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1) Which of the following is associated with the extrapyramidal motor pathways?

a) Corticospinal tract
b) Corticobulbar tract
c) Basal ganglia
2.1) What muscles are controlled by the medial motor pathway?
a) Postural
b) Hands and fine movement
c) Breathing and cardiac
d) Visceral
e) Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid
2.2) Which of the following is a tract of the lateral motor system?
a) Tectospinal tract
b) Vestibulospinal tract
c) Pontine reticulospinal tract
d) Pontine medullary tract
e) Rubrospinal tract
3) Which of the following describes the release phenomenon?
a) When inhibition is removed and actions cease to take place
b) When inhibition is removed and actions are allowed to take place
c) When inhibition occurs and actions cease to take place
d) When inhibition occurs and actions are allowed to take place
4) Which of the following would be seen in spinal shock after a spinal cord injury (SCI),
such as a transection, at the level of T6?
a) Permanent loss of motor function below the level of T6
b)Temporary loss of motor function below the level of T6
c) Permanent loss of motor function involving all of the spinal cord
d)Temporary loss of motor function involving all of the spinal cord
e) Permanent loss of motor function above the level of T6
f) Temporary loss of motor function above the level of T6
5) Which of the following would most likely occur as a mass reflex with loss of
descending spinal inhibition or spinal cord rearrangement?
a) Multiple muscle clonus, especially in the feet
b) Hyperactive extension of the arms
c) Hyperactive flexion of the arms
d) Hyperactive extension of the arms with bowel evacuation
e) Hyperactive flexion of the arms with bowel evacuation
6) A positive Babinski sign, with upward movement of the big toe and fanning downward
of the other toes, is a sign that a lesion occurred in what tract?
a) Anterior corticospinal tract
b) Lateral corticospinal tract
c) Corticobulbar tract
d) Rubrospinal tract
e) Vestibulospinal tract
7) Many biological oscillators, such as those controlling breathing, operate on the basis of
reciprocal ____ of circuits called half-centers that control ____ muscles.

a) Excitation; Synergistic
b) Excitation; Antagonistic
c) Inhibition; Synergistic
d) Inhibition; Antagonistic
8.1) A trauma patient presents to the Emergency Room in decorticate position. A tonsilar
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brain herniation is found. Shortly after, the patient progresses to decerebrate rigidity, and
thus appears with:
a) Head arched back, arms extended by the sides, legs extended
b) Elbows, wrists and fingers flexed, legs flexed and rotated outward
c) Head flexed forward, arms extended by the sides, legs flexed
d) Elbows, wrists and fingers flexed, legs extended and rotated inward
8.2) Which of the following is thought to be important in the rigidity seen in decerebrate
positioning?
a) Alpha motor neurons
b) Gamma motor neurons
c) Type Ia sensory fibers
d) Type II sensory fibers
e) Golgi tendon organs
9) In the normal vestibulo-ocular reflex, turning the head to one side results in ipsilateral
rotation of the eyes. In patients with nystagmus, which of the following is seen?
a) Slow motion away from a target then saccade toward the target
b) Slow motion toward a target then saccade to neutral
c) Saccade away from a target then slow motion toward the target
d) Saccade toward a target then slow motion to neutral
10) Which of the following is controlled by the corticobulbar tract and not the lateral
corticospinal tract?
a) Tongue
b) Lower face
c) Postural muscles
d) Distal extremities
11) Which of the following connected areas receives sensory information from the post-
central gyrus and visual information from the occipital cortex?
a) Pre-motor cortex
b) Posterior parietal lobe
c) Supplementary motor cortex
12) Neglect syndrome occurs with a lesion in the non-dominant hemisphere for language
(usually right), and has what affect?
a) Inability to recognize objects placed in the contralateral hand and inability to
recognize 3D objects
b) Inability to recognize objects placed in the ipsilateral hand and inability to
recognize 3D objects
c) Inability to recognize objects placed in the contralateral hand and inability to
draw 3D objects accurately
d) Inability to recognize objects placed in the ipsilateral hand and inability to
draw 3D objects accurately
13) Which of the following best describes the role of the cerebellum in movement?
a) Coordinated motion of the extremities
b) Gross motion before and during their progress
c) Fine-tuned motion before and during their progress
d) Reciprocally inhibited motion of contralateral muscles
e) Directly inhibited motion of ipsilateral muscles

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Match the cerebellum division with the functional description:

14.1) Regulates movement and muscle tone a) Archicerebellum


14.2) Modulates the output of the motor cortex b) Paleocerebellum
14.3) Controls balance, coordinates head/eye movements c) Neocerebellum
15) Which of the following signs of neocerebellum damage is seen as irregular
performance of pronation and supination of the forearm?
