WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

1 Which of the following is not a benefit of DHCP?
A = centralized administration of IP configuration
B = dynamic host configuration
C = seamless IP host configuration
D = portability of workstations
correct = D
EXPLANATION = DHCP provides five key benefits to those
managing and maintaining a TCP/IP network. These are
centralized administration of IP configuration, dynamic host
configuration, seamless IP host configuration, scalability, and
flexibility.
2 Which of the following is not a component of DNS?
A = DNS namespace
B = DNS zones
C = DNS resource records
D = DNS relay agent
correct = D
EXPLANATION = The components of DNS include the DNS
namespace, DNS zones, DNS name servers, and DNS resource
records.
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3 A starting address of 192.0.0.0 and an ending address of
223.255.255.255 is a member of which network class?
A = Class A
B = Class B
C = Class C
D = Class D
correct = C
EXPLANATION = A Class C address falls in between the
192.0.0.0223.255.255.255 range.

4 Which of the following is not a function of DHCP?
A = transmitting data from one network to another
B = bootstrapping diskless workstations
C = automating the assigning, tracking, and reassigning of IP
addresses
D = dynamically allocating an IP address from a pool of
addresses
correct = A
EXPLANATION = DHCP may be based on BOOTP, but it
extends its predecessor in several ways. Rather than push
preconfigured parameters to expected clients, DHCP can
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dynamically allocate an IP address from a pool of addresses and
then reclaim it when it is no longer needed. Because this process
is dynamic, no duplicate addresses are assigned by a properly
configured DHCP server and administrators can move
computers between subnets without manually configuring them.
In addition, a large number of standard configuration and
platform-specific parameters can be specified and dynamically
delivered to the client. Thus, DHCP provides important
functions beyond simply bootstrapping diskless workstations,
and it is often used to automatically configure networking after
systems are booted.

5 If a system will be a DHCP server, what type of address
should you set?
A = automatic private IP address
B = fixed IP address
C = static IP address
D = none of the above
correct = C
EXPLANATION = If a system will be a DHCP server, you
should set a static IP address because that will be required when
you try to set up the DHCP server role.
WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]
VIVEK KUMAR SINGH
6 What is the minimum number of physical computers required
to allow you to use a KMS key?
A = 20 Vista and ten Windows Server 2008 computers
B = 20 Vista and five Windows Server 2008 computers
C = 15 Vista and ten Windows Server 2008 computers
D = 25 Vista and five Windows Server 2008 computers
correct = D
EXPLANATION = The minimum number of physical
computers required to allow you to use a KMS key is 25 Vista
computers and five Windows Server 2008 computers. Any
computer on your network that has been activated by an internal
KMS host will attempt to check inwith the KMS host every
seven days and will be required to connect to that host at least
once every 180 days to maintain its license.

7 A striped volume uses which type of striping to interleave data
across the disks?
A = RAID-6
B = RAID-4
C = RAID-0
D = RAID-5
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correct = C
EXPLANATION = A striped volume is similar to a spanned
volume in that it is made up of free space from multiple disks.
Unlike a spanned volume, however, a striped volume uses
RAID-0 striping to interleave data across the disks, thus
improving the read performance of the volume.

8 A computer running Server Core will allow you to launch
which of the following consoles?
A = Computer Management
B = Active Directory Users and Computer
C = Windows Registry Editor
D = None of the above
correct = C
EXPLANATION = A Server Core computer will allow you to
launch the Windows Registry Editor, Notepad, and a number of
Control Panel applets. However, it does not include a Start menu
and does not allow you to install or run any of the MMC
consoles, such as Computer Management or Active Directory
Users and Computer.

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]
VIVEK KUMAR SINGH
9 BOOTP enables a TCP/IP workstation to retrieve settings for
all of the configuration parameters it needs to run excluding
which option?
A = subnet mask
B = default gateway
C = workstation settings
D = IP address
correct = C
EXPLANATION = BOOTP, which is still in use today, enables
a TCP/IP workstation to retrieve settings for all of the
configuration parameters it needs to run including an IP address,
a subnet mask, a default gateway, and Domain Name System
(DNS) server addresses.

10 The initial DHCP lease process is accomplished by using a
series of exchanges between a DHCP client and DHCP server
that utilizes four messages. Which of the following is not a
message that is used?
A = DHCPDISCOVER
B = DHCPOFFER
C = DHCPRELEASE
D = DHCPACK
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correct = C
EXPLANATION = A DHCPRELEASE message is sent by a
DHCP client to a DHCP server to relinquish an IP address and
cancel the remaining lease. This message type is sent to the
server that provided the lease.

