You are on page 1of 8

IIT JEE MODEL TEST 3 : : PAPER I

Time : 3 Hrs Max. Marks : 240



PART I :CHEMISTRY
SECTION I (Total Marks:21)
(Single answer type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Each correct answer carries 3 Marks. Each wrong answer carries
-1 mark.

1. Lassaignes test for nitrogen is positive for which compound?
A)
2
NH OH B)
2 2
NH NH C)
2 2
H NCONH D) All the three

2. An organic compound X of the formula
4 8 2
C H Cl on treatment with aqueous sodium hydroxide gives
another compound Y which forms an oxime and undergoes haloform reaction, but does not reduce Tollens
reagent. The compound X should be
A)
2
MeCHCHCl B)
3 2 2 2
CH CH CH CHCl C)
3 2 2 3
CH CH CCl CH D)
3 3
| |
Cl Cl
CH CHCHCH

3. An organic compound is boiled with
3
HNO , cooled and then treated with
3
AgNO , a white precipitate is
obtained. The compound can be
I)
Cl

II)
Cl

III)
CH
3
Cl

IV)
Cl

V)
3
||
O
CH CCl
A) I, II, III or IV B) II, III or V C) Only V D) Any of the five

4. Which of the following compounds give positive test with Tollens reagent?
A)
OH
O

B)

OH
O

C)
OH
O

D)
COOH
O


5. In osazone formation, glucose reacts with three molecules of phenylhydrazine. Which statement is true
regarding this?
A) All the three molecules react in similar fashion
B) Two molecules react in similar manner, while the third reacts in different way
C) All the three molecules react in different ways
D) Six numbered cyclic ring is not formed

6. An organic compound consumes 4 moles of periodic acid to form following compounds per molecule of
the starting compound HCHO, 3HCOOH and CHOCOOH. The organic compound is
A) glucose B) fructose C) gluconic acid D) sorbitol

7. The possible number of diastereomers for D-glucose is
A) 14 B) 15 C) 16 D) 7

SECTION II (Total Marks:16)
(Multiple correct answer(s) type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE may be correct. Each correct answer carries 4 Marks. There is no negative
marking.

8.
CO
CO
NH is expected to be


A) Soluble in water and NaOH B) Soluble in water and HCl
C) Insoluble in water and soluble in NaOH D) Insoluble in water and soluble in HCl

II YEAR
9. In an aqueous solution of ( ) Fe III and
( )
SCN

, the equilibrium can be represented as follows:


( ) ( )
( )
( )
2
3
aq aq
aq
Pale yellow Colourless
red
Fe SCN Fe NCS
+
+
+ (




For this choose correct statements.
A) When
3
FeCl is added to it there is no change in colour.
B) When KSCN is added to it there is no change in colour.
C) When oxalic acid is added, there is a decrease in red colour.
D) When
( ) 2 aq
HgCl is added the red colour disappears

10. Which of the polymers involves cross linking?
A) Polythene B) Bakelite C) Melamine D) Vuleanised rubber

11. Natural Polymers are
A) Bakelite B) Polyisoprene C) Proteins D) Polyethylene

SECTION III (Total Marks:15)
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of the paragraph 3 multiple choice questions
and based on the other paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these
questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Each correct answer
carries 3 Marks. Each wrong answer carries -1 mark.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 12 to 13
Amino acids contain an ( )
2
NH basic as well as a ( ) COOH acidic group. They exist as zwitter ions.
2
|
R
H N CH COOH ,
3
|
R
H N CH COO
+


Which explain their several characteristic properties, like decomposition on heating, solubility in water,
large dipole moment. Thus in solution, amino acids may exist as dipolar (neutral pH), cation (in strongly
acidic solution), or anion (in strongly basic solution). Amino acids undergo usual reactions of the
COOH group as well as
2
NH group.

