POWERPLANT BOARD PROBLEMS

1. Can any refrigerant be used with a

booster system?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Used for some
D. Used for all
2. What is the chemical formula of
ethylene chloride?
A. CHCI2F
B. CH2CI2
C. CCIF3
D. CBRF3
3. What is the chemical formula of
butane?
A. C2H5CI
B. C3H8
C. C2H4O2
D. C4H10
4. Type of refrigerant control which
maintains pressure difference between
high side and low side pressure in
refrigerating mechanism.
A. Suction Valve
B. Expansion Valve
C. Service Valve
D. Solenoid Valve
5. The dividing point between the high
pressure and low pressure of the
refrigerating cycle occurs at the:
A. Expansion Valve
B. Compressor
C. Condenser
D. Cooling Coil
6. Boiling temperature of Freon 12
A. -33.33 deg C
B. -78.5 deg C
C. -29.8 deg C
D. -40.7 deg C
7. Boiling temperature of Freon 22
A. -33.33 deg F
B. -29.8 deg C
C. -78.5 deg C
D. -41.04 deg F
8. The faster way to remove frost from a
direct expansion finned tube
evaporator is to:
A. send hot gas through the coil
B. scrape off frost
C. wash with warm water
D. shut down warm let frost melt
9. You want to change refrigerants in a
Freon-12 plant using reciprocating
single acting compressor. Which
refrigerant requires the smallest
amount of change to the system?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Ammonia
C. Methyl chloride
D. Aqua ammonia
10. Soft copper tubing that is used for
refrigerant piping, erected on premises
containing other than Group 1
refrigerant must be protected by
_________.
A. supporting it by approved clamps
B. limiting its length between supports
up to 10 feet
C. a rigid or flexible metal enclosure
D. wrapping it with insulation tape
throughout its length
11. A Freon-12 refrigeration system is fitted
with thermal expansion valves. The
valves are rated in:
A. pound per minute
B. superheat setting
C. tons of refrigerant
D. cubic feet per minute
12. The vapour cycle in thermal efficiency
as the refrigeration valves. The valves
are rated in:
A. energy efficiency ratio
B. COP for a refrigerator
C. COP for a heat pump
D. Carnot efficiency
13. The main purpose of a sub cooler in a
refrigerating system especially a two-
stage system is to:
A. increase the heat rejection per ton
and avoid system shutdown
B. improve the flow of evaporator gas
per ton and increase the temperature
C. reduce the total power requirements
and return oil to the compressor
D. reduce the total power requirements
and heat rejection to the second stag
14. Ton of refrigerant is a unit equivalent
to:
A. 50.4 kCal/sec
B. 12,600 kN-m/hr
C. 3413 kW-hr
D. 2545 Btu/hr
15. In a refrigerating system, the heat
absorbed in the evaporator per kg mass
of refrigerant passing through:
A. equals the increase in enthalpy
B. does not depend on the refrigerant
used
C. is decreased if pre-cooler is used
D. equals the increase in volume
16. Lithium bromide is used in refrigeration
system in:
A. condensate return lines
B. absorbers
C. centrifugal compressors
D. ion exchangers
17. A refrigeration system in which only
part of the refrigerant passes over the
heat transfer surface is evaporated and
the balance separated from the vapour
and recirculated.
A. Direct expansion system
B. Chilled water system
C. Flooded system
D. Multiple system
18. A device whose primary function is to
meter the flow of refrigerant to the
evaporator.
A. Sniffer valve
B. Equalizer
C. Thermostatic expansion valve
D. Crossover valve
19. Select the one in which secondary
refrigerant is used.
A. Domestic refrigerator
B. Room air conditioner
C. Deep freezer
D. Ice plant
20. An odorless refrigerant whose boiling
point varies over a wide range of
temperatures.
A. Freon 22
B. Freon 12
C. Ammonia
D. Freon 11
21. The part that directs the flow of
refrigerant through the compressor.
A. wrist pin
B. valve
C. piston
D. connecting rod
22. The highest temperature in vapor
compression cycle is produced during:
A. receiver
B. evaporator
C. condenser discharge
D. compressor discharge
23. The secondary refrigerant used in milk
chilling plants is generally:
A. Brine
B. Ammonia
C. Glycol
D. Sodium Silicate
24. The sensible heat ratio is 0.8. That is
A. 20% latent heat and 60% sensible
heat
B. 80% sensible heat and 20% latent
heat
C. 80% sensible heat and 20% sensible
heat and latent heat
D. 20% latent heat and 80% sensible
heat and latent heat
25. The effect of superheating the
refrigerant is to:
A. increase the COP
B. increase and decrease the COP
C. decrease the COP
D. maintains the COP
26. The ice making capacity is always
A. directly proportional to the
refrigerating effect
B. less than the refrigerating effect
C. greater than the refrigerating effect
D. equal to the refrigerating effect
27. The amount of sensible heat for a
sensible heat ratio of 0.80 and a total
cooling load of 100 is:
A. 80
B. 20
C. 100
D. 60


28. The high pressure of refrigeration
system consist of the line to the
expansion valve, the receiver, the
uppermost half of the compressor and
the :
A. line after the expansion valve
B. lower most half of compressor
C. condenser
D. Evaporator
29. Which of the following materials is
suitable for tubing in refrigeration
application where refrigerant ammonia
is employed?
A. Plastic
B. Brass
C. Steel
D. Copper
30. If PV is the power required for a vapor-
compression refrigeration system, then
what is the power required for an air-
refrigeration system, assuming that
they have the same capacity?
A. 5PV
B. 2PV
C. PV/10
D. 1/PV
31. Tons of refrigeration in BTU/24hours is
A. 288,000
B. 28,800
C. 290,000
D. 29,000
32. R 22 is:
A. dichlorodifluoromethane
B. monochlorodifluoromethane
C. methyl chloride
D. Trichlorodifuoromethane
33. A salimeter reads the:
A. density of brine
B. rate of brine
C. dew point temperature
D. relative humidity
34. Which of the following measures the
density of salt in water?
A. salimeter
B. hydrometer
C. pitot tube
D. Calorimeter
35. What is the device used to protect the
compressor from overloading due to
high head pressure?
A. overload relay
B. hold back suction
C. thermostatic expansion valve
D. expansion valve
36. The purpose of the expansion valve is to
control the flow of the refrigerant to
the evaporator. The other function to:
A. reduce the pressure of the liquid
refrigerant
B. increase the pressure of the vapor
refrigerant
C. reduce the pressure of the vapor
refrigerant
D. increase the pressure of the liquid
refrigerant
37. It prevents the refrigerant from the
condenser to go back to the
compressor.
A. Check valve
B. Float switch
C. Expansion valve
D. Low side float
38. If the freezing point of the water is 0
degC, which of the following is its
melting point?
A. Slightly less than 0 degC
B. Slightly more than 0 degC
C. 0 degC
D. 32 degC
39. Which of the following statements is
correct? The relative humidity of an air
vapor mixture
A. is the ratio of the partial pressure of
the water vapor to the partial of the air.
B. indicates the mass of water vapor in
the mixture
C. is equal to the mole fraction of water
vapor in the mixture at the mixture
temperature
D. is the ratio of the partial pressure of
water vapor to the saturation pressure
at the mixture temperature




40. In sensible cooling process, moisture
content.
A. does not change
B. decreases
C. indeterminate
D. Increases
41. What amount of air is required in a low
bypass factor?
A. Greater
B. Lesser
C. Indeterminate
D. Constant
42. The design of an air supply duct in air
conditioning system _________.
A. adds moisture to the air
B. lowers the temperature of the air
C. does not affect the moisture of air
D. affects the distribution
43. What is the lowest temperature to
which water could possibly be cooled in
a cooling water?
A. the effective temperature
B. the temperature of adiabatic
compression
C. the wet bulb depression
D. the dew point temperature of the air
44. Combined process of cooling and
humidifying is also known as :
A. heating and humidifying
B. cooling tower
C. evaporative cooling process
D. moisture removal process
45. In a cooling tower, the water is cooled
mainly by :
A. condensation
B. evaporation
C. convection
D. Conduction
46. Which of the following types of air
dryers works by absorbing moisture on
a solid dessicant or drying material such
as activated alumina, silicon gel or
molecular sieve?
A. Regenerative dryer
B. Deliquescent dryer
C. Spray dryer
D. Refrigerated dryer
47. The relationship of water vapor in the
air at the dew point temperature to the
amount that would be in the air if the
air were saturated at the dry bulb
temperature is :
A. partial pressure actual at dew point
B. percentage humidity
C. relative humidity
D. partial pressure of water
48. When the air is saturated the wet bulb
depression is :
A. zero
B. indefinite
C. unity
D. 100%
49. A temperature measurement in an
ordinary thermometer which has
constant specific humidity.
A. Critical temperature
B. Dew point temperature
C. dry bulb temperature
D. Wet bulb temperature
50. During sensible heating, the humidity
remains constant but the relative
humidity.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. zero
51. The relative humidity becomes 100%
and where the water vapor starts to
condense.
A. Critical point
B. Saturated point
C. Dew point
D. Cloud point
52. What is the specific humidity of dry air?
A. 150
B. 100
C. 50
D. 0









