Professional Documents
Culture Documents
PREBOARD 2 1
PROFESSIONAL GROWTH & DEVELOPMENT
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer
for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
1. When the non-Filipino midwife is allowed to practice in the Philippines without the midwifery licensure
examination, the following requirements must be complied with, but one
a. She is registered already in her own country
b. There is an agreement of Reciprocity
c. Residency of at least two (2) years in the Philippines as certified by the Bureau of Immigration
d. The educational requirement in the Philippines and the other country must be substantially the same
2. The functions of the Board of Midwifery are the following EXCEPT
a. Investigates violations of RA 7392
b. Issues warrants
c. Issues certificates of registration to those who passed the midwifery licensure examination
d. Conducts the midwifery licensure examination
3. The following are disqualified from being nominated as members of the Board of Midwifery, EXCEPT
a. Those who are incumbent national officers of the organization
b. Those who have already completed two (2) terms in the Professional Regulatory Board
c. Those with proven leadership qualities certified by reputable organization
d. Those who directly or indirectly solicit and use influence seeking their nominations
4. When the term of office of the Board of Midwifery has expired, she can be given an extension based on the
doctrine
a. Ad interim
b. Regular or merit appointment
c. Hold-offer
d. Permanent appointment
5. Which is not correct about the Board of Midwifery under RA 7392
a. The chairman is an obstetrician
b. The members are degree holders in health and social sciences
c. It is under the direct supervision of the President of the Philippines
d. All of them are Filipino citizens and at least 30 years of age
6. A registered midwife who wants to be a member of the Board of Midwifery shall be nominated by the
a. Philippine Obstetrical & Gynecological
Society
b. PMA
c. IMAP
d. Association of nurses and midwives
7. If a midwife accepts an assignment from the staff-nurse which is a practice of midwifery, it is assumed that
she will do her best to provide sage quality care. This contract is considered as
a. Formal
b. Informal
c. Facio ut Des
d. Do ut Des
8. Which of the following conditions will make the contract null and void?
a. One party was coerced to sign the contract
b. One of the contracting parties is 18 years old
c. Both parties gave a voluntary consent
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d. The subjects of the contract or a lawful
9. As a newly registered midwife, you are qualified for this position
a. Clinical instructor of a school of midwifery
b. Staff midwife in maternity hospital
c. Rural health supervisor
d. Staff midwife in the neonatal ICU of a hospital
10. A staff midwife must practice her organizational skills. Which of the following is not acceptable?
a. Respect the channels of communications
b. Understand the functions of different personnel
c. Supervise the different personnel on your respective unit or department
d. Know and respect each others capabilities
11. In which of the following conditions will a midwife working in a government hospital be entitled to an
overtime pay?
a. When she works on Saturdays or Sundays
b. When she works after R.M
c. When a night duty
d. When she works more than 8 hours a day
12. To be able to enjoy the benefit and privileges under RA 7305 the midwife must be an employee of any of the
following EXCEPT
a. A private clinic
b. Rural health unit
c. Sanitaria
d. Brgy. Health stations
13. One of the rights of a registered midwife under PD 442
a. To work overtime any day
b. Security of tenure after 6 months of employment
c. Maternity leave of 2 weeks before and 6 weeks after EDC
d. A yearly upgrading of salary
14. Not true of SSS membership
a. It is required for those employed in private hospitals
b. It is required for
c. There is no hospitalization benefit
d. Brothers and sisters are not dependents of SSS members
15. A midwife employed by a private institution enjoys the following privileges from the SSS, EXCEPT
a. Maternity leave
b. Death benefit
c. Hospitalization benefit
d. Sanitary
16. A sick midwife who is a member of the SSS shall enjoy Medicare benefit only if:
a. She is hospitalized
b. She has worked in a private institution
c. Treated by a physician for cosmetic surgery
d. She has rendered at least 5 years service
17. In case an RHU midwife is hospitalized, she ca avail of 45 days of hospitalization per year according to:
a. GSIS
b. PD 626
c. Medicare
d. SSS
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18. A midwife refused to be a member of the hospitals labor union. She can be accused of
a. Unprofessionalism
b. Insubordination
c. Negligence
d. None of these
19. When resigning from ones position in the hospital, the midwife needs to observe the following
considerations, EXCEPT:
a. See personally your immediate head before writing the letter of resignation
b. Obtain a clearance from your employer
c. File a letter of resignation through channels with 30 days notice
d. French leave
20. The most important document to present in applying for a passport is
a. PRC license
b. Transcript of record
c. Birth certificate
d. IMAP membership card
21. The government agency that gives assistance to the overseas workers when they decide to come back in
the Philippines to serve the Filipino people.
