ATA Pergunta Sol Resposta

21
_______ and _________ temperature can be selected from the
AIR panel in the cockpit.
B Cabin and Flight deck
21
At what cabin altitude do you get an ECAM warning (digital
cabin altitude and needle appear in red) starts?
C 9,550 feet
21
BLEED AIR supplied from the APU (APU BLEED VALVE OPEN) ;
The PACK flow is:
A Automatically selected HIGH.
21 COND ZONE REGULATOR FAULT (PRIMARY CHANNEL failed) A
CABIN ZONE at fixed temp (24C) ; Pack one controls the
cockpit temperature ; Pack 2 controls the cabin temperature.
21 Conditioned air is distributed to : B Cockpit, Forward and Aft Cabins
21 During Ground function operation, the outflow valve is: B Fully open.
21
During normal flight the Avionics Ventilation System controls the
temperature of the cooling air by:
D Passing Air through a Skin Heat Exchanger.
21
During the exterior preflight on a warm day, in what position
would you expect to find the avionics ventilation system INLET
and EXTRACT valves to be in?
D Open.
21
Each air conditioning pack controller regulates the temperature
of its associated pack by modulating the _________.
(Read all answers)
D Bypass valve,Ram air outlet flaps and Ram Air Inlet flaps.
21
Emergency RAM AIR INLET: When set to ON, the RAM AIR VALVE
will open:
C Dif Pressure < 1 PSI and Ditching not selected.
21
Engine flow demand, when the heating or cooling demand in
one zone cannot be satisfied :
B The minimum idle is increased automatically
21
Hot air FAULT ligh illuminates on the air conditioning panel.
(MSN 185-870)
C
The hot air press reg. valve closes and the trim air valves close
automatically.
21 HOT AIR FAULT light illuminates on the Air Conditioning panel : C
The HOT AIR PRESS REG. VALVE closes and the TRIM AIR
VALVES close.
21
Hot air indication, on "ECAM COND PAGE", is normally green but
becomes crossline_____ if the flow control valve is closed and
the pb is OFF or the valve disagree is closed.
C Amber
21 Hot air pressure regulating valve failed open : C No effect on PACK.
21 HOT AIR PRESSURE REGULATING VALVE: A
Regulates the pressure of HOT AIR tapped upstream of the
PACKS
21 How can you change pressurization controllers during flight? C
Cycle the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL pushbutton to the MAN
position then back to AUTO.
21 How many outflow valves are there? B One valve with actuactors that incorporate three motors.
21
If a PACK CONTROLLER fails, the PACK OUTLET air temperature is
regulated by the anti-ice valve to a temperature between 5C
and :
C 30'C
21
If both automatic system fail, the flight crew may use the CABIN
PRESS control panel to take over manual control of cabin
pressurization.When you select MAN mode on the MODE SEL pb
you can use the MAN V/S CTL in order to. . .
C Manually control the outflow valve.
21
If you select a position other than the AUTO detent on the LDG
ELEV AUTO selector, how can you see the actual landing
elevation value? (Read all answers)
D On the ECAM CRUISE or the PRESS page.
21
In case of air cycle machine failure, a bypass valve allows the
bleed air to be cooled by the _____ only.
B Associated heat exchanger
21
In case of PACK CONTROLLER failure, the PACK OUTLET air
temperature is controlled by :
B PACK ANTI-ICE valve.
21
In case of ZONE CONTROLLER Primary and Secondary channel
failure, what temperatures are maintained
C 20C PACK 1 - 10C PACK 2
21
In some abnormal operatin both the BLOWER and the EXTRACT
pb sw need to be set in OVRD position. In this situation the
ventilation system works in,
B Close-circuit configuration and the blower fan stops.
21 Once set to ON the AIR CONDITIONING PACKS operate : A Automatically and independently of each other.
21 Pack Controller vary the flow rate and temperature output via ... A ... the Pack Flow Control Valve, and the By-pass valve
21 PACK CONTROLLERS, SECONDARY CHANNEL failure : D
No effect on Pack regulation. Backup mode is lost. ECAM
signals to the corresponding pack are lost.