a) Ataxia
b)Asynergy
c) Dysmetria
d)Intention tremor
e) Dysdiadochokineia
f) Pendular phasic stretch reflexes
g)Dysarhria
16) Which of the following components of the basal ganglia does NOT have fiber
striations (striatum) connecting their nucleus?
a) Caudate nucleus
b) Putamen
c) Globus pallidus
17) What two brainstem nuclei are associated with the basal ganglia?
a) Putamen and nucleus accumbens
b) Nucleus accumbens and substantia nigra
c) Substantia nigra and caudate nucleus
d) Caudate nucleus and subthalamic nucleus
e) Subthalamic nucleus and substantia nigra
18) A patient presents with tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. An MRI of the frontal lobe
shows an abnormal substantia nigra. Which of the following neurotransmitters (neuron
types) would most likely be involved in this patient’s disease?
a) Nicotine
b) Muscarine
c) Dopamine
d) Epinephrine
e) Norepinephrine
1.1) The medial vestibulospinal tract has axons originating in the medial and inferior
vestibular nuclei that descend ____ and influence motor neurons controlling ____
musculature.
a) Ipsilaterally; Neck
b)Contralaterally; Neck
c) Bilaterally; Neck
d)Ipsilaterally; Leg extensors
e) Contralaterally; Leg extensors
f) Bilaterally; Leg extensors
1.2) The lateral vestibulospinal tract has axons that descend ____ and influence motor
neurons controlling ____ musculature.
a) Ipsilaterally; Neck
b)Contralaterally; Neck
c) Bilaterally; Neck
d)Ipsilaterally; Leg extensors
e) Contralaterally; Leg extensors
f) Bilaterally; Leg extensors
1.3) Damage to the superior colliculus causes decerebrate rigidity due to the ____, which
is rostral to the superior colliculus and is responsible for flexor muscles.
a) Medial vestibulospinal tract
b) Lateral vestibulospinal tract
c) Medial reticulospinal tract
d) Lateral reticulospinal tract
e) Rubrospinal tract
1.4) Fibers of which of the following arise in the red nucleus, crossing at the tegmental
decussation?
a) Medial vestibulospinal tract
b) Lateral vestibulospinal tract
c) Medial reticulospinal tract
d) Lateral reticulospinal tract
e) Rubrospinal tract
1.5) Which of the following muscles are innervated by the rubrospinal tract?
a) Neck and head
b) Arm flexors
c) Arm extensors
d) Leg flexors
e) Leg extensors
2.1) A lesion eliminating cortical input to the red nucleus would result in decorticate
positioning, as which of the following tracts can still get excitation as projections from the
cerebellar nuclei are unaffected by the lesion? a) Medial vestibulospinal tract
b) Lateral vestibulospinal tract
c) Medial reticulospinal tract
d) Lateral reticulospinal tract
e) Rubrospinal tract
2.2) A patient presents comatose with pupils fixed and dilated, no eye movement, lower
extremities extended, toes pointed inward, upper extremities extended, fingers flexed,
forearms pronated, and neck extended. Which of the following would be the least likely to
lead to this presentation?
a) Central herniation
b) Uncal herniation
c) Cerebellar herniation
d) Tosillar herniation
e) Cingulate herniation
1) The cell bodies of upper motor neurons are located in the ____ and the cell bodies of
lower motor neurons are located in the ____.
a) Brainstem or spinal cord; Cerebral cortex
b) Cerebral cortex; Brainstem or spinal cord
c) Spinal cord; Brainstem or cerebral cortex
d) Brainstem or cerebral cortex; Spinal cord
e) Brainstem; Cerebral cortex or spinal cord
2) Which of the following signs is associated with lower motor neuron lesions (non-
pyramidal tract sign)?
a) Positive Babinski sign
b) Hyper-reflexia or clonus
c) Hyper-tonia
d) Flaccid with eventual spastic muscles
e) Fibrillations or fasciculations
3) Strychnine acts on Renshaw cells, affecting their ability to control alpha motor neuron
firing by binding to the glycine receptors on the motor neuron. What affect would this
have on the diaphragm?