12.
pH 12 H
3 2
| |
NH NH
R CH COO R CH COO Z
+
+

. Compound Z is
A)
2
|
NH
R CH COO

B)
|
3
NH
R CH COO
+

C)
|
3
NH
R CH COOH
+
D)
|
2
NH
R CH COOH

13. Benzoylation of an amino acid can best be done by treating the amino acid with benzoyl chloride.
A) in presence of dil. NaOH B) in presence of conc. NaOH
C) in absence of NaOH D) in presence of HCl

Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16
Monosaccharides have ( ) CHO or C O = and OH groups, so they undergo usual oxidation and
reduction. Further, monosaccharides form osazone when treated with excess of phenylhydrazie (3
equivalents). In osazone formation only the first two carbon atoms are involved. Thus monosaccharides
having identical configuration on rest of C atoms except first two will form same osazone, as is the case
with glucose and fractose.
A, B and C are three hexoses and form same osazone D. Compounds A to D behave as below:
( )
3
HCl Zn
CH COOH
i D D Fructose ( )
3 2
2
HNO Ni, H Na Hg
H O
ii A B C
+

+
( )
3
HNO
iii B Optically active glycaric acid ( )
3
HNO
iv C Optically inactive glycaric acid

14. Compound D is an osazone which can be obtained from
A) Only one compound B) two compounds C) three compounds D) four compounds

15. Compound A should be
A) D-glucose B) D-fructose C) L-glucose D) L-fructose


16. Compound B and C, respectively are
A) D-glucose and D-mannose B) D-mannose and D-glucose
C) D-glucose and L-glucose D) D-glucose and L-mannose

SECTION IV (Total Marks:28)
(Integer Answer type)
This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the question is a single digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The bubble corresponding to the correct answer is to be darkened in the ORS. Each correct
answer carries 4 Marks. There is no negative marking.

17. A weak base BOH is titrated with a strong acid HA. When 10 ml of HA is added, the pH is found to be
9.00 and when 25 ml is added, pH is 8.00. The volume of the acid required to reach the equivalence
point10x ml. Find the value of x.

18.
sp
K of ( )
2
Mg OH is
12
4.0 10

. The number of moles of


2
Mg
+
ions in one litre of its saturated solution
in 0.1 M NaOH is
12
x 10 M

. Find the value of x.



19. On addition of increasing amount of
3
AgNO to 0.1 M each of NaCl and NaBr in a solution,
4
? 10 m

%
of Br

ion gets precipitated when Cl

ion starts precipitating. What number should replaced in place of


? mark ( )
10
sp
K AgCl 1.0 10 ;

= ( )
13
sp
K AgBr 1 10

=

20. pH of ( )
2
Ba OH solution is 13. Millimoles of ( )
2
Ba OH present in 10 ml of solution would be

21. The standard free energy changes for the reactions:
( ) ( )
2 2 g 2 g
2H O 2H O +


and
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 g g 2 g 2 g
CO H O CO H + +


are 457.0 kJ and 28.5 kJ respectively. The
p
log K for the
reaction:
( ) ( ) ( ) g 2 g 2 g
2CO O 2CO +


at 298 K is 0.08 . Fill the box.

22. 0.01 mole of
3 4
Fe O is treated with excess of KI solution in presence of dilute
2 4
H SO where by iron is
reduced to
2
Fe
+
along with liberation of iodine. x 100 ml of 0.1 M
2 2 3
Na S O will be needed to reduce the
liberated iodine. Find the value of x.

23. One molal solution of a carboxylic acid in benzene shows the elevation of boiling point of 1.518 K. The
degree of association of the acid in benzene is x 10 % , then the value of x is (
b
K for benzene = 2.53
1
K kg mol

)
PART II : PHYSICS
SECTION I (Total Marks:21)
(Single answer type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Each correct answer carries 3 Marks. Each wrong answer carries
-1 mark.

24. The net resistance of a voltmeter should be large to ensure that
A) it does not get overheated
B) it does not draw excessive current
C) it can measure large potential difference
D) it does not appreciably change the potential difference to be measured

25. Consider a capacitor-charging circuit. Let
1
Q be the charge given to the capacitor in a time interval of 10
ms and
2
Q be the charge given in the next time interval of 10 ms. Let 10 C charge is deposited in the next
time intervals
2
t .
A)
1 2 1 2
, Q Q t t > > B)
1 2 1 2
, Q Q t t > < C)
1 2 1 2
, Q Q t t < > D)
1 2 1 2
, Q Q t t < <

26. Consider a long, straight wire of cross-sectional area A carrying a current i . Let there be n free electrons
per unit volume. An observer places himself on a trolley moving in the direction opposite to the current
with a speed
i
nAe
= and separated from the wire by a distance r. The magnetic field seen by the observer
is very nearly
A)
0
2
i
r