53. An engineer inspected an air-
conditioning unit. He found out that the
unit does not produce any cooling
effect, however, the air-conditioning
unit is running. He checked the
temperatures of the condenser and
evaporator and had the unit run. He
found out that there was no change in
the temperature what should he do?
A. Replace fuse
B. Charge with new refrigerant
C. Replace relay
D. Adjust door seal
54. What is the temperature range of air in
air-conditioning application where the
dry air can be considered ideal gas?
A.100 to 125 degC
B. 50 to 75 degC
C. 75 to 100degC
D. -10 to 50 degC
55. What is the value of air stratification in
air conditioning design fit for human
comfort?
A. minimum
B. maximum
C. less than air temperature
D. equal to air temperature
56. Hydrometer is used to find out :
A. specific gravity of liquids
B. specific gravity of solids
C. specific gravity of gases
D. relative humidity
57. What is the clockwork operated device
which records continuously the
humidity of the atmosphere?
A. Hetrograph
B. Hydrograph
C. Hygrodeik
D. Hydrograph
58. A device whose function is to pass
information in an unchanged form or in
some modified form.
A. relay
B. sensor
C. transmitter
D. transducer
59. A general term for a device that
receives information in the form of one
or more physical quantities modifies
the information and or its form if
required and produces a resultant
output signal.
A. Converter
B. Transducer
C. Sensor
D. Scanner
60. An engine indicator is generally used to
measure what?(no.62ppt)
A. Steam temperature
B. Heat loss
C. Steam cylinder pressure
D. Gauge reading errors
61. In the process section, there is an
instrument frequently used to measure
the flow rate of fluids. What is the
instrument consisting of a vertical
passage with variable cross-sectional
area, a float and a calibrated scale?
A. Rotameter
B. Pitot tube
C. Rota aire
D. Manometer
62. What is the function of a steam
separator?
A. Trapping the steam and letting water
through
B. Throttling
C. Changing direction of the steam flow
D. Steam metering
63. What is the unit of electromagnetic
waves frequency?
A. Volts
B. Horsepower
C. Hertz
D. Knot
64. Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function
only of _______.
A. entropy
B. internal energy
C. temperature
D. Pressure
65. Which of the following is the most
efficient thermodynamic cycle?
A. Brayton
B. Otto
C. Carnot
D. Diesel

66. What is the first law of
thermodynamics?
A. internal energy is due to molecular
motions
B. entropy of the universe is increased
by irreversible processes
C. energy can neither be created nor
destroyed
D. heat energy cannot be completely
transformed into work
67. An ideal gas is compressed
isothermally. What is the enthalpy
change?
A. always positive
B. always negative
C. zero
D. Undefined
68. Name the process that has no heat
transfer
A. Isothermal
B. Isobaric
C. Polytropic
D. Adiabatic
69. An ideal gas is compressed in a cylinder
so well insulated that there is
essentially no heat transfer. The
temperature of the gas _______.
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remain constant
D. is zero
70. What is the SI unit of pressure?
A. kg/cm2
B. dynes/cm2
C. Pascal
D. Psi
71. The equation Cp = Cv + R applies to
which of the following?
A. enthalpy
B. ideal gas
C. two phase states
D. all pure substances
72. In the flow process, neglecting kinetic
and potential energies, the integral of
Vdp represents what?
A. Heat transfer
B. Flow energy
C. Enthalpy change
D. Shaft work
73. Mechanical energy of pressure
transformed into energy of heat.
A. Kinetic energy
B. Enthalpy
C. Heat exchanger
D. Heat of compression
74. The theory of changing heat into
mechanical work.
A. Thermodynamics
B. Kinematics
C. Inertia
D. Kinetics
75. Average pressure on a surface when
changing pressure conditions exist.
A. Back pressure
B. Partial pressure
C. Pressure drop
D. Mean effective pressure
76. Which of the following cycles consist
two isothermal and two constant
volume processes?
A. Diesel Cycle
B. Ericsson Cycle
C. Stirling Cycle
D. Otto Cycle
77. A control volume refers to what?
A. A fixed region in space
B. A reversible process
C. An isolated system
D. A specified mass
78. In the polytropic process, PV
N
=
constant, if the value of n is infinitely
large, the process is
A. isobaric
B. isometric
C. isothermal
D. polytropic
79. If the temperature is held constant and
the pressure is increased beyond the
saturation pressure, then the working
medium must be :
A. compressed liquid
B. subcooled liquid
C. saturated vapor
D. saturated liquid



80. Is one whose temperature is below the
saturation temperature corresponding
to its pressure
A. Superheated vapor
B. WET vapor
C. Subcooled vapor
D. Saturated liquid
81. Number of molecules in a mole of any
substance is a constant called _______.
A. Rankine constant
B. Avogadros number
C. Otto constant
D. Thompson constant
82. If the pressure of a gas is constant the
volume is directly proportional to the
absolute temperature.
A. Boyles law
B. Joules law
C. Charles's law
D. Kelvins law
83. The number of protons in the nucleus
of an atom or the number of electrons
in the orbit of an atom
A. Atomic volume
B. Atomic number
C. Atomic weight
D. Atomic mass
84. In a P-T diagram of a pure substance,
the curve separating the solid phase
from liquid phase is :
A. vaporization curve
B. fusion curve
C. boiling point
D. sublimation point
85. A water temperature of 18
o
F in the
water cooled condenser is equivalent in
o
C to _______.


A. 7.78
B. 10
C. 263.56
D. -9.44
86. The latent heat of vaporization in Joules
per kg is equal to ______.
A. 5.4 x10
2

B. 4.13x10
3

C. 22.6x10
5

D. 3.35x10
5



87. Form of energy associated with the
kinetic energy of the random motion of
large number of molecules.
A. Internal energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Heat of fusion
D. Heat
88. If the temperature is held constant and
the pressure is increased beyond the
saturation pressure, then the working
medium must be :
A. compressed liquid
B. subcooled liquid
C. saturated vapor
D. saturated liquid
89. When a substance is gaseous state
below the critical temperature, it is
called _____.
A. vapor
B. cloud
C. moisture
D. steam
90. Superheated vapor behaves
A. just as gas
B. just as steam
C. just as ordinary vapor
D. approximately as a gas
91. Which of the following provides the
basis for measuring thermodynamic
property of temperature?
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
92. Which of the following is commonly
used as liquid absorbent?
A. silica gel
B. activated alumina
C. ethylene glycol
D. none of these
93. Mechanism designed to lower the
temperature of air through it.
A. Air cooler
B. Air defense
C. Air spill over
D. Air cycle