a) Repeated contractions (hiccups)
b) Slightly increased contractions (tachypnea)
c) Slightly decreased contractions (bradypnea)
d) Tetanus contractions (clonus)
e) Flaccid paralysis
4.1) The corticospinal tract originates in what layer of the cerebral cortex?
a) Molecular layer I
b)External granular layer II
c) External pyramidal layer III
d)Internal granular layer IV
e) Internal pyramidal layer V
f) Multiform layer VI
4.2) Which of the following is NOT a location where the corticonuclear and corticospinal
tracts originate?
a) Primary motor cortex (Area 4)
b) Premotor cortex (Area 6) and supplementary motor cortex
c) Primary somatosensory cortex (Areas 1, 2, and 3)
d) Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
e) Posterior parietal cortex
4.3) The corticonuclear and corticospinal tracts terminate in the red nucleus (ipsilateral),
reticular formation (bilateral), and the motor nuclei of all cranial nerves bilaterally
including:
a) Facial
b) Nucleus ambiguus
c) Hypoglossal
d) Spinal accessory
e) Trigeminal
4.4) At their level of termination, corticospinal fibers synapse primarily on:
a) Interneurons in laminae V to VII
b) The intermediate zone and anterior horn (laminae VII to IX)
c) The base of the posterior horn (laminae IV to VI)
5) Which of the following would be seen with a midbrain lesion of the corticonuclear
(corticobulbar) tract?
a) Contralateral lower face paralysis
b) Ipsilateral lower face paralysis
c) Contralateral paralysis of mastication muscles
d) Ipsilateral paralysis of mastication muscles
e) Bilateral clonus reflex of the ankles
6.1) Loss of the corticospinal tract may result in partial compensation by what tract,
playing a role in increased flexor tone of the upper limbs seen in decorticate posturing?
a) Corticonuclear
b) Corticorubral
c) Corticoreticular
d) Corticopontine
e) Vestribulospinal
6.2) Where does the corticoreticular (reticulospinal) tract originate?
a) Areas 4 and 6
b) Areas 5 and 7
c) Premotor cortex
d) Somatosensory cortex
e) Nearly all areas of the cortex
6.3) Where does the corticopontine system originate?
a) Areas 4 and 6
b) Areas 5 and 7
c) Premotor cortex
d) Somatosensory cortex
e) Nearly all areas of the cortex
7) In voluntary movement, what is the role of the supplementary motor cortex (and
premotor cortex)?
a) Hand-eye coordination
b) Motor movement with decreased neuron firing as muscle load increase
c) Motor movement with increased neuron firing as muscle load increase
d) Planning and rehearsing movement
e) Adjusting fine movements while gross movements are taking place
8) Which of the following would NOT be seen in Brown-Séquard syndrome at the level of
L4 on the left, post-spinal shock?
a) Spastic paralysis on the left
b) Loss of vibratory sense on the left
c) Loss of temperature sense on the right
d) Loss of proprioception on the right
e) Loss of pain sensation on the right
1.1) Which of the following is descriptive of the middle cerebral peduncle?
a) Composed of a restiform body
b) Composed of a juxtarestiform body on the wall of the 4th ventricle
c) Conveys afferent fibers from the nuclei of the basilar pons
d) Contains cerebellar efferent fibers from cerebellar nuclei
e) Distributes to the diencephalon and brainstem
1.2) Which of the following are contained in the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum?
a) Lobules I and HII
b) Lobules V and HV
c) Lobules VI and HVI
d) Lobules IX and HIX
e) Lobules X and HX
1.3) Which of the following cerebellar nuclei is considered lateral?
a) Fastigial nucleus
b) Globose nucleus
c) Emboliform nucleus
d) Dentate nucleus
1.4) Which of the following nuclei exit the cerebellum via the juxtarestiform bodies
(inferior peduncle) instead of the superior cerebellar peduncle?
a) Fastigial nucleus
b) Globose nucleus
c) Emboliform nucleus
d) Dentate nucleus
1.5) Which of the following arteries does NOT feed the cerebellum?
a) PICA
b) AICA
c) Superior cerebellar artery
d) Lenticulostriate artery
1.6) Which of the following are the only excitatory neurons of the cerebellar cortex?
a) Purkinje cells
b) Granular cells
c) Golgi cells
d) Stellate cells
e) Basket cells
1.7) Which of the following are the only efferent neurons of the cerebellar cortex?
a) Purkinje cells
b) Granular cells
c) Golgi cells
d) Stellate cells
e) Basket cells
1.8) Where do climbing fibers originate?
