high quality Crop-1 producing regions are also medium and low Crop-4
producing regions.
3) There are exactly five Crop-3 producing regions, which also produce Crop-4 but
not Crop-2.
4) Some Crop-3, producing regions produce Crop-1, and high quality Crop-2.

Answer the questions 34 to 38 on the basis of the information given below.
In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups i.e PCB,
Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated
out of 100. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipans score in English
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Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table).

Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a
boy or a girl.

34. How much did Dipan get in English Paper II?
1) 94 2) 96.5 3) 97 4) 98

35. Students who obtained Group Scores of at least 95 in every group are eligible to
apply for a prize. Among those who are eligible, the student obtaining the highest
Group Score in Social Science Group is awarded this prize. The prize was awarded
to:
1) Shreya 2) Ram 3) Ayesha 4) Dipan

36. Among the top ten students, how many boys scored at least 95 in at least one paper
from each of the groups?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

37. Among the top ten students, how many girls scored at least 96 in all the papers of at
least one group?
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3

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38. How many among the top ten students scored more than 97 marks in at least one
paper from at least three groups?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

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Questions 39 43:

Last year CAT paper had three sections Quantitative, Reasoning and Verbal. The maximum
marks in each section were 100. The cut-off marks set by the IIMs are given in the following
table.

Quant Reasoning Verbal Overall
IIM- A 37 34 32 128
IIM- B 34 32 28 110
IIM- C 38 36 20 106
IIM- I 28 24 25 102
IIM- K 23 26 24 100
IIM- L 21 21 20 92
IIM- S 19 21 17 84

The IIMs called all the candidates who cleared the cut-offs set by the respective IIMs for the
next round.
The following table gives the marks obtained by 8 candidates of a coaching institute, who
appeared for the test.

Quant Reasoning Verbal
Abhinav 46 42 36
Aditi 41 39 32
Chandu 33 44 45
Deepak 26 38 41
Jashan 43 43 40
Rachri 37 41 38
Satish 42 46 40
Sahil 41 45 39


39. How many of the above mentioned candidates cleared the cut-offs of all the seven
IIMs?
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3

40. How many of the given candidates cleared the cut-offs IIM-C, but not IIM- A?
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5

41. Who among the following got maximum IIM calls?
1) Aditi 2) Deepak 3) Jashan 4) Sahil

42. What is the difference between the IIM calls received by Rachri and Aditi?
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) None of these

43. The number of IIM calls received by Jashan is :
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6

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DIRECTIONS for questions 44 to 47: Answer these questions based on the table given
below concerning the twenty busiest international airports in the world.
S.NO. Name International
Airport type
Code Location Passengers
1 Hartsfield A ATL Atlanta, Georgia, USA 77939536
2 Chicago OHare A ORD Chicago, Illinois, USA 72568076
3 Los Angeles A LAX Los Angeles, California,
USA
63876561
4 Heathrow Airport E LHR London, United Kingdom 62263710
5 DFW A DFW Dallas Ft. Worth, Texas,
USA
60000125
6 Haneda Airport F HND Tokyo, Japan 54338212
7 Frankfurt Airport E FRA Frankfurt, Germany 45858315
8 Roissy-Charles
de
E CDG Paris, France 43596943
9 San Francisco A SFO SanFrancisco, California,
USA
40387422
10 Denver A DIA Denver, Colorado, USA 38034231
11 Amsterdam E AMS Amsterdam, Netherlands 36781015
12 Minneapolis A MSP Minneapolis- St.Paul,
USA
34216331
13 Detroit
Metropolitan
A DTW Detroit, Michigan, USA 34038381
14 Miami A MIA Miami, Florida, USA 33899246
15 Newark A EWR Newark, NewJersey,
USA
33814000
16 MC Carran A LAS Las Vegas, Nevada,
USA
33669185
17 Phoenis sky
Harbor
A PHX Phoenis, Arizona, USA 33533353
18 Kimpo F SEL Seoul, Korea 33371074
19 George Bush A LAH Houston, Texas, USA 33089333
20 John F. Kennedy A JFK Newyork, Newyork, USA 32003000

44. How many international airports of type 'A' account for more than 40 million
passengers?
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1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7
45. What percentage of top ten busiest airports is in the United States of America?
1) 60 2) 80 3) 70 4) 90

46. Of the five busiest airports, roughly what percentage of passengers is handled by
Heathrow airport?
1) 30 2) 40 3) 20 4) 50

47. How many international airports not located in the USA handle more than 30 million
passengers?
1) 5 2) 6 3) 10 4) 14

DIRECTIONS: The following table shows the earnings of employees in the month of June
2002. They generally worked 25 days in the month.

48. The number of employees who have earned more than Rs. 50 per day in complex
operation is
1) 4 2) 3 3) 6 4) 7

49. The number of employees who have earned more than Rs. 600 and having more
than 80% attendance (there are 25 regular working days in June 2002; some might
be coming on overtime too) is
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7
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50. The employee number of the person who has earned the maximum earnings per day
in medium operations is
1) 2001180 2) 2001165 3) 2001177 4) 2001170

51. Among the employees who were engaged in complex and medium operations, the
number of employees whose average earning per day in complex operations is more
than average earning per day in medium operations is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 5 4) 7

DIRECTIONS: Answer these questions based on the table given below.

52. What percentage of cities located within 10 E and 40 E (10 east and 40 east) lie
in the Southern Hemisphere?
1) 15% 2) 20% 3) 25% 4) 30%

53. The number of countries whose name begin with a consonant and are in the
Northern Hemisphere in the table

1) exceed the countries whose names begin with a consonant of Southern
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Hemisphere by 4.
2) exceed the countries whose names begin with a consonant of Southern
Hemisphere by 6.
3) is less than the number of countries whose name begin with a consonant of east
of the meridian by 1.
4) is less than the number of countries whose name begin with a consonant of east
of the meridian by 2.

54. The ratio of the number of countries whose name starts with vowel and located in the
Southern Hemisphere, to the number of countries, the name of whose capital cities
starts with a vowel in the table above is
1) 3 : 2 2) 3 : 3 3) 3 : 1 4) 4 : 3

Directions for questions 55 to 57: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
Details of the top 20 MBA schools in the US as ranked by US News and World Report, 1997
are given below.

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55. Madhu has received admission in all schools listed above. She wishes to select the
highest overall ranked school whose
a) Annual tuition fee does not exceed $23,000 and
b) Median starting salary is at least $70,000. Which school will she select?

1) University of Virginia. 2) University of Pennsylvania.
3) Northwestern University. 4) University of California-Berkeley.