a. POEA
b. OWWA
c. DFA
d. Philippine Embassy
22. To be qualified as faculty of a school of midwifery, a R.M must have
a. 1 year of satisfactory teaching experience
b. 2 years of experience in the field of specialization
c. With at least 18 units of education courses
d. At least bachelors degree in the field of health and social sciences
23. One of the following is not qualified to be a principal of a school of midwifery
a. Registered nurse-midwife
b. Obstetrician
c. R.M with 2 years experience in the field of specialization
d. R.M with masters degree
24. A midwife request to of the patient who sustained a third degree laceration to stay with the patient
meanwhile she is getting a medical assistance. The midwife can be held liable for
a. Malpractice
b. Negligence
c. Unethical behavior
d. Dishonorable conduct
25. Doing induced abortion is illegal as per the law in the Philippine constitution
a. Article II-12
b. Article III-1
c. Article III-12
d. Article III
26. A registered midwife was found guilty of a violation of RA 6425 and was sentenced with life imprisonment.
The R.M committed a
a. Light felony
b. Less grave felony
c. Grave felony
d. Heinous crime
27. The Code of Ethics for Midwifery does not carry a legal force or sanction as per
a. Board Resolution No. 665 s. 1985
b. Board Resolution No. 557 s. 1998
c. Board Resolution No. 100 s. 1993
d. Board Resolution No. 187 s. 1991
28. The application of ethics refers to
a. Character
b. Conscience
c. Moral
d. Charity
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29. Proper manners and ceremonies which result to good social relationship is