21 PACK FLOW CONTROL VALVE : A Pneumatically operated and electrically controlled.
21 PACK FLOW may be selected-from: A The cockpit.
21 PACK REGULATOR (CONTROLLER) PRIMARY CHANNEL failure: A
The PACK air inlet flap fully opens ; PACK Flow is fixed at
previous setting.
21
PACKS CONTROLLER, PRIMARY and SECONDARY CHANNELS
failure:
A
PACK OUTLET temperature is controlled by the ANTI-ICE
VALVE and is stabilized between 5C and 30 in a maximum
of 6 minutes.
21 Placing the EXTRACT push button to override: C
Places the avionics ventilation system in the closed circuit
configuration and air from air conditioning is added to
ventilation air.
21 Pressurization controllers receive inputs from: A LGCIU, ADIRs, FMGS, and EIU.
21
Pressurization is normally automatic. Can you interfere with it?
(READ ALL ANSWERS)
B
Yes, CABIN PRESS MODE SEL to MAN and MAN V/S CTL toggle
switch.
21
The air conditioning pack flow control valve closes automatically
in case of:(READ ALL ANSWERS)
D All of the above.
21 The aircraft has two packs ... D ... operating automatically and independent of each other
21
The automatic pressure control mode has two identical,
independent automatic systems to control the cabin pressure.
This is normally achieved, with the CAB PRESS MODE SEL in
AUTO, via the positioning of ,
D The OUTFLOW valve.
21
The avionics ventilation is fully automatic and it has different
types of configurations; open-circuit, close-circuit, intermediate
and abnormal. With both the BLOWER and EXTRACT pb sw in
AUTO you are in,
D
Open configuration on the ground before applying T/O power
and closed configuration after applying T/O power and in the
air.
21
The avionics ventillation system is fully automatic with several
configurations; open-circuit, close-circuit, intermediate and
abnormal. Crew will find the intermediate configuration when
the aircraft is,
C
In flight, and skin temperature above the in flight threshold
(+35 temperature increasing or +32 temperature decreasing).
21
The avionics ventillation system is fully automatic. It has several
types of configurations; open-circuit, close-circuit, intermediate
and abnormal. In normal operation, crew can find close-circuit
configuration
D
When skin temperatureis beneath the inflight threshold or
beneath the on-ground threshold.
21 The cabin pressure controllers receive signals from _____. D All of the above.
21
The cabin pressure has four general functions, ground function,
prepressurization, pressurization in flight and depressurization.
The ground function will,
A Depressurize the cabin fully opening the OFV.
21
The CPC automatically controls the cabin pressure optimizing it
during climb and descent and limitting it at 8000ft max. Having
manually set the LDG ELEV, the cabin pressure is,
B Still controlled automatically, through the Outflow valve.
21
The flight crew uses the zone temperature sel to set the
reference temperatures. The zone controller computes a
temperature demand from the selcted temperature and the
actual temperature and optimizes it by ,
D The TRIM AIR valves.
21 The Heat Exchanger inlet scoop and outlet duct are controlled ... D ... by the Pack Controller.
21 The Heat Exchanger inlet scoop and outlet duct... B .. are kept fully closed at takeoff..
21 The HOT AIR valve push button controls: D The hot air pressure, tapped upstream of the packs.
21
The MAN V/S CTL controls the outflow valve position through
operation of the MAN motor. When the toggle switch is in the
up position,
A The cabin altitude is raised by opening the outflow valve.
21 The MIXING UNIT is connected to: A
PACKS, CABIN AIR, EMERGENCY RAM AIR INLET and LP
GROUND CONNECTOR
21 The outflow valve is powered by: C One of three electric motors.
21
The pack compressor outlet temperature indication, on the
ECAM bleed page, is normally green but becomes amber above
______ degrees C .
B 230
21
The pack flow control valve regulates the air flow in accordance
with signals from the pack controller. The valve is controlled
from the AIR COND panel through,
D The pack pb and the pack flow selector.
21
The PACK FLOW controller si set to NORM and yet the ECAM
display shows PACK FLOW to be high. How is this possible?
D
HI flow is automatically selected regarless of PACK FLOW
selector position because air is only being supplied by the
APU.
21
The PACK FLOW selector is set to LOW and the ECAM display
shows PACK FLOW to be high. This configuration appears when,
C In single pack operation or with APUbleed supply.