56. In terms of starting salary and tuition fee, how many schools are uniformly better
(higher median starting salary AND lower tuition fee) than Dartmouth College?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

57. How many schools in the list above have single digit rankings on at least 3 of the 4
parameters (overall ranking, ranking by academics, ranking by recruiters and ranking
by placement)?
1) 10 2) 5 3) 7 4) 8

Answer Questions 58 to 60 on the basis of the information given below: The table
below reports the gender, designation and age-group of the employees in an organization.
It also provides information on their commitment to projects coming up in the months of
January (Jan), February (Feb), March (Mar) and April (Apr), as well as their interest in
attending workshops on: Business Opportunities (BO), Communication Skills (CS), and E-
Governance (EG).

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Sl. No. Name Gender Designatio
n
Age
Group
Committed
to problems
during
Interested in
workshop on
1 Anshul M Mgr Y Jan, Mar CS, EG
2 Bushkant M Dir I Feb, Mar BO, EG
3 Charu F Mgr I Jan, Feb BO, CS
4 Dinesh M Exe O Jan, Apr BO, CS, EG
5 Eashwaran M Dir O Feb, Apr BO
6 Fatima F Mgr Y Jan, Mar BO, CS
7 Gayatri F Exe Y Feb, Mar EG
8 Hari M Mgr I Feb, Mar BO, CS, EG
9 Indira F Dir O Feb, Apr BO, EG
10 John M Dir Y Jan, Mar BO
11 Kalindi F Exe I Jan, Apr BO, CS, EG
12 Lavanya F Mgr O Feb, Apr CS, EG
13 Mandeep M Mgr O Mar, Apr BO, EG
14 Nandlal M Dir I Jan, Feb BO, EG
15 Parul F Exe Y Feb, Apr CS, EG
16 Rahul M Mgr Y Mar, Apr CS, EG
17 Sunita F Dir Y Jan, Feb BO, EG
18 Urvashi F Exe I Feb, Mar EG
19 Yamini F Mgr O Mar, Apr CS, EG
20 Zeena F Exe Y Jan, Mar BO, CS, EG

For each workshop, exactly four employees are to be sent, of which at least two should be
Females and at least one should be Young. No employee can be sent to a workshop in
which he or she is not interested in. An employee cannot attend the workshop on
Communication Skills, if he or she is committed to internal projects in the month of
January;
Business Opportunities, if he or she is committed to internal projects in the month of
February;
E-governance, if he or she is committed to internal projects in the month of March.

58. Assuming that Parul and Hari arc attending the workshop on Communication Skills
(CS), then which of the following employees can possibly attend the CS workshop?
1) Rahul and Yamini 2) Dinesh and Lavanya
3) Anshul and Yamini 4) Fatima and Zeena

59. How many Executives (Exe) cannot attend more than one workshop?
1) 2 2) 3 3) 15 4) 16

60. Which set of employees cannot attend any of the workshops?
1) Anshul, Charu, Eashwaran and Lavanya
2) Anshul, Bushkant, Gayatri and Urvashi
3) Charu, Urvashi, Bushkant and Mandeep
4) Anshul, Gayatri, Eashwaran and Mandeep

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given below.
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the
first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding that age. For
example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and
C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a
similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger
child, answer the following questions.

61. What is the number of children of age 9 years or less whose height does not exceed
135 cm?
1) 48 2) 45 3) 3 4) Cannot be
determined

62. How many children of age more than 10 years are taller than 150 cm and do not
weigh more than 48 kg?
1) 16 2) 40 3) 9 4) Cannot be
determined

63. Among the children older than 6 years but not exceeding 12 years, how many weigh
more than 38 kg?
1) 34 2) 52 3) 44 4) Cannot be
determined

Questions 64 66:
There are three sections in a school. The school management keeps data of the number of
boys and girls in each section. Unfortunately some of its data is lost. The available data is
given below.

Section-A Section-B Section-C Total
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Boys
Girls
Total
.
It is known that,

Exactly 50% of the students of the school are in Section C.
The ratio f number of girls and boys of the school is 3 : 2
One third of the boys of the school are in Section A


Questions 67 71:

400 employees are working in a company. 60% are in operations department, 20% are in
marketing, 10% are in HR and the rest are in Finance department. The following table gives
the proportion of male employees and the proportion of MBAs in these departments.

Male MBAs
Operations 0.2
Marketing 0.6
H.R 0.6
Finance 0.5
Total 0.68 0.28

The number of MBAs in Finance department is four times to that of Marketing department.
Where as the number of male employees in Operations department is 16 times to that of
H.R department.

Answer the following questions.

67. How many male employees are working in H.R department?
1) 8 2) 12 3) 24 4) 32 5) cant say

68. What percentage of the employees working in Finance department are MBAs?
1) 32 2) 40 3) 56 4) 80 5) None of these

69. How many female employees are working in Operations department?
1) 24 2) 48 3) 72 4)192 5) 20

70. If 25% of female employees of the company are MBAs, How many male employees
of the company are MBAs?
1) 28 2) 32 3) 40 4) 80 5) cannot be determined

71. If 50% of the male employees of H.R department are MBAs, approximately what
percentage of the female MBAs of the company are in H.R department?
1) 20% 2) 25% 3) 40% 4) 50% 5) ) cannot be determined

Questions 72 76:
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A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and gender of the student.
The data is kept on a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of virus.
Only the following could be recovered:

Average Good Excellent Total
Male 10
Female 32
Total 30

It is known that half the students were either excellent or good. 40% of the students are
females. One third of the male students were average.

72. How many people are both female and excellent?
1) 0 2) 8 3) 16 4) 32

73. What proportion of good students are male?
1) 0 2) 0.73 3) 0.4 4) 1. 0

74. What proportion of female students are good?
1) 0 2) 0.25 3) 0.5 4) 1.0

75. How many students are both male and good?
1) 10 2) 16 3) 22 4) 48

76. Among average students, what is the ratio of male to female?
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 :1 3) 3 : 2 4) 2 : 3

DIRECTIONS for Questions 77 to 79: Answer the following questions based on the
information given below:

The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are
given below. The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary
Section and rest equally divided between Class 11 and 12

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77. What is the percentage of vegetarian students in Class 12?
1) 40 2) 45 3) 50 4) 55 5) 60

78. In Class 12, twenty five per cent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference
between the number of female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians?
1) less than 8 2) 10 3) 12
4) 14 5) 16

79. What is the percentage of male students in the secondary section?
1) 40 2) 45 3) 50 4) 55 5) 60

DIRECTIONS for Questions 77 to 80: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

The Deans office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When
their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves that space blank. The
scanner output reads as follows:

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In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade points
respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade
points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nishas GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0)/5
= 3.6

Some additional facts are also known about the students grades. These are:

(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in Marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and
Strategy.
(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.