B) zero C)
0
i
r

D)
0
2 i
r



27. Unlike a laboratory sonometer, a stringed instrument is seldom plucked in the middle. Supposing a string
is plucked at about (1/4)th of its length from the end, the most prominent harmonic would be
A) eighth B) fourth C) third D) second

28.
Two point charges each of charge +q are fixed at (+a, 0) and (-a, 0).
Another positive point charge q placed at the origin is free to move along
x-axis. The charge q at origin in equilibrium will have
A) maximum force and minimum potential energy
B) minimum force and maximum potential energy
C) maximum force and maximum potential energy
D) minimum force and minimum potential energy

X
Y
q
q q
(-a, 0)
(+a, 0)


29. A photocell is illuminated by a small bright source placed 1m away. When the same source of light is
placed 0.5m away, the number of electrons emitted by photocathode would
A) decrease by a factor of 4 B) increase by a factor of 4
C) decrease by a factor of 2 D) increase by a factor of 2

30.
A charged particle of mass m and charge q enters a magnetic field B with a
velocity v making an angle with the boundary of the field, the width of the
magnetic field is d when the particle penetrates half-way into the field, the
change in energy of the particle is
A)
2
sin
2
mv
B

B)
2
sin
Bqd
mv

C) zero D) sin
mvd
qB



SECTION II (Total Marks:16)
(Multiple correct answer(s) type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) out of which ONE or MORE may be correct. Each correct answer carries 4 Marks. There is no
negative marking.


31. A capacitor of capacitance 12.0 F is connected to a battery of emf. 6.00 V and internal resistance 1.00
through resistanceless leads. 12.0 s after the connections are made,
A) the current in the circuit is approximately 2.20A
B) the power delivered by the battery is 13.2 W
C) the power dissipated in heat is approximately 4.9W
D) the rate at which the energy stored in the capacitor is increasing is 8.37W

32. Consider the circuit shown.

300
200
100V

A) The potential drop across 300 is 60V
B) The potential drop across 200 is 40V
C) If a voltmeter of resistance 600 is connected across the 300 resistor, the voltmeter reading is 50V
D) If a voltmeter of resistance 600 is connected across the 300 resistor, the voltmeter reading is 60V
33.
A particle of charge +q and mass m moving under the
influence of a uniform electric field Ei

and uniform magnetic


field Bk

follows a trajectory from P to Q as shown in figure.


The velocities at P and Q are i v

and j

2 . Which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct?
A)
(

=
qa
mv
E
2
4
3


B) Rate of work done by the electric field at P is
(

a
mv
3
4
3

C) Rate of work done by the electric field at P is zero
D) Rate of work done by both the fields at Q is zero

34. The ground state and first excited state energies of hydrogen atom are 13 6 . eV and 3 4 . eV respectively. If
potential energy in ground state is taken to be zero, then :
A) potential energy in the first excited state would be 20.4 eV
B) total energy in the first excited state would be 23.8 eV
C) kinetic energy in the first excited state would be 3.4 eV
D) total energy in the ground state would be 13.6 eV

SECTION III (Total Marks:15)
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of the paragraph 3 multiple choice questions
and based on the other paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these
questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Each correct answer
carries 3 Marks. Each wrong answer carries -1 mark.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 35 to 37
Two metallic plates A and B each of area
4 2
5 10 m

, are placed parallel to each other at a separation of 1


cm. Plate B carries a positive charge of
12
33.7 10 C

. A monochromatic beam of light, with photons of


energy 5 eV each, starts falling on plate A at t = 0 so that 10
16
photons fall on it per square meter per
second. Assume that the photoelectron is emitted for every
6
10 incident photons. Also assume that all the
emitted photoelectrons are collected by plate B and the work function of plate A remains constant at the
value 2 eV. (Take
12 2 2
0
8.85 10 / C N m

= ). Neglect the time taken by the photoelectron to reach the
plate B.

35. The number of photoelectrons emitted up to 10 t s = is
A) 110
7
B) 310
7
C) 510
7
D) 710
7

36. The magnitude of the electric field between the plates A and B at t = 10s is
A) 110
3
N/C B) 210
3
N/C C) 310
3
N/C D) 410
3
N/C

37. The kinetic energy of the most energetic photoelectrons emitted at t = 10s when it reaches plate B.
A) 10eV B) 15ev C) 19eV D) 23eV

Paragraph for Question Nos. 38 to 39
A tuning fork vibrating at 500 Hz falls freely from rest. Take resultant acceleration as 10 m/s
2
.