21
The pack flow selector permits the selection of pack valve flow
to LO (80%), NORM (100%) and HI (120%). Crew should select
pack flow sel to HIGH when,
C With a high passenger load and/or in very hot conditions.
21
The pack flow selector permits to select the pack valve flow to
LO ( 80%), NORM ( 100% ) an HI ( 120%). Crew should select LO,
(MSN 0185 0234 0750-0837 0906-0960 0982-12131 1799-2178)
A
With a low passenger load to reduce bleed air demand and
improve fuel efficiency.
21 The RAM AIR switch should be used: B Only when DIFF PRESS is less than 1 PSI.
21 The safety valves are : D Two and Pneumatically operated.
21
The safety valves prevent cabin pressure from going too high (
+8.6psi ) or too low ( -1psi). They are controlled,
D Automatically.
21
The trim air valves optimizes the temperature by adding hot air.
These valves are electrically controlled by,
C The zone controller
21 The ZONE temperature selectors are located in: A The cockpit.
21 TRIM AIR VALVE, each one optimizes the temperature by: A Adding HOT AIR.
21 TRIM AIR VALVES are modulated by : A The ZONE CONTROLLER
21 Trim air valves are modulated by: B The zone controller.
21
Two independent pneumatic safety valves are located on the
rear pressure bulkhead.They protect the aircraft :
D
Cabin pressure from going too high (8.6 psi above ambient) or
too low (1 psi below ambient)
21
Under what conditions should the pack flow controller be set to
LO?
A
With a low passenger load to reduce bleed air demand and
improve fuel efficiency.
21
Various failure indications can be found during flight in the
ECAM COND page. If you have an "ALTN MODE" message in
green,
C You have a zone controller primary channel fault.
21
Warm, pre-conditioned bleed air enters the cooling path via the
_____ and is ducted to the primary heat exchanger.
C Pack valve.
21 What computers control the cabin and cockpit conditioned air? D
One zone controller that passes information and instructions
to two pack controllers.
21 What does the air conditioner mixing unit do? C Mixes air coming from the cabin and packs.
21
What happens to the pack flow control valves during engine
start?
D They automatically close.
21
What happens when hot air valve fails closed? (READ ALL
ANSWERS)
D All of the above.
21
What happens when a temperature selector rotary knob is
adjusted?
B
A signal is sent to the zone controller requesting a different
temperature.
21 What is the function of the ram air valve? C
Emergency smoke removal and ventilation in the event of
dual pack failure.
21 What is the MAX (NEGATIVE) differential pressure for the cabin: B -1 PSI
21 What is the MAX NORMAL CAB ALT : A 8000FT
21
What position do the pack flow control valves go to in the event
of a loss of the bleed system pressure?
D Closed.
21
When APU is supplying the packs, the zone controller sends a
demand signal to increase airflow when a zone temperature
cannot be satisfied.This signal is sent to the:
C APU ECB.
21
When both safety valves are fully closed, "SAFETY" appears in
white and the diagram is green. Those indications change to
amber when,
A One of the safety valve is open.
21 When does normal depressurization occur? D On landing touchdown
21 When does normal pressurization occur? C Pressurization occurs during the takeoff roll.
21
When landing elevation is set to AUTO, the landing elevation is
sent to the controller from:
B FMGS
21
When the cooling demand in one zone cannot be satisfied , if
the bleed pressure is too low, the ______ sends a pressure
demand signal to both EIU to increase the minimum idle and to
raise the bleed pressure
D Zone controller
21 When the pack flow control knob is positioned to HI, air flow is: C 120% of normal rate.
21
Which configuration of the ventilation system do you expect
with these flight conditions ?
B Closed configuration.
21
Which of the following statements is correct concerning
conditioned air?
B
Recirculating fans draw cabin air to a mixing unit where
conditioned air is added ; hot air is added downstream of the
Mixing Unit.
21
Which statement is correct regarding illumination of the amber
AFT ISOL VALVE fault light?
C
Means that either the inlet or outlet isolation valve(s)
disagrees with the switch position.
21
With the pressurization system in the automatic mode, which
valves are closed when the ditching push button is selected on?
C
The outflow valve, emergency ram air inlet, avionics
ventilation inlet and extract and pack flow control valves .