94. A device for measuring the velocity of
wind
A. Aneroid barometer
B. Anemometer
C. Anemoscope
D. Anemograph
95. Heat normally flowing from a high
temperature body to a low temperature
body wherein it is impossible to convert
heat without other effects.
A. first law of thermodynamics
B. second law of thermodynamics
C. third law of thermodynamics
D. zeroth law of thermodynamics
96. The temperature at which its vapor
pressure is equal to the pressure
exerted on the liquid.
A. Absolute humidity
B. Calorimetry
C. Boiling point
D. Thermal point
97. A nozzle is used to
A. increase velocity and decrease
pressure
B. decrease velocity as well as pressure
C. increase velocity as well as pressure
D. decrease velocity and increase
pressure
98. The sum of the energies of all molecules
in a system where energies appear in
several complex form.
A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. internal energy
D. frictional energy
99. The total energy in a compressible or
incompressible fluid flowing across any
section in a pipeline is a function of
A. pressure and velocity
B. pressure, density and velocity
C. pressure, density, velocity and
viscosity
D. flow energy, kinetic energy, height
above the datum and internal energy
100. The ratio of the density of a substance
to the density of some standard
substance.
A. relative density
B. specific gravity
C. specific density
D. relative gravity
101. Is one whose pressure is higher than
the saturation pressure corresponding
to its temperature.
A. Compressed liquid
B. Saturated liquid
C. Saturated vapor
D. Superheated vapor
102. The changing of solid directly to vapor
without passing through the liquid state
is called
A. evaporation
B. vaporization
C. sublimation
D. Condensation
103. Weight per unit volume is termed as
______.
A. specific gravity
B. density
C. weight density
D. specific volume
104. What is the SI unit of force?
A. Pound
B. Newton
C. Kilogram
D. Dyne
105. The volume of fluid passing a cross -
section of steam in unit time.
A. Steady flow
B.Uniform flow
C. Discharge
D. Continuous flow
106. What equation applies in the first law
of thermodynamics for an ideal gas in a
reversible open steady state system?
A. Q W = U2 U1
B. Q + VdP = H2 H1
C. Q VdP = U2 U1
D. Q PdV = H2 H1
107. A pressure of 1 millibar is equivalent to
A. 1000 dynes/cm
2

B. 1000 cm of Hg
C. 1000 psi
D. 1000 kg/cm
2

108. When the system deviates
infinitesimally from equilibrium at every
instant of its state, it is undergoing :
A. isobaric process
B. quasi static process
C. isometric process
D. cyclic process
109. What is the force which tends to draw
a body toward the center about which
it is rotating?
A. centrifugal force
B. centrifugal motion
C. centrifugal advance
D. centripetal force
110. Which of the engine is used for fighter
bombers?
A. Turbojet
B. Pulse jet
C. Rockets
D. Ramjet
111. Exhaust gasses from an engine possess
A. solar energy
B. kinetic energy
C. chemical energy
D. stored energy
112. At critical point the latent enthalpy of
vaporization is
A. temperature dependent
B. zero
C. minimum
D. maximum
113. What is the force which tends to draw
a body toward the center about which
it is rotating?
A. centrifugal force
B. centrifugal motion
C. centrifugal advance
D. centripetal force
114. When the system deviates
infinitesimally from equilibrium at every
instant of its state, it is undergoing :
A. isobaric process
B. quasi static process
C. isometric process
D. cyclic process
115. Work done per unit charge when
charged is moved from one point to
another.
A. Equipotential surface
B. Potential at a point
C. Electrostatic point
D. Potential difference
116. The thermal efficiency of gas vapor
cycle as compare to steam turbine or
gas turbine
A. greater than
B. less than
C. not comparable
D. equal
117. The process in which heat energy is
transferred to thermal energy storage
device is known as :
A. adiabatic
B. regeneration
C. intercooling
D. heat transfer
118. The absolute zero in Celsius scale is :
A. 100
B. 0
C. -273
D. 273
119. What is the temperature when water
and vapor are in equilibrium with the
atmospheric pressure?
A. ice point
B. steam point
C. critical point
D. freezing point
120. The temperature of a pure substance
at a temperature of absolute zero is :
A. unity
B. zero
C. infinity
D. 100
121. When the number of reheat stages in a
reheat cycle is increased, the average
temperature :
A. increases
B. decreases
C. is constant
D. is zero
122. The temperature measurement in an
ordinary thermometer which has
constant specific humidity
A. critical temperature
B. dew point temperature
C. dry bulb temperature
D. wet bulb temperature
123. In a closed vessel, when vaporization
takes place, the temperature rises. Due
to the rising temperature, the pressure
increases until an equilibrium is
established between the temperature
and pressure. The temperature of
equilibrium is called :
A. dew point
B. ice point
C. superheated temperature
D. boiling point
124. When hot soup was served in a cup
during dinner an engineer was so eager
to drink it. Since it was hot, he added
cubes of ice to cool the soup and stirred
it. He noticed that dew starts to form
on the outermost surface of the cup.
What is this temperature equal to?
A. superheated temperature
B. equal to zero
C. standard temperature
D. equal to airs dew point temperature
125. Is a measurement of the energy that is
no longer available to perform useful
work within with current environment?
A. absolute entropy
B. absolute enthalpy
C. fugacity
D. molar value
126. The sum of the energies of all the
molecules in a system where energies
appear in several complex forms is the :
A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. internal energy
D. frictional energy
127. The Carnot refrigeration cycle includes
all of the following process except :
A. isentropic expansion
B. isothermal heating
C. isenthalpic expansion
D. isentropic compression
128. The maximum possible work that can
be obtained a cycle operating between
two reservoirs is found from :
A. process irreversibility
B. availability
C. carnot efficiency
D. reversible work
129. The following factors are necessary to
define thermodynamic cycle except
A. the working substance
B. high and low temperature reservoirs
C. the time it takes to complete the
cycle
D. the means of doing work on the
system
130. All of the following terms is included in
the second law for open system except
A. shaft work
B. flow work
C. internal work
D. average work
131. The following term included in the first
law of thermodynamics for open
system except
A. heat transferred in and out of the
system
B. work done
C. magnetic system
D. internal system
132. The following terms are included in the
first law of thermodynamics for closed
system except
A. heat transferred in and out of the
system
B. work done by or on the system
C. internal energy
D. kinetic energy
133. Which of the following statements
about a path function is not true?
A. on a P V diagram, it can represent
work done
B. on a T S diagram, it can represent
heat transferred
C. it is dependent on the path between
stares of thermodynamic equilibrium
D. it represents values of P, V, T, and S
between states that are path functions
134. The work done in an adiabatic process
in a system :
A. is equal to he change in total energy
in a closed system
B. is equal to the total net heat transfer
plus the entropy change
C. is equal to the change in total energy
of closed system plus the entropy
change
D. is equal to the change in total energy
of closed system plus net heat transfer
135. Based on the first law of
thermodynamics, which is the following
wrong?
A. the heat transfer equals the work
plus energy change
B. the heat transfer cannot exceed the
work done
C. the net transfer equal the net work
of the cycle
D. the net heat transfer equals the
energy change if no work is done
136. Which of the following types of
flowmeters is most accurate?
A. venturi meter
B. pitot tube
C. flow nozzle
D. foam type
137. What is referred by control volume?
A. an isolated system
B. closed system
C. fixed region in space
D. reversible process only
138. What is the most efficient
thermodynamic cycle?
A. Carnot
B. Diesel
C. Rankine
D. Brayton
139. How do you treat a statement that is
considered a scientific law?
A. we postulate to be true
B. accept as a summary of experimental
observation
C. we generally observed to be true
D. believe to be derived from
mathematical theorem
140. An instrument commonly used in most
research and engineering laboratories
because it is small and fast among the
other thermometer
A. mercury thermometer
B. liquid in glass thermometer
C. gas thermometer
D. thermocouple
141. In an actual gases, the molecular
collisions are
A. plastic
B. elastic
C. inelastic
D. Inplastic
142. Which of the following used in thermal
power plant?
A. Brayton
B. Reversed Carnot
C. Rankine
D. Otto
143. The elongation and compression of a
helical spring is an example of
A. irreversible process
B. reversible process
C. isothermal process
D. adiabatic process
144. Otto cycle consist of
A. 2 isentropic and 2 constant volume
processes
B. 2 isentropic and 2 constant pressure
processes
C. 2 adiabatic and 2 isothermal
processes
D. 2 isothermal and 2 constant volume
processes
145. Brayton cycle has
A. 2 isentropic and 2 constant volume
processes
B. 2 isentropic and 2 constant pressure
processes
C. 1 constant pressure, one constant
volume and 2 adiabatic processes
D. 2 isothermal and 1 constant volume
and 1 constant pressure processes
146. A Bell Coleman cycle is a reversed
A. Stirling cycle
B. Joule cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Otto cycle
147. A steam nozzle changes
A. kinetic energy into heat energy
B. heat energy into potential energy
C. heat energy into kinetic energy
D. potential energy into heat energy
148. The pitot tube is a device used for
measurement of
A. pressure
B. flow
C. velocity
D. Discharge