38. Velocity of the tuning fork when waves with a frequency of 475 Hz reach the release point is (Take the
speed of sound to be 340 m/s)
A) 1.79 m/s B) 17.9 m/s C) 35.8 m/s D) None

39. How far below the point of release is the tuning fork when waves with a frequency of 475 Hz reach the
release point?
A) 16.9 m B) 16 m C) 1.69 m D) None








SECTION IV (Total Marks:28)
(Integer Answer type)
This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the question is a single digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The bubble corresponding to the correct answer is to be darkened in the ORS. Each correct
answer carries 4 Marks. There is no negative marking.

40.
A particle of mass m and charge q is projected into a region having a
perpendicular magnetic field B. The angle of deviation (Figure) of the
particle as it comes out of the magnetic filed if the width d of the region is
very slightly smaller than
mv
2qB
is found to be
x
| |
|
\
. Find the value of x.

B
d


41. A particle having mass m and charge q is released from the origin in a region in which electric field and
magnetic field are given by
0 0
B B j and E E k = =
r r r r
. The speed of the particle as a function of its z-
coordinate is found to be
0
qE Z
x
m
. Find the value of x.

42. An experimenters dairy reads as follows: a charged particle is projected in a magnetic field of
( )
3
7.0i 3.0 j 10 T


r r
. The acceleration of the particle is found to be
( )
6 2
i 7.0 j 10 m/ s

+
r r
. The number
to be left of i
r
in the last expression was empty. What can this number be?

43. A long solenoid is fabricated by closely winding a wire of radius 0.5mm over a cylindrical non-magnetic
frame so that the successive turns nearly touch each other. The magnetic field B at the centre of the
solenoid if it carries a current of 5A is found to be
3
x 10 T

. Find the value of x.




44. In a photoelectric experiment, the collector plate is at 2.0V with respect to the emitter plate made of copper
( ) 4.5 eV = . The emitter is illuminated by a source of monochromatic light of wavelength 200 nm. Find
the minimum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons reaching the collector (in eV).

45. A filter transmits only the radiation of wavelength greater than 440 nm. Radiation from a hydrogen
discharge tube goes through such a filter and is incident on a metal of work function 2.0 eV. The stopping
potential which can stop the photoelectrons is found to be
x.5
Volt
10
. Find the value of x.

46. The wavelength of K

X-ray of tungsten is 21.3 pm. It takes 11.3 keV to knock out an electron from the L
shell of a tungsten atom. The minimum accelerating voltage across an X-ray tube having tungsten target
which allows production of K

X-ray is found to be 6 ? .5 kV . Find the missing number.



PART III : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I (Total Marks:21)
(Single answer type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Each correct answer carries 3 Marks. Each wrong answer carries -1
mark.
47. If
3 1 1
0 1 2
A
(
=
(

, then ' AA is
A) symmetric matrix B) skew-symmetric matrix C) orthogonal matrix D) none of these

48. The three roots of the equation
3 7
2 2
7 6
x
x
x
= 0 are
A) -9,2,7 B) 9,-2,7 C) 9,2,-7 D) none of these

49. The power of 7 contained in
1000
500
C must be equal to
A) 3 B)2 C) 1 D) 0
50. Length of latus rectum of ellipse
2 2
2
x y
1
4 b
+ = , if the normal at an end of latus rectum passes through one
extremity of the minor axis, is
A) 2 3 B) 6 3 C) 6 2 3 D) 6 2 5


51. The triangle PQR is inscribed in the circle x
2
+ y
2
= 25. If Q and r have coordinates (3, 4) and (4, 3)
respectively, then QPR is equal to
A) /2 B) /3 C) /4 D) /6

52.
1
sin
x
dx
a x

=
A)
1
( ) sin
x
x a ax c
a

+ + B)
1
( ) tan
x
x a ax c
a

+ +
C)
1
( ) sin
x
x a x c
x a

+ +
+
D)
1
( ) tan
x
x a x c
a

+

53. The locus represented by 7 7 10 z i z i + = is
A) straight line B) circle C) hyperbola D) parabola

SECTION II (Total Marks:16)
(Multiple correct answer(s) type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE may be correct. Each correct answer carries 4 Marks. There is no negative
marking.