a) Locus ceruleus
b) Superior olive
c) Inferior olive
d) Medulla nuclei
e) Pons nuclei
2.1) The vestibulocerebellar module is made of the vestibulocerebellum and the:
a) Fastigial nucleus
b) Globose nucleus
c) Emboliform nucleus
d) Dentate nucleus
2.2) Which of the following cerebellar functional divisions contains the vermis?
a) Vestibulocerebellum (Archicerebellum)
b) Spinocerebellum (Paleocerebellum)
c) Cerebrocerebellum (Neocerebellum)
2.3) The spinocerebellum is able to elaborate proprioceptive input in order to anticipate
the future position of a body part during the course of a movement, in a "feed forward"
manner.
a) True
b) False, that is the role of the vestibulocerebellum/flocculocerebellum
c) False, that is the role of the cerebrocerebellum/pontocerebellum
2.4) The vestibulocerebellum is involved in planning movement that is about to occur and
has purely cognitive functions as well.
a) True
b) False, that is the role of the spinocerebellum
c) False, that is the role of the cerebrocerebellum/pontocerebellum 3)
Which of the following would occur with a lesion of the cerebellum?
a) Impaired performance of some previously learned motor behaviors
b) Impaired learning of some new motor behaviors
c) Impaired timing of motor behaviors/movements
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
4.1) Which of the following refers to lesions of the lateral cerebellum resulting in
deterioration of coordinated movement?
a) Dyssynergia
b)Ataxia
c) Dysmetria
d)Intention tremor
e) Dysdiadochokinesia
f) Dysarthria
4.2) Which of the following is shows accentuated movement near a target such as when a
patient is asked to touch their nose with their finger tip and is seen in lesions of the
cerebrocerebellum?
a) Dyssynergia
b)Ataxia
c) Dysmetria
d)Intention tremor
e) Dysdiadochokinesia
f) Dysarthria
1) Which of the following is located anterior and caudal to the hypothalamus?
a) Cerebellum
b) Pineal body
c) Cingulate gyrus
d) Nucleus accumbens
e) Pituitary gland

2.1) Which of the following divisions of the hypothalamus contains the sexual dimorphic
nucleus involved in the release of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)?
a) Preoptic area
b) Lateral zone
c) Medial zone
d) Periventricular zone
2.2) Which of the following nuclei is NOT found in the supraoptic (chiasmatic) region of
the medial hypothalamic zone?
a) Supraoptic
b) Preoptic
c) Paraventricular
d) Suprachiasmatic
e) Anterior
2.3) Which of the following divisions of the hypothalamus contains a feeding center,
which responds to changes in blood glucose?
a) Preoptic area
b) Lateral zone
c) Medial zone
d) Peraventricular zone
2.4) Which of the following hypothalamic areas plays a role in male vocalization, male
sexual mounting, and female sexual lordosis behavior?
a) Arcuate nucleus
b) Ventromedial nucleus
c) Dorsomedial hypothalamic nucleus
d) Pituitary gland
e) Posterior nucleus
2.5) Korsakoff syndrome (amnesic-confabulatory syndrome) is a brain disorder of the
medial hypothalamus caused by a lack of thiamine, which is seen in which of the
following groups of patients?
a) Diabetics
b) Epileptics
c) Stroke patients
d) Chronic alcoholics
e) Cocaine users
2.6) Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is involved in thermoregulation such as
sweating?
a) Medial preoptic nucleus
b) Supraoptic nucleus
c) Paraventricular nucleus
d) Anterior hypothalamic nucleus
e) Suprachiasmatic nucleus
2.7) Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei are involved in release of oxytocin and
vasopressin?
a) Anterior hypothalamic nucleus and medial preoptic nucleus
b) Supraoptic nucleus and paraventricular nucleus
c) Suprachiasmatic nucleus and lateral preoptic nucleus
d) Dosomedial hypothalamic nucleus and arcuate nucleus
e) Ventromedial nucleus and lateral nucleus
3.1) Which of the following is an exclusively efferent connection of the hypothalamus?
a) Mamillothalamic tract
b) Fornix
c) Stria terminalis
d) Ventral amygdalofugal tract
e) Medial forebrain bundle
3.2) Which of the following is an exclusively afferent connection of the hypothalamus?
a) Retinohypothalamic tract
b) Dorsal longitudinal fasciculus (of Schültz)
c) Medial forebrain bundle
d) Ventral amygdalofugal tract
e) Stria terminalis
4) What is the affect of disrupting hypothalamospinal fibers at the level of C6?
