TURBINE QUESTIONS

Describe the function of the inlet guide vanes?

The purpose of the (I.G.V.s) is to direct the oncoming air into the compressor at the
correct angle so as to prevent or reduce the risk of stall / surge and to maintain a smooth
flow of air through the compressor.

Define the term Compressor Pressure Ratio?

It is the Ratio of compressor delivery pressure to compressor inlet pressure.

What is the function of the Diffuser?

It converts most of the kinetic energy into a further rise in pressure energy and heat
energy.

List the two types of compressors currently used in turbine engine?

Axial and Centrifugal flow compressors

List the three types of combustion chambers commonly used on turbine engines?

o Multiple or Tubular
o Annular
o Tubo-annular or Cannular

Define Thermal Efficiency?

The Ratio of useful work done by an engine of the fuel it uses, expressed in work or heat
units, is known as thermal efficiency of an engine.

What is the purpose of the Turbine?

The turbine drives the compressor

Describe the function of the Exhaust Nozzle?

The nozzle acts as an orifice, the size of which determines the density and velocity of the
gases as they emerge from the engine.

Describe the principle of operation of a Centrifugal flow compressor?

It has three main parts a rotating impeller, the stationary Diffuser and the casing or
manifold. Air enters the impeller at the centre, eye or hub, and the high rotational
velocity accelerates the air radially outwards between the vanes creating a high velocity
(kinetic energy), pressure and temperature to the air. The air then goes to the Diffuser
which converts most of the kinetic energy into a further rise in pressure and heat energy.
The air then goes to the manifold into the combustion chambers or to the next stage of
compression.

What are the two types of turbofan engine?

High Bypass Ratio and Low Bypass Ratio

What methods may be used to increase thrust on high temperature days?

Methanol and Water injection

Describe the main components of an axial flow compressor?

o Rotors accelerates the air flow

o Stators causes a reduction in velocity as a result increasing pressure and
temperature to the air.

Discuss the advantages of an axial flow compressor?

o It has a small frontal area

o A high compressor pressure ratio
o Produces an engine with Low Specific Fuel Consumption (S.F.C.)

What are the three major sections of a gas turbine engine?

Compressors, Combustion chamber, Exhaust

Aircraft gas turbine engines are generally classified into what four types?

Turbofan, Turbo jet, Turbo prop, Ram jet

When a conversion in the engine flow from velocity (dynamic pressure) to

(static pressure) is required, what shape of duct is used?

Divergent duct

Describe the principle of operation of a Turbo shaft engine?

It is a gas turbine engine that delivers power through a shaft to operate something than a
propeller.

List the three types of turbine design?

Impulse, Reaction, Impulse Reaction

List the principle components in a turbine engine fuel system?

Booster pumps, Fuel tanks and lines, Selector valves, strainers, Engine driven pumps and
Pressure gauges

Where the fueled cooled oil cooler usually located in the system? Why is it located at this
point?

On the engine because it has a less frontal area

List the different types of spray fuel nozzles?

Simplex and Duplex fuel nozzles

Describe the principle of operation of a Duplex fuel nozzle?

It requires a dual manifold and a flow divider for dividing the primary and main fuel flow.
It gives a desirable spray pattern for combustion over a wide range of operating
pressures.

What is a Rich Blow Out?

More fuel flow than air

What is a Lean Die Out?

More air than fuel

Define the term Propulsive efficiency?

It is the ratio of useful power output to power input in this case it is the ratio of thrust
horsepower to brake horsepower.

Give reasons for controlling the airflow through an axial flow compressor?

To prevent compressor stall and surge

What checks would be carried out after finding micro biological corrosion in the fuel?

Inspect the fuel tank for imperfections in the paint coating or material which may
indicate pitting corrosion and stress corrosion cracking over a large area in the fuel tank,
leaks around the fuel tank, inaccurate fuel tank contents indication by the gage, and
blockage of filters.

Describe the operation of a typical fire detection system?

The single wire thermal switch consists of several heat sensitive thermal switches which
contains a pair of contacts which are normally open. The casing of the switch has a much
higher coefficient of thermal expansion than the metal switch to which the contacts are
fixed. As the casing temperature increase the contacts points will meet and complete the
electrical circuit.

What qualities should turbine fuel possess?

o Pumpable and flow easily under all operating conditions.

o Permit engine starting at all ground conditions and give satisfactory flight
re- lighting
o Give efficient combustion at all conditions
o Have a high calorific value as possible
o Produce minimal harmful effects on the combustion system and on the turbine
blades
o Produce minimal corrosion effects on the fuel system components
o Provide adequate lubrication for all moving parts of the fuel system
o Reduce fire hazards to a minimum
o Note: The fuel must be satisfactory down to -50 degrees C.

What two types of fuel are in use today?

Jet A and B fuel

What are the difference between Jet A and B fuel?

Jet A is a low temperature kerosene and Jet B the fuels are blend of approximately 30%
kerosene and 70% gasoline and is called a wide cut fuel.

What is the danger in mixing Jet A and B fuels?

A change in the S.G of the fuel may affect the operational centrifugal governors (F.C.U).
The governors may have to be reset.

What is a Hydro-mechanical (F.C.U)?

It means the operation is hydraulic and mechanical

Describe the function of a fuel metering section in a Hydro-mechanical section?

The function of J.F.C (Jet fuel control) is to meter fuel to the engine to control rpm,
prevent over heating and surging and prevent either a rich blow out or lean die out.

Name the engine operating conditions (parameters) which must be controlled to ensure
efficient and safe performance of a gas turbine engine.

Engine Pressure Ratio (E.P.R), Exhaust Gas temperature (E.G.T), Torque, Propeller
RPM and Gas Generator

Describe compressor stall?

It is when one blade or section of the compressor stalls

What is the function of the turbine nozzle diaphragm?

To direct the flow of gases to strike the turbine blades at the desired angle

How does humidity affect turbine engine performance?

A low humidity gives high performance and a high humidity decreases performance

What factors affect the amount of acceleration of an object?

Newtons laws of motion

Possible causes of surge and checks to be carried out?

o Air intake icing

o Rapid throttle movements
o Deterioration of the blades shape due to erosion, build up of deposits or blade
damage
o Turbulent air in flight fed onto the face of the compressor

o High cross winds on the ground causing sudden distortion of the inlet air flow
onto the face of the compressor
o Sudden aircraft maneuvers causing turbulent air, for example, boundary layer
break away onto the face of the compressor
Checks to be carried out

o Inspect for creep, elongation and cracks on turbine

o Changes in material properties and fatigue
o Hot spots in the exhaust

What is the effect of temperature on a turbine engine performance?

High temperatures above the specified limit could cause creep, cracking, galling,
distortion, elongation, property changes and fatigue in the metal.

State the disadvantages of a Simplex burner?

It suffers from low pressure problems during starting and idling speeds

Describe the hazard that exists in the area around an operating gas turbine engine inlet?

Loose materials such as tools rags and other items can be ingested by the engine, and
cause (F.O.D), to vanes, blades, and other items.
It should be operated on a smooth concrete surface free from dust particles that could
cause internal erosion.

What limitations should be observed when using an electric starter?

It would over heat very quickly if its operation is not limited to the time intervals
specified.

What three primary conditions must be necessary in order to start a gas turbine engine?

It needs adequate air volume and velocity for starting, provide high intensity ignition in
the combustion chamber, and introduce fuel through the fuel nozzles in an amount that
will not produce excessive heat but will provide sustained combustion and further
acceleration of the engine.

What engine instrument must be observed at light up and why?

The fuel flow gage to ensure a stabilized fuel flow, the Inter Stage Turbine(ITT), (EGT)
which indicates a light off (fuel burning in the combustion section),a rapid temperature
rise is indicated.

What is meant by the term Hot Start?

It is when the temperature exceeds the max allowable specified for the engine.

What is a flight Cycle?

It is normally defined as one takeoff and landing.

What is meant by the term Hung Start?

Known as a false start is if the engine fails to acceleration properly or does not reach the
idle rpm position.

What are Periodic inspections?

They are required after a given number of operating hours, flight cycles or a combination
of both. It may be classified as routine minor or major.

List some events that could result in an immediate special inspection being performed on
the engine?

(F.O.D) ingestion, bird ingestion, ice ingestion, over limit operations (temp and rpm),
excessive G loads and any other events that could cause internal or external damage.

Describe a Bore-scope and explain its purpose?

It is a rigid instrument that may be compared with a small periscope. At one end is an eye
piece with one or more lenses attached to the light carrying tube. At the end of the tube
are a mirror, a lens, and a strong light.
It is used for examining the insides of cylinder bores on reciprocating engines and is now
used extensively on turbine engines.

During engine operation, what are the symptoms of (F.O.D)?

By vibration and changes in the engines normal operating parameters and any increase
in (EGT), de crease in (EPR) and a change in rpm ratio between the core engine and the
fan selection (N2 / N1 ratio).

Describe the condition known as fan blade shingling?

It is the over lapping of the mid-span shrouds of the fan blades.

What type of inspection is likely to be required if a gas turbine engine has been operated
over temperature limits?

A Bore-scope inspection

What engine assembly inspections may be called for after over speed operation?

The rotating assemblies such as the fan section, the core engine rotor and other rotating
assemblies such as the turbines and compressors.

What engine parts comprise the Hot Section?

The combustion section, turbine intake guide vanes, turbine wheels and related parts

What is the purpose of performing a Hot Section inspection?

So as to determine the integrity of the components in the hot section of the engine

Discuss the difference between Schedule and Un-schedule maintenance?

Schedule maintenance includes periodic and recurring inspections that must be done
(IAW) the engine section of the aircraft maintenance schedule. These checks range from
inspections which does not entail opening of cowls to more elaborate checks within
specified limits usually calculated in flying hours or cycles.
Un-schedule maintenance covers work necessitated by occurrences that are not normally
related to time limits e.g. bird ingestion, lightning strike or heavy landing. Un-schedule
may also result from malfunctions, trouble-shooting, or schedule maintenance
inspections.

What two tests are performed in checking PT6A fuel nozzles?

A leakage test and function test.

What is the purpose of a compressors wash?

So as to recover its performance from deposits accumulating on the engines internal gas
path

What are the two methods used to determine when turbine engines are over-hauled?

(TBO) Time Between Over-hauled and On- Condition Maintenance

Why are the rotating assemblies of turbine engines balanced?

Because of the high rotational speeds which produces vibration and stress which
increases with the square of the rotational speeds.

What corrections must be applied to test results to ensure accurate evaluation of engine
performance?

By corrections factors designated Delta and Theta

Describe a Dry motoring check?

It is required during and after inspection and maintenance to ensure that the engine
rotates freely, that instruments functions properly, and starter operations meets speed
requirements for successful starts.
It is also used to prime and leak-check the lubrication system when maintenance has
required replacement of system components.

What is the purpose of a Wet motoring check?

To check the operation of fuel system components after removal and replacement or to
perform a de-preservation of the fuel systems

What is the purpose of a Power Assurance Check?

To ensure engine will achieve takeoff power on a hot day with out exceeding rpm and
temp limits.

What action should be taken by the operator if the (EGT) does not drop at shutdown?

The engine should be dry motored

What is meant by trimming an engine?

It is the process of adjusting the (FCU) so that the engine will produce its rated thrust at
the designated rpm.
What investigation should be made by the technician during a coast-down after an engine
is shutdown?
Listen for unusual noises in the engine such as scraping, grinding, bumping and
squealing.

What engine instruments are useful as fault indicators?

The (EPR), (EVC) Engine Vane Control, and (EGT)

Describe the purpose of Trend Analysis?
It consists of a variety of sensors, detectors, instruments and systems to detect incipient
and existing faults and to provide information regarding the adjustment and calibration
of operating units.