77. In Operations, Tara could have received the same grade as:
1) Ismet 2) Hari 3) Jagdeep 4) Manab

78. What grade did Preeti obtain in Statistics?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D

79. What grade did Utkarsh obtain in Finance?
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1) B 2) C 3) D 4) F

80. In Strategy, Gowris grade point was higher than that obtained by :
1) Fazal 2) Hari 3) Nisha 4) Rahul

Minimum / Maximum

Last year CAT paper had three sections Quantitative, Reasoning and Verbal. The maximum
marks in Quantitative, Reasoning sections were 100 each and that of verbal was 150. The
cut-off marks set by the IIMs are given in the following table.

Quant Reasoning Verbal Overall
IIM- A 34 33 48 141
IIM- B 37 32 38 130
IIM- C 38 36 30 118
IIM- I 28 42 35 112
IIM- K 23 26 51 110
IIM- L 21 25 36 104
IIM- S 19 21 32 96

Answer the following questions.

81. Raman did not get any IIM call. What could be the maximum marks obtained by him?
1) 140 2) 95 3) 229 4) 270 5) None

82. Aayush got calls from all the IIMs. What could be the minimum aggregate marks
obtained by him?
1) 123 2) 148 3) 141 4) 96 5) None

83. What is the minimum aggregate marks required to get at least 4 IIM calls?
1) 112 2) 118 3) 121 4) 115 5) None of these

84. Praveen got IIM B call but not IIM C call. How many marks did he get in Quant
section?
1) 37 2) 38 3) 45 4) 50 5) cant say

85. Sumit got more marks in Quant than in Reasoning and more marks in Reasoning
than in Verbal. If he gets call from IIM- C, he should definitely get a call from:
1) IIM-B 2) IIM I 3) IIM K 4) IIM- S 5) None of these

given below.
The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part
of a survey. The demographic characteristics are: gender, number of children, and age of
respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of respondents in that group. The
minimum and maximum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example,
there are five female respondents with no children and among these five; the youngest is 34
years old, while the oldest is 49.
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58. The percentage of respondents aged less than 40 years is at least:.
1) 10% 2) 16.67% 3) 20.0% 4) 30%

59. Given the information above, the percentage of respondents older than 35 can be at
most:
1) 30% 2) 73.33% 3) 76.67% 4) 90%

60. The percentage of respondents that fall into the 35 to 40 years age group (both
inclusive) is at least:
1) 6.67% 2) 10% 3) 13.33% 4) 26.67

DIRECTIONS: Answer these questions based on the chart given below.
The chart given below indicates the annual sales tax revenue collections (in crores of
rupees) of seven states from 1996 to 2001.

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50. If for each year, the states are ranked in terms of the descending order of sales tax
collections, then how many states don't change the ranking more than once over the
five years?
1)1 2) 5 3) 3 4) 4
51. Which of the following states has changed its relative ranking most number of times
when you rank the states in terms of the descending volume of sales tax collections
each year?
1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Uttar Pradesh 3) Karnataka 4) Tamilnadu

52. The percentage share of sales tax revenue of which state has increased from 1997
to 2001?
1) Tamilnadu 2) Karnataka 3) Gujarat 4) Andhra Pradesh

53. Which pair of successive years shows the maximum growth rate of tax revenue in
Maharashtra?
1) 1997 to 1998 2) 1998 to 1999 3) 1999 to 2000 4) 2000 to 2001

54. Identify the state whose tax revenue increased exactly by the same amount in two
successive pair of years?
1) Karnataka 2) West Bengal 3) Uttar Pradesh 4) Tamilnadu

55. Which state below has been maintaining a constant rank over the years in terms of
its contribution to the total tax collections?
1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Karnataka 3) Tamilnadu 4) Uttar Pradesh
(CAT 2002)

The following table represents the number of students of a school who play different
sports.
Cricket Basket Ball Foot Ball Tennis None
Class VI 80 40 20 15 10
Class VII 60 20 15 10 20
ClassVIII 25 30 20 20 5
Class IX 15 20 40 50 10
Class X 10 15 20 25 0

86. If no student from class X play more than one sport, how many students are there in
classX?
1) 60 2) 70 3) 80 4) Cant say

87. How many students are there in class VIII, if it is known that 60 students play at least
two sports?
1) 100 2) 120 3) 140 4) Cant say

88. The total number of students in class VII is 80. What could be the maximum possible
number of students who play more than one sport?
1) 9 2) 12 3) 15 4) 45

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89. The total number of students in class VI is100. What could be the minimum possible
number of students who play more than one sport?
1) 13 2) 16 3) 17 4) None

90. The total number of students in class IX is 60. What could be the maximum possible
number of students who play all the given four sports?
1) 19 2) 25 3) 75 4) None

Directions for Questions 91 to 93: Answer the following questions based on the
information given below:

For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with
four different sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the
aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to
the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to
the cut-off marks in each of the section and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the
aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college.

91. Aditya did not get a call from even a single college. What could be the maximum
aggregate marks obtained by him?
1) 181 2) 176 3) 184 4) 196 5) 190

92. Bhama got calls from all colleges. What could be the minimum aggregate marks
obtained by her?
1) 180 2) 181 3) 196 4) 176 5) 184

93. Charlie got calls from two colleges. What could be the minimum marks obtained by
him in a section?
1) 0 2) 21 3) 25 4) 35 5) 41

(CAT 2008) (Difficult)

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DIRECTIONS: Study the following tables carefully and answer the questions that follow.
There are 6 refineries, 7 depots, 9 districts. The refineries are BB, BC, BD, BE, BF, BG. The
depots are AA, AB, AC, AD, AE, AF and AG and the districts are AAA, AAB, AAC, AAD,
AAE, AAF, AAG, AAH, AAI.
Table A shows the cost of transporting one unit from refinery to depot.
Table B shows the cost of transporting one unit from depot to districts.

94. The minimum cost of sending one unit from any refinery to any district is
1) Rs.0 2) Rs.350 3) Rs.320 4) Rs.50

95. How many possible ways are there for sending one unit from any refinery to any
district?
1) 63 2) 42 3) 54 4) 378

96. The largest cost of sending one unit from any refinery to district is
1) Rs.2172.60 2) Rs.2193.0 3) Rs.2091.0 4) None

97. The minimum cost of transportation of one unit from refinery BD to any district is
1) Rs.125 2) Rs.0 3) Rs.375 4) None

98. The minimum cost of transportation from any refinery to AAG district is
1) Rs.0 2) Rs.137 3) Rs.140 4) None

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99. The minimum cost of transportation from refinery BE to district AAA is
1) Rs.1257 2) Rs.1161 3) Rs.1231 4) None

(CAT 2002)

Information for questions 100 and 101:
Vipin would be visiting five places: P, Q, R, S and T. The distance between any two of these
places in kilometers is as follows:

100. Vipin is currently in S and wants to finish his tour at T. If he doesn't want to visit a city
more than once, what is the minimum distance he would have to cover?
1) 7 km 2) 8 km 3) 9 km 4) 10 km

101. If Vipin starts his tour at Q, and comes back to Q after visiting all other places only
once; what is the minimum distance he has to cover?
1) 10 km 2) 11 km 3) 12 km 4) None of these

(FMS 2009)

Information for questions 102 to 104:
Natural gas once extracted from a source is purified for commercial use at natural gas
plants. From gas plants it is pumped to various destinations through pipelines. There
are pumping stations, at intermediate places to maintain recommended pressure in the
pipelines. The pumping stations do not produce or process any natural gas. They pump out
exactly the quantity they receive from plants or other pumping stations.
The following figure depicts a network of natural gas pipelines. The circles denote the
locations of gas plants, pumping stations or cities with big demand for natural gas. One
location can be only one of these three. The numbers on the arrows are the capacities (in
appropriate units) of the pipeline that carry gas in the direction of the arrow. Currently the
demand supply situation is such that the capacity utilization of the pipelines is very close to
100%.