a) Ipsilateral loss of sympathetic flow to the face and body
b) Contralateral loss of sympathetic flow to the face and body
c) Ipsilateral loss of parasympathetic flow to the face and body
d) Contralateral loss of parasympathetic flow to the face and body
5) Which of the following hormones regulated by the hypothalamus causes the anterior
pituitary to inhibit secretion of growth hormone?
a) Corticotropin-releasing hormone
b) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
c) Growth hormone-releasing hormone
d) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
e) Somatostatin
6.1) Overproduction of which of the following leads to hyperadrenalism and thus
Cushing disease?
a) Prolactin
b) Thyrotropin
c) Growth hormone
d) Gonadotropin
e) Corticotropin
6.2) Damage to which of the following areas would lead to loss of episodic memory?
a) Anterior hypothalamus
b) Posterior hypothalamus
c) Infundibulum
d) Mamillary bodies
e) Arcuate nucleus
7.1) Which of the following nuclei is involved in the baroreceptor reflex?
a) Arcuate nucleus
b) Ventromedial nucleus
c) Solitary nucleus
d) Posterior nucleus
e) Dorsomedial hypothalamic nucleus
7.2) What part of the hypothalamus is involved in regulating heat dissipation?
a) Caudal/Posterior
b) Rostral/Anterior
c) Lateral
d) Medial
7.3) The supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei are involved in the water reflex, which can
lead to diabetes insipidus with inappropriate secretion of what hormone?
a) Vasopressin (ADH)
b) Prolactin
c) Leutinizing hormone (LH)
d) Growth hormone
e) FSH & TSH
7.4) Damage to which of the following areas will likely lead to endocrine imbalance?
a) Paraventricular nuclei
b) Supraoptic nuclei
c) Mamillary process
d) Infundibulum
e) Posterior hypothalamus
7.5) A patient presents with anosmia and gonad digenesis (sterility) due to Kallman
syndrome. Cells secreting which of the following did not develop for this patient during
embryonic stages?
a) Corticotropin-releasing hormone
b) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
c) Growth hormone-releasing hormone
d) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
e) Leutinizing hormone-releasing hormone
7.6) A lesion to the anterior hypothalamus will most likely lead to what temperature
regulation affect?
a) Hyperthermia
b) Hypothermia
c) Poikilothermia
d) No affect
7.7) A lesion to the posterior hypothalamus will most likely lead to what temperature
regulation affect?
a) Hyperthermia
b) Hypothermia
c) Poikilothermia
d) No affect
7.8) Which of the following areas of the hypothalamus is most involved in appetite?
a) Paraventricular nuclei
b) Ventromedial nuclei
c) Lateral hypothalamic nucleus
d) Dorsomedial hypothalamic nucleus
e) Suprachiasmic nucleus
7.9) Which of the following areas of the hypothalamus is most involved in circadian
rhythms (sleep)?
a) Paraventricular nuclei
b) Ventromedial nuclei
c) Lateral hypothalamic nucleus
d) Dorsomedial hypothalamic nucleus
e) Suprachiasmic nucleus
7.10) Damage to which of the following hypothalamic areas would most lead to extreme
aggressivity (unprovoked attacks)?
a) Paraventricular nuclei
b) Ventromedial nuclei
c) Lateral hypothalamic nucleus
d) Dorsomedial hypothalamic nucleus
e) Suprachiasmic nucleus
1.1) Which of the following is a component of the second level (limbic lobe and
subcortical nuclei) of the limbic system?
a) Uncus
b) Cingulate gyrus
c) Amygdaloid complex
d) Subcallosal area
e) Parahippocampal gyrus
1.2) Which of the following is NOT involved in an efferent fiber bundle connection of
the limbic system?
a) Subiculum
b) Hippocampus
c) Amygdala
d) Mamillary body
e) Periaquaductal gray
2.1) The hippocampus is critical in what type of memory?
a) Working memory
b) Declarative memory
c) Procedural memory
2.2) Which of the following is NOT a part of the circuit of Papez?
a) Anterior thalamus
b) Hippocampus
c) Hypothalamus
d) Cingulate cortex
e) Amygdala
2.3) A chronic alcoholic presents with confabulation of events that never occurred,
thiamine deficiency, and ataxia due to cerebellar damage. Which of the following would
best describe this patient?