List the main components of a gas turbine ignition system?

The exciter box, the ignition lead, and the igniter

Why is it necessary to design gas turbine systems that have very high energy outputs,
compared with the outputs of ignition systems for reciprocating engines?

The high energy discharge is necessary because it is difficult to ignite the fuel air mixture
under some conditions, particularly at the high altitudes that turbine aircraft operate
when their engines have flamed out.

Why must a technician exercise great care when working around a turbine-engine
ignition system?

He can get a lethal shock

On what type of aircraft is auto ignition used and how is it activated?

It is used on turbo prop engines. The ignition is activated when the system is armed and
the engine torque drops below a certain value.

Compare a gas turbine engine igniter plug with a spark plug?

The ignition system for a gas turbine engines are required to operate for starting only,
their total operating time is almost insignificant in-comparison with the operating time of
an ignition system for a reciprocating engine.
The gas turbine engine ignition system is almost trouble free.

What is meant by the term Continuous Ignition and when is it generally used?

It means that the ignition system operates continuously to provide automatic relight
should a flamed out occur.
It is used in certain flight conditions such as takeoff, landing, heavy rain, snow icing,
compressor stall, or emergency descent.

Where will the technician find specific information on service and maintenance of the
igniters?

Maintenance Manual (Manufacturers Recommendations)

How turbine engine igniters are operationally checked?

One technician stands to one side of the tail pipe while another technician in the cockpit
turns on the ignition.
Ignition is operating satisfactorily if a steady pulsed firing is heard from both igniters.

What should be done if inspection of a glow plug reveals that it has fused coils?

It should be rejected

Name four types of starters for gas turbine engines?

Electric starters, Air starters, Combustion and APU starters

What pressure and flow of air are required for a low-pressure air turbine starter?

It is designed to operate with a high volume and a low pressure air supply. The air supply
must produce a pressure of about 35 (psig) and a flow of more than 100 lb/min.

Describe the engagement mechanism for an Ai-Research air turbine starter?

The engagement mechanism consists of a drive hub and a drive shaft assembly.

From what sources may pneumatic energy be obtained to operate the starter on a large
turbofan engine?

An APU, a ground air supply, or an operating engine on the crankshaft

What is the purpose of the position indicating switch?

It is located on the lower end of the butterfly shaft and energizes the light in the engine
start switch when the butterfly valve is not closed.

Describe the starter shut off valve on the starting system for a DC-10 aircraft?

It is a diaphragm actuated butterfly type pneumatic valve, electrically controlled and

pneumatically operated. The valve functions to control the flow of compressed air to the
starter.

What is the purpose of the shear section in the starter output shaft?

As the engine speed exceeds starter speed, the clutch mechanism will begin to disengage
due to centrifugal force.

At what engine speed does the starter system disengage?

At 45% of full rpm

What are the principal applications of the turbo-shaft engine?

It is used in helicopter APU operations and on large transport aircraft for providing
auxiliary power either on the ground or in flight if needed.

Describe the function of an APU?

It supplies electrical and pneumatic power for most transport aircraft, for ventilation,
lighting and engine starting.

At what rotational speed does APUs operate?

At a 100% rpm

How is power supplied to the Garrett GTCP 331-200ER for starting purposes?

Electronically

Describe airflow through the compressor of the Lycoming T53 engine?

Atmospheric air is drawn through into the annular passageway of the inlet housing
passing rearward across the VIGVs, which direct the air to the engine compressor
section.

Explain how the turbine components of the T53 engine are cooled?

They are cooled by compressed cooling air which is directed through various ports and
channels to all moving components and the stationary nozzles subjected to the highest
temperatures within the turbine section of the engine in a complex and fairly
comprehensive system.

Describe the airflow through the combustion chamber of the T53 engine?

As the air enters the combustion chamber, its flow direction is reversed.

What materials are used in the construction of the compressor rotor assembly of the T53
engine?

Steel and Titanium

What is the function of the inter-stage bleed system for the T53 engine?

To improve compressor acceleration characteristics

They relieve a small amount of air to prevent compressor stall in the low speed range and
during compressor acceleration and deceleration.

What accessories for the T53 engine are driven from the accessory drive gearbox?

The power driven rotary oil pump, oil filter, fuel regulator, compressor rotor tachometer
generator, and starter generator are mounted on the gearbox.

Describe the operation of the variable-inlet guide vane system of the T53 engine?

The VIGVs assemblies are located in front of the first compressor rotor so as to provide
the desired compressor surge margin.
The AOA of the inlet air to the first compressor must be within the stall free operating
range of the transonic airfoil (first two stages of the compressor).

Describe the components of the T53 engine lubrication system?

It consists of a vane type pump incorporating a pressure and scavenge element, a main
(40 um) oil filter with bypass capabilities, an oil manifold, and external oil hoses.

Describe the basic design and operation of the torque meter for the T53 engine?

The torque meter is a hydro-mechanical torque measuring device located in the reduction
gear section of the engine inlet housing.
It operates by using engine oil as a means for determining and measuring engine torque
which is read in the cockpit as oil pressure (psi).
It is not part of the lubricating system even though it uses engine oil.

What are the principal modules of the Allison 250 engine?

They are the compressor and turbine section, combustion and the accessory gearbox
section.

What is the purpose of the metal chip detectors located in the lubrication system?

For discovering wear problems within the engine

What are the principal units in the Bell 204B power train?

It consists of a transmission freewheeling drive unit, engine to transmission driveshaft,

oil cooler fan and driveshaft, two short tail rotor drive shafts, five tail rotor drive shafts
segments with bearing hanger assemblies, and the tail rotor gearbox.

Describe the principal units in the compressor section of the Allison 250 engine?

It consists of the compressor front support, case assembly, and rotor wheels with blades
(for axial compressor section), centrifugal impeller, front and rear diffuser assembly,
diffuser vane assembly, and diffuser scroll.

Describe the principal units in the turbine section of the Allison 250 engine?

It consists of a two stage power turbine rotor, a gas producer turbine support, a power
turbine support and a turbine and exhaust collector support.

What are the principal functions of the main transmission?

It is installed in the front of the turbo shaft engine which allows the rotor system to
continue to operate even if the engine stops permitting auto-rotational descent in case of
engine failure.
It consists of two planetary systems that have total gear ratio which causes the engine
drive-shaft to turn more than 20 times as fast as the main rotor.

What is the purpose of a freewheeling unit in a Helicopter?

It is a device that allows the engine to drive the rotor, but prevents the rotor from driving
the engine.

Why was it necessary to develop synthetic lubricants for gas-turbine engines?

Because gas turbine that operated at higher speeds and temperatures were developed,
and these mineral oils oxidized and blocked the filters and oil passages.

What types of synthetic lubricants are most commonly used for gas-turbine engines?

Type 1 an Aklyl diester oil

Type 2 oil, a Polyester lubricant

What should be done if synthetic lubricant is spilled during the servicing of an aircraft?

It should be cleaned up immediately by wiping up, washing or handling with a suitable

cleaning agent.

What is meant by the term dry sump oil system?

The oil is scavenged from the engine and stored in a tank.

What is the function of a scavenge pump?

Scavenge pumps return oil from the engines bearing cavities to a sump in an accessory
drive gear box or directly to the oil tank.

What happens to system oil flow if the filter becomes clogged?

The oil is bypassed through the pressure relief valve to the discharge point.

Describe the function of a magnetic chip detector?

It indicates the presence of metal contamination without the necessity of opening the
filter.

In a turbine-engine oil cooler, what substances are used to cool the oil?

Fuel and ram air

What is a hot-tank oil system on a gas-turbine engine?

It means the oil returning to the oil tank is quite hot.

What is the function of the oil breather system?

It connects the engine bearing cavities, accessory drive gearbox and the oil tank.

List the three general types of turbine-engine lubrication systems?

A pressure relief valve system, a full flow and a total loss system.

Describe the basic principle of operation of the pressure relief oil system?

In pressure relief valve system the oil flow to the bearing chambers is controlled by
limiting the pressure in the feed line to a given value.

Describe the basic principle of operation of a full flow oil system?

The full flow system does not utilize a relief valve and achieves the desired oil flow rates
throughout the complete engine speed range by allowing the pressure pump delivery
pressure to go directly to the oil feed jets.

Describe the basic principle of operation of a total-loss oil system?

For engines which run for periods of short duration, booster and vertical lift engines, the
total loss (expendable) oil system is generally used.
This system is simple and incurs low weight penalties because it requires no oil cooler,
scavenge pump, or filters.
Once the oil is used for lubrication of bearing it is disposed of, there is no recirculation.

Describe the two principle methods of oil analysis?

Atomic absorption: In this method a small quantity of the oil sample is burned (Ionized)
in a high temperature flame.
Optical Emission Spectrometry involves a small quantity of the oil sample that is also
burned, but the detection device measures the different levels of light emitted.

List the main sections of the JT8D engine?

Air inlet section, the compressor, the combustion section, the turbine and exhaust section,
the accessory drives and the fan discharge section

Which turbine stages drive the front, or N1 compressor?

It is driven by the second, third and fourth turbine stages through the inner or front
compressor drive shaft.

Why can the first-stage turbine develop more power than other turbine stages?

Because it is exposed to the hot gases from the engine at the same time the gases have
their maximum energy in the forms of velocity, pressure and heat.

What is the function of the knife-edge seals in the compressor?

So as to prevent loss of air between stages

Why are the last stages of the high-pressure compressor made of steel?

To accommodate and support the main accessory drive gear shaft bearing housing

Describe the combustion section of the JT8D?

It is a cannular, this means that individual combustion chambers arranged around the
engine inside a single cannular chamber.
The combustion chamber is numbered clockwise as viewed from the rear of the engine.
The combustion chambers are located between the fuel nozzles and combustion chamber
rear support.

Describe the turbine section of the JT8D?

It consists of the turbine front case, the turbine rear case and inner seal, four stages of
turbine nozzle vanes, the two turbine rotors with four stages, and the co-axial drive shafts.

What turbine stages drive the high-pressure compressor of the JT9D?

The first stage turbine

List the rotating assemblies or modules of the JT9D engine?

They are the fan assembly, low pressure compressor (N1) assembly, high pressure
compressor, low compressor drive turbine and high pressure drive turbine compressor
assembly.

Which compressor stator vanes are variable?

The high pressure compressor

By what means is cooling provided for the first turbine nozzle and turbine blades?

It is accomplished by means of fifteenth stage air which is bypassed around the

combustion chamber into a cooling duct.

Describe the turbine section of the JT9D?

Its comprised of two turbine assemblies. The first is the high pressure compressor drive
shaft and the second is the low pressure compressor drive turbine.

Describe the accessory drive section of the JT9D?

It consists of two gear boxes mounted under the engine and driven through a tower shaft.
The tower shaft incorporates a spur gear union which meshes with the accessory drive
mounted on the front hub of the high compressor hub.

How has the fan section of the Pratt & Whitney JT9D-7R4 engine been modified to
improve performance?

By the use of wide chord single shroud fan blades, a reduced number of fan blades and
exit guide vanes.
These features including the convergent divergent fan exit nozzle, contributes to the
significant fuel savings during cruise operations.

What is the purpose of the turbine case cooling system employed on the JT9D-7R4
engine?

So as to improve performance and save fuel during cruise operations

What is the advantage of carbon air seals over labyrinth-type seals?

Gives a reduction in weight

Describe the basic design of the Pratt & Whitney 2037 engine?

It is a twin rotor, high bypass ratio, axial flow turbofan engine, designed for used with
commercial and military transport aircraft?

What benefits are derived from controlled-diffusion airfoils?