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102. What is the maximum quantity of natural gas S can receive?
1) 13 units 2) 15 units 3) 16 units 4) 17 units

103. For which two cities it can be safely concluded that they have natural gas plants?
1) M and P 2) M and O 3) P and N 4) M and N

104. What is the maximum quantity of natural gas that can be transported from M to R?
1) 11 units 2) 7 units 3) 9 units 4) 6 units

(FMS 2009)

DIRECTIONS for questions 105 to 107: Answer these questions based on the pipeline
diagram below.

The following sketch shows the pipelines carrying material from one location to another.
Each location has a demand for material. The demand at Vaishali is 400, at Jyotishmati is
400, at Panchal is 700, and at Vidisha is 200. Each arrow indicates the direction of material
flow through the pipeline. The flow from Vaishali to Jyotishmati is 300. The quantity of
material flow is such that the demands at all these locations are exactly met. The capacity of
each pipeline is 1000.

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105. The quantity moved from Avanti to Vidisha is:
1) 200 2) 800 3) 700 4) 1000

106. The free capacity available at the Avanti-Vaishali pipeline is:
1) 0 2) 100 3) 200 4) 300

107. What is the free capacity available in the Avanti-Vidisha pipeline?
1) 300 2) 200 3) 100 4) 0

(CAT 2001)


A study was conducted to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different
countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were
compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V).
The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks
allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank
order of the five traits for each country.

108. Three of the following four pairs of countries have identical levels of dissimilarity.
Which pair is the odd one out?
1) Malaysia & China 2) China & Thailand
3) Thailand & Japan 4) Japan & Malaysia
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109. Which amongst the following countries is most dissimilar to India?
1) China 2) Japan 3) Malaysia 4) Thailand

110. Which of the following countries is least dissimilar to India?
1) China 2) Japan 3) Malaysia 4) Thailand

111. Which of the following pairs of countries are most dissimilar?
1) China & Japan 2) India & China 3) Malaysia & Japan 4) Thailand &
Japan

(CAT 2004)(Understanding) (Easy)

Directions for Questions 112-114: Answer the questions on the basis of the

There was an effort to study the relative importance that beneficiaries of five states
assigned to five different development programme implemented by their governments.
The programmes were Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY), Indira Awas Yozna (IAY), Mid-Day
Meal (MDM), Rural Health Mission (RHM), National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(NREG). The level of dissimilarity between two states is the maximum difference in the rank
allotted by the two states to any five programmes. The following table indicates the rank
order of the five programmes for each state.

Rank Orissa Bihar Rajasthan Kerala Karnataka
1 JRY MDM IAY NREG NREG
2 RHM JRY MDM IAY JRY
3 MDM RHM JRY RHM MDM
4 NREG IAY NREG JRY RHM
5 IAY NREG RHM MDM IAY

112. Which of the following states is least dissimilar to Orissa?
1) Bihar 2) Rajasthan 3) Kerala 4) Karnataka

113. hich of the following states is most dissimilar to Orissa?
1) Bihar 2) Rajasthan 3) Kerala 4) Karnataka

114. Three of the following four pairs of states have identical levels of dissimilarity.
Which is the odd one out?
1) Kerala & Bihar 2) Bihar & Karnataka
3) Rajasthan & Kerala 4) Karnataka & Rajasthan

(IIFT 2007)

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Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider
has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the
university they belong to:

115. University 1 can belong to :
1) UK 2) Canada 3) Netherlands 4) USA

116. To which country does University 5 belong?
1) India or Netherlands but not USA
2) India or USA but not Netherlands
3) Netherlands or USA but not India
4) India or USA but not UK

117. Visitors from how many universities from UK visited Prof. Singhs homepage in the
three days?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

118. Which among the listed countries can possibly host three of the eight listed
universities?
1) None 2) Only UK 3) Only India 4) Both India and
UK

(CAT 2004)(Understanding)(Medium)

DIRECTIONS: Answer the questions on the basis of the following table.
Below is a table that lists countries region-wise. Each region-wise list is sorted, first by birth
rate and then alphabetically by the name of the country. We now wish to merge the region-
wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first
on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then
the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical
birth and death rates will get the same rank.
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For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3,
while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.

119. In the consolidated list, what would be the overall rank of the Philippines?
1) 32 2) 33 3) 34 4) 35

120. In the consolidated list, how many countries would rank below Spain and above
Taiwan?
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1) 9 2) 8 3) 7 4) 6

121. In the consolidated list, which country ranks 37th?
1) South Africa 2) Brazil 3) Turkey 4) Venezuela
122. In the consolidated list, how many countries in Asia will rank lower than every
country in South America, but higher than at least one country in Africa?
1) 8 2) 7 3) 6 4) 5

Answer questions 123 to 127 on the basis of the information given below.

A significant amount of traffic flows from point S to point T in the one-way street network
shown below. Points A, B, C, and D are junctions in the network, and the arrows mark the
direction of traffic flow. The fuel cost in rupees for travelling along a street is indicated by the
number adjacent to the arrow representing the street.

Motorists travelling from point S to point T would obviously take the route for which
the total cost of travelling is the minimum. If two or more routes have the same
least travel cost, then motorists are indifferent between them. Hence, the traffic
gets evenly distributed among all the least cost routes. The government can control
the flow of traffic only by levying appropriate toll at each junction. For example, if a
motorist takes the route S-A-T (using junction A alone), then the total cost of travel
would be Rs. 14 (i.e. Rs. 9 + Rs. 5) plus the toll charged at junction A.