a) Akinetic mutism
b)Korsakoff syndrome
c) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
d)Klüver-Bucy syndrome
e) Alzheimer disease
f) Anterograde amnesia

2.4) A patient presents with diminished emotional response, immobility, inability to talk,
and unresponsiveness (akinetic mutism). Which of the following parts of the cingulated
gyrus was affected?
a) One side of the anterior portion
b) Both sides of the anterior portion
c) One side of the posterior portion
d) Both sides of the posterior portion
2.5) A patient presents with suspected memory loss. A clinician tells the patient three
words to remember and begins an examination. Thirty seconds later, the clinician asks
the patient about the words and the patient cannot even recall being asked to remember
any words (anterograde amnesia). Which structure is likely damaged?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Thalamus
c) Hippocampus
d) Amygdala
e) Nucleus accumbens
2.6) A patient presents with intracellular neurofibrillary tangles and extracellular amyloid
deposits in the subiculum and entorhinal cortex. Which of the following is the most
likely?
a) Akinetic mutism
b)Korsakoff syndrome
c) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
d)Klüver-Bucy syndrome
e) Alzheimer disease
f) Anterograde amnesia
3.1) The amygdala is located directly anterior (rostral) to which of the following?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Thalamus
c) Hippocampus
d) Olfactory bulb
e) Prefrontal cortex
3.2) Which of the following areas are involved in combining uncontrolled olfactory input,
such as pheromones or certain scents, with memories when a person suddenly is able to
bring back “forgotten” memories when they smell certain scents?
a) Thalamus and hypothalamus
b) Hippocampus and amygdala
c) Nucleus accumbens and septal nuclei
d) Prefrontal cortex and olfactory bulb
e) Broca area and Wernicke area
3.3) Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with an amygdala lesion
causing Klüver-Bucy syndrome?
a) Hyperorality
b) Hypermetamorphosis
c) Hyperphagia
d) Hypersexuality
e) Hypervigilance
3.4) Which of the following would give you an impending sense of danger if you
saw a big person wearing a ski mask and holding a knife in a dark alley?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Thalamus
c) Hippocampus
d) Amygdala
e) Olfactory bulb
4) Which of the following are proposed roles of the nucleus accumbens?
a) Laughter, pleasure, fear, addiction
b) Hunger, satiety, thirst, hunting behaviors
c) Feelings of warmth, cold, shivering
d) Circadian rhythms, sleep, crying
e) Anger, rage, vocalization, sorrow
5) Which of the following is NOT considered a role of the limbic system?
a) Memory
b) Pleasure
c) Fear
d) Sorrow
e) Appetite
a) Dyssynergia
b) Dysdiadochokinesia
c) Dysmetria and decomposition
d) Contralateral ataxia
e) Ipsilateral ataxia
4.4) A patient presents with palatal myoclonus (PM) due to damage to the Triangle of
Guillain-Mollaret. Which of the following is NOT a part of this triangle?
a) Red nucleus
b) Dentate nucleus
c) Globus pallidus
d) Inferior olivary nucleus
Neuro #1
1) C
2.1) A
2.2) E
3) B
4) B
5) E
6) B
7) D
8.1) A
8.2) B
9) B
10) C
11) B
12) C
13) C
14.1) B
14.2) C
14.3) A
15) E
16) C
17) E
18) C
Neuro #3
1.1) C
1.2) D
1.3) D
1.4) E
1.5) B
2.1) E
2.2) E
Neuro #4
1) B
2) E
3) D
4.1) E
4.2) D
4.3) E
4.4) A
5) A
6.1) B
6.2) C
6.3) E
7) D
8) D

Neuro #6
1.1) C
1.2) E
1.3) D
1.4) A
1.5) D
1.6) B
1.7) A
1.8) C
2.1) A
2.2) B
2.3) A
2.4) C
3) D
4.1) A
4.2) D
4.3) E
4.4) C
Neuro #9
1) E
2.1) A
2.2) B
2.3) B
2.4) B
2.5) D
2.6) D
2.7) B
3.1) A
3.2) A
4) A
5) E
6.1) E
6.2) D
7.1) C
7.2) B
7.3) A
7.4) D
7.5) E
7.6) A
7.7) C
7.8) C
7.9) E
7.10) B
Neuro #10
1.1) C
1.2) E
2.1) B
2.2) E
2.3) C
2.4) B
2.5) C
2.6) E
3.1) C
3.2) B
3.3) E
3.4) D
4) A
5) E