149. The continuity equation is applicableto
A. viscous, unviscous fluids
B. compressibility of fluid
C. conservation of mass
D. steady, unsteady flow
150. The work done by a force of R newtons
moving in a distance L meters in
converted entirely into kinetic energy
and expressed by the equation
A. RL = 2MV
2

B. RL = 2MV
C. RL = MV
2

D. RL = MV
151. Gas being heated at constant volume
is undergoing the process of
A. isentropic
B. adiabatic
C. isometric
D. Isobaric
152. Dew point is defined as
A. the temperature of which the air
must be cooled at constant pressure to
produce saturation
B. the point where pressure and
temperature lines meet
C. the temperature which dew is
formed in the air
D. the pressure which dew is formed in
the air
153. What do you call the changing of an
atom of element into an atom of a
different element with an different
atomic mass?
A. atomization
B. atomic transmutation
C. atomic pile
D. atomic energy
154. What do you call the weight of the
column of air above the earths
surface?
A. air pressure
B. aerostatic pressure
C. wind pressure
D. atmospheric pressure
155. What keeps the moisture from passing
through the system?
A. dehydrator
B. aerator
C. trap
D. Humidifier
156. What condition exists in an adiabatic
throttling process?
A. enthalpy is variable
B. enthalpy is constant
C. entropy is constant
D. specific volume is constant
157. The specific gravity of a substance is
the ratio of its density to the density of :
A. mercury
B. gas
C. air
D. water
158. A compound pressure gauge is used to
measure:
A. complex pressures
B. variable pressures
C. compound pressures
D. positive and negative pressures
159. Isentropic flow is
A. perfect gas flow
B. ideal fluid flow
C. frictionless reversible flow
D. reversible adiabatic flow
160. Under ideal conditions, isothermal,
isobaric, isochoric, and adiabatic
processes are :
A. dynamic processes
B. stable processes
C. quasi static processes
D. static processes
161. One watt is :
A. 1 N.m/s
B. 1 N.m/min
C. 1 N.m/hr
D. 1 KN.m/s
162. A temperature above which a given
gas cannot be liquefied :
A. cryogenic temperature
B. vaporization temperature
C. absolute temperature
D. critical temperature
163. The effectiveness of a body as a
thermal radiator at a given temperature
A. absorptivity
B. emissivity
C. conductivity
D. reflectivity
164. Which of the following occurs in a
reversible polytropic process?
A. enthalpy remains constant
B. internal energy does not change
C. some heat transfer occurs
D. entropy is remains constant
165. The instrument used to measure
atmospheric pressure is
A. rotameter
B. manometer
C. venturi
D. barometer
166. A pneumatic tool is generally powered
by
A. water
B. electricity
C. steam
D. air
167. Which of the following gases can be
used to measure the lowest
temperature?
A. nitrogen
B. helium
C. oxygen
D. Hydrogen
168. The triple point of a substance is the
temperature and pressure at which:
A. the solid and liquid phases are in
equilibrium
B. the solid and gaseous phases are in
equilibrium
C. the solid, liquid and gaseous phases
are in equilibrium
D. the solid does not melt, the liquid
does not boil and the gas does not
condense
169. Which of the following relations is not
applicable in a free expansion process?
A. heat rejected is zero
B. work done is zero
C. change in temperature is zero
D. heat supplied is zero
170. Ericsson cycle has
A. 2 isothermal and 2 constant pressure
B. 2 isothermal and 2 constant volume
C. 2 isothermal and 2 constant entropy
D. 2 adiabatic, one constant volume and
constant pressure
171. A Stirling cycle has
A. 2 adiabatic and 2 constant volume
B. 2 adiabatic and 2 constant pressure
C. 2 isothermal and 2 constant pressure
D. 2 isothermal and 2 constant volume
172. The temperature of the fluid flowing
under pressure through a pipe is usually
measured by:
A. a glass thermometer
B. an electric resistance thermometer
C. a thermocouple
D. all of the above
173. Specific heat capacity is an SI derived
unit described as
A. J/KG
B. W/mK
C. KJ/kgK
D. J/m
174. Which of the following is
mathematically a thermodynamic
property?
A. a point function
B. discontinuous
C. a path of function
D. exact differential
175. When the expansion or compression of
gas takes place without transfer of
heat to or from the gas, the process is
called:
A. reversible
B. adiabatic
C. polytropic
D. Isothermal
176. Another name for the liquid valve is
A. Freon valve
B. Shut off valve
C. King valve
D. Master valve
177. A liquid whose temperature is lower
than the saturation temperature
corresponding to the existing pressure
A. subcooled liquid
B. saturated liquid
C. pure liquid
D. compressed liquid
178. The law that states entropy of all
perfect crystalline solids is zero at
absolute zero temperature
A. zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. first law of thermodynamics
C. second law of thermodynamics
D. third law of thermodynamics
179. What should be the temperature of
both water and steam whenever they
are present together?
A. saturation temperature for the
existing pressure
B. boiling point of water at 101.325 KPa
C. superheated temperature
D. one hundred degrees centigrade
180. A manometer is an instrument that is
used to measure
A. air pressure
B. heat addition
C. condensate water level
D. air volume
181. What is the area under the curve of a
temperature entropy diagram?
A. volume
B. heat
C. work
D. enthalpy
182. What do bodies at a temperature
above absolute zero emit?
A. energy
B. heat of convection
C. thermal radiation
D. heat of compression
183. In the absence of any irreversibilities, a
thermoelectric generator, a device that
incorporates both thermal and electric
effects, will have the efficiency of a/an
A. carnot cycle
B. otto cycle
C. diesel cycle
D. rankine cycle
184. Both stirling and ericsson engines are
A. internal combustion engine
B. external combustion engine
C. carnot engines
D. brayton cycles
185. Nozzles does not involve any work
interaction. The fluid through this
device experiences :
A. no change in potential energy
B. no change in kinetic energy
C. no change in enthalpy
D. Vacuum
186. If the actual kinetic energy of a nozzle
is Ka and Ki is the maximum value of
that can be attained by an isentropic
expansion from an initial to final state,
then the efficiency of the nozzle is :
A. Ki / Ka
B. (Ka Ki) / ka
C. (Ka Ki) / Ki
D. Ka / Ki
187. The convergent section of a nozzle
increase the velocity of the flow of the
gas. What does it to do on its pressure?
A. pressure becomes constant
B. pressure equals the velocity
C. it increases the pressure
D. it decreases the pressure
188. In a closed vessel, when vaporization
takes place temperature rises. Due to
the rising temperature pressure
increases until an equilibrium is
established between the temperature
and pressure temperature of
equilibrium in called
A. dew point
B. ice point
C. boiling point
D. superheated temperature
189. At steam point, the temperatures of
water and its vapor at standard
pressure are:
A. extremes or maximum
B. unity
C. in equilibrium
D. undefined
190. When hot soup was served in a cup
during dinner an engineer was so eager
to drink it. Since it was hot, he added
cubes of ice to cool the soup and stirred
it. He noticed that dew starts to form
on the outermost surface of the cup.
What is this temperature equal to?
A. superheated temperature
B. equal to zero
C. standard temperature
D. equal to airs dew point temperature
191. What do you call a conversion
technology that yields electricity
straight form the sunlight without the
aid of a working substance like gas or
steam without the use of any
mechanical cycle?
A. Power conversion
B. Stirling cycle conversion
C. Solar thermal conversion
D. Photovoltaic energy conversion
192. Which of the following property of
liquid extend resistance to angular or
shear deformation
A. specific gravity
B. specific weight
C. viscosity
D. density
193. What is the pressure at the exit of a
draft tube in a turbine?
A. below atmospheric
B. above atmospheric
C. atmospheric
D. vacuum
194. When changes in kinetic energy of a
compressed gas are negligible or
insignificant, the work input to an
adiabatic compressor is
A. negligible
B. zero
C. infinity
D. equal to change in enthalpy
195. What is the area under curve of a
pressure volume diagram?
A. nonflow work
B. steadyflow work
C. heat
D. power
196. In stirling and ericsson cycle,
regeneration can
A. increase efficiency
B. decrease efficiency
C. control efficiency
D. limit efficiency
197. The first law of thermodynamics is
based on which of the following
principles?
A. conservation of mass
B. enthalpy entropy relationship
C. entropy temperature relationship
D. conservation of energy
198. In a two-phase system, 30% moisture
means
A. 70% liquid and 30% vapor
B. 70% vapor and 30% liquid
C. 30% liquid and 100% vapor
D. 30% vapor and 100% liquid
199. At 101.325 Kpa, the boiling point of
water is 100 degC. If the pressure is
decreased, the boiling temperature will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. drop to zero
200. Which of the following is equivalent to
1hp in Btu/hr
A. 778
B. 2545
C. 746
D. 3.41
201. What is pressure above zero?
A. gage pressure
B. absolute zero
C. vacuum pressure
D. atmospheric pressure
202. One newton meter is equal to
A.1 Joule
B. 1 Btu
C. 1 Calorie
D. 1 Ergs
203. Which of the following is the
instrument used to measure fluid
velocity?
A. pitot tube
B. orsat apparatus
C. anemometer
D. Viscosimeter
204. Cryogenic temperature ranges from
A. -15
o
F to -359
o
F
B. -250
o
F to -459
o
F
C. -100
o
F to -300
o
F
D. -200
o
F to -400
o
F
205. Steam at 2 Kpa is saturated at 17.5
o
C.
In what state will the estate be at 40
o
C
if the pressure is 2.0 Kpa?
A. superheated
B. saturated
C. subcooled
D. supersaturated
206. Acceleration is proportional to force
A. Newtons law
B. Archimedes law
C. Law of gravitation
D. Theory of relativity
207. Which of the following could be
defined as simply push and full?
A. power
B. inertia
C. work
D. force
208. The true pressure measured above a
perfect vacuum is :
A. absolute pressure
B. atmospheric pressure
C. gauge pressure
D. vacuum pressure
209. If the initial volume of an ideal gas is
compressed to on half its original
volume and to twice its original
temperature, the pressure:
A. doubles
B. halves
C. quadruples
D. triples
210. When the expansion or compression of
gas takes place without transfer of heat
to or from the gas, the process is called
A. isometric process
B. isothermal process
C. isobaric process
D. adiabatic process
211. Which is not a viscosity rating?
A. Redwood
B. SSU
C. Centipoise
D. Entropy Degrees API
212. Percent excess air is the difference
between the air actually supplied and
the theoretically required divided by
A. theoretically air supplied
B. actually air supplied
C. the deficiency of air supplied
D. the sufficient air supplied
213. What is the apparatus used in the
analysis of combustible gasses?
A. calorimeter differential
B. calorimeter gas
C. calorimetry
D. calorimeter
214. Percent excess air is the difference
between the air actually supplied and
the theoretically required divided by
A. the sufficient air supplied
B. actually air supplied
C. the deficiency of air supplied
D. theoretically air supplied
215. The viscosity of most commercially
available petroleum lubricating oil
changes rapidly above
A. 120
o
F
B. 180
o
F
C. 150
o
F
D. 130
o
F
216. When 2 mol carbon combines with 1
mole oxygen
A. 2 mols carbon dioxide
B. 1 mol carbon dioxide
C. 1 mol or carbon and 1 mol carbon
dioxide
D. 1 mol carbon dioxide
217. What are the immediate undesirable
products from the petroleum based
lubricating oil when subjected to high
pressure and temperature
A. gum, resins and acids
B. sulfur
C. soots and ashes
D. carbon residue
218. Loss power is due to
A. poor compression
B. restricted exhaust
C. clogging of air cleaner
D. low injection pressure