123. If the government wants to ensure that all motorists travelling from S to T pay the
same amount (fuel costs and toll combined) regardless of the route they choose and
the street from B to C is under repairs (and hence unusable), then a feasible set of
toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal
is:
1) 2, 5, 3, 2 2) 0, 5, 3, 1 3) 1, 5, 3, 2 4) 2, 3, 5, 1 5) 1, 3, 5, 1

124. If the government wants to ensure that no traffic flows on the street from D to T,
while equal amount of traffic flows through junctions A and C, then a feasible set of
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toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal
is:
1) 1, 5, 3, 3 2) 1, 4, 4, 3 3) 1, 5, 4, 2 4) 0, 5, 2, 3 5) 0, 5, 2, 2

125. If the government wants to ensure that all routes from S to T get the same amount of
traffic, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D
respectively to achieve this goal is:
1) 0, 5, 2, 2 2) 0, 5, 4, 1 3) 1, 5, 3, 3 4) 1, 5, 3, 2 5) 1, 5, 4, 2

126. If the government wants to ensure that the traffic at S gets evenly distributed along
streets from S to A, from S to B, and from S to D, then a feasible set of toll charged
(in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is:
1) 0, 5, 4, 1 2) 0, 5, 2, 2 3) 1, 5, 3, 3 4) 1, 5, 3, 2 5) 0, 4, 3, 2

127. The government wants to devise a toll policy such that the total cost to the
commuters per trip is minimized. The policy should also ensure that not more than
70 per cent of the total traffic passes through junction B. The cost incurred by the
commuter travelling from point S to point T under this policy will be:
1) Rs. 7 2) Rs. 9 3) Rs. 10 4) Rs. 13 5) Rs. 14

(CAT 2006) (Easy)

Answer Questions 128 to 131 on the basis of the information given below:

In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who
are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This
tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round,
quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest
seeded player (seed # 32) which is designated match No. 1 of first round; the 2nd seeded
player plays the 31st seeded player which is designated match No. 2 of the first round, and
so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded
player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No. 1 of-
first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No. I of
second round. Similarly, the winner of match No, 2 of first round plays the winner of match
No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No. 2 of second round. Thus, for instance,
match No. 8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No. 8 of first
round and the winner of match No. 9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later
rounds as well.

Seed # Name of
Player
Seed # Name of
Player
Seed # Name of
Player
1 Maria
Sharapova
12 Mary Pierce 23 Silvia Farina
Elia
2 Lindsay
Davenport
13 Anastasia
Myskina
24 Tatiana
Golovin
3 Amelie
Mauresmo
14 Alicia Molik 25 Shinobu
Asagoe
4 Kim Clijsters 15 Nathalie
Dechy
26 Francesca
Schiavone
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5 Svetlana
Kuznetsova
16 Elena
Bovina
27 Nicole
Vaidisova
6 Elena
Dementieva
17 Jelena
Jankovic
28 Gisela
Dulko
7 Justine
Henin
18 Ana
Ivanovic
29 Flavia
Pennetta
8 Serena
Williams
19 Vera
Zvonareva
30 Anna
Chakvetadz
e
9 NadiaPetrov
a
20 Elena
Likhovtseva
31 Ai Sugiyama
10 Venus
Williams
21 Daniela
Hantuchova
32 Anna-lena
Groenefeld
11 Patty Schnyder 22 Dinara Safina

128. If there are no upsets (a lower seeded player beating a higher seeded player) in the
first round, and only match Nos. 6, 7, and 8 of the second round result in upsets,
then who would meet Lindsay Davenport in quarter finals, in case Davenport reaches
quarter finals?
1) Justine Henin 2) Nadia Petrova
3) Patty Schnyder 4) Venus Williams

129. If Elena Dementieva and Serena Williams lose in the second round, while Justine
Henin and Nadia Petrova make it to the semifinals, then who would play Maria
Sharapova in the quarterfinals, in the event Sharapova reaches quarterfinals?
1) Dinara Safina 2) Justine Henin
3) Nadia Petrova 4) Patty Schnyder

130. If, in the first round, all even numbered matches (and none of the odd numbered
ones) result in upsets, and there are no upsets in the second round, then who could
be the lowest seeded player facing Maria Sharapova in semi-finals?
1) Anastasia Myskina 2) Flavia Pennetta
3) Nadia Petrova 4) Svetlana Kuznetsova

131. If the top eight seeds make it to the quarterfinals, then who, amongst the players
listed below, would definitely not play against Maria Sharapova in the final, in case
Sharapova reaches the final?
1) Amelie Mauresmo 2) Elena Dementieva
3) Kim Clijsters 4) Lindsay Davenport

(CAT 2005) (Medium)

DIRECTIONS: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.

Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of
unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and
nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them,
the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the
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mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key
from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/
her sources. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys
obtained from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it
is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies
the sources answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces
one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.
The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the
possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question.
The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the
following data. These data represent question numbers.

132. Which one among the following must have two sources?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D

133. How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer keys before
C could make his answer key?
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5

134. Both G and H were sources to
1) F 2) B 3) I 4) None of the
nine.

135. Which of the following statements is true?
1) C introduced the wrong answer to question 27.
2) E introduced the wrong answer to question 46.
3) F introduced the wrong answer to question 14.
4) H introduced the wrong answer to question 46.

136. Which of the following two groups of people has identical sources?
(I) A, D and G (II) E and H
1) Only (I) 2) Only (II) 3) Neither (I) nor (II) 4) Both (I) and (II)

(CAT 2003)(Understanding)(Tree) (Medium)

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The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five
years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product. The production capacity of
the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some
costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others
do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and
hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for
projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions.

137. What is the approximate cost per unit in rupees, if the company produces and sells
1400 units in the year 2007?
1) 104 2) 107 3) 110 4) 115 5) 116

138. What is the minimum number of units that the company needs to produce and sell to
avoid any loss?
1) 313 2) 350 3) 384 4) 747 5) 928

139. Given that the company cannot sell more than 1700 units, and it will have to reduce
the price by Rs. 5 for all units, if it wants to sell more than 1400 units, what is
the maximum profit, in rupees, that the company can earn?
1) 25,400 2) 24,400 3) 31,400 4) 32,900 5) 32,000

140. If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many units as it
desires. How many units the company should produce to maximize its profit?
1) 1400 2) 1600 3) 1800 4) 1900 5) 2000

(CAT 2007) ( Profit & Loss) (medium)

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information given below. The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of
major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.

The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below. 1 US Dollar

A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the
countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future,
resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in

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141. The rupee value increases to Rs.35 for a US Dollar, and all other things including
quality, remain the same. What is the approximate difference in cost, in US Dollars,
between Singapore and India for a Spinal Fusion, taking this change into account?
1) 700 2) 2500 3) 4500 4) 8000 5) No difference

142. Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she
were to get a hysterectomy done in India instead of in her native country, taking into
account the cost of poor quality? It costs 7500 Bahts for one-way travel between
Thailand and India.
1) 23500 2) 40500 3) 57500 4) 67500 5) 75000

143. A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip replacement and
a knee replacement. Cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since the
government will take care of it. Which country will result in the cheapest package,
taking cost of poor quality into account?
1) India 2) Thailand 3) Malaysia 4) Singapore 5) USA

144. Taking the cost of poor quality into account, which country/countries will be the most
expensive for knee replacement?
1) India 2) Thailand 3) Malaysia 4) Singapore 5) India and Singapore

(CAT 2007) ( Understanding) (Calculations) (Medium)


A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the
distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company.
Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not
travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.