a. Ethics
b. Adjustment
c. Etiquette
d. Prudence
30. When a midwifes behavior is in accordance with propriety and decency of works, dress and conduct, she
a. Respect the Golden Rule
b. Has discipline
c. Acts with proper decorum
d. Is obedient
31. The term unprofessional conducts includes which of the following
a. Serious ignorance
b. Lack of knowledge & skills
c. Violation of Code of Ethics
d. Imprudence
32. When a midwife lacks the necessary abilities, knowledge and skills to perform her roles and functions as a
professions, she is considered to be
a. Negligence
b. Irresponsible
c. Incompetent
d. Unprofessional
33. When a midwife is allowed to choose the family planning methods she wants without compulsion is one way
of respecting her right to
a. Confidentiality
b. Autonomy
c. Advocacy
d. Benefiance
34. The following are the true characteristics of a professional midwife, but one
a. Sense of accountability
b. Exercise of political power or activism
c. Several titles degrees appended to her name
d. Ethical practice as per Code of ethics for midwifery
35. Membership of IMAP is an ethical obligation of every registered midwife. This is mentioned under the
a. Midwifery Law of 1992
b. LOI 1000
c. RA 7305
d. Board Resolution No. 557
36. The term of office of IMAP officers as per their new by-laws is now
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 1 year
37. IMAP must have a nomination committee to endorse applicants for the Board of Midwifery according to this
law
a. RA 7392
b. RA 7164
c. EO 496
d. EO 226
38. The legal basis for celebrating the Midwifery Week every third week of October in proclamation
a. 949
b. 118
c. 539
d. 1275
39. Who among the following can be a member of the International Confederation of Midwives?
a. Members of the board and midwifery
b. National organization for midwives
c. DOH nurses
d. Registered midwives
40. A quorum during an association s meeting means that
a. Every member who is present participated in the deliberation
b. The agenda for the meeting has been approved
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c. 50% plus one (1) of the total membership attended the meeting
d. The presiding officer is with up-to-date knowledge about the organization
41. Based on the revised income tax scheme, a person who is married with two (2) children and whose
Spouse is also working is entitled to have a personal tax exemption
a. P18,000.00 plus P5,000.00
b. P36,000.00 plus P10,000.00
c. P9,000.00 plus P20,000.00
d. P12,000.00 plus P5,000.00
42. A professional midwife employed by a government agency should file her income tax every year not later
than
a. March 15
b. April 15
c. April 17
d. March 31
43. A professional midwife is exempted from paying professional tax because of this law
a. LOI 1000
b. RA 7392
c. RA 1612
d. RA 546
44. If a R.M. fails to file her income tax return on time, there shall be imposed & collected as part of the tax a
surcharge of
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 30%
d. 50%
45. Which of the following refers to CPE Programs for all professions?
a. EO 226
b. EO 226
c. EO 209
d. EO 51
46. C.P.E. programs for all professions must secure accreditation from the
a. CHED
b. PRC
c. CRE Council
d. DOH
47. C.P.E. programs and activities for the professional including registered midwives are the following, EXCEPT
a. Those that will improve the quality of care of the professional midwife to the client
b. Those that shall upgrade the knowledge and skills of a R.M. for the practice of midwifery
c. Those that are limited to the practice of midwifery
d. Those that are beyond the basic preparation for admission to the practice of midwifery
48. A Registered Midwife who is exempted from C.P.E. requirements are the following, EXCEPT
a. 65 years old
b. Working in a government agency
c. Practicing her position abroad
d. Furthering her studies in other countries
49. The total CPE credit unit every three years for registered professionals without baccalaureate degrees shall
be
a. 30 credit units
b. 35 credit units
c. 40 credit units
d. 45 credit units
50. Acting as a witness in the making of the WILL for a patient is a
a. A legal obligation of the health worker
b. Ethical practice
c. Voluntary act of the midwife
d. Unprofessional conduct
51. When the doctrine of jus sanguinis is the basis of determining citizenship, this means that it is according to
a. Place of birth
b. Citizenship of the mother
c. Naturalization of a non-Filipino
d. Citizenship of spouse
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52. Children who are illegitimate shall use the fathers surname if
a. The father accepts the child as his own
b. The father signs the birth certificate
c. The mother and father get married
d. The father and mother agreed on the use of the fathers surname
53. As per this law, the Certificate of Registration of a midwife is valid unless suspended or revoked by a
competent authority.
a. RA 7392
b. RA 7876
c. RA 8981
d. RA 7192
54. A midwife whose PRC identification Card is expiring on her birth month in 2009 is expected to renew it in
what year?
a. 2009
b. 2010
c. 2011
d. 2012
55. Which is correct about the certificate of Registration in Midwifery?
a. It is the license to practice
b. It gives the midwife vested right to practice
c. It is suspended or revoked it can be reissued upon taking another examination
d. If the midwife is abroad she can renew it when she returns to the Philippines
56. Government employed midwives are required top pay the following taxes:
a. Professional Taxes and community tax
b. Community tax and income tax
c. Professional tax and real property tax
d. Professional tax
57. If a patient and private duty midwife verbally agreed on the professional fee to be paid for a home delivery a
contract exist and it is called:
a. Express
b. Implied
c. Informal
d. Formal
58. A valid contract is characterized by these EXCEPT:
a. There is a voluntary consent from both parties
b. There are two or more competent parties
c. Both parties signed the contract
d. The subject of the contract is legal
59. When a mother gets a laceration during the delivery, an appropriate intervention which is legally allowed for
a midwife to do under RA 7392 is to:
a. Suture the laceration provided there is previous training
b. Suture the laceration in the presence of an obstetrician
c. Apply ice cap on the hypogastrium
d. Apply a sterile dressing on the perineum
60. If a midwife fails to answer a delivery call because of transportation strike she can be exempted from liability
because of this doctrine
a. Good Samaritan Acts
b. Fuerza Mayor
c. Res Ipsa Loquitor
d. Respondet Superior
61. Which of the following concepts is applicable when the midwife fails to inspect the placenta for
completeness causing postpartum hemorrhage?