219. A branch system of pipes to carry
waste emissions away from the piston
chamber of an internal combustion
engine is called
A. exhaust nozzle
B. exhaust deflection pipe
C. exhaust pipe
D. exhaust manifold
220. The type filter where the filtering
elements is replaceable.
A. paper edge filter
B. metal edge filter
C. pressure filter
D. filter with element
221. When four events takes place in one
revolution of a crankshaft of an engine,
the engine is called
A. rotary engine
B. steam engine
C. two stroke engine
D. four stroke engine
222. Which of the following does not
belong to the group?
A. air injection system
B. mechanical injection system
C. time injection system
D. gas admission system
223. Specific heat capacity is an SI derived
unit described as
A. J / Kg
B. W / m
o
K
C. J / m
3

D. J / kg
o
K
224. A device whose primary function is to
meter the flow of refrigerant to the
evaporator
A. sniffer valve
B. equalizer
C. thermostatic expansion valve
D. crossover valve
225. The internal combustion engines never
work in
A. rankine cycle
B. diesel cycle
C. dual combustion cycle
D. otto cycle
226. Average pressure on a surface when a
changing pressure condition exist
A. back pressure
B. partial pressure
C. pressure drop
D. mean effective pressure
227. What air pressure is needed for air
starting a diesel engine?
A. 350 psi
B. 250 psi
C. 450 psi
D. 150 psi
228. Mechanical energy of pressure
transformed into the energy of heat
A. kinetic energy
B. enthalpy
C. heat exchanger
D. heat of compression
229. Ignition of the air fuel mixture in the
intake of the exhaust manifold
A. backlash
B. backfire
C. exhaust pressure
D. back pressure
230. The total sulfur content in a diesel fuel
must not exceed ______
A. 0.3 %
B. 0.5 %
C. 0.8 %
D. 0.11 %
231. The color of lubricating oil
A. does not indicate contamination
B. does not indicate qualities
C. indicate qualities
D. indicate viscosity
232. There are two broad types in the
classification of lubricating oils, these
are straight and _______.
A. active
B. inactive
C. crooked
D. Additives
233. Most commercially available
petroleum lubricating oil deteriorates
starting from operating temperature of
A. 150
o
F
B. 200
o
F
C. 300
o
F
D. 250
o
F
234. An orsat apparatus is used for
A. volumetric analysis of the flue gas
B. gravimetric analysis of the flue gas
C. smoke density analysis of the gases
D. all of the above
235. The indicator used to determine the
anti knock characteristics of gasoline.
A. aniline point
B. cetane number
C. octane number
D. Diesel index
236. Amount of heat liberated by the
complete combustion of a unit weight
or volume of fuel is
A. heating value
B. latent heat
C. sensible heat
D. work of compression
237. Air that controls the rate of
combustion in the combustion chamber
is known as:
A. secondary air
B. excess air
C. control air
D. primary air
238. Percentage of excess air is the
difference between the air actually
supplied and the theoretically required
divided by:
A. actual air supplied
B. theoretical air supplied
C. theoretical less actual supplied
D. deficient air supplied
239. When fuel oil has a high viscosity then
the fuel oil
A. will evaporate easily
B. will have a low specific gravity
C. will burn without smoke
D. will flow slowly through pipes
240. Engines using heavy fuels require
heating of the fuel so that the viscosity
at the injector is:
A. around 200 SSU
B. 100 SSU or less
C. 200 SSU + 50
D. 150 SSU or slightly higher
241. A gas produced by the combustion of
fuel oil and cannot be found in the flue
gases is:
A. carbon dioxide
B. hydrogen
C. oxygen
D. nitrogen
242. Amount of heat liberated by the
complete combustion of a unit weight
or volume of fuel is
A. heating value
B. latent heat
C. sensible heat
D. work of compression