11 Which of the following is not a database function used to
manage the DHCP database?
A = compact
B = reconciliation
C = connect
D = restore
correct = C
EXPLANATION = Your network is constantly changing. New
servers are added, and existing servers are changing roles or are
removed from the network altogether. Therefore, you must both
monitor and manage the DHCP service to ensure that it is
meeting the needs of the organization. Specifically, you must
manage the DHCP database by performing the following
database functions backup and restore, reconciliation,
compacting the database, and removing the database.
12 A DHCP client will perform the initial lease process in all of
the following situations with the exception of __________.
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A = the very first time the client boots
B = after every reboot
C = after releasing the IP address
D = after receiving a DHCPNACK message
correct = B
EXPLANATION = A DHCP client will perform the initial lease
process in the following situations the very first time the client
boots, after releasing the IP Address, and after receiving a
DHCPNACK message.

13 In a Windows Server 2008 network, the primary means of
locating network devices and network services is through the
use of __________.
A = DHCP
B = DNS
C = TCP/IP
D = BOOTP
correct = B
EXPLANATION = In a Windows Server 2008 network, the
primary means of locating network devices and network services
is through the use of the Domain Name System, or DNS.
WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]
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14 DNS zone file resource records are represented as
__________.
A = binary packets
B = DHCP data entries
C = form packets
D = text entries
correct = D
EXPLANATION = Resource records are represented in binary
form in packets when queries and responses are made using
DNS. In DNS zone files, however, resource records are
represented as text entries.

15 Which zone is a copy of a zone that contains only those
resource records necessary to identify the authoritative DNS
servers for that zone?
A = standard primary zone
B = standard secondary zone
C = reverse lookup zone
D = stub zone
correct = D
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EXPLANATION = A copy of the zone file may be stored on
one or more servers to balance network load, provide fault
tolerance, or avoid forcing queries across a slow, wide area
network (WAN) link. This standard secondary zone is a read-
only copy of the standard primary DNS zone.

16 After sending a zone transfer request, which option shows
how long (in seconds) the zones secondary server waits before
sending another request?
A = Refresh
B = Retry
C = Expire
D = Minimum TTL
correct = B
EXPLANATION = After sending a zone transfer request, the
Retry field shows how long (in seconds) the zones secondary
server waits before sending another request.

17 For best results, the internetwork should be limited to fewer
than how many subnets with an easily predicted traffic pattern
(such as arranged consecutively in a straight line)?
A = 5
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B = 7
C = 10
D = 12
correct = C
EXPLANATION = A static-routed IP environment is best suited
to small, single-path, static IP internetworks. By definition,
static-routed networks do not use routing protocols, such as RIP
or OSPF, to communicate routing information between routers.
For best results, the internetwork should be limited to fewer than
10 subnets with an easily predicted traffic pattern (such as
arranged consecutively in a straight line). Of course, a static-
routed IP environment is appropriate only as long as the routes
in the environment remain the same.

18 Of the four types of routes that can be found in a routing
table, which of the following cannot be found?
A = directly attached network routes
B = remote network routes
C = client routes
D = host routes
correct = C
WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]
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EXPLANATION = Four types of routes can be found in a
routing table. These are directly attached network routes, remote
network routes, host routes, and default routes.

19 Which generic authentication method offers encryption of
authentication data through the MD5 hashing scheme?
A = Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
B = Shiva Password Authentication Protocol (SPAP)
C = Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
D = Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (EAP-MD5
CHAP)
correct = C
EXPLANATION = CHAP is a generic authentication method
that offers encryption of authentication data through the MD5
hashing scheme.

20 One example of an NPS Policy Setting includes IP properties
that specify IP address assignment behavior. Which of the
following is not an option?
A = Server Must Supply an IP Address
B = Client Must Supply an IP Address
WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]
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C = Client May Request an IP Address
D = Server Settings Determine IP Address Assignment
correct = B
EXPLANATION = One example of an NPS Policy Setting
includes IP properties that specify IP address assignment
behavior. You have the following options Server Must Supply
an IP Address, Client May Request An IP Address, Server
Settings Determine IP Address Assignment, and Assign A Static
IP Address.

21 The process of deploying and configuring a simple file server
using Windows Server 2008 includes many of the most basic
server administration tasks, including all of the following except
__________.
A = installing disks
B = partitioning drives
C = assigning permissions
D = creating shares
correct = B
EXPLANATION = The process of deploying and configuring a
simple file server using Windows Server 2008 includes many of
the most basic server administration tasks including installing
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disks, creating shares, assigning permissions, and mapping drive
letters.