These airfoils permit higher mach numbers without loosing efficiency and are used in
both the compressor and turbines.

Compare powder-metal turbine disks with conventional forged disks?

The powder-metal disks offer high tensile strength, greater stress rupture resistance, and
longer low cycle fatigue life.

Describe the differences between the general electric CF6-6 and CF6-50 engines?

The difference because of the number of compressors and turbine stages

How are the nozzle vanes for the first-stage nozzle assembly cooled?

They are cooled by convection, impingement and film cooling.

What are the two functions of the blade retainers on the disks of the CF6 engine HPT?

(1) They prevent the blades from moving axially under gas loads
(2) And the seal forward face of the second stage rim Dove tail from the leakage of
cooling air.

Name the supporting structures of the CF6 engine?

Fan frame, compressor rear frame, turbine mid frame, and turbine rear frame

List the main modules of the CFM56-3 engine?

The fan major module, fan casing and the fan frame

Why is the three-shaft configuration used on the RB 211 engine?

They are employed to permit the fan to rotate independently so that it will not limit the
optimum rotational speed of the intermediate compressor.

Describe the fan section of the RB 211 engine?

The fan is driven by the rear most three stages of the turbine through the inside coaxial
shaft
The intermediate compressor is driven by one stage of the turbine and the high pressure
compressor is driven by the first stage of the turbine through the outer most of the three
coaxial shafts.

How does the combustion chamber of the RB 211 engine compare with the other
combustion chambers?

The combustion chamber is shorter than most other designs which makes it a two bearing
support system possible with no bearings located near the combustion chamber.

What is unusual about the compressor arrangement in the Garrett-Ai-Research TFE731

engine?

The fan is driven through a reduction gear through to avoid over speeding and yet allow
the low pressure compressor to operate at the most efficient speed.

Describe the Garrett ATF3-6 engine?

It is a three spool engine with separate turbines to drive the fan, low pressure compressor
and high pressure compressor.

Explain the advantages of the modular construction of the ATF3-6 engine?

It simplifies maintenance making it possible to remove sections for repair or overhaul

without having to disassemble the complete engine.
While the engine is installed on the aircraft the section that require the most or frequent
service of repair such as the high pressure section and accessory drives can be removed
and overhaul without disturbing the other sections of the engine.

Describe the compressor of the Rolls-Royce Dart engine?

It consists of a single entry two stage centrifugal compressor one immediately to the rear
of the other.

Name the principal parts of the Dart combustion chamber?

The expansion chambers, the air casing, the flame tubes and the three stage turbine.

What is the function of the inter-connectors between the combustion chambers?

They shorten the engine and take the advantage of the direction of airflow as it leaves the
compressor.

How is the turbine blades attached to the turbine disks?

By the fir tree method

What is the purpose of the de-aerator tray in the oil system?

The oil cooler discharges into the oil tank, where the oil is directed over a de-aerator
tray which spreads it out thinly to permit the release of included air.

Through what unit is the water-methanol mixture injected into the engine?

By drilled passages in the rotating guide vanes and impeller in the first stage compressor

Give a brief description of the oil system of the PW100 engine?

It is a wet sump system, cooled externally by a mounted cooler.

Oil is stored in a tank which is integral with the rear inlet case
The tank has a filler neck with a cap, a pressure oil strainer, an oil level indicator and a
scavenge oil chip oil detector.

Describe the engine fuel flow control system for the PW100 engine?

It is controlled by the power and condition lever through two integrated systems
(The hydro-mechanical and the electronic control system)

Describe the principal features of the general electric CT7 turboprop engine?

It features a modular construction which consists of a single spool gas generator section,
a low fuel pressure through flow annular combustion chamber; an air cooled, two stage,
axial flow high pressure turbine, and a free (independent), two stage, un-cooled axial
flow power (low pressure turbine).

What is meant by modular construction?

It allows for the replacement of entire sub-systems in a minimum amount of time.

Describe the power-turbine over-speed protection system of the CT7 engine?

The output from the protection system activates the over-speed solenoid in the over-speed
and drain valve and energizes the auto-relight circuit in the ECU.
This shuts off the fuel flow to the engine and starts the ignition circuit. The engine will
flame out and start to decelerate.

Describe the airflow through the PT6A engine?

Inlet air enters the engine through an annular plenum chamber formed by the
compressor inlet case. From the inlet the air is directed inward to the three stage axial
compressor, from there to the single stage centrifugal compressor.
The two compressors are constructed in one unit. Air from the centrifugal compressor is
thrown outward through diffuser pipes turned 90 degrees to a forward direction before
being led through straightening vanes to the combustion chamber.

Describe the turbine section and the operation of the two separate turbine systems?

The turbine rotor section consists of two separate single stage turbines located in the
centre of the gas generator case and completely enveloped by the annular combustion
chamber liner.
The two turbines are mounted on shafts which extend in opposite directions. The rear
shaft drives the compressor and the forward shaft drives the propeller through the
reduction gearbox assembly.

Describe the compressor of the PT6A engine?

It consists of a three stage axial rotor, three inter-stage spacers, three stators, and a
single stage centrifugal impeller and housing.

What is the purpose of the inter-stage baffle?

It separates the compressor turbine from the power turbine and also prevents dissipation
of turbine gases and consequent transmission of heat to the turbine disks faces.

What is the propeller reduction-gear ratio on the PT6A turboprop engine?

15:1

Describe the reduction gear assembly?

It consists of two magnesium alloy castings bolted to the front flange of the exhaust duct.

Describe the operation of the torque meter?

It is used to determine the torque force being exerted by the engine. The value indicated
by the torque meter is used to indicate power output.

What provision is made to avoid the accumulation of fuel in the exhaust duct during
shutdown?

A drain passage located the 6 O clock position in the exhaust duct to allow fuel to be
dumped overboard through the front of the drain plug.

Explain the purpose of the compressor bleed valve?

To provide anti-stall characteristics at low engine speeds.

Describe the fuel system of the PT6A engine?

It consists of a FCU, a temperature compensator, a power turbine governor, an

automatic fuel pump valve, and a fuel manifold adapter assembly.

Describe the Garrett TPE331 turboprop engine

It is a single spool machine which means it has one main rotating assembly that includes
both the compressor and turbine.

What components comprise the gas generator section of the engine?

Compressor, combustion section and compressor turbine

How does the ignition system for the PT6A engine differ from those used on the majority
of other engines?

They use glow plugs for ignition instead of high energy spark igniters.

Describe the function and operation of the NTS system in the TPE331 engine.

The negative torque sensor NTS detects negative torque, a situation where the engine is
rotated by the wind-milling prop.
When the NTS signal is produced the systems automatically feathers the prop to stop
engine rotation and reduce drag.

Compare the power section of a turboprop engine with that of a jet engine?

The power section is similar in operation except for the turbine section.
The turboprop engine has a turbine section which extracts as much as 75% to 85% of the
total power output to drive the propeller.
The turbojet engine section is designed to extract only enough energy from the hot gases
to drive the compressor and accessories.

Define the term ESHP?

It means that the turbine section of the turboprop usually has more stages than that of the
turbojet engine and that the turbine blades design of the turboprop extracts more energy
out of the hot gas stream of the exhaust.

What is the function of the gas generator?

It produces the high velocity gases which drive the power turbine.

What is meant by the term free turbine?

It is not mechanically connected to the gas generator; instead an additional turbine

wheel is placed in the exhaust stream from the gas generator.

What is meant by the term fixed shaft engine?

The shaft is mechanically connected to the gear box so that the high speed low torque
rotational energy transmitted into the gearbox from the turbine can then be converted to
the low speed high torque power required to drive the propeller.

Describe the basic operation of a gas turbine engine?

Air is brought into the front of the engine and compressed. The air is mixed with fuel and
burnt and it then goes to a turbine. The turbine converts fuel energy into mechanical
work to drive a compressor.

Describe the principle operation of a turbo jet engine?

The engine is started by spinning the compressor which causes a rearward flow of air
into the combustion zone where fuel is added and ignited.
The gases increase in temperature and expand rearwards. The gas then goes to a turbine
which drives a compressor before reaching the exhaust nozzle.

Describe the basic principle operation of a turbo prop engine?

It is a gas turbine engine with a reduction gear box mounted in front or forward end to
drive a standard airplane propeller.

What is the relationship between turbine engine speed and thrust?

The turbine accelerates both air and fuel gases. The quantity (mass) of air and gases
accelerated and the amount of acceleration determines the thrust produced.
Fuel consumption will be high for the amount of thrust produced.

Why is a manual fuel control not suitable for a gas turbine engine?

It eases the stress off the Pilot because the Pilot would have to watch several gages and
make frequent adjustments to keep the engine operating and to prevent damage.

Describe the function of a fuel metering section in a Hydro-mechanical FCU?

It consists of a fuel metering valve across which a constant fuel pressure differential is
established.
Fuel flow through the valve depends on its degree of opening and controlled by the
computing section and power lever position.

Describe the basic design of a fuel control for a turbo shaft engine?

It incorporates a gas producer (gas generator), and a power turbine system within the
engine.

What is the difference between a supervisory EEC and a full authority EEC?

A full authority EEC performs all functions necessary to operate a turbo fan engine
efficiently and safely in all modes such as starting, accelerating, decelerating, etc.
The supervisory EEC supervisory EEC by measuring EPR and integrating thrust lever
(throttle angle), altitude data, Mach number, etc in the computations is able to maintain
constant thrust from the engine regardless of changes in air pressure, air temperature,
and flight environment.

Name the engine operating conditions (parameters) which must be controlled to ensure
efficient and safe performance of a gas turbine engine?

Ambient air pressure (Pamb), compressor inlet temperature (CIT), engine rpm, velocity
of the air through the compressor, compressor inlet air pressure, compressor discharge
pressure (same as burner pressure), turbine inlet temperature, tail pipe temperature and
throttle and power lever setting.

Which of the parameters requested in the previous question are generally employed in the
operation of an FCU?

Ambient pressure, (CIT), burner pressure, and a high pressure compressor rotor speed
(N2), and power lever (throttle) position.

Describe the metering system for the JFC68 FCU?

It is mounted on the main engine fuel pump and operates in connection with the engine
vane control (EVC3) to regulate the thrust of the engine. It applies regulated fuel
pressure across a window type throttle valve.

What engine operating parameters are sensed by the computing section of the JFC68
FCU?

The pressure regulator valve sensor, pressure regulator valve and the throttle valve

Describe the function of the EVC3 unit?

Designed to regulate the variable high pressure compressor stator vanes of the engine
by scheduling the position of the vanes in accordance with requirements dictated by the
mach number of compressor inlet flow

Name the principal parts of the EVC3 unit?

Pressure ratio sensor, flapper valve, servo operated three dimensional cam, actuator
pilot valve and necessary linkages.

What engine operating parameters are utilized by the Woodward fuel control for the
General Electric CF6 gas turbine engine?

Engine speed, (CIT), (CDP), and power lever position

Describe the operation of the speed governor in the Woodward FCU?

Speed governing is attained through the speed governor, which is flyweight operated as
in other controls.
The power lever (throttle), applies force to the governor speeder spring through the
throttle cam and speed setting shaft.
When the flyweight centrifugal force and the speeder spring force are balanced, the
engine is in an on speed condition.
If the engine is not in an on speed, the governor will direct pressure to or from the
governor servo piston to change the opening of the fuel metering port.

How is the variable stator vane control (VSV) servo controlled in the Woodward FCU?

The VSV pilot valve is affected by the follower on the three dimensional cam.
The hydraulic pressure to the VSV servo is controlled by the position of the three
dimensional cam

After finding a fuel leak from an integral tank, what action is taken and who can sign for
rectification?