243. The products of complete combustion
of gaseous hydrocarbons
A. carbon dioxide of water
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon monoxide, water and
ammonia
D. water, carbon monoxide and carbon
dioxide
244. When the water in the products of
combustion is in the vapor state, the
heating value is
A. lower heating value
B. higher heating value
C. gross calorific value
D. average heating value
245. At what temperature where in an oil of
any grade becomes cloudy and it
freezes, thus its application is limited.
A. cold point
B. flash point
C. pour point
D. freezing point
246. Dry air can be approximated as __%
oxygen and ___% nitrogen by mole
numbers.
A. 30% and 70%
B. 70% and 30%
C. 29% and 71%
D. 79% and 21%
247. When H2O in the products of
combustion is in liquid form, the
heating value is known as
A. higher heating value
B. lower heating value
C. low and medium heating value
D. average heating value
248. Flow of fluids wherein its particle do
not have definite paths and the paths of
the individual and distinct particles
cross one another is :
A. non uniform flow
B. unsteady flow
C. laminar flow
D. turbulent flow
249. If the composition of hydrocarbon fuel
is known, the ratio between the
nitrogen and oxygen that is supplied in
air is:
A. equal
B. constant
C. intensity
D. Fixed
250. The property of liquid in which they
extend resistance to angular or shear
deformation is :
A. specific gravity
B. specific weight
C. viscosity
D. density
251. The property of lubricating oil that
measures the thickness of the oil and
will help determine how long oil will
flow at a given temperature is known
as:
A. viscosity
B. flash point
C. cloud point
D. cloud point
252. The minimum amount of air required
for a complete combustion is called
_____
A. dry air
B. excess air
C. theoretical air
D. flue gas
253. The temperature at which lubricating
will form a cloud
A. cloud point
B. pour point
C. critical point
D. boiling point
254. The ideal cycle based on the concept
that the combustion process is both
diesel and gasoline in the combination
of heat transfer processes that is
constant pressure and constant volume
A. ericsson cycle
B. dual cycle
C. brayton cycle
D. rankine cycle
255. Heat exchanger used to provide heat
transfer between the exhaust gases and
the air prior to its entrance to the
combustor
A. evaporator
B. combustion chamber
C. regenerator
D. heater
256. How does the vale for work per unit
mass flow of air in the compressor and
turbine influenced by the addition of
regenerator.
A. Slightly increased
B. Unchanged
C. Greatly decreased
D. Greatly increased
257. What is the ideal cycle for gas turbine
work?
A. Brayton cycle
B. Stag combine cycle
C. Bottom cycle
D. Ericsson cycle
258. Brayton cycle cannot be used in
reciprocating engines eve for same
adiabatic compression ratio and work
output because:
A. Brayton cycle is highly efficient
B. Brayton cycle is highly efficient
C. Brayton cycle needs large air-fuel
ratio
D. Large volume of low pressure air
cannot be efficient handled in
reciprocating engine
259. In order to increase the gas velocity
gas turbine generally have fixed nozzles.
This is to allow the:
A. Compression of gases
B. Condensation of gases
C. Expansion of gases
D. Evaporation of gases
260. Measure of ability of a boiler to
transfer the heat given by the furnace
to the water and steam is:
A. Grate efficiency
B. Stroke efficiency
C. Furnace efficiency
D. Boiler efficiency
261. A goose neck is installed in the line
connecting a steam gauge to a boiler to:
A. Maintain constant steam flow
B. Protect the gauge element
C. Prevent steam knocking
D. Maintain steam pressure
262. Which of the following is a great
advantage of a fire tube boiler?
A. Steam pressure is not ready
B. Contains a large volume of water and
requires long interval of time to raise
steam and not so flexible as to changes
in steam demand.
C. Cannot use impure water
D. Radiation losses are higher because
fire is inside the boiler and surrounded
by water
263. One of the flowing tasks which is an
example of preventive maintenance is
A. Cleaning the cup on a rotary cup
burner
B. Cleaning a completely clog oil
strainer
C. Replacing a leaking valve
D. Replacing a blown fuse
264. The carbon dioxide (CO
2
) percentage in
flue gas of an efficiency fired boiler
should be approximately
A. 1 %
B. 12 %
C. 18 %
D. 20 %
265. When droplets of water are carried by
steam in the boiler
A. priming
B. foaming
C. carryover
D. embrittlement
266. The process in which heat energy is
transferred to a thermal energy storage
device is known as:
A. adiabatic
B. regenerator
C. intercooling
D. isentropric
267. When the boiler pressure increase or
when exhaust pressure decrease, the
amount of moisture.
A. Increase
B. decrease
C. constant
D. zero
268. When the number of reheat stages in a
reheat cycle increased, the average
temperature
A. Increases
B. decreases
C. Is constant
D. Is zero
269. A heat transfer device that reduce a
thermodynamic fluid from its vapor
phase to its liquid phase such as in
vapor compression refrigeration plant
or in a condensing steam power plant.
A. Flash vessel
B. Cooling tower
C. condenser
D. Steam separator
270. A simultaneous generation of
electricity and steam (or heat) in a
single plant.
A. Gas turbine
B. Steam turbine
C. Waste heat recovery
D. Cogeneration
271. Is one whose pressure is higher than
the saturation pressure corresponding
to its temperature.
A. Compressed liquid
B. Saturated liquid
C. Saturated vapor
D. Superheated vapor
272. In a steam generator with good
combustion control, what occurs if the
load is increased?
A. Air temperature leaving air heater
decreases
B. Air temperature entering air heater
increases
C. Furnace pressure is approximately
constant
D. Economizer gas outlet temperature
decreases
273. Total solid impurities in feed water for
a boiler depend upon
A. Boiler pressure
B. Type of fuel available
C. Quantity of steam to be generated
D. Quantity of steam
274. The gaseous state of water
A. Water gas
B. Blue gas
C. Water vapor
D. Yellow gas
275. What are the main components in a
combined cycle power plant?
A. Diesel engine and air compressor
B. Gas engine and waste heat boiler
C. Steam boiler and turbine
D. Nuclear reactor and steam boiler
276. A change in the efficiency of
combustion in a boiler can usually be
determined by comparing the
previously recorded reading with the
current readings of the
A. Stack temperature and CO
B. Over the fire draft and CO
C. Ringleman chart and CO
2