54. If A =
0
a b
a
(
(

is n
th
root of
2
I , identity matrix of order 2, then
A) if n is odd, a = 1, b = 0 B) if n is odd, a= -1, b = 0
C) if n is even, a =1, b = 0 D) if n is even, a = -1, b = 0

55. The equation of the parabola with same latus rectum as the ellipse
2 2
1
25 16
x y
+ = , is
A)
2
2 2
1
( 3)
5
x y x
| |
+ = +
|
\
B)
2 2 2
( 3) ( 4) 4 x y x x + + = +
C)
2
2 2
31
( 3)
5
x y x
| |
+ =
|
\
D)
2 2 2
( 3) ( 10) x y x + = +

56. Let e be the eccentricity of a hyperbola and f (e) be the eccentricity of its conjugate hyperbola then
3
1
..... ( )
n times
fffff f e de

1442443
is equal to
A) 4 if n is even B) 4 if n is odd C) 2 if n is even D) 2 2 if n is odd

57. Let ( ) f x = sin x + ax + b. Then ( ) f x = 0 has:
A) Only one real root which is positive if a > 1, b < 0
B) only one real root which is negative if a > 1, b > 0
C) only one real root which is negative if a < -1, b < 0
D) none of these




SECTION III (Total Marks:15)
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of the paragraph 3 multiple choice questions
and based on the other paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these
questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Each correct answer
carries 3 Marks. Each wrong answer carries -1 mark.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 59
M and N are two three digit numbers.

58. The number of pairs of M and N such that M can be subtracted from N without having to borrow in the
process of subtraction, is
A) 2! 10! 10! B) 45 x 55
2
C) 36 x 55
2
D) none of these

59. The number of pairs of M and N such that they can be added to get another three digit number without
having to carry over in the process of addition, is
A) 2! 10! 10! B) 45 x 55
2
C) 36 x 55
2
D) none of these

Paragraph for Question Nos. 60 to 62
A rumour spreads through a population of 5000 people at a rate proportional to the product of the number
of people who have heard it and the number who have not. Suppose that 100 people initiate the rumour
and that a total of 500 people know the rumour after two days. Let y (t) denote the number of people who
know the rumour at time t. Take log9/log 49 = 129 / 229.

60. The function y (t) is given by
A)
5000
5000
1 50
kt
e

+
B)
5000
5000
1 49
kt
e

+
C)
5000
5000
1 50
kt
e

D)
5000
500
1 49
kt
e

+


61.
1
0
( ) y t dt

=
A)
5000
1
log 1
49
k
e
k
| |
+
|
\
B)
( )
5000
1
log 1
k
e
k
+ C)
( )
500
5000 log 1
k
e + D) none of these

62. The time required for half the population to hear the rumour is
A) 4 days B) 6.4 days C) 4.58 days D) 3.32 days

SECTION IV (Total Marks:28)
(Integer Answer type)
This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the question is a single digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The bubble corresponding to the correct answer is to be darkened in the ORS. Each correct
answer carries 4 Marks. There is no negative marking.

63. The number of n digit natural numbers in which no two consecutive digits are same must be k
n
then the
numerical quantity k must be

64. If x, y, z are not all zeros so that x = cy + bz , y = az + cx and z = bx + ay then
2 2 2
1 ( ) a b c
abc
+ +
=

65. The number of distinct values of a 2 x 2 determinant whose entries are from the set {-1, 0, 1} is

66. Let f (x) =

>

1 0
1 , 1
x
x x
and g(x) = f (x 1) + f (x + 1) x R, then the value of

3
3
) ( dx x g is equal to

67. If , a b
r r
and c
r
are unit vectors, then,
2 2 2
a b b c c a + +
r r r r r r
does not exceed

68. A plane passes through (1, 2, 3) and is perpendicular to two planes x = 0 and y = 0. The distance of the
plane from the point (0, -1, 0) equals

69. How many ordered pairs (a, b) are possible if a, b, {0, 1, 2, ., 8} such that
2
2
0
2sin
lim
x
ax bx x
x

+
is a
finite real number?
- : ALL THE BEST : -

You might also like