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145. What is the lowest price, in rupees, a passenger has to pay for travelling by the
shortest route from A to J?
1) 2275 2) 2850 3) 2890 4) 2930 5) 3340
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146. The company plans to introduce a direct flight between A and J. The market
research results indicate that all its existing passengers travelling between A
and J will use this direct flight if it is priced 5% below the minimum price that
they pay at present. What should the company charge approximately, in rupees,
for this direct flight?
1) 1991 2) 2161 3) 2707 4) 2745 5) 2783

147. If the airports C, D and H are closed down owing to security reasons, what would be
the minimum price, in rupees, to be paid by a passenger travelling from A to J?
1) 2275 2) 2615 3) 2850 4) 2945 5) 3190

148. If the prices include a margin of 10% over the total cost that the company incurs,
what is the minimum cost per kilometer that the company incurs in flying from A to J?
1) 0.77 2) 0.88 3) 0.99 4) 1.06 5) 1.08

149. If the prices include a margin of 15% over the total cost that the company incurs,
which among the following is the distance to be covered in flying from A to J that
minimizes the total cost per kilometer for the company?
1) 2170 2) 2180 3) 2315 4) 2350 5) 2390

(CAT 2007) ( Understanding) (Calculations) (Medium)

Answer Questions 150 to 153 on the basis of the information given below:

The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states.
These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are
disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order.

States Firm A Firm B Firm C Firm D
UP 49 82 80 55
Bihar 69 72 70 65
MP 72 63 72 65

Further, it is known that:

In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.
Aggressive Ltd.s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.s by Rs. 5 million.

150. What can be said regarding the following two statements?
Statement 1: Profitable Ltd. has the lowest share in MP market.
Statement 2: Honest Ltd.s total revenue is more than Profitable Ltd.

1) If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true.
2) If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily false.
3) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.
4) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is true.

Statement 1: Aggressive Ltd.s lowest revenues are from MP.
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Statement 2: Honest Ltd.s lowest revenues are from Bihar.

1) If Statement 2 is true then Statement 1 is necessarily false.
2) If Statement 1 is false then Statement 2 is necessarily true.
3) If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true.
4) None of the above.

Statement 1: Honest Ltd. has the highest share in the UP market.
Statement 2: Aggressive Ltd. has the highest share in the Bihar market.

1) Both statements could be true.
2) At least one of the statements must be true.
3) At most one of the statements is true.
4) None of the above

153. If Profitable Ltd.s lowest revenue is from UP, then which of the following is true?
1) Truthful Ltd.s lowest revenues are from MP.
2) Truthful Ltd.s lowest revenues are from Bihar.
3) Truthful Ltd.s lowest revenues are from UP.
4) No definite conclusion is possible.

(CAT 2005)(Understanding) (Difficult)

The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention lo host the 2096
Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members
of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are
also represented in IOC.
In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round
gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.
A member is allowed to east votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of
voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if
both the cities (s)he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting).
A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city (s)he represents is in
contention in that round of voting.
As long as the member is eligible, (s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate
city in any round of voting.
The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the
maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour,
and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.

Round Total votes cast Maximum votes cast Eliminated
City No, of votes City No. of votes
1 London 30 New York 12
2 83 Paris 32 Beijing 21
3 75

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It is also known that:

All those who voted for London and Paris in round 1, continued to vote for the same cities in
subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for
Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.
Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Paris in round 2.
The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was 1.
50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.

154. What percentage of members from among those who voted for New York in round I,
voted for Beijing in round 2?
1) 33.33 2) 50 3) 66067 4) 75

155. What is the number of votes cast for Paris in round 1?
1) 16 2) 18 3) 22 4) 24

156. What percentage of members from among those who voted for Beijing in round 2
and were eligible to vote in round 3, voted for London?
1) 33.33 2) 38.10 3) 50 4) 66067

157. Which of the following statements must be true?
a. IOC member from New York must have voted for Paris in round 2.
b. IOC member from Beijing voted for London in round 3.
1) Only a 2) Only b 3) Both a and b 4) Neither a nor b

(CAT 2005)(Understanding) (Difficult)

given below.

Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The
following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of
spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June
2003. The total number of spam emails received during September 2002 was larger than
the number received in March 2003. The figures in the table represent the percentage of all
spam emails received during that period, falling into those respective categories.

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158. In which category was the percentage of spam emails increasing but at a decreasing
rate?
1) Financial 2) Scams 3) Products 4) None of these

62. In the health category, the number of spam emails received in December 2002 as
compared to June 2003
1) was larger. 2) was smaller.
3) was equal. 4) Cannot be determined
63. In the financial category, the number of spam emails received in September 2002 as
compared to March 2003
1) was larger. 2) was smaller.
3) was equal. 4) Cannot be determined
(CAT 2003)(Understanding & Percentage)(Medium)

given below.
One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of
India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the
period July 2002-July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each
with a different maturity.
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64. How many times was the issue of securities under-subscribed, i.e., how often did the
total amount mobilized fall short of the amount notified?
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2
4) 3
65. Which of the following is true?
1) The second round issues have a higher maturity than the first round for all dates.
2) The second round issue of any date has a lower maturity only when the first round
notified amount exceeds that of the second round.
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3) On at least one occasion, the second round issue having lower maturity received a
higher number of competitive bids.
4) None of the above three statements is true.
66. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
1) Competitive bids received always exceed non-competitive bids received.
2) The number of competitive bids accepted does not always exceed the number of
non-competitive bids accepted.
3) The value of competitive bids accepted on any particular date is never higher for
higher maturity.
4) The value of non-competitive bids accepted in the first round is always greater than
that in the second round.
(CAT 2003)

DIRECTIONS: Answer the questions on the basis of the data presented in the figure below.

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136. Which of the following statements is correct?
1) November rainfall exceeds 100 cm in each location.
2) September rainfall exceeds 50 cm in each location.
3) March rainfall is lower than September rainfall in each location.
4) None of the above.
137. Locations 6 and 7 differ from all the rest because only in these two locations,
1) April rainfall exceeds March rainfall.
2) Peak rainfall occurs in April.
3) November rainfall is lower than March rainfall.
4) April rainfall is less than 20 cm.
(CAT 2003)

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DIRECTIONS: Answer the questions on the basis of following information.
In a Decathlon, the events are 100m, 400m, 100m hurdles, 1500m, High jump, Pole vault,
Long jump, Discus, Shot put and Javelin. The performance in the first four of these events is
consolidated into Score 1, the next three into Score 2, and the last three into Score 3. Each
such consolidation is obtained by giving appropriate positive weights to individual events.
The final score is simply the total of these three scores. The athletes with the highest,
second highest and the third highest final scores receive the gold, silver and bronze medals,
respectively. The table given below gives the scores and performance of nineteen top
athletes in this event.