Inspect the tank for micro-biological corrosion.

The leak may be classified as seep, a run or a stain
A repair usually consists of plugging the leak at the exterior skin joint, rivet or seam, and
then covering the plug with a sealant and a fabric patch.
An A&C license engineer an approved maintenance company

Fuel flow check after booster pump change?

After a booster pump installation the system should be checked for leaks by operating the
pumps.
During this check the ammeter or load meter should be read and the readings of all the
pumps, where applicable should be approximately the same.

What checks would be carried out after finding an oil stain in an intake?

Inspect the reduction gear box for leaks, seals and gaskets may be damaged, oil transfer
hoses may be damaged.

Define light up, flame out, and re-light?

Light Up is a successful of the initial burning of the fuel air mixture which is noted first
by a rise in EGT.
Flame Out is when the fuel air mixture has stopped burning without shutting down the
engine due to abnormal inlet conditions.
Relight is trying to restart the engine after an engine flame out.

List three engine parameters and describe the monitoring of one?

The tachometer, the oil pressure gage, and the EGT

The EGT notifies a successful start by a rise in EGT
If the engine exceeds temperature limits, starting procedures is aborted, this is known as
a hot start which prevents engine damage.
The EGT ensures safe monitoring of the mechanical integrity of the turbines as well as
the engine operating conditions.

What means are available to establish fuel quantity? How would you refuel an aircraft
without electrical power being available?

They are the drip stick, drop stick and the capacitive method, float switches, and the fuel
quantity gage.
The over wing or open line method is usually common for refueling an aircraft without
electrical power being available. It is done through a filler cap located on the top surface
of the tank by using a low rate fuel vehicle or a manual hand pump.

Why are fuel tanks vented? Test the system?

They are vented to ensure positive fuel flow and pressure refueling.
Test the system for correct positioning and freedom from obstruction. The filler neck
should be free from obstruction.

Following engine shutdown, fuel is seen running from a drain under the cowling for a
short time. State reasons and how to isolate the fault?

Consult the maintenance manual for appropriate aircraft before commencing work
In some older aircraft the residual fuel was dumped overboard from the fuel lines after
engine shutdown so as to prevent hotspots in the combustion chamber due to dribbling of
the nozzles or vapor lock due to fuel vaporizing in the lines.
Aircraft of today are equipped with an (EPA) drain sump so as to prevent contamination
to the environment.
If fuel is seen running from the cowling and not going into the (EPA) drain they could be
a break in the fuel manifold line before the EPA drain sump.
Seals might be broken or damage in the engine driven fuel pump, linkages in the drain
sump area etc.

An engine has high oil consumption, explain checks to be carried out before release to
service?

Inspect for failed bearings, leaking seals and gaskets, leakage through fuel pump vent,
leakage in engine breather or vacuum pump breather.
Worn piston rings, incorrect installation of piston rings an external oil transfer hose
leakage.

Describe combustion chamber cooling and how the gas temperature is reduced before
entering the nozzle?

The air passing through the core of the engine cools the combustion chamber burner
cans or liners.
The cans are constructed to induce a thin, fast moving film of air over both the inner and
outer surfaces of the can or liner.
The gas temperature is reduced before entering the nozzle by providing cooling air inlets
around the exterior of the engine

Describe how in service condition of a turbine engine is continuously monitored?

The EGT, EPR, fuel flow, engine shaft speeds and vibration levels is plotted on a graph
so that proper engine monitoring can be carried out by approved personals?

Describe the requirements of an airframe fuel system up to each engine LP cock. What is
the function of each component?

The airframe fuel system must be able to supply fuel to the engine in a form suitable for
combustion.
Must be able to control the fuel flow to the required quantity necessary for starting,
acceleration and stable running at all engine conditions.
To provide a means for starting / stopping the engines
Provide a means of preventing engine over-speed, over temperature, excessive
compressor pressures pressure and high EPR.
The functions of the components are:
Engine driven low pressure pump is fitted so that cavitation does not occur at the high
pressure pump.
The engine oil picks up considerable amount of heat when operating. Fuel is often used
to cool down the oil, which serves a dual purpose of ensuring that any water in
suspension in the fuel will not freeze causing a blockage when it is extracted by the fuel
filter.
Fuel heater is fitted to ensure fuel is adequately heated for the same reason as that stated
in the oil cooler above.
Low pressure filter provides filtration before the HP system.
Fuel flow meter transmitter provides signal of engine fuel flow and fuel used to the flight
deck instruments.
Engine driven high pressure fuel pump delivers the required fuel flow as determined by
the FCU.
The FCU maintains the correct fuel / air mixture ratio 15:1 under any running / flying
conditions.

How are fuel atomization assured and nozzles kept clean?

Fuel atomization is assured by providing holes around the fuel nozzle in the dome or inlet
end of the combustor liner.
Nozzles are kept clean by draining the unburned fuel which accumulates in the fuel
manifold and nozzles after engine shutdown.

What procedure should be followed after finding metal particles in a filter?

Metal particles found in a filter usually indicates partial internal failure

Try and determine the extent of the internal damage by inspecting the size of metal
particles.
If small metal particles are found similar in nature to filings, this indicates normal wear
of components especially if its a new or overhaul engine.
Drain the oil system and refill it, replacing new oil filters and screens.
Grounds run the engine and re-inspect the oil filters, screens and sump plugs
If no additional metal particles are found, the aircraft should be test flown, followed by
an inspection of the oil screens and sump plugs
If no further evidence of foreign material is found, continue the engine in service and
monitor its performance for any indication of difficulty or internal failure.
If huge chunks of metal particles are found they should be sent to a lab for an analysis to
determine what component is wearing.
The engine should be sent for overhaul

Carbon particles are found in an oil filter- action taken?

Carbon particles found indicates the by product of combustion are entering the oil system.
Drain the oil system and refill it
Inspect the exhaust manifold for cracks and if is a piston engine ensuring the piston rings
are not worn, exhaust valve opening and closing in the appropriate manner
Return the engine back in service, the next inspection if carbon build up is still notice, the
engine should be sent for overhaul.
Describe flame out and precautions taken to prevent it?

Flame Out is when the fuel air mixture has stopped burning without shutting down the
engine due to abnormal inlet conditions.
It is prevented by monitoring the inlet conditions and fuel system (FCU)

Describe what is meant by compressor stall and surge. What are the positions of the
VIGVs and bleed valves at low RPM and high RPM?

Compressor stall is when one blade or section of the compressor stalls.

Compressor surge is when the complete compressor stalls.
The VIGVs at low RPM are at an angle relative to the engine axis (closed) and almost
parallel to the engine axis (open) at high RPM.
The Bleed valves are open at low RPM and closed at high RPM.

Describe the function, safety features and types of thrust reversers commonly being used
on aircraft?

It reduces brakes system maintenance costs

Backing the aircraft out in parking spots known as power back operation
Reduce landing roll
The safety features include a system of linkages on the throttle which prevents the thrust
from being deployed unless the throttle is in the idle position. Although once deployed
any amount of throttle may be applied.
Another safety feature includes the reverse thrust circuit is wired through the
undercarriage weight switch, which means that the aircraft has to have landed before the
thrust reversers will deploy (even if the cockpit RT lever is deployed).
Types of thrust reversers are the Clam shell, Bucket doors and Cold stream reversers.

Give the starting procedure for a turbine engine (assume all fire and electrical precautions
have been observed?

Select the ON the fuel supply, by opening the required fuel cocks.
The engine throttle lever is selected to the fully closed position.
The START MASTER and IGNITION switches are selected ON.
The engine selector switch is set to the engine to be started and the starter button is
pressed; this then initiates the Automatic sequence of events to correctly start the engine.
When the engine starts to rotate and RPM is sufficiently reached the engine HP fuel cock
can be opened.

After a short delay; the engine should Light Up.

From this point no further action is necessary except monitoring the engine speed, EGT
and oil pressure gage closely.

Describe the starting sequence of an APU until it reaches governed speed.

What indications are there?

The operator places the door switch to Auto to open the inlet door on the side of the
fuselage.
The operator places the APU Master Switch to Start and the starter and ignition
circuits are energized.
The operator moves the Start Switch to Run after RPM and EGT start to read.
Termination of starter and ignition occurs automatically at approximately 30% engine
speed.
At approximately 10% engine speed, the fuel solenoid automatically opens fuel flow to
the combustor and Light Up occurs.
The acceleration limiter starts to receive compressor delivery air, and fuel bypass
decreases to allow a rapid acceleration
At 95% engine speed the governor overrides the acceleration limiter and bypasses fuel
to cause a steady state operation at 100% engine speed.
More fuel will be delivered automatically to keep the on-speed engine

What would an APU be used for?

The APU is used as an auxiliary power either on ground or in flight if needed.

They are designed to provide the aircraft with electrical or pneumatic power for several
on board functions, making the aircraft independent of ground support equipment.
It provides services such as cabin ventilation, engine starting, lighting etc.

If an APU is running can it be left unattended?

Yes

What controls APU fuel flow during the start cycle?

The FCU

What are the possible causes of engine instrument high vibration?

Checked for security of mountings and panels should be checked for integrity of the shock
mounts.

How does an axial compressor work?

In this compressor the air flows axially in a relatively straight path in line with the axis of
the engine.
The air passes through stages, each stage consisting of a multi bladed rotor and stator.
Within each stage the air flow is accelerated with a rise in pressure and temperature.

How is the power of an engine controlled?

By varying the fuel supply

During engine runs, what parameters are monitored to make engine adjustments and to
determine serviceability?

EPR, EGT, RPM, Torque meter etc

What methods are used to indicate power being produced by an engine?

Torque meter, EPR, EGT

If a fire detector wire is broken, will you still get a fire warning in the event of an engine
fire?

Yes! Because circuits are connected in parallel

If an APU is running can it left be unattended?

Yes

What can cause an APU to shutdown automatically?

Limiting fuel supply

If the APU is required to supply air, how is its EGT controlled?

The acceleration thermostat protects against over temperature by dumping compressor

discharge air into the exhaust if EGT temperature becomes excessive.

What methods are used to measure engine torque?

Torque meter, RPM

Is any compensation made, within the engine fuel system, for changes in aircraft altitude,
how is this compensation effected?

By the Barometric control in the FCU

If the hot exhaust of a gas turbine engine produces no reactive thrust, it is no doubt a?

Turboprop

The term high bypass Turbofan refers to an important engine ratio; this ratio refers to Fan
versus Core:

Mass airflow

Velocity differs from speed; velocity implies both speed and Direction.

Acceleration is the rate of change of Time.

Mass is the same as weight near the surface of the earth.

When water is flowing from the sprinkler heads it is referred to as Kinetic Energy.

In reference to Potential and Kinetic energy, which two terms best represent these
energies in a turbine engine?

Velocity and acceleration

Bernoullis Theorem refers to airflow at a constant (lb. /sec.) value through a frictionless
duct and at a supersonic flow rate.

In a convergent duct when a constant, subsonic air flow rate exists, velocity is increasing.

In a divergent duct when a constant, subsonic air flow rate exists, velocity is decreasing.

In either a convergent or divergent duct when a constant, subsonic air flow rate exists,
total pressure will remain the same.

The components of total pressure are?

Static plus ram

Which applies best to the flow rate of gas when applying Bernoullis Principle, the gas
flow (lb. /hr) must be?

Accelerating in the direction of airflow

The four events of the constant pressure cycle also known as the Brayton Cycle is?

Inlet, compression, expansion and exhaust

The expression constant pressure cycle occurs because internal engine pressure is fairly
constant across the combustor section.

The pressure drop in compressor discharge air as it passes through the remainder of the
engine is controlled by the size of the exhaust nozzle.