22 Generally speaking, a well-designed sharing strategy
provides each user with all of the following resources except
__________ storage space.
A = public
B = virtual
C = private
D = shared
correct = B
EXPLANATION = Generally speaking, a well-designed sharing
strategy provides each user with three resources a private
storage space, such as a home folder, to which the user has
exclusive access; a public storage space, where each user can
store files that they want colleagues to be able to access; and
access to a shared work space for communal and collaborative
documents.
23 What volume type consists of space on three or more
physical disks, all of which must be dynamic disks?
A = simple
B = spanned
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C = striped
D = RAID-5
correct = D
EXPLANATION = A RAID-5 volume consists of space on
three or more physical disks, all of which must be dynamic
disks. The system stripes data and parity information across all
of the disks so that if one physical disk fails, the missing data
can be recreated using the parity information on the other disks.

24 Most personal computers use basic disks because they are the
easiest to manage. A basic disk uses what type of partitions and
drives?
A = primary partitions, extended partitions, and logical disks
B = primary partitions, virtual partitions, and logical disks
C = primary partitions, extended partitions, and virtual disks
D = primary partitions, logical partitions, and virtual disks
correct = A
EXPLANATION = Most personal computers use basic disks
because they are the easiest to manage. A basic disk uses
primary partitions, extended partitions, and logical drives to
organize data.
WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]
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25 Printing in Microsoft Windows typically involves all of the
following components except a __________.
A = print device
B = print router
C = printer
D = printer driver
correct = B
EXPLANATION = Printing in Microsoft Windows typically
involves the following four components the print device, printer,
print server, and printer driver.

26 To set printer priorities, you must do all of the following
except __________.
A = create multiple printers
B = create multiple print users
C = modify printer priorities
D = associate printers with the same print device
correct = B
EXPLANATION = In some s, you might want to give certain
users in your organization priority access to a print device so
that when print traffic is heavy, their jobs are processed before
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those of other users. To do this, you must create multiple
printers, associate them with the same print device, and then
modify their priorities.

27 The XML Paper Specification format is included with which
of the following operating systems by default?
A = Windows Vista
B = Windows XP
C = Windows Server 2003
D = Windows NT
correct = A
EXPLANATION = XML Paper Specification (XPS) is a new,
platform-independent document format included with Windows
Server 2008 and Windows Vista in which print job files use a
single XPS format for their entire journey to the print device
rather than being converted first to EMS and then later to PCL.

28 What is one of the major problems for printing
administrators on large enterprise networks?
A = keeping track of roles and permissions
B = keeping track of print utilization
WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]
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C = keeping track of users and permissions
D = keeping track of print devices
correct = D
EXPLANATION = One of the major problems for printing
administrators on large enterprise networks is keeping track of
dozens or hundreds of print devices, all in frequent use and all
needing attention on a regular basis. Whether the maintenance
required is a major repair, replenishing ink or toner, or just
filling the paper trays, print devices will not get the attention
they need until an administrator is aware of the problem.

29 Which of the following are the specific processes or events
that you want to track?
A = configuration information
B = event trace data
C = performance counters
D = none of the above
correct = C
EXPLANATION = Performance counters are the specific
processes or events that you want to track, and new performance
counters are exposed within the Reliability and Performance
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Monitor as you add additional roles and services to a particular
server.

30 Which log should be the first place you look when you
suspect a problem with Active Directory?
A = Event Viewer
B = Directory Service
C = Service Monitor
D = Event Monitor
correct = B
EXPLANATION = The Directory Service log is created when
Active Directory is installed. It logs informational events such as
service start and stop messages, errors, and warnings. This log
should be the first place you look when you suspect a problem
with Active Directory.

31 Updates that can be deployed via WSUS can include all of
the following except __________.
A = security fixes
B = critical updates
C = additional user experience features
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D = critical drivers
correct = C
EXPLANATION = Updates that can be deployed via WSUS
can include security fixes, critical updates, and critical drivers.
These updates resolve known security vulnerabilities and
stability issues in the Windows XP, Windows Vista, Windows
Server 2003, and Windows Server 2008 operating systems.

32 From where can a server that runs WSUS be synchronized?
A = public Windows Update servers
B = another server running WSUS
C = manually configured content distribution point
D = all of the above
correct = D
EXPLANATION = A server that runs WSUS can be
synchronized from the public Windows Update servers, from
another server running WSUS, or from a manually configured
content distribution point. WSUS servers can download and
store content locally, or they can use the content on the
Windows Update Website.