138. The athletes from FRG and USA decided to run a 4 x 100 m relay race for their
respective countries with the country having three athletes borrowing the athlete from
CZE. Assume that all the athletes ran their stretch of the relay race at the same speed
as in Decathlon event. How much more time did the FRG relay team take as
compared to the USA team?
1) 0.18 2) 0.28 3) 0.78 4)
0.00
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139. What is the least that Daley Thompson must get in Score 2 that ensures him a
bronze medal?
1) 5309 2) 5296 3) 5271 4)
5270
140. At least how many competitors (excluding Daley Thompson) must Michael Smith
have out-jumped in the long jump event?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3
4) 4
(CAT 2003)

DIRECTIONS for questions 109 to 114: Answer these questions based on the two graphs
shown below.
Figure 1 shows the amount of work distribution, in man-hours, for a software between
offshore and onsite activities. Figure 2 shows the estimated and actual work effort involved
in the different offshore activities in the same company during the same period. [Note: Onsite
refers to work performed at the customer's premise and offshore refers to work performed at
the developer's premise.]
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109. Which of the work requires as many man-hours as that spent in coding?
1) Offshore, design and coding 2) Offshore coding
3) Testing 4) Offshore, testing and
coding
110. Roughly what percentage of the total work is carried out onsite?
1) 40 percent 2) 20 percent 3) 30 percent 4) 50 percent
111. The total effort in man-hours spent onsite is nearest to which of the following?
1) The sum of the estimated and actual effort for offshore design
2) The estimated man-hours of offshore coding
3) The actual man-hours of offshore testing
4) Half of the man-hours of estimated offshore coding
112. If the total working hours were 100, which of the following tasks will account for
approximately 50 hours?
1) Coding 2) Design
3) Offshore testing 4) Offshore testing plus design
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113. If 50 percent of the offshore work were to be carried out onsite, with the distribution
of effort between the tasks remaining the same, the proportion of testing carried out
offshore would be _________.
1) 40 percent 2) 30 percent 3) 50 percent 4) 70 percent
114. If 50 percent of the offshore work were to be carried out onsite, with the distribution
of effort between the tasks remaining the same, which of the following is true of all
work carried out onsite?
1) The amount of coding done is greater than that of testing.
2) The amount of coding done onsite is less than that of design done onsite.
3) The amount of design carried out onsite is greater than that of testing.
4) The amount of testing carried out offshore is greater than that of total design.
(CAT 2001)(Time & work)

DIRECTIONS : Answer these questions with reference to the table given below.
Information Technology Industry in India (Figure are in million US dollars)

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126. The total annual exports lay between 35 and 40 percent of the total annual business
of the IT industry, in years
1) 1997-98 & 1994-95 2) 1996-97 & 1997-98
3) 1996-97 & 1998-99 4) 1996-97 & 1994-95
127. The highest percentage growth in the total IT business, relative to the previous year
was achieved in
1) 1995-96 2) 1996-97 3) 1997-98
4) 1998-99
128. Which one of the following statements is correct?
1) The annual software exports steadily increased but annual hardware exports
steadily declined during 1994-1999.
2) The annual peripheral exports steadily increased during 1994-1999.
3) The total IT business in training during 1994-1999 was higher than the total IT
business in
maintenance during the same period.
4) None of the above statements is true.

DIRECTIONS: For any activity, A, year X dominates year Y if IT business in activity A, in the
year X, is greater than the IT business, in activity A, in the year Y. For any two IT business
activities, A & B, year X dominates year Y if
i. the IT business in activity A, in the year X, is greater than or equal to the IT business, in
activity A in the year Y,
ii. the IT business in activity B, in the year X, is greater than or equal to the IT business in
activity B in the year Y and
iii. there should be strict inequality in the case of at least one activity.
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129. For the IT hardware business activity, which one of the following is not true?
1) 1997-98 dominates 1996-97 2) 1997-98 dominates 1995-96
130. For the two IT business activities, hardware and peripherals, which one of the
following is true?
3) 1997-98 dominates 1998-99 4) None of these
(CAT 2000)(Understanding)(Percentage)

Direction for Question No.64-65: In the diagram below, the circle stands for educated,
square stands for hard working, triangle for urban people and rectangle for honest. The
different regions of the diagram are numbered from 1 to 12. Study the diagram carefully and
answer the questions:

64. Uneducated urban hard-working and honest people are indicated by:
1) 3 2) 11 3) 9 4) 4
65. Non-urban educated people who are neither hard-working nor honest are indicated
by:
1) 5 2) 7 3) 10 4) 11

(SNAP 2008)( Understanding)(Venn diagram)
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Directions for Questions No.131-134: Study the following chart carefully and answer.

131. From the failure data of electronics components presented here, which statement is
true?
1) Integrated circuits and Printed circuit boards are more reliable.
2) Capacitors are more reliable than pictures tubes.
3) Higher number of components failures is likely to be due to pictures tubes.
4) The least reliable component is Hybrid Micro circuits.
132. Which of the following components has a failure rate 25% more than that of signal
devices
1) Pictures tubes
2) Capacitors
3) Integrated circuits
4) Printed Circuits boards.
133. Lowest priority for investing in any changes or additions to the component
manufacturing units, in the company's investment plans, may be given to the
following:
1) Printed circuits boards and hybrid micro circuits.
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2) Capacitors and integrated circuits.
3) Pictures tubes and signal devices
4) Signal devices and capacitors
134. For the equipments using Integrated Circuit Board: 400, Capacitors: 240 and Printed
Circuits boards: 120 to run with minimum downtime, how many spares should be kept
in the store respectively?
1) 12, 4, 3 2) 12, 5, 4 3) 5, 12, 4 4) 12, 4, 4

(SNAP 2008)( Understanding)(Percentage)

Directions for Question Nos. 66 67:
These questions are based on the graph which shows the demand and production statistics
of 5 T.V. companies

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66. What is the difference between the average demand and the average production of
the five companies taken together?
1) 1400 2) 400 3) 280 4) 138
67. The production of the company D is how many times of the production of the
company A?
1) 1.8 2) 1.5 3) 2.5 4) 1.11

(SNAP 2009)(Understanding) (Average)

Questions 128 to 131 are based on the following table:

128. Which region has the highest installed capacity by the Central sector as compared to
the State sector?
1) Northern Region 2) Southern Region
3) Eastern Region 4) North Eastern Region
129. What is the percentage of Nuclear Power in total installed capacity in the country?
1) 2.74 2) 2.81 3) 2.51 4) 2.63
130. In any sector, across the regions, the highest contribution from any one of the three
sources to the total installed capacity is
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1) 79% 2) 78% 3) 89% 4) 98%
131. Hydro power is the major source of energy in
1) Northern and Southern Regions 2) Eastern and Western Regions
3) Southern and North Eastern Region 4) None of the above

(JMET 2006)

Directions: Questions 110 to 113 relate to the AIRCRAFT PURCHASE problem given
below:
India's national airline 'INDIAN' is considering purchase of new aircraft to meet an estimated
demand of 4600 seats. The table below presents the relevant data.