The point of the highest pressure within a turbine engine is the diffuser.

Newtons First Law states: A body at rest tends to remain at rest and a body in motion
tends to remain in motion.

Newtons Third Law states: For every acting force there exists an equal and opposite
reacting force.

Newtons Second Law provides the formula (F = m x a) for computing the value of his
third law of action and reaction.

If one mass unit of air enters a turbine engine, another unit leaves?

At higher velocity and mass

Gross thrust is calculated when an aircraft is on the ground.

Net thrust is calculated when an aircraft is in flight.

The Thrust Distribution method of computing turbine engine thrust is accomplished by

totaling the positive thrust values throughout the engine and which other value?

Net thrust

In terms of Thrust Distribution formula how is it that the combustor produces a positive
thrust value when it is discharge static pressure is lower than its inlet static pressure?

Its exit temperature is greater

The greatest negative thrust occurs at the compressor.

Thrust horsepower is a computation used to convert the power factor of a?

Torque producing engine to horse power

Propulsive Efficiency is known as the external efficiency of a turbine engine.

Thermal Efficiency is known as the internal efficiency of a turbine engine.

Overall Efficiency is defined as Propulsive Efficiency plus Thermal Efficiency.

Factors such as OAT, Altitude and Airspeed all affect thrust because they have the
greatest effect on inlet density.

Which cockpit gauge best indicates the Thermal Efficiency of an operating engine EGT.

As compared to Thermal Efficiency, Overall Efficiency is always the?

Greater percentage value

The four main factors that affect thrust are Altitude, Ambient Temperature, Engine RPM
and?

Airspeed

The limits imposed on tip speeds of fan rotors, compressor rotors and turbine rotors are
primarily due to affect shock stalling on the airfoils.

Tip speed limits are given in values of Mach numbers.

The local speed of sound depends on only one atmospheric condition, that of ambient
pressure.

The local speed of sound is not effected by changes in atmospheric pressure because?

Temperature of the gas also changes

The type of thrust producing Gas Turbine Engine in most popular use today is the?

Turbofan

The commercial airliners (except Concorde) and business jets have an inlet (entrance)
duct with a divergent shape.

Supersonic aircraft have an inlet duct with a convergent - divergent shape.

Ram recovery is the point where pressure inside the inlet equals ambient pressure outside
the inlet.

A low speed aircraft such as a helicopter which is not designed for Ram Recovery will
often have an inlet duct with a convergent shape.

The function of a vortex dissipater is to break suction being created at the ground level.

What is the type or shape of flight inlet to be found on a business jet?

Variable Geometry

The words Variable Geometry Inlet Duct refers to?

A supersonic flight inlet

The velocity of gases flowing at the waist of a C D inlet duct when the aircraft is flying
at supersonic cruise speed is?

Super-Sonic

Ram recovery refers to increasing thrust in the inlet.

The typical subsonic aircraft will receive what aircraft compression ratio from its flight
inlet at cruise airspeed?

0.5: 1

Which is more likely to have a screen installed in its inlet duct?

Turbofan

The function of Inlet Separators is to remove sand and ice.

The main Accessory Section of a turbine engine is most often mounted externally on the
engine at the 12 Oclock position.

The sump where oil collects before returning to the oil tank is located in the accessory
gearbox.

The main unit of the Accessory Section is the gearbox.

The primary purpose of the compressor section is to increase air pressure.

An additional secondary purpose is to provide air to aircraft systems known as Customer

Bleed Air.

A secondary purpose of the compressor is to provide air for internal engine cooling
known as Engine Bleed Air.

The ideal compressor will produce the greatest compression with the least velocity rise.

The centrifugal compressor raises air pressure by accelerating air molecules outward
(radially) into a convergent shaped outlet duct?

What is the maximum numbers of stages which can be used successfully in a centrifugal
flow compressor?

Two

One of the main advantages of the centrifugal compressor over the axial compressor is?

Low weight

The axial flow compressor raises air pressure by accelerating air molecules rearward and
then directing them into numerous divergent shaped ducts formed by the stator vanes.

Stator vanes are placed at the rear of the rotor blades for the purpose of raising static
pressure by the process of Diffusion.

Compressor blade roots are normally of the dovetail design.

The main function of the Inlet Guide Vanes is to create a change in the angle of airflow
entering the first stage of compression.

The compressor pressure ratio of a dual spool Turbofan Engine is a ratio of the pressure
after the last stage of compression to the pressure at the inlet of the Fan.

The compressor ratio of a fan stage is a ratio of the pressure at the fan discharge to the
pressure at the fan inlet.

The fan bypass ratio is not a pressure ratio but rather it is a ratio of two mass velocity
airflows values.

A stage of axial flow compression is?

A set of rotor blades followed by a set of stator vanes

On a dual spool Turbofan, the fan is normally considered?

The first stage of compression

If a compressor has a 7 to 1 compression ratio, on a compressor Standard Day at Sea

Level, the pressure at the diffuser would be?

102.9 psia

The most common compressor blade attachment to the disk is?

Dove tail

The term mid Span Shroud refers to?

Fan Blades

Compression ratio (per stage) of an axial flow compressor is in the range closest to?

1.125 to 1.

Why is a twist present in axial flow compressor blades and fans?

To give the trailing edge a uniform axial flow velocity.

The two vector forces which influence velocity and direction of compressor airflow are
(1) the inlet effect, (2) the RPM effect.

The main advantage of the axial flow compressor has over the centrifugal flow
compressor is that?

It can achieve a higher overall compression ratio

Combination Compressor is used almost exclusively in small engines.

The Diffuser Case is located at the mid section of the engine, it is the point of highest
air pressure within the engine.

The reason air pressure increases in the engine diffuser section is that?

Air spreads out axially and slows down

Inter-connectors in multiple can and can annular combustors function primarily?

During Starting

List the four most common combustor types?

Annular, Cannular, Multiple or Tubular and Reverse flow

Which combustor type requires the least cooling air for a given gas temperature?

Multiple Can

The two types of turbine wheels most commonly used are Axial Flow and Radial In-Flow.

The Radial In-Flow type turbine wheel is used mainly in auxiliary power units.

The turbine blades most used in flight engines are Impulse Reaction.

The two types of turbine blade tip are the open tip and the shrouded tip.

The base to the tip of each turbine blade station will have?

A uniform exit velocity in feet per second

The twist in a turbine blade is present to give which of the following conditions to axial
airflow leaving the trailing edge?

A constant axial velocity from base to tip

How do the turbine nozzle stator vanes become a point of increasing gas velocity within
the engine?

Their trailing edges converge to form a nozzle

Where is air used to cool turbine blades and stator vanes extracted from?

The compressor

A flight engine will more likely have which type turbine wheel installed to drive its
compressor?

Impulse Reaction

On a subsonic airplane, the engine tail plane is convergent shaped.

On rotorcraft, the engine tail plane is more likely shaped Divergent.

The front section of a C-D tail plane is C shaped so as to increase velocity during all
engine operation.

The rear section of a C-D tail plane is D shaped so as to increase gas velocity during
supersonic flight operation.

After burners function by utilizing the unused oxygen that is present in the engines
exhausts gases.

The engine exhaust duct is another name for which of the following?

Tail pipe

The tailpipe of a business jet is constructed in which shape?

Convergent

Subsonic aircraft with gas turbine engines installed will most likely have which type
tailpipe?

Fixed Area

The two types of thrust reversers in common use are the aerodynamic blockage type and
the mechanical type.

The clamshell reverser is another name for the mechanical blockage type reverser.

The cascade reverser is another name for the aerodynamic blockage type reverser.

What percentage of forward rated thrust will an engine in thrust reverser be capable of
producing?

40 to 50

On the ground the reverser is deployed when the engine is at which power setting?

Idle

Short ducted turbofans cannot utilize an exhaust mixer, so noise attenuation is

accomplished by use of special materials in the gas path.

Mixer units on gas turbine engine exhausts provide mixing space for hot and cold gases;
mixing lowers the noise levels by raising the noise frequency.

Noise from the jet wake when untreated by noise attenuating materials is?

High frequency, high decibel

The component that separates the cold section from the hot section of a gas turbine
engine is called a fire seal.

Compartment cooling and ventilation is accomplished by ram air.

Compare to reciprocating engines, turbine engine mountings to the aircraft are of much
lighter construction for a given power.

The type of turbine engine requiring the heaviest mountings is the turboprop engine.

In the cold section of a turbine engine, a low weight material commonly used in the
construction of many outer cases is?

Aluminum

Cold section blading is most often constructed of titanium.

In the hot section, the most common high temperature strength material currently being
used is?

Nickle base alloy

A turbine engine compressor case would most likely be made of which type construction
material?

Aluminum

Where the material called Inconel most generally would be used in a turbine engine?

Turbine blades

Engine stations are numbered along the physical length of the engine or along the gas
path of the engine.

Directional references of turbine engines (right, left, O clock) are most generally from
the back turbine engine of the engine.

The right hand side of a turbine engine is at which of the following?

3 O clock

The turbine section contains 1 turbine wheel(s) to drive its high pressure compressor.

The turbine section contains 3 turbine wheel(s) to drive its low pressure compressor

Line Maintenance refers to inspection and repair accomplished on turbine engines while
they are in a?

Flight line aircraft

FOD can occur from debris drawn into the engine in the air stream in flight but occurs
mainly by objects drawn in from the Ground.

The object of Compressor Field Cleaning is to restore the aerodynamic shape or surface
of compressor blades and vanes.

Schedule line maintenance primarily consists of Inspections.

Un-schedule line maintenance consists of correcting discrepancies found by flight crews

and maintenance crews.

FOD damage is found most often in the compressor.

Compressor Field Cleaning is a procedure that removes contaminants to be the most

aggressive?

The grit method

Compressor Field Cleaning is a procedure that removes contaminants from the?

Compressor

Heavy engine maintenance is generally thought of as being accomplished off the wing.

The turbine would not normally be overhauled during a Limited Heavy Maintenance
procedure.

The engine time can be returned to zero after a (an) Unlimited Heavy Maintenance
procedure.

Another name for Shop Maintenance is Heavy Maintenance.

Internal compressor inspection of installed engines is routinely accomplished with a

probe shaped device called a Bore scope.

The general term to describe dye, ultra sound, eddy current and X ray inspections of
engines is Nondestructive inspection.

The hand filing method of re-contouring damaged compressor, blades is called blending.

Welding and straightening of rotating airfoils in the cold section is generally

accomplished only at an overhaul type facility.

A newer method of restoring worn surfaces to compressor vanes and blades is called
plasma coating.

Special technique welding is accomplished on removed airfoils such as fan blades.

One such method known as Electron Beam Welding is accomplished in a special vacuum
chamber.

After damage to a single compressor blade is blended out, which of the following is
usually required?

Identify the reworked area with layout dye

If outer engine cases are cracked they are generally weld repair.

The most common hot section discrepancy found during visual inspection is thermal?

Cracking

An important inspection method used to discover internal cracking of installed engine hot
sections is by?

Borescoping

Stress rupture cracking is most closely associated with the?

Turbine rotor

Permanent elongation of turbine blades through centrifugal loading and heat loading is
called?

Creep

When a need arises to replace one turbine blade of another odd numbered set and no
blade of equal moment weight is available then replace three blades.

Fuel hot streaking which causes combustor and turbine damage is a result of?

A clogged fuel nozzle

If a single turbine blade is damaged beyond repair limits, which of the following
procedures is most appropriate?

Change the damaged blade

Select the part in which creep is most commonly found?

Turbine blade

Moment weight of blades accounts for both mass-weight and centre of balance.

The type of bearing which best absorbs radial loads is the roller bearing.