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a. Borrowed Servant Doctrine
b. Force majeure
c. Reckless imprudence
d. Res Ipsa Loquitor
62. If a midwife was found guilty of abortion and the penalty was between 7 to 10 years in imprisonment, this
kind of crime is considered as:
a. Consummated less grave felony
b. Frustrated grave felony
c. Grave consummated felony
d. Less grave attempted felony
63. A midwife verbally threatened a child of physical punishment if he does not take medications, she can be
liable for:
a. Assault
b. Battery
c. Malum prohibitum
d. Slander
64. The right to life of the unborn is embodied in the 1987 Constitution of the Phillipines:
a. Article II Section 12
b. Article II Section 12
c. Article XIII Section 14
d. Article XV Section 2
65. To ensure good working relationship with the health professionals, she needs to:
a. Follow the standard operating procedures of the institution
b. Be loyal to do workers in any circumstances
c. Be guided by the scope of midwifery practice
d. Respect the legitimate functions of other health workers
66. If midwife keeps the baby of the mother who delivered in the private lying in clinic because the mother has
no sufficient amount of the bills she can be liable for:
a. Assault and Battery
b. Illegal detention
c. Intentional tort
d. False imprisonment
67. A G2PI bleed after giving birth, if the profuse vaginal bleeding was considered as sufficient evidence of
negligence, which of the following concept is applicable?
a. There is a need to investigate further to determine the presence of negligence
b. The mother played a role in brining about the injury
c. This injury is not preventable
d. The injury was within the exclusive control of the defendant hospital, doctor or nurse
68. If a midwife works on a legal holiday, she is entitled to an overtime pay as per the new labor code:
a. 25%
b. 30%
c. 100%
d. Additional 100%
69. A midwife who is applying as a clinical Instructor has to address her letter of application to the principal, one
of these is her qualification
a. A bachelors degree holder
b. With a proof of competence in teaching and supervision
c. With at least eighteen (18) units of education courses
d. With one (1) year experience in a maternity ward
70. Which of the following behaviors is unprofessional conduct of a midwife?
a. Ignoring observations or comments made by co workers
b. Calling the attention of co workers regarding errors in a proper perineal care
c. Having an intimate relationship with a male relative of a patient
d. Charging an exhorbitent fee for a normal home delivery
71. A midwife is tactful if:
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a. She is kind and considerate in her behaviors
b. She gives praises for a good job
c. She avoids talking to a co worker while on duty
d. She is supportive of her patient complaining of pain on her engorged breast
72. A conduct of a midwife which refers to proper distribution of time in order that the objectives set to the day
are met
a. Economical
b. Procrastinating
c. Punctual
d. Prudent
73. When a midwife uses the medical supplies of the hospital properly and only as need she is:
a. Charitable
b. Economical
c. Generous
d. Honest
74. Conscience is defined as :
a. An inner wisdom which guides us in making decision
b. What other people believe you as a person
c. Proper approach in the care of emotionally disturbed patients
d. Correct thinking in making evaluations
75. Integrity of character must be maintained in your relationships with patients and co workers:
a. Unconditional love
b. Adherence to moral values
c. Science of right and wrong conduct
d. Compromising attitude
76. A humanitarian motive which means self less concern with others:
a. Admission
b. Altruism
c. Egoism
d. Optimism
77. Loyalty means fidelity and faithfulness which of the following behavior implies loyalty?
a. The midwife reported on time the next day as scheduled despite an overtime done that day
b. The midwife discussed the shortcomings of a co worker with the head nurse
c. The midwife referred a patient to another doctor for a better management of her condition
d. The midwife received a fee for a home delivery
78. Ophthalmia neonatorum in the new born occurs as a consequence of contact with which of the following?
a. Monilia
b. Gonococcus
c. Streptococcus
d. Syphilis
79. Vitamin K is administered to the newborn because he lacks:
a. Enzymes to his liver
b. Antidiuretie hormone in his kidney
c. Glycogen stones in his liver
d. Bacterial flora in his colon
80. The best site to inject vitamin K in the newborn is:
a. Anterior thigh
b. Gluteal
c. Deltoid
d. Subscapular
81. In your initial assessment of the newborn, which of the following should you not include?
a. Physical appearance
b. Neurological reflexes
c. Gestational age
d. Healing of cord stamp
82. If the moro reflex appears to be diminished or absent within the first 24 hours, you know that:
a. This is normal
b. This is a critical indication of long term damage
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c. This information is not important
d. This information is important to the physician only
83. For which of the following data do you consider it unnecessary to notify the pediatrician as you evaluate
newborn at the end of his first 24 hours?