It has planned to buy three B777s and five A321s for every B747.

110. How many of each aircraft should the company purchase?
1) B747 = 2; B777 = 6; A321 = 10 2) B747 = 4; B777 = 6; A321 = 6
3) B747 = 3; B777 = 8; A321 = 5 4) B747 = 1; B777 = 6; A321 = 12
111. However, INDIANs budget is limited to $2000 million for this purchase. Given this
constraint, it is willing to be flexible on the proportion of aircraft types to be purchased.
How many aircraft should it purchase such that both budget utilization and meeting the
estimated seat demand are simultaneously maximized?
1) B747 = 2; B777 = 4; A321 = 9 2) B747 = 2; B777 = 6; A321 = 6
3) B747 = 2; B777 = 5; A321 = 7 4) B747 = 1; B777 = 5; A321 = 10
112. How many different alternatives for aircraft purchase are possible for full use of the
budget?
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1) 5 2) 6 3) 3 4) None of these
113. If a deviation of at most $50 million below the budget is permitted, how many
additional alternatives for aircraft purchase are possible?
1) 5 2) 3 3) 4 4) None of these

(JMET 2008)

Directions: Questions 114 to 116 relate to the HOSPITAL SERVICES SURVEY given
below:
You have conducted a survey among patients in a large hospital and developed
a 'Dissatisfaction Index' (DI) for:
(a) Patients who are waiting for consultation with doctors, DI
wc
, and (b) Patients who are in
consultation with the doctors, DI
ic
.
Consider that there are only two patients in the system. At time t = 0, one goes in for
consultation, and the other begins waiting. Using the survey data, you have developed
the following two mathematical models for representing the dissatisfaction among the two
patients as a function of time 't':
DI
wc
= (t
2
/75) + 0.1 t
DI
ic
= 10 0.5 t

114. What is the optimal time 't' (in minutes) that a doctor should spend offering
consultation to the patient such that the total dissatisfaction of the two patients is
minimized? The two indices are additive.
1) 12.75 min 2) 0 min (3) 15 min 4) 10 min
115. What is the value of the total dissatisfaction index at this point?
1) 7 2) 7.07 3) 10 4) 7.33
116. At what point of time will a patient waiting for consultation have the same DI as a
patient in consultation?
1) approx. 15 min 2) approx. 12.75 min
3) approx. 10 min 4) approx. 7.5 min

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(JMET 2008)
Directions: Questions 118 to 120 relate to the EXCHANGE RATES problem given
below:
The official 'Buy' and 'Sell' exchange rates for the US $, UK , and EU f. with reference to
the Indian INR are presented in the table below:

Your local bank agrees to sell $ 0.023 or 0.012 or 0.015 for INR 1.

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118. You wish to buy foreign currency with INR 1 lakh. Based on the values of each
foreign currency you will receive from the bank, arrange them in the descending
order? (Please note: 1/42 = 0.023; 1/79 = 0.012; 1/62 = 0.015)
1) $ > > 2) > > $ 3) > > $ 4) All are equal
119. When you buy foreign currency from your local bank, it will levy a transaction fee
equivalent of INR 500 and an additional INR 500 to deliver the exchanged money to the
branch of your choice. This total amount of INR 1000 will be deducted from the
foreign currency payable to you. At the airport, the money changer is willing to offer $
0.022 for INR 1. What in the range of values of INR that can be exchanged for buying the
$ which will get you a better deal at the airport than the bank?
1) INR 0 to 1000 2) INR 1000 to 23000
3) INR 0 to 23000 4) INR > 23000
120. The to 'Buy' rate is 1 = 1.222. Using the INR as the reference currency,
determine by what percentage this 'Buy' rate should change such that there is no arbitrage
(or, differences among the three pair wise exchange rates) across the three
currencies?
1) approx. 5% 2) approx. 36% 3) approx. 4.25% 4) approx. 35.75%

(JMET 2008) ( Understanding) ( Calculation)

Directions: Questions 127 to 132 are based on the information given below:
A departmental store reported the following sales data (in million Rs.) for a particular week:

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The Average Value of a Transaction (AVT) in Rs. and the Time Taken per Transaction (TpT)
in seconds is given in the figure below:

Note: The store assigns one salesperson in a section for every 400 minutes of transaction
time.

127. The section reporting the highest transaction time on Sunday is
1) Grocery 2) Confectionary
3) Personal Products 4) None of the above
128. The section with the highest number of transactions on Sunday is
129. The total sales of all the sections put together is the same on
1) Monday and Tuesday 2) Tuesday and Wednesday
3) Wednesday and Thursday 4) Thursday and Friday
130. The ratio of sales on the week-end (Saturday and Sunday) to total sales is nearly
1) 1 : 2.34 2) 1 : 3.43 3) 1 : 4.48 4) 1 : 5.51
131. The section requiring the maximum number of salespersons on Saturday is
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132. The ratio of salespersons required in the Appliances section on Monday to the
salespersons required in the same section on Sunday is approximately
1) 1 : 0.50 2) 1 : 1.45 3) 1 : 1.65 4) 1 : 1.95

(JMET 208) (Understanding) ( Simple Percentage)

Direction: Questions 116 - 120 are based on the following graph:

Number of Out of School Children in Different Regions of the World from 2001 to 2006

116. Which of the following is FALSE:
1) The number of children out of school in West and Central Africa has increased
over the years
2) The number of children out of school in South Asia has come down over the years
3) The number of children out of school in the Middle East and North Africa region
has increased over the years
117. Which of the following is TRUE:
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1) Over the years the largest number of out of school children have been in Eastern
and South African region
2) The smallest number of out of school children have been in the East Asia and
Pacific region over the years
3) Over the years, the largest number of out of school children has been in the South
Asian region
118. The ratio of out of school children in South Asia to those in West and Central Africa
from 2001 to 2006 has become
1) higher 2) approximately half
3) marginally lower 4) None of the above

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119. From 2001 to 2003, which of the following options CANNOT be deduced from the
graph?
1) Overall, the out of school children have gone up
2) In West and Central Africa the numbers of out of school children have remained
almost the same over three years
3) The largest number of out of school children are in South Asia
120. The total number of children who did not go to school
1) increased from 1,12,000 to 1,20,100 from 2001 to 2006
2) was over 120,000 in 2004
3) peaked in 2003
4) cannot be estimated from the above graph

(JMET 2009)

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