The type of bearing which is used to absorb both radial and axial loads is the Ball bearing.

Another name for axial loading is thrust loading.

The two most common types of main bearing oil seals are Carbon and Labyrinth.

Only one of the roller bearings races is grooved, which allows for?

Axial engine growth

Select the location where a plain bearing is most likely to be found in a turbine engine?

An accessory gearbox location

An oil damped roller bearing has an extra cushion of oil between its?

Outer race and bearing housing

The rotating portion of a labyrinth seal is called a land.

A carbon seal has which type sealing arrangement?

Full contact with its race

The Modular Maintenance concept provides for changing major engine assemblies as a
single unit to prevent removal of the engine from the aircraft.

Disassembly of a module is considered major repair.

Modules can be installed in which category of engines?

High operating time engines

When using an extension which lengthens the torque arm, the true torque being applied
will be higher than the indicated value.

To prevent loss of calibration, micrometer type torque wrenches must be stored at their
lowest setting.

Which of the following type torque wrenches require the most frequent calibration?

Micrometer type

If the correct combination of torque and alignment cannot be found when torque
tightening a castellated nut, the correct procedure is to?

Select another castellated nut

How many twists per inch are acceptable when lock wiring with 0.032 inch clockwise?

8 to 10

Gas turbine engine Test Cells have a run check capability beyond that of running in an?

Aircraft

Delta and Theta corrections are used in conjunction with Test Cell run data to compare
observed readings to readings obtained at Standard Day Conditions during the
manufacturers test runs.

Which of the following is a typical vibration limit of a gas turbine engine?

3 to 5 mils

Many commercially operated turbine engines Do Not have a specific time change interval
called a TBO.

Small Gas turbine engines which have no manufacturers recommended engine TBO
would more likely have a manufacturers recommended module TBO.

Large commercially operated Gas turbine engines that do not use rigid manufacturers
recommended TBO values use what is called On Condition maintenance.

Inspections of engines under the On Condition maintenance concept are scheduled on

an hourly basis or a?

Cycle basis

After researching the files, the next step in engine troubleshooting would probably be to
prepare a priority list.

Valuable troubleshooting data is collected during engine operation; this data can be
gathered both electronically and manually.

The primary purpose of a lubricant is to reduce friction.

Secondary purposes of lubricants include; collecting foreign matter, cleaning and?

Cooling

Gas turbine engines Oil tanks generally contain Synthetic lubricants.

Synthetic lubricants have qualities of good load carrying ability and also low viscosity for
good flow ability.

Viscosity is a measure of the oils flow ability; it is not a measure of oils quality.

Viscosity index (VI) is not a measure of oils quality.

High viscosity oil has which of the following characteristics?

High resistance to flow

Oil with a high Viscosity Index has which of the following characteristics?

A high resistance to viscosity breakdown with heat

The unit of flow measurement in the S.U.S. Viscosimeter is?

Seconds

The unit of measurement in the Kinetic Viscosimeter is?

Centistokes

A method of measuring metal and silicon contaminant levels in lubrication systems to

burn an oil sample in a special device called a?

Spectrometer

Contaminant levels of oil samples are given in parts per million.

The term wear metals-refers to contaminants.

Spectrometer oil analysis is a check on engine wear.

The two types of synthetic turbine oils in common use are Type 1 Mil 7808 and Type 2
Mil-L 23669.

Mixing of synthetic lubricants and petroleum lubricants is prohibited.

Mixing between brands of either Type 1 or Type 2 oils is permitted only within very
strict guidelines because?

They may not be chemically compatible

Oil servicing is normally accomplished immediately after, or in a prescribed short

interval after engine Shutdown.

The time interval for servicing is important because it prevents oil tank over servicing.

Oil consumption on a business jet turbine engine is in the range of 1qt. per 250 flying
hours.

Oil consumption in turbine engines, as compared to reciprocating engines is much lower.

The minimum information required on container labels of approved turbine oils is?

Company designation of oil

Which oil change procedure is typically utilized on a scheduled airliner powered by large
turbofan engines?

No prescribed oil change interval

Which oil change procedure is typically utilized on a business jet powered by a turbine
engine?

Oil change at 300 to 400 engine operating hour intervals

The Wet Sump lubrication is seldom used in flight engines.

Oil in the Wet Sump type system is carried in the Auxiliary Drive Gearbox.

Which best refers to the Wet Sump lubrication system?

It is seen in many engines for APUs and GPSs

In a Dry Sump lubrication system, the main body of lubricating oil is carried in a (an)
separate tank.

Oil tanks of this type are generally pressurized to approximately 3 to 6 PSIG in order to
provide a positive pressure head on the oil supply.

The three most common types of turbine engine oil sumps are Gear, Vane and

Many oil pumps have multiple elements containing one pressure pumping element and
one or more scavenge pumping elements.

Oil tank pressurization is desirable because it suppresses foaming.

The correct item in regards to a Dry sump engine?

It has a small residual oil supply in its gearbox sump.

The most appropriate statement to positive displacement oil pump?

It pumps a fixed (positive) oil quantity per revolution

The two basic main filters types used on turbine engines are the cleanable type and the
disposable type.

To relieve the pressure build up when filter clogging occurs, each filter is fitted with a
bypass relief valve.

Filters are used in both pressure subsystems and scavenge subsystems; but primarily in
the pressure subsystems.

A main oil filter with a 25 PSID bypass setting; assuming system pressure is set to 45
PSIG, will bypass oil due to filter clogging, when filter outlet pressure drops to 20 PSIG.

Filter contamination occurs from several sources, one of the more common which is from
products from decomposition of Oil.

The location for a pressure subsystem oil filter?

Downstream of the main oil pump

Normal oil flow through a bowl type filter is?

Into the filter bowl, through the screen and out

Many cockpits contain both an oil system pressure gauge and a low pressure warning
light.

When a cockpit filter bypass light illuminates, it is a warning that the filter is partially
blocked.

Some filters have a pop up warning button to show that the filter has reached a full
bypass condition.

The lubrication system consists of three subsystems they are pressure, scavenge and vent.

The pressure subsystem carries oil to the engine.

The scavenge subsystems carries oil back to the tank.

The vent subsystem carries air back to the atmosphere.

An oil system regulating relief valve controls the pressure in the Pressure subsystems.

The next component in the direction of flow after the oil tank is the oil filter.

The furthest point upstream in the pressure subsystem subsystems is the oil tank; the
furthest point downstream is at the oil Jet.

A thermostatic valve controls the amount of oil through the oil cooler.

Fuel on its way to the combustor is utilized to cool the oil in a component called an Oil
Cooler.

If an engine does not use a fuel cooled, oil cooler the engine would likely use an air
cooled oil cooler.

If an engine does not have its oil cooler in the pressure subsystem, the cooler will be
placed in the scavenge subsystems.

Should the oil cooler becomes completely clogged, which of the following would occur?

The oil will bypass the cooler cores.

Oil jets are small calibrated orifices which direct oil onto the various engine locations
which require continuous lubrication.

Which is most correct about a fuel oil cooler?

The thermostatic valve regulates normal oil temperature

The oil jet is the terminating point of the pressure subsystems.

Last chance filters are in the pressure subsystems to prevent the oil jet from restricting oil
flow.

A convenient and safe method of checking for slight oil flow restrictions at oil jets due to
coking is to?

Flow check with Freon and measure the pressure drop.

Due to their location in the engine, last chance filters are cleaned?

Only at overhaul

After the oil has completed its lubricating tasks, the Scavenge oil subsystem returns the
oil to the de-aerator in the oil tank.

Scavenge oil pumps are similar in design to pumps used in the pressure subsystems.

The terminating point of the Scavenge subsystems is a component in the oil tank called a
de-aerator which removes air from the oil.

Chip Detectors are located in the Scavenge oil system; when inspected the following
applies?

(a) Metallic chips or flakes are unacceptable

(b) Residual grey metallic paste is acceptable

The type of Chip Detector that has a capability of electrically burning off non-failure
related particles in the Scavenge oil is called a Thermal Chip Detector.

Most turbine engines utilize a separate subsystem to remove air from the lubrication
system; this system is known as the Vent or Breather subsystem.

Air which is vented overboard by the Vent subsystem comes from the gas path through
main bearing oil seals.

The terminating point of the Vent subsystem is the opening to the oil tank.

The rotary separator in the Vent subsystem removes oil from air being returned to the
atmosphere.

The Vent subsystem Pressurizing and Vent Valve is used in many turbine engines, its
purpose is to?

Maintain a sea level type back pressure in the vent subsystem at altitude

At ground level, the Pressurizing and Vent Valve is open.

In a Cold Tank type lubricating system the oil cooler is located in the scavenge oil
subsystem.

In a Hot Tank type lubricating system the oil cooler is located in the pressure oil
subsystem.

In both Hot and Cold Tank systems, the oil cooler can be either a fuel-cooled unit or an (a)
air cooled unit.

When a turbine engine shuts down in flight it is called a flame out.

Engine flame out is often caused by air in the fuel system which blocks normal flow, this
blockage is called vapor lock.

The pilot schedules fuel to a turbine engine by means of a cockpit power lever which
sends a signal to the fuel control mounted on the engine.

The three turbine fuels in most common world wide use are?

Jet A, Jet B, and Jet A-1

Jet fuel is generally considered to be more dangerous than aviation gasolines.

Anti-icing fuel additives prevent water in fuel from icing.

TSFC is a ratio of fuel consumed to thrust produced.

TSFC is lowest during cruise operation.

The Stoichiometric mixture for a turbine engine is 15 to 1: air to fuel ratio.

The pilot sends a manual signal to the fuel control via the power lever; the fuel control
also receives many automatic signals from the engine.

Fuel metering for turbine engines is Not accomplished by scheduling volume of fuel flow,
but rather by pounds of fuel flow.

Fuel is schedule by weight rather than by volume because the PPH of fuel per pound is
constant regardless of fuel temperature.

Differential pressure across the main metering valve establishes a linear relationship
between flow area and weight of fuel passing that point.

The relationship that exists between the main metering valve orifice area and weight of
fuel flow is referred to as?

A linear relationship

The Electro-Hydro-mechanical fuel control operates by receiving?

Basic engine parameters such as speeds, temperatures & pressures

Whereas flight engines receive two types of fuel controlling signals, the APU fuel system
receives only the manual signals.

The signal that is absent in the APU fuel system is the power lever.

The function of the acceleration and overload thermostat in the APUs exhaust is to?

Dump control air and prevent hot starts

Maximum power and idle RPM adjustments are made with the engine running, this
operation is called?

Trimming

After the Trim check is completed, and Acceleration check and a Throttle Cushion Check
are often required.

Part Power Trim means the fuel control is adjusted while the engine is running at less
than takeoff power.

Trimming an EPR Rated engine means adjusting the fuel control in order to cause a
direct change in fuel flow to the engine.

Trimming a Speed Rated engine means adjusting the fuel control in order to cause a
direct change in fuel flow to the engine.

Checking the engine trim is in actuality a check on the maximum thrust output of the
engine.

A full Power check is performed after the Idle Power trim check has been completed.

The Data Plate check is made to determine the as is performance of a turbine engine
against its as new Performance.

During the Part Power Trim Check the engine is?

Running at less than full thrust

When the Data Plate Speed Check is out of, limits which of the following apply?

The engine must be sent to overhaul

Trim restrictions are prescribed in order to prevent a false high or low trim due primarily
to wind direction and velocity.

The two danger zones present during engine run-up are the engine inlet and the engine?

Exhaust

The most effective ear protection during engine run-up is the ear muff.

Which of the following would be a restriction when working around the perimeter of the
trim danger zone?

Do not walk within 10 feet of the inlet danger zone.