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33 What suite of protocols was introduced to provide a series of
cryptographic algorithms that can be used to provide security for
all TCP/IP hosts at the Internet layer, regardless of the actual
application that is sending or receiving data?
A = IPSec
B = checksum
C = TCP
D = UDP
correct = A
EXPLANATION = To address this, the IPSec suite of protocols
was introduced to provide a series of cryptographic algorithms
that can be used to provide security for all TCP/IP hosts at the
Internet layer, regardless of the actual application that is sending
or receiving data.

34 IKE main mode has a default lifetime of __________ hours.
A = 6
B = 8
C = 10
D = 12
correct = B
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EXPLANATION = IKE main mode has a default lifetime of 8
hours, but this number is configurable from 5 minutes to a
maximum of 48 hours.

35 What allows traffic that is defined in one direction to also be
defined in the opposite direction?
A = manifestation
B = reflection
C = mirroring
D = evidencing
correct = C
EXPLANATION = An IP filter can be mirrored, meaning that
traffic defined in one direction will also be defined in the
opposite direction.

36 What is the default authentication protocol in an Active
Directory network?
A = Kerberos v5
B = LM Authentication
C = NTLM Authentication
D = NTLMv2 Authentication
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correct = A
EXPLANATION = The default authentication protocol in an
Active Directory network is the Kerberos v5 protocol.

37 Which of the following provides a detailed EXPLANATION
of how a particular Certification Authority manages certificates
and keys?
A = smart card
B = certificate template
C = Certificate Revocation List
D = Certificate Practice Statement
correct = D
EXPLANATION = A Certificate Practice Statement (CPS)
provides a detailed EXPLANATION of how a particular
Certification Authority manages certificates and keys.

38 Which security role is tasked with issuing and managing
certificates, including approving certificate enrollment and
revocation requests?
A = CA Administrator
B = Certificate Manager
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C = Backup Operator
D = Auditor
correct = B
EXPLANATION = Certificate managers are tasked with issuing
and managing certificates, including approving certificate
enrollment and revocation requests.

39 The IPSec NAP enforcement method relies on which type of
PKI certificate to perform its enforcements?
A = IPSec certificate
B = NAP certificate
C = health certificate
D = recovery certificate
correct = C
EXPLANATION = Enforcement Servers receive information
from the Enforcement Clients on each client, which is then
consumed by other components of the NAP server-side
architecture. Depending on the enforcement method in use, a
NAP enforcement point can take a number of different forms,
such as an 802.1X-capable Wireless Access Point for 802.1X
enforcement, a Windows Server 2008 DHCP server for the
DHCP enforcement method, or a Health Registration Authority
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(HRA) that can obtain health certificates from client computers
when the IPSec enforcement method is used.

40 A server that operates the NAP Enforcement Server
components is referred to as a NAP __________.
A = Agent
B = enforcement point
C = enforcement server
D = none of the above
correct = B
EXPLANATION = A server that operates the NAP
Enforcement Server components is referred to as a NAP
enforcement point.

41 Shadow Copies protects against accidental file deletions that
inconvenience users and administrators on a regular basis by
using what type of fault tolerance?
A = file-based
B = index-based
C = security-based
D = user-based
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correct = A
EXPLANATION = Shadow Copies is a file-based fault
tolerance mechanism that does not provide protection against
disk failures, but does protect against accidental file deletions
that inconvenience users and administrators on a regular basis.
42 NTFS quotas are able to do which of the following?
A = execute commands
B = send e-mail notifications
C = create event log entries
D = all of the above
correct = C
EXPLANATION = NTFS quotas are also limited to creating
event log entries only, while FSRM quotas can also send e-mail
notifications, execute commands, and generate reports as well as
log events.

43 What type of backup is supported by Windows Server 2008?
A = dynamic
B = automatic
C = manual
D = none of the above
WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]
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correct = C
EXPLANATION = Windows Server 2008 supports two types of
backup manual and scheduled.

44 Which of the following prohibits users from consuming any
disk space beyond the allotted amount?
A = allotments
B = allocations
C = soft quota
D = hard quota
correct = D
EXPLANATION = A hard quota prohibits users from
consuming any disk space beyond the allotted amount, while a
soft quota allows the user storage space beyond the allotted
amount and just sends an e-mail notification to the user and/or
administrator.