D. Stack temperature and CO
2

277. A boiler steam gauge should have a
range of at least
A. One half the working steam pressure
B. 1 and times the maximum
allowable working pressure
C. The working steam pressure
D. Twice the maximum allowable
working pressure
278. In a water tube boiler, heat and gases
of combustion passed:
A. Through the combustion chamber
only
B. Through the tubes
C. Away from tubes
D. Around the tubes
279. A chemical method of feedwater
treatment which uses calcium
hydroxide and sodium carbonate as
reagents
A. Thermal treatment
B. Lime soda treatment
C. Demineralization process
D. Ion exchange treatment
280. The thermal efficiency of gas-vapor
cycle as compared to steam turbine or
gas turbine is
A. Greater than
B. Less than
C. Lower than
D. Equal to
281. A rapid increase in boiler pressure
occurs when there is:
A. Moderate drop in steam load
B. Constant drop in steam load
C. abrupt drop in steam load
D. Gradual drop in steam load
282. The most economical and low
maintenance cost condenser
A. Water-cooled
B. Air-cooled
C. Evaporative
D. Sub-cooled
283. What is commonly used done to
system when the turbine has excessive
moisture?
A. Frosting
B. Diffusing
C. Reheating
D. Dehumidifying
284. What is the result when the fluids
kinetic energy during a stagnation
process is transformed to enthalpy?
A. Decrease in fluid volume
B. Rise in the temp. And pressure the
fluid
C. Rise in fluids volume
D. Decrease in the temp. And pressure
of fluid
285. How can the average temperature
during heat rejection process of a
ranking cycle be decreased?
A. Increase boiler pressure
B. Increase turbine pressure
C. Increase condenser pressure
D. Reduce turbine exit pressure
286. Which of the following ascertains the
effectiveness and the size of a
condenser?
A. Number of passes
B. Thickness of the shell
C. Tube sizes
D. Heat transfer
287. A boiler has a bursting pressure, BP, of
600 kPa and a factor of safety, FS, of 8 is
employed in design. As an engineer,
would you advice to have a working
pressure, WP, of 500 kPa?
A. No, WP must be higher than 500 kPa
B. No, WP is only 75 Kpa at a FS of 8
C. Yes, since BP is 600 Pa
D. Yes, to attain better efficiency
288. What cycle is used in vapor cycle of
steam power plant?
A. Brayton sycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Ericsson ccle
D. Rankine cycle
289. Gauge cock in the boiler is designed to
determine:
A. Level of steam
B. Specific heat
C. Level of water
D. pressure
290. In a liquid-dominated geothermal
plant, what process occurs when the
saturated steam passes through the
turbine?
A. isobaric
B. polytropic
C. isometric
D. isentropic
291. What do you call a conversion
technology that yields electricity
straight from sunlight without the aid of
a working substance like gas or steam
without the use of any mechanical
cycle?
A. Power conversion
B. Stirling cycle conversion
C. Solar thermal conversion
D. Photovoltaic-energy conversion
292. Tidal power plant is attractive because
it has:
A. Low head and intermittent power
B. High head
C. Cheap energy source
D. Expensive energy source
293. What do you call a conversion
technology that yields electricity
straight from sunlight without the aid of
a working substance like gas or steam
without the use of any mechanical
cycle?
A. Power conversion
B. Stirling cycle conversion
C. Solar thermal conversion
D. Photovoltaic-energy conversion
294. Tidal power plant is attractive because
it has:
A. Low head and intermittent power
B. High head
C. Cheap energy source
D. Expensive energy source
295. What is the suggested maximum
permissible dose (MPD) of gamma ray
exposure for general individuals not
working in a nuclear setting, by choice,
in rem/year?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 1/2
D. 3
296. The number of protons in the nucleus
of an atom of the number of electrons
in the orbit of an atom
A. Atomic volume
B. Atomic number
C. Atomic weight
D. Atomic mass
297. In the hydro-electric plant having a
medium head and using a Francis
turbine, the turbine speed may be
regulated through:
A. Deflector gate
B. nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. forebay
298. A Francis turbine has what flow?
A. Inward flow reaction
B. Outward flow impulse
C. Outward flow reaction
D. Inward flow impulse
299. Which of the following is a type of
water turbine?
A. Parson
B. Hero
C. Pelton
D. Bankl
300. What is the use of a hydraulic jump
A. Increase the flow rate
B. Reduce the flow rate
C. Reduce the velocity of flow
D. Reduce the energy of flow
301. A Kaplan turbine is:
A. A high head mixed flow turbine
B. An inward flow impulse turbine
C. An outward flow reaction turbine
D. Low head axial flow turbine
302. The locus of elevation is:
A. Critical point
B. Hydraulic gradient
C. Energy gradient
D. Friction gradient
303. The locus of elevations to which water
will rise in the piezometer tube is
termed:
A. Energy gradient
B. Friction head
C. Hydraulic gradient
D. Critical path
304. The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine
from a dam is:
A. Tailrace
B. Spiral casing
C. Surge tank
D. Penstock
305. A type of water turbine where a jet of
water is made to fall on the blades or
buckets due to the impulse of water,
the turbine starts to move.
A. Pelton wheel
B. Steam turbine
C. Francis turbine
D. Reaction turbine
306. The lowest portion to storage basin
from where the water is not drawn is:
A. Bottom storage
B. Sub-soil storage
C. Spring reserve
D. Dead storage
307. In the hydro-electric plant having a
medium head and using a Francis
turbine, the turbine speed may be
regulated through:
A. Deflector gate
B. nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. Forebay
308. In the deep well installation or
operation, the difference between
static water level and operating water
level is known as ___
A. Suction lift
B. drawdown
C. Priming level
D. clogging
309. Which of the following is a
characteristics of an impulse turbine?
A. Stem striking blades on angle
B. No steam reaction to velocity
C. Steam striking blades at zero angle
D. Steam reversing direction
310. What is the pressure at the exit of a
draft tube in a turbine?
A. Below atmospheric
B. vacuum
C. atmospheric
D. gage
311. An impulse turbine are used for:
A. Low head
B. Medium head
C. High head
D. Very low head
312. Which of the following is used as high
head turbine?
A. Impulse
B. Francis
C. Reaction
D. Propeller
313. What is the pressure at the exit of a
draft tube in a turbine?
A. Below atmospheric
B. vacuum
C. atmospheric
D. gage
314. An impulse turbine are used for:
A. Low head
B. Medium head
C. High head
D. Very low head
315. Which of the following is used as high
head turbine?
A. Impulse
B. Francis
C. Reaction
D. Propeller
316. The lowest portion to storage basin
from where the water is not drawn is:
A. Bottom storage
B. Sub-soil storage
C. Spring reserve
D. Dead storage
317. In the hydro-electric plant having a
medium head and using a Francis
turbine, the turbine speed may be
regulated through:
A. Deflector gate
B. nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. forebay
318. In the deep well installation or
operation, the difference between
static water level and operating water
level is known as ___
A. Suction lift
B. drawdown
C. Priming level
D. clogging
319. Which of the following is a
characteristics of an impulse turbine?
A. Stem striking blades on angle
B. No steam reaction to velocity
C. Steam striking blades at zero angle
D. Steam reversing direction
320. A type of water turbine where a jet of
water is made to fall on the blades or
buckets due to the impulse of water,
the turbine starts to move.
A. Pelton wheel
B. Steam turbine
C. Francis turbine
D. Reaction turbine
321. The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine
from a dam is:
A. Tailrace
B. Spiral casing
C. Surge tank
D. Penstock
322. Peak load for a period of time divided
by installed capacity is:
A. Capacity factor
B. Demand factor
C. Utilization factor
D. Load factor
323. The ratio of the sum of individual
maximum demands of the system to
the maximum demand of the whole
system is:
A. Diversity factor
B. Utilization factor
C. Power factor
D. Demand factor
324. The ratio between the actual power
and the apparent power in any circuit is
known as the ____ of that circuit
A. Measured power
B. capacity
C. Power factor
D. KVAR
325. The ratio of maximum load to the
rated plant capacity.
A. Load factor
B. Utilization factor
C. Maximum load factor
D. Capacity factor
326. The ratio of the average load to the
peak load over a designated period of
time is called
A. Load factor
B. Reactive factor
C. Diversity factor
D. Plant use factor
327. The ratio of the sum of individuals
maximum demands of the system to
the overall maximum demand of the
whole system
A. Demand factor
B. Diversity factor
C. Power factor
D. Utilization factor
328. Peak load for a period of time divided
by installed capacity is ____
A. Capacity factor
B. Demand factor
C. Utilization factor
D. Load factor
329. The ratio of the sum of individuals
maximum demands of the system to
the overall maximum demand of the
whole system
A. Demand factor
B. Diversity factor
C. Power factor
D. Utilization factor
330. The ratio between the actual power
and the apparent power in any circuit is
known as the ____ of that circuit
A. Measured power
B. capacity
C. Power factor
D. KVAR
331. The volumetric change of the fluid
caused by a resistance is called:
A. Volumetric change
B. Volumetric index
C. Compressibility
D. Adhesion
332. The energy of a fluid flowing at any
section in a pipeline is a function of :
A. Velocity of flow only
B. Pressure only
C. Height above a chosen datum,
density, internal energy, pressure and
velocity of flow
D. Pressure, height above a chosen
datum, velocity of flow, density of fluid
333. If the fluid travels parallel to the
adjacent layers and the paths individual
particles do not cross, the fluid is said to
be :
A. Turbulent
B. Critical
C. Dynamic
D. Laminar
334. Center of pressure on an inclined plane
lines :
A. At the centroid
B. Above the centroid
C. Below the centroid
D. At the metacentre
335. At any instant, if the number of
particles passing every cross section