Today most turbine engines are rated for maximum power (Fg / SHP) at temperatures
above Standard Day conditions, this has become known as Flat Rating.

Flat Rated engines would have more thrust if rated at a Standard Day conditions but
thrust is down-rated to save fuel and to?

Increase service life of the engine

The unit within a Turboprop or Turbo shaft engine which continuously measures the
power being produced is called a torque meter.

The water injection system is primarily a means of increasing engine thrust during a hot
day operation or at high altitude airports.

The injection fluid used is either pure de-mineralized water or a mixture of water and
alcohol.

The fluid is injected (sprayed) into the engine at the inlet or at the compressor diffuser or
both.

The most used water injection fluid for larger aircraft?

Pure water and methanol

How much thrust increase is normally obtained from use of water injection in a turbine
engine?

40% to 50%

The typical main fuel pump is designed to deliver a fixed quantity of fuel per revolution,
and for this reason it is called a positive displacement pump.

In order for fuel supply to always meet the demand, the main fuel pump is designed to
deliver in excess of the maximum needs of the engine; with the excess being bypassed
back to the inlet of the fuel pump.

Most turbine engine fuel pumps are of the gear type.

The term positive displacement pump means that the pump will?

Deliver the same amount of fuel per revolution

The shear section in a duel fuel pump refers to the fact that if?

One pumping element fails the other will continue to operate

The fuel heater is a device which prevents water entrained in the fuel supply from icing at
the fuel filter screens.

An engine operating time when fuel heat is generally not used is during takeoff because
of the possibility of vapor lock.

If fuel heat is used over the prescribed time interval, which of the following is most likely
to occur?

Vapor lock could occur

Many fuel filters, like oil filters, have micronic ratings; but it is common to see others
with a mesh per inch rating.

When a filter is rated at 20 microns, it indicates that?

They are 20 meshes per square inch of 20 microns diameter

The two most used atomizing type fuel nozzles are the simplex and duplex.

Many duplex fuel nozzles have two distinct spray angles a, narrow angle for starting and
a wide angle for engine operation above flight idle.

The newest type atomizing fuel nozzle is the Air Blast type.

The Vaporizing Tube fuel nozzle emits a fuel- air mixture rather than an atomized fuel
spray.

Select the reason a Spin Chamber is present within each orifice of a duplex fuel nozzle?

To rotate within the nozzle and prevent carbon buildup

The pressurization and Dump Valve is used in conjunction with the dual line duplex fuel
nozzle fuel nozzles to act as a flow divider valve.

A second function of the P & D Valve is to dump fuel from the primary and secondary
fuel manifolds after engine?

Shutdown

Primary (Pilot) fuel flows along with secondary (Main) fuel when the engine is running at
high power setting.

The P & D Valve dumps its fuel into a (an) drain tank or into a return to fuel supply
system.

If tension on the Pressurizing Valve Spring in the P & D Valve is increased, which of the
following would occur?

Primary fuel will flow at a high fuel pressure

The Dump Valve is used in conjunction with the simplex fuel nozzle and single line
duplex fuel nozzle type fuel systems.

The function of the Dump Valve is to drain fuel from the fuel manifold after shutdown in
the manner of the P & D Valve.

The Combustor Drain Valve functions to remove fuel from the lower portion of the
combustion case.

This valve removes fuel from the combustor after a false start.

Which of the following forces is used to open the Combustor Drain Valve?

Spring

When the fuel system Cockpit Warning Light comes on, it shows that the fuel filter is
in a (an) complete bypass condition.

The dump line located at the Pressurizing and Dump Valve functions to discharge fuel
when the engine is shutdown.

The main fuel pump is a gear type; the boost pump is a Gear Type.

The Variable Angle Compressor Stator Vane System partially closes down on the
compressor flow area at low power settings.

When moving to the open position as power is applied, the variable vane system provides
for smooth and rapid engine acceleration.

The vane angle changes by command of the power lever.

The Variable Angle Compressor Stator Vane System is designed to?

Prevent rapid acceleration

This system assists the engine by?

Maintaining the airflow AOA within the compressor

The Bleed Band is open at low power settings and fully closed at high power settings.

The Compressor Bleed Band System, like the Variable Vane System, provides for slow
and stall free engine acceleration.

Like the Variable Vane System, the Bleed Band System maintains a vector relationship
between compressor bleed air and compressor RPM.

The Bleed Band linkage moves in conjunction with the power lever.

When the Bleed Band is open, it dumps rear Compressor air over-board; this has what
effect on the front stage airflow?

It speeds up front stage air in the axial direction

If the pilot wants to check for correct operation of the Bleed Band, he can observe which
cockpit indicator?

EGT indicator for low reading when band is open

The engine anti-icing system prevents ice formation at the engine inlet.

Hot air is supplied to inlet anti-icing discharge ports from the rear stages of the
compressor.

Some larger engines are not fitted with anti-ice systems because they have no tendency to
form inlet ice due to the centrifugal effect of the fan.

When Anti-ice is selected, an indicator light illuminates in the cockpit and the EGT
Gauge generally shows a slight rise.

Inlet icing is most prevalent at which operating condition in flight.

If the engine is operating on the ground without anti-ice and the pilot suspects inlet ice
buildup is causing a compressor stall, he should?

Turn on the anti ice system to clear the ice

The starter provides the engine with sufficient air for combustion by rotating the
Compressor by way of the accessory drive Gearbox.

When starting power is low, the Compressor air supply to the combustor will also be low.
This could result in a hot start.

The Starter is normally disengaged just above idle power.

Electric starters are common only to auxiliary turbine engines.

Electric starters are not generally used on large engines because of their low power to
torque ratio.

A turbine engine starter is designed to rotate the compressor to?

Above engine self accelerating speed

Along with the Over running Clutch, a Friction Clutch is also provided in the electric
starter to?

Slip if the starter tries to over-speed

The starter generator unit is more widely used on small turbine powered aircraft because
it takes the place of two accessories and saves on weight.

This type starter is not fitted with an engage/disengage type clutch mechanism similar to
the electric starter.

Because the Air Turbine Starter has a high power to weight ratio, it is used on most large
turbine engines.

This starter is operated by air from an APU, GPU or Cross Bleed air to provide high
pressure air supply of approximately 50 psig.

Pneumatic Starters are fitted with an overrunning clutch to prevent the engine from
driving the starter to burst speed.

As compared to the Electric Starter, the Pneumatic Starter is approximately only to?

1/5 of the weight

The Starter Pressure Regulating and shut Off Valve controls air pressure to the
Impingement Starter.

This valve is both an open-close type and a regulating valve.

If the manual T-Handle is used to shut off the air supply, it must be accomplished at a
prescribed N2 compressor speed to prevent starter over-speed.

An option available with a cross bleed system is to start the first engine using the APU,
then to start the remaining engine(s) with air from the operating engine.

The High-Low Pressure type Pneumatic Starter gives the turbine engine a self starting
capability.

The Cartridge-Pneumatic Starter is powered by either low pressure air in the manner of a
Pneumatic Starter or by an electrical start.

The Fuel-Air Combustion Starter is powered by a high pressure air supply in conjunction
with internal combustion.

Turbine Impingement Starting utilizes a high volume air supply directed onto the
starters turbine wheel.

Which Starting system requires no starter unit?

Cartridge-Pneumatic

The two classifications of ignition systems most used today are the low tension and the
high tension.

The typical turbine engine ignition system contains two igniters.

The turbine engine ignition system is used primarily for engine starting.

Other times when ignition is used include takeoff, landing and bad weather operation and
when in anti-ice operation to prevent in-flight flame-out.

Two types of main systems are the Extended Duty and the Intermittent Duty.

A compressor Discharge Sensor is most closely associated with the Auto-Ignition Circuit.

The correct statement in reference to the main ignition system?

After combustion occurs, ignition is terminated

The Continuous Ignition system is used exclusively in-flight.

Special handling measures must be taken when working on ignition systems because the
electrical charge contained within the capacitors can be lethal.

The igniter plugs also present a safety hazard because some types contain small amounts
of toxic material.

Turbine ignition systems are rated in joules; which is defined as watts multiplied by
amperage.

The semi-conductor material at the tip of the igniter plug is the means by which the Low
Tension system fires easily at low voltages.

The igniter plug semi-conductor is first a good conductor but when heated becomes a
switch to create the required flashover.

Extended Duty low tension systems are the older types.

High Tension systems are in the range of 14,000 to 28,000 volts.

The High Tension system does not use a semi-conductor material to ionize the igniter tip
air gap, but instead it uses a storage transformer and capacitor.

Regardless of input voltage, either AC or DC, turbine ignition systems produce a DC

output voltage.

One advantage the High Tension system has over the Low Tension system is that it is
better able to blast away accumulated carbon to clear the firing tip.

Which system has the longest permissible operating time Low Tension system.

Which advantage best refers to the Low Tension system?

It is less hazardous to maintain

Care must be taken to use only the authorized igniter plugs because the position of the
firing tip into the combustion liner is critical.

Cleaning requirements for high and low tension igniter plugs are quite different because
of the construction material used at the firing end.

Engine instruments in the cockpit are classified as either Condition Instruments or

Performance Instruments.

The EPR gauge is an example of an engine Performance Instrument.

The EGT gauge is an example of an engine Condition Instrument.

Due to lack of cooling air during starting, it is a critical time during which the EGT
Gauge must be closely monitored.

Regardless of the position of the thermocouple probe in the engine, its signal to the
cockpit ensures that safe EGT station temperatures are being maintained.

The typical EGT system contains a bimetallic wiring circuit of Chromel and Alumel
wiring.

EGT circuits are calibrated to maintain a very specific total circuit resistance in order to
accurately measure temperature.

Because each EGT circuit must maintain a specific resistance value, wire length cannot
be increased because it will induce?

High resistance

If total circuit resistance increases, what happens to the EGT indication?

It will read false low

The traditional electrical Tachometer Indicating system contains?

(a) A three phase DC generator mounted on an engine drive pad.

(b) A motor driven indicator mounted on the engine

The newer electronic Tachometer Indicating systems uses an amplified signal received
from an engine mounted vibration pickup.

Both types of Tachometer Indicating systems read out in Percent RPM.

The purpose of the percent RPM indicator is to monitor rotor speeds, and on some
engines to monitor engine power.

When N1 speed is used as a thrust indicator, in actuality which engine rotor speed is
being displayed?

Fan/low pressure compressor speed

The source of signal for the electronic N1 speed cockpit indicator is?

An engine mounted Tachometer generator

The two engine air pressure signals transmitted to the EPR system are?

(a) Compressor inlet pressure

(b) Compressor discharge pressure

The EPR indicator displays a numerical readout as an indication of engine thrust.

The two most common Torque sensing systems are the hydro-mechanical and the
Hydraulic Types.

The torque indication of an engine is most closely associated with the horsepower output
of the engine.

A Torque-meter Indicating system measures twisting forces between the engine drive and
the propeller shaft.

The Vane Type flow meter transmitter operates on a volume of flow condition, but when
it sends its signal to a cockpit flow meter indicator it displays in pounds per hour (PPH).

The Synchronous Mass-flow Type flow meter transmitter measures the Massflow of
fuel through its mechanisms and thereby accounts for changes in pressure of the fuel.

The Motor-less Mass-flow Type flow meter transmitter utilizes a system of rotating
magnets to create an indication of fuel consumed by the engine, the magnets are rotated
by magnetic forces.

The indicator in a Mass flow type flow meter system displays in which values?

Pounds per hour

They are two common types of oil temperature indicating systems which are?

(a) Temperature sensing bulb type, 28 VDC powered

(b) Thermocouple probe type, self generating power

The thermocouple circuit is similar to the EGT except that the bimetallic wiring is iron
and constantan alloys.