21
You are climbing to FL 390 and you have PACK #1 "pack
controller" failure. When primary and secondary channel fail,
A Pack #1 is operative but its ECAM signals are lost.
21
You are coping with an abnormal situation and you want to
descent from FL 350 to FL 310. As you are in manual pressure
control mode you will have to selct MAN V/S CTL down to a
cabin altitude of,
C 5300 ft.
21
You are in flight and CAB PR SYS 1+2 FAULT appears on ECAM.
Crew will have to,
B
Manually switch to manual pressure control via the CABIN
PRESS MODE SEL pb.
21
You are in flight and VENT SKIN VALVE FAULT appears on ECAM.
If extract valve affected, crew will have to select BLOWER and
EXTRACT to OVRD and,
A
The weather radar image on both ND's may be lost in case of
insufficient ventilation.
21
You are in flight and you suspect from a degraded performance
of the active cabin pressure controller. You may select the other
CPC to confirm its performance by,
B Switching the mode sel to MAN for at least 10 sec's then auto.
22
A/C is in clean configuration and NORMAL LAW. When the FAC
detects a too high angle of attack :
C ALPHA FLOOR function operates.
22
A/THR in blue means it is Armed. Why is there a white box
around it ?
B
The A/THR has become armed within the last 10 seconds and
the box is to draw attention to the change
22 A/THR in white means it is... C Active.
22
Aircraft on RWY centerline, ready for take-off. To preset a HDG
of 233
C
Turn HDG knob, set 233 pull HDG knob when ATC clears to
turn to 233
22
An eng. out condition occurs while aircraft is actually climbing
above FL 100:
B
The aircraft will direct a slow speed reduction down to green
dot speed.
22
ATC cleared you to FL 150. The PF set the new altitude on the
FCU. What will happen if he pulls the ALT selection knob?
B The aircraft will disregard the constraint and climb to FL 150.
22
ATC cleared you to FL 150. The PF set the new altitude on the
FCU. What will happen if he pushes the HDG/TRK selection knob
now?
C
The aircraft will continue in managed NAV, stop the climb at
FL 60 until the constraint has been passed and then climb to
FL150.
22
ATC cleared you to FL 150. What selections should you make to
ensure that the aircraft complies with the constraints?
A
Dial in the new cleared level FL150 and push the ALT control
knob (managed climb mode).
22
ATC tells you to turn onto a radar heading. Is it still possible to
comply with the climb constraint at FL60?
C
Yes. By selecting FL60 on the ALT knob until the constraint
point has been passed.
22
BEST TARGET SPEED is computed by the FMGS ( except for V2)
and is the basis for the managed speed profile. FMGS provides :
D
Econ Cruise Speed as a function of Cost Index, Cruise FL,
Gross Weight and Wind/Temperature models.
22
Choose the correct statement(s).
(Read all answers)
D All the above answers are correct.
22 Choose the current statement : B
When an NDB approach is selected in the F-PLN, the ADF is
automatically tuned only when sequencing the first fix of the
approach.It is convenient to manually tune the ADF earlier.
22 CLIMB and DESCENT are always limited B
By the altitude manually selected on the FCU taking into
account altitude constraints at waypoints.
22 During an APPROACH the NAV MODE will be deactivated at : B APPR or LOC engaging.
22
During take off, if the FCU selected altitude is inadvertently set
below the aircraft altitude, the aircraft:
D Remain in SRS.
22
During TAKE-OFF and GO AROUND, the speed window on the
FCU displays:
C
Dashes and the light is illuminated : managed speed such as
V2 or memorized VAPP are automatically used by the FMGS.
22
During take-off FMA show SRS. What is the order of horizontal
FD bar:
D
Climb at V2 + 10 normal engine configuration ; the highest of
V2 or Current speed limited to V2 + 15 if FMGS detects an
engine failure..
22 During the takeoff phase: B
SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts in
normal engine configuration.
22
Each FMGC displays an FM position in flight. The system uses
data from,
D IRS, GPS, DME, VOR and/or LOC.
22 Each FMGC is divided into two main parts : C FLIGHT MANAGEMENT and FLIGHT GUIDANCE
22
Following all generators failure, EMERGENCY GEN (hydraulic)
supplies the A/C and :
A FMGC 1 (NAV FUNCTION) is available.