a. Failure to pass out meconium
b. Failure to void
c. The appearance of jaundice
d. Taking one ounce of formula feeding
84. The normal hemoglobin concentration in the newborn is:
a. 20-22 gm/ 100ml
b. 9-11/ 100 ml
c. 11-13 mg/ 100 ml
d. 17-18 gm/ 100 ml
85. A newborn heart rate is 80 at 1 minute after birth. On an Apgar score, you would give this a rating of:
a. 4
b. 2
c. 1
d. 0
86. The mother of a three month old infant is concerned because the infant does not sit by herself. Which
statement best reflects average sitting ability?
a. Most babies sit steadily at 4 months, she is normal
b. Most babies sit steadily at three months, she is slightly delayed
c. Sitting ability and the age of first tooth eruption are correlated
d. Most babies do not sit steadily until 8 months, she is normal
87. In a two year old child, the standard against which you measure language is:
a. He should say 20 nouns, 4 pronouns
b. He should be able to count out loud up to 20
c. He should say two words plus mama and dada
d. Ha should speak in two words sentence
88. At 28 weeks of age, a normal baby should be able to:
1. Roll over
2. Reach for and grasp large objects
3. Sit with support
4. Utter repetitive vowel sounds
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 2 and 4
d. All of the above
89. The primary task to e accomplished between 12 and 15 months of age is to:
a. Use a spoon
b. Give up the bottle
c. Walk
d. Say simple words
90. Which of the following foods is preferable to introduce first?
a. Chocolate
b. Egg white
c. Rice cereal
d. Beef
91. Which of the following is not normal in a newborn a few hours after birth?
a. Persistent, high pitched cry
b. Slight cyanosis of the extremities
c. Tar-like stools
d. Attitude of general flexion
92. If a newborn has Mongolian spots, explain to the mother that these:
a. Will tend to be permanent at birth
b. Will usually disappear in due time
c. Indicate mental retardation
d. Indicate congenital syphilis
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93. Small, whitish, pinpoints spots over the nose of the newborn is called:
a. Lanugo
b. Milia
c. White head
d. Mongolian spot
94. An activity appropriate for a toddler that would best hasten the development of autonomy is:
a. Feed him lunch
b. Read him a story
c. Let him pull a walking duck tool
d. Have him watch a puppet show in the television
95. A two year old child is engaging in breathe holding when he cannot have his way. A time-honored way to
handle such temper tantrum is:
a. Appear to ignore them
b. Distract him with his favorite toy when he begins breathe holding
c. Promise him special activity if he will stop
d. Irritate his behavior by also holding your breathe
96. When toilet training a toddler, the best instruction you would want to give the mother regarding toilet training
is:
a. All children should be toilet trained by age 2
b. Children remain dry during nighttime before daytime
c. Training a child to be bowel-trained is faster than urine training
d. Toilet training is a long 12-month process
97. A newborn has cleft lip and cleft palate. Preoperatively, the immediate need that you will consider is:
a. Prevention of pneumonia
b. Prevention of oral infection
c. Nutrition
d. Oliguria
98. In assessing a newborn with congenital heart defect, the chief concern is often that the infant:
a. Is overweight
b. Always seem hungry
c. Seems to have difficulty in feeding
d. Appears pale
99. If a two year old child having Wilms tumor, you need to know that the first sign is:
a. Weight loss
b. Chronic cough
c. Abdominal mass
d. Oliguria
100. In a baby who is born with tracheoesophageal fistula, which findings during pregnancy would have caused
you to suspect this might be present?
a. A difficult second stage of labor
b. Polydramnios
c. Bleeding at 32 weeks of pregnancy
d. Oligohydramnios