The oil pressure transmitter receives two input signals from the engine lubrication system,
these signals are from the?

Pressure and Vent system

With the above oil pressure indicating system, when high vent pressure occurs, a low oil
pressure readout displays on the cockpit gauge.

When troubleshooting for oil pressure problems, two direct pressure gauges are required,
one tapped into the oil pressure subsystem and another tapped into the oil vent subsystem.

The Oil Temperature Sensor would most likely be located at which point in the engine?

The oil pressure subsystem

When the contact points of a single wire thermal switch are open, the switch is cool.

When the vent pressure is excessively high in either the positive vent type system or the
negative vent type, what would occur in the regulated oil pressure system?

Oil flow will decrease to the engine main bearing

When a solid red flag shows on a column type gauge, this indicates?

Power is off to the instrument

The two basic fire zones on turbine engines which require surveillance are the
compressor section and combustor section.

Two of the most commonly seen fire detection systems are the single wire thermal switch
and the dual wire thermal switch.

The single wire system can withstand one open circuit and continue to provide complete
fire/overheat surveillance.

The two wire thermal switch circuit can withstand one circuit and one short circuit(s) and
continue to provide complete fire / overheat surveillance.

The electrical detector circuits most used where fire zones cover greater areas are the
single wire and the dual Continuous Loop systems.

Another fire detector system utilizes a tube filled with a gas; which expands when heated
and alerts an alarm circuit.

The type of fire detector system most seen on large turbine engines is the?
Continuous Loop

After an extinguishing agent is discharged into the cowling area surrounding a turbine
engine, a flushing procedure is normally required to prevent corrosion damage.

The device that releases the agent from the fire extinguisher bottle is usually a (an)
explosive charge.

The two categories of engine operating procedures are standard and emergency.

The engine purging procedure is accomplished to remove fuel vapors from a turbine
engine.

To perform an engine restart during flight, the starter is not generally required.

Takeoff Wet power rating refers to engine operation in water injection mode.

Takeoff Dry power rating refers to engine operation without the aid of water injection
mode.

Maximum cruise power rating has no time limit.

The two most important cockpit gauges to monitor during engine starting is RPM % and
EGT.

Climb and Cruise power setting are selected by way of fan Speed, EPR or Torque.

The reason that RPM must be allowed to stabilize prior to shutdown is to prevent uneven
cooling in the hot section.

During takeoff, too rapid a power lever movement will cause high EGT peaks which
likely result in?

Compressor stall

Too rapid a shutdown procedure from idle can lead to an incorrect?

EGT reading

If the swash plate of a positive displacement swash plate pump is perpendicular to the
axis of the pump, the flow will be?

What moves the swash plate, away from the minimum stroke position?

The burner fuel flow is at max at?

How is servo pressure which is used to control fuel pump swash plate angle obtained?

A gas turbine engine is stopped by closing?

What would be the effect on the engine if the BPC half valve in the servo line sticks open?

Why is an ACU fitted to a gas turbine engine?

If the fuel pump servo pressure is reduced, pump output will?

Which component corrects for air density effects on fuel/air mixture in a gas turbine
engine?

The barometric pressure control

Why is the BPC fitted in a GT engine fuel system?

A kinetic valve is a device used to control HP pump output. This is achieved by

movement of a?

Knife blade

Specific fuel consumption at altitude will remain the same.

During any stabilized running condition the spill or half ball valve is lightly seated.

What position is the swash plate in, when the engine is stationary?

Max Stroke

What is the purpose of the attenuator fitted between the HP fuel pump and the BPC in a
gas turbine engine fuel system?

Why is the hydro-mechanical governor fitted to a GT engine fuel pump?

To enable efficient control of fuel flow to be maintained at altitude

A Barometric pressure control controls?

Fuel flow to suit atmospheric pressure changes

Kinetic valves are used because?

They are more sensitive

When considering a centrifugal type engine speed governor, an increase in fuel SG will
cause?

AIRFRAME ESSAY

Why is it necessary to establish the Weight and Balance of an A / C? What are the
considerations to be taken? And when weighting the aircraft?
It is necessary to establish the Weight and Balance of an aircraft so as to ascertain the
aircrafts basic weight and consequently the position of the C of G.
Firstly the Basic Weight of the aircraft is the weight of the structure, all inconsumable
fluids and all equipment that would be common to all roles of operation. Thus once the
weight is established, using the MTWA, stipulated by the manufacturer, the max Payload
of the A /C will be calculated. The Payload which refers to the Weight of the passengers,
crew, baggage, consumable fluid and any additional role equipment which gives the
operators the information to plan flights so as not to exceed the MTWA.
(Why is this important)
(What is C of G)?
Secondly, establishing the C of G and ensuring it is within limits stipulated by the
manufacturers is absolutely critical to maintain the safety of the a/c in flight. Whenever
the C of G is shifted out of the limits, the stability of the a/c is jeopardized resulting in the
a/c becoming difficult to control or even uncontrollable. Thus by knowing the position of
the C of G enables the manufacturers and operators to produce a Load Distribution Chart,
stipulating how load place in the a/c must be positioned to ensure the C of G remains
within its limits.
One must always remain cognesant of the fact the CG changes in flight as the attitude of
the a/c changes as well as when consumable fluids e.g. fuels, are used up.
Finally the Weight and Balance of all A / C is required by law as stated in the A.N.O.
Weighting Considerations
The aircraft must be in an enclosed environment free from wind
The aircraft must be on a level surface
Only inconsumable fluids and no cargo must be in aircraft
The weighing scale must be reading properly before use

What are the possible causes for the appearance of wrinkles under the wing?

The appearance of wrinkles on the skin beneath the wing is a definite indication of the
wing having been subjected to excessive bending or compression loads. These excessive
loads could have been imposed as the result of a heavy or Overweight or the a/c flying
through heavy turbulence. A heavy landing would have occurred if the a/c was put down
with either a high vertical descent velocity and or more than the max landing weight
stipulated. This landing would have caused great flexing of the wing on touchdown, most
likely exceed structural design limitations.
Flying in heavy turbulence would cause excessive flexing of the wings due to the large
aerodynamic loads imposed on the a/c.
Both of the above occurrences would be responsible for the wrinkling of the skin of the
wing due to the excessive amount of loads imposed on the structure.

How are crack identified using a Dye Penetrant Test?

Dye Penetrant tests, identifies cracks and other surface defects on materials by using dyes
to create a colour contrast against a background. The Penetrant used is dyed bright red.
When applied to the surface it seeps into any cracks or holes present in the surface. After
a specified dwell time (penetration time), any excess penetrant is removed from the
surface by the specified method. A developer agent (white chalk) is then applied in a thin,
even coat across the surface. This developer serves to absorb any penetrant that would
have seeped into the cracks. Thus the cracks would be identified by the red stain (usually
a thin line) that would show up against the white background of the developer.
Some penetrants contain fluorescent particles, making even more visible under ultra
violet lights. This allows for even better identification of minute cracks. It is imperative,
to the success of the process, that the surface being examined has been thoroughly
cleaned and degreased so as to ensure full penetration of the penetrant.

On Preflight the Pitot is found blocked. Discussed rectification and certification.

Firstly, upon finding this fault, the appropriate M/M must be referred to for the correct
procedure or guidelines for clearing the pitot. Then, the pitot line should be disconnected
from behind the RSI instrument. Using moisture free air supply, a positive pressure, as
stipulated in the M/M, should be applied to the line so as to force any obstruction out of
the pitot tube. This is done until there is a free flow of air felt coming out of the pitot. The
line is then reconnected to the instrument. The pitot system should then be recalibrated as
outlined in the M/M. If required, the use of test equipment should be performed by an
appropriately trained and Licensed Engineer. Finally a worksheet, documenting the
defect and subsequent steps of rectification should be should be prepared and the affixed
CRS signed by the appropriately type rated engineer

List the checks that should be carried out on a Cable run during inspection?

During inspection, as much of the cable run as is accessible must be inspected for any
defects that may render the cable unserviceable. The following checks should be carried
out:-

a) Operate the system so as to ensure free movement of the cable in both directions.
b) Inspect the length of cable for signs of corrosion which would deem the cable
unserviceable.
c) Look also for signs of chafing i.e. shiny spots along the run.
d) Run a cloth along as much of the cable run as possible in both directions in search
of broken wires, at the same time look for kinks or signs of bird-caging.
e) Inspect all pulleys in the run for free rotation in both directions; also check all
fairleads and areas where cables pass through structural members, e.g. lightening
holes. Look for signs of the cable rubbing against these surfaces.
f) If the a/c is pressurized, inspect all seals at the points where the cable runs
through the sealed sectors.
g) Check the tension of the cable run, against the figures and limits stated in the
M/M. Use a tension-meter and connect it in the centre of the longest unsupported
run. Adjust the tension using the turnbuckles as necessary.
h) Finally, ensure all turnbuckles are in safety and that the end fittings of the cables,
whether swaged or spliced are in perfect condition.

Pilot reports excessive force is needed to turn aileron in flight. Describe checks and
certification?

1. The need for excessive force to turn the aileron would be likely result of some
form of obstruction in the control run between the control column wheel and the
surface. Firstly the M/M should be consulted for diagrammatical layout of the
control run and for troubleshooting procedures. Secondly, the ailerons should be
operated from the cockpit so as to get a feel of the amount and type of resistance
present in the system. Run attention should be paid to any sounds of chafing or
knocking that might be heard. Next disconnect the control run at the points just
before the ailerons and physically move them up and down through their full
travel so as to verify the serviceability of the hinge point bearings.

2. Should the bearings at hinge points be found in good condition the entire control
run would have to be inspected, starting at one end and moving to the other.
Checks should be made for:
a) Seized bearings or rollers on all bell cranks and rod end
b) Seized cable pulleys and guiding rollers for rods
c) Shine spots on the cable, which would indicate chafing, and broken wires
or bird caging all which obstruct free movement
d) All fairleads and surfaces through or near to which cables pass must be
checked for any signs of grazing such as nicks, which may cause the cable
to stick. Should any faults be identified, it should be certified IAW the
relevant M/M. All loosed connectors should be reconnected and safety and
the cable tensions checked IAW the M/M.
e) Ensure a duplicate inspection is to be performed by two appropriately type
rated engineers. Finally, the snag should be cleared in the Tech Log as
well as a work sheet prepared then both inspecting engineers will sign the
CRS both in the Tech Log and on the work sheet, so that the a/c can return
service.

Pilot reports a poor climb out performance assuming the engine is satisfactory, what
could be the cause from an airframe of viewpoint?

The flaps may be at the incorrect angle during takeoff as specified in the M/M.
The a/c may be overweight causing CG to be displaced aft or forward from the position
specified by the M/M.
The up travel of the elevator is not IAW with the M/M.

Explain why there is two static ports on an A/C and how you carry out a serviceability
check on a pitot static test?

The static vent measures still or static ambient air pressure that surrounds the A/C. It is
common practice to install two static vents, one located on each side of the a/c and they
are normally cross connected. The cross connection reduces errors in the measuring
instruments due to a pressure unbalance whenever the aircraft yaws which causes an
increase in dynamic pressure on the surface of the a/c.

The serviceability checks for any pitot static system are usually detailed in the a/c MM.
However, there are certain serviceability checks that apply to all pitot static systems.
These are:
Pitot tubes and their supporting area should be inspected for security of
mounting and evidence of damage
Ensure that all electrical connections are secure
The pitot pressure entry hole, drain holes and static holes or ports should be
inspected to ensure that they are unobstructed
Heating elements should be checked for functioning by ensuring that the pitot
tube begins to warm up when the heater is switched ON.