of the stream is the same, the flow is
said to be :
A. Steady flow
B. Uniform flow
C. Continuous flow
D. Laminar flow
336. The ratio of cross sectional area of
flow to the wetted perimeter is :
A. Hydraulic lead
B. Hydraulic section
C. Hydraulic mean depth
D. Hydraulic gradient
337. If A is the cross sectional area of the
flow the Pw is the wetted perimeter of
a pipe, then what is the hydraulic
depth. Hd?
A. Pw A
B. Pw / A
C. A / Pw
D. Pw x A
338. If Q is the volume in gallon; D is height
or elevation in ft, and m is weight in lbs
per gallon, what is the desired energy
to lift the water from lower to higher
elevation?
A. E = mD / Q
B. E = mDQ
C. E = mQ / D
D. E = QD / m
339. The flow of the convergent section of a
nozzle is always subsonic. If the flow is
subsonic then the mach number is:
A. Greater than unity
B. Less than unity
C. Near unity
D. Unity
340. Pump used to increase air pressure
above normal, air is then used as a
motive power.
A. Air cooled engine
B. Air compressor
C. Air condenser
D. Air injector
341. An aftercooler on a reciprocating air
compressor is used primarily to :
A. Cool and lubricating oil
B. Condense the moisture in the
compressed air
C. Improve compressor efficiency
D. Increase compressor capacity
342. A receiver in an air compression
system is used to :
A. Avoid cooling air before using
B. Increase the air discharge pressure
C. Collect water and grease suspended
in the air
D. Reduce the work needed during
compression
343. The crankshaft of reciprocating
compression is basically made of :
A. Semi steel
B. Aluminium alloy
C. Cast iron
D. Steel forging
344. Cooling water system consists of
equipment to dissipate heat absorbed
by the engine jacket water, lube oil and
the heat to be removed from air
intercooler is measurable to keep the
engine outlet water temperature
constant and the differential of the
cooling water at a minimum preferably
not to exceed :
A. 10 to 30
o
F
B. 10 to 50
o
F
C. 10 to 20
o
F
D. 10 to 40
o
F
345. Which of the following is one of the
most popular types of compressor
utilized for supercharging engine?
A. Roots type blower
B. Pulse turbo charger
C. Constant pressure turbo charger
D. Turbo compressor
346. The power required to deliver a given
quantity of fluid against a given heat
with no losses in the pump is called :
A. Wheel power
B. Brake power
C. Hydraulic power
D. Indicated power
347. Fluids that are pumped in processing
work are frequently more viscous than
water. Which of the following
statement is correct?
A. Reynolds number varies directly as
the viscosity
B. Efficiency of a pump increases as the
viscosity increases
C. Increased fluid friction between the
pump parts and the passing fluid
increases useful work
D. Working head increases as the
viscosity
348. A reciprocating pump is considered
positive displacement pump because
A. Displacement of the liquid is affected
by the displacement of the piston
B. Positive pressure is given to the liquid
C. Liquid is with positive pressure
D. Liquid is lifted due to the vacuum
created inside the cylinder
349. To protect adequately the engine
bearings, what type and better
arrangement of lubricating oil filter is
most practical?
A. Full flow type filter installed
between the lubricating oil pump and
the bearings
B. Duplex filter installed before the
lubricating pump
C. Bypass filter with cleanable and
replaceable elements
D. Splash lubricating system in the
crank case
350. Medium pressure when applied to
valves and fittings are suitable for
working pressure of:
A. 862 to 1200 kPa
B. 758 to 1000 kPa
C. 500 to 1000 kPa
D. 658 to 1050 kPa
351. The function of n unloader on an
electric motor driven compressor is to
A. Reduce the speed of the motor when
the maximum pressure is reached
B. Drain the condensate from the
cylinder
C. Release the pressure in the cylinder
in order to reduce the starting load
D. Prevent excess pressure in the
reciever
352. An unloader is used on air compressor
to:
A. Relieve air pressure
B. Start easier
C. Stop easier
D. Run faster
353. The performance of a reciprocating
compressor expressed as :
A. Adiabatic work / adiabatic input
B. Adiabatic work / indicated work
C. Isothermal work / indicated work
D. Isothermal work / adiabatic work
354. For reciprocating compressor slip at
positive or negative displacement.
A. Cd = 1
B. Cd > 1
C. Cd < 1
D. Cd = 0
355. In order that cavitation will not take
place in the suction line of a pump,
what should be the sum of the velocity
head and pressure head at suction
compared to the vapor pressure of the
liquid?
A. Sufficiently lower
B. Constant
C. Adequately greater
D. Equal
356. Which of the following components of
a pump converts mechanical energy to
pressure energy?
A. Impeller
B. Valve
C. Shaft
D. Delivery pipe
357. Mr. De La Cruz wanted to buy a pump
for his farm. What is suitable for
deepwell?
A. Reciprocating
B. Airlift
C. Hand lift
D. Centrifugal
358. A tank contains H2O. What is the
intensity of pressure at a depth of 6
meters?
A. 68 kPa
B. 58.8 kPa
C. 78.0 kPa
D. 48.7 kPa
359. In order to avoid cavitation the NPSH
of an installed should be :
A. At least equal or greater than the
NPSH of the pump
B. At least equal or less than the NPSH
of the pump
C. Equal to the NPSH of the pump only
D. Greater than the NPSH of the pump
only
360. The actual head, neglecting the kinetic
energy in which the pump work against.
A. Delivery head
B. Pressure head
C. Velocity head
D. Suction head
361. Flows of water in a pipe have a velocity
at 10 meters per second. Determine the
velocity head of the water
A. 50.1 meters
B. 5.1 meters
C. 8.2 meters
D. 100 meters
362. Find the velocity head for a velocity of
18m/s
A. 33.0 m
B. 0.92 m
C. 1.8 m
D. 16.5 m
363. The size of a steam reciprocating pump
is generally designated by a three digit
number size as 646. the first digit
designates
A. Stroke of the pump in inches
B. Inside diameter of the steam cylinder
measured in inches
C. Percent clearance
D. Number of cylinders
364. Two pumps are connected in series. If
Q1 is the discharge of pump 1 and Q2 is
the discharge of pump 2 where Q1 <
Q2, what is the discharge
A. Q2
B. Q1
C. Q1 + Q2
D. Q1 / Q2
365. A pump in which the pressure is the
developed principally by the action of
centrifugal force
A. Centrifugal pump
B. End suction pump
C. In line pump
D. Horizontal pump
366. A theoretical body which when heated
incandescence would emit a continuous
light ray spectrum.
A. Spectrum body radiation
B. Black body
C. Blue body
D. White body
367. Which of the following is the reason
for insulating the pipes?
A. They may not break under pressure
B. There is minimum corrosion
C. Capacity to withstand pressure
D. Heat loss from the surface is
minimized
368. Heat transfer due to density
differential
A. Convection
B. Nuclear
C. Conduction
D. Radiation
369. The term exposure in radiological
effects is used as a measure of a gamma
ray or an X ray field in the surface of
an exposed object. Since this radiation
produces ionization of the air
surrounding the object, the exposure is
obtained as
A. Number of ions produced per mass
of air X coulombs per kg
B. Mass of air X surface area of an
exposed object
C. Mass of air over surface area of an
exposed object
D. Number of ions produced per mass
of air + coulombs per kg
370. The passing of heat energy from
molecule to molecule through a
substance
A. Conduction
B. Radiation
C. Conservation
D. Convection
371. The radiant heat transfer depends on:
A. Temperature
B. Heat rays
C. Heat flow form cold to hot
D. humidity
372. What kind of processes which include
a change of phase of a fluid are
considered _______.
A. Convection
B. Thermal radiation
C. Conduction
D. Radiation
373. A hot block is cooled by blowing cool
air over its top surface. The heat that is
first transferred to the air layer close to
the block is by conduction. It is
eventually carried away from the
surface by _______.
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. Thermal radiation
374. The body that is hot compared to its
surroundings illuminates more energy
than it receives, while its surroundings
absorbs more energy than they give.
The heat is transferred from one to
another by energy wave motion. What
is this mode of heat transfer?
A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Condensation
375. For design stability, the center of
gravity of the total combined engine,
driven equipment and foundation
should be kept _________.
A. anywhere
B. Above the foundation top
C. In line with surface of the foundation
D. Below the foundation top
376. Hydrometer is used to find out :
A. Specific gravity of liquids
B. Specific gravity of solids
C. Specific gravity of gases
D. Relative humidity
377. What is the clockwork operated device
which records continuously the
humidity of the atmosphere?
A. Hetrograph
B. Hydrometer
C. Hydrodeik
D. Hygrograph
378. A device whose function is to pass an
information in an unchanged form or in
some modified form.
A. Relay
B. Sensor
C. Transmitter
D. Transducer
379. A general term for a device that
receives information in the form of one
or more physical quantities, modifies
the information and or its form if
required and produces a resultant
output signal
A. Converter
B. Transducers
C. Sensor
D. Scanner
380. An engine indicator is generally used
to measure what?
A. Steam temperature
B. Heat loss
C. Steam cylinder pressure
D. gauge reading errors
381. In the processing section, there is an
instrument frequently used to measure
the flow rate of fluids. What is the
instrument consisting of a vertical
passage with variable cross sectional
area, a float and a calibrated scale?
A. Rotameter
B. Pitot tube
C. Rota aire
D. Manometer
382. What is the function of a steam
separator?
A. Trapping steam and letting water
through
B. Throttling
C. Changing direction of the steam flow
D. Steam metering
383. A salimeter reads the :
A. Density of brine
B. Dew point temperature
C. Rate of brine
D. Relative humidity
384. Which of the following measures the
density of salt in the water?
A. Salimeter
B. Pitot tube
C. Hydrometer
D. Odometer
385. What is the unit of electromagnetic
wave frequency?
A. Volts
B. Horsepower
C. Hertz
D. Knot