22
For A/C position determination (FM position), each FMGC uses
data from :
D
Computed Radio position or GPS position and Mixed IRS
position.
22 For A/C radio position determination, FMGC uses data from : A
DME/DME or VOR/DME or LOC or DME/DME-LOC or
VOR/DME-LOC
22
Have a look at the FMA. The functions displayed in green on the
first line are ...
B All in active mode as they are on the first line and GREEN.
22
Have a look at the FMA. Why are ALT and G/S on the same line
but in different colors ?
C ALT and G/S are in armed mode but ALT has a constraint.
22
Have a look at the ND. What happens if the HDG selector knob is
pushed now?
D The aircraft will follow the selected HDG/TRK.
22 HDG/TRK preset is available before take off and up to: C 30 FT
22 If the approach phase is activated inadvertently: A
Reselecting the CRZ FL into the PROG page will reactivate the
CRZ phase.
22
If the baro setting is changed during ALT* this may lead to an
FCU target overshoot due to the change of the current value of
the altitude.
A
However ALT* mode will allow the FCU altitude to be
regained; anyway, as a general rule, avoid baro setting
change when in ALT*.
22
In a descent profile having 2 different altitude constraints, the
aircraft is below this profile and below the first constraint
(missed that constraint); a pseudo wp (interception point) is
displayed on the ND along the F-PLAN assuming to return to the
profile with:
C
A constant flight path angle (half the theoretical FPA or the
profile) until the interception
22
In approach, "LAND" illuminates green on FMA when RADIO
ALTITUDE IS :
B Slightly below 400 ft RA.
22
In flight, in case of temporary loss of electrical power on FAC 2,
FAC 2 pb FAULT comes on and :
B
It can be manually reset and if unsuccessful all fuctions are
performed by the remaining FAC.
22 In flight, the FMGS position can be updated : C
Automatically with the DME'S through the radio or GPIRS
position.
22
In normal operation, with the two MCDU showing the same
page, a modification made by the pilot on MCDU 1 is sent to
MCDU 2 :
C Via FMGC 1 and FMGC 2
22 In one of the cases listed below, A/THR does not disconnect: C When the aural warning announces "RETARD".
22
Managed NAV is armed on an intercept heading. What happens
if the HDG/TRK Selector Knob is pulled?
C The aircraft follows the selected HDG/TRK.
22
MAX Wind Conditions for CAT II/III automatic approach
LANDING and ROLL OUT are:
A Head Wind 30 kt ; Tail Wind 10 kt ; Crosswind 20 kt.
22 No V2 was entered on FMGC PERF page before T/O: B
V/S mode engages 5 seconds after Lift-off (no SRS) and the
FCU speed target is the current speed.
22
On an autoland approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC
is master?
A FMGC 1
22
On MCDU PROG page the displayed MAX REC FL gives at least
0.3 g buffet margin. A cruise FL entry may be made above this
level in the MCDU and will be accepted by the FMGS, provided it
does not exceed the level at which the margin is reduced to:
A 0.2G
22 On the ground, the arming of the AUTOTHRUST function: C
Is performed automatically by setting the Thrust Levers at
FLEX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.
22 On theFMA, on the second line of the longitudinal zone : C ALT in BLUE indicates that alt mode is armed.
22
One auto pilot can be engaged on ground if engines are not
running.
B
This A/P disengages automatically when one engine is started
.
22 One of the SRS disengagement conditions is not true : D Disengaged by setting a new FCU Altitude
22 Predictions for alternate airport are based on: C
Cost index = 0 (zero), ALT CRZ wind, CRZ temperature and
Destinatio Landing Weight.
22
Selected NAV is active on an intercept heading. What happens if
the HDG selector knob is pushed?
B
The aircraft continues on the heading until the original F-PLN
is intercepted.
22
Some conditions fot AUTOPILOT disengagement : (read all
answers) (MSN 0629-0755 0790-2178)
D All the above.
22
The AP/FD LOC mode is used by the pilots to fly localizer-only
approaches or to initiate an ILS approach when intercepting the
glide slope from above. Once armed it can be disarmed by :
B
Arming the NAV mode, engaging the GA mode or by pressing
the LOC pb when LOC is armed.
22
The dashes in some windows of this FCU indicate that there is
enough information to provide Managed Guidance. What does
this do?
D
Guides the aircraft in lateral, vertical and speed profiles as
computed by the FMGS but selected inputs have priority.
22
The EXPEDITE mode is active. To disengage it, one of these
statements is NOT correct :
D PRESS again the EXPD pb to cancel this mode.
22 The FAC achieve windshear detection function. A During approach from 1300' RA to 50 ft RA.
22 The FCU allows : B Selection of FG functions modes.
22 The FDs (FLIGHT DIRECTORS) are engaged automatically : B At FMGC power up
22 The FLIGHT GUIDANCE functions are : C AUTOPILOT, FLIGHT DIRECTOR, AUTOTHRUST
22
The FMGS (Flight Management and Guidance System) is the
main component of the auto flight system. It contains the
following units,
B 2 FMGC - 2 MCDU - 2 FAC - 1 FCU.
22 The following AP/FD lateral modes are managed : C NAV, APPR NAV, LOC, RWY, RWY TRK, GA TRK and ROLL OUT.
22
The LOC pb, on the FCU, is pressed to arm LOC. This mode is
used to:
D
Perform LOCALIZER approach or to initiate an ILS pproach
when intercepting the the glide slope from above .
22 The minimum height to reselect NAV or HDG MODE after G/A is: B 100 FT RA
22 The NormaL FMGC operation: C FMGC`s operate according to MASTER/SLAVE principle.
22
The position of the aircraft, used in the flight plan is computed
by:
B FM part of the FMGC.
22
The REC MAX altitude is displayed on the PROG page. There is an
other maximum altitude ( computed but not displayed) that
limits CRZ ALT entry on the MCDU based on,
A 0.2 G buffet margin.
22 The REC MAX ALTITUDE shown is computed by FMGS using : B A V/S of 300 fpm at MAX CLB thrust and 0.3 buffet margin
22
The RUDDER, rudder trim and yaw damper inputs are normally
controlled by :
B The FAC.
22
The thrust delivered by A/THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it
possible to obtain some additional thrust?
B Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.
22 The white IR IN ALIGN memo is flashing. What does this mean? B
No present position has been entered and ten minutes has
elapsed since the IR was selected ON.
22 To arm the A/THR on ground: B Set thrust levers to FLEX or TOGA when engines are running.
22 Two autopilots may be engaged at a time: D
After APPR pb switch is pressed and illuminates, or roll out or
go-around mode is armed or engaged
22
Upon reaching the planned cruise altitude, ALT CRZ engages and
A/THR maintains the speed/mach target. Two minutes after ALT
CRZ engages and if the mach mode is operative, SOFT ALT mode
engages. This allows the aircraft to deviate, from the target
altitude
C 50 feet
22 What are the basic modes of the AP/FD B V/S and HDG
22 What does a triple click mean, during an ILS approach: D Landing Capability Down Grading Warning.
22 What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean? C The Estimated Position Error exceeds the appropriate criteria.
22 What is the correct preparation of a circling approach? A
Active F-PLN with actual approach to be flown; PERF APPR
page with airfield data and circling MDA; SECONDARY F-PLN
copy active with revised arrival and effective RWY to land
inserted.
22
What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the
FMA?
D 1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop.
22
What message is displayed if the database effective date does
not match the clock date?
A Check Data Base Cycle.
22
When a difference exists between computed speeds from FAC
and FMGC, what are the best speeds to be relied on :
B Speeds given by the QRH
22 When TAKE-OFF mode is engaged : B A/THR automatically arms but is not active.
22
When the autopilot disengages the system warns the pilot. A
temporary cavalry charge audio identifies an AP disengagement,
C By the takeover pushbutton.
22 Why is the word DECELERATE on the FMA ? D The aircraft has passed the computed ideal descent point.
22
With AP 1 and AP 2 not engaged, FD 1 and FD 2 engaged and
A/THR active:
B FMGC1 controls BOTH ENGINES
22
With DES / NAV modes engaged during a descend ,when
entering a holding pattern
C DES mode commands V/S = - 1000 feet/minute .
22
With the aircraft in flight, A/THR not engaged, THRUST LEVERS
on CLB GATE, an ALPHA-FLOOR is detected :
D
A/THR automatically engages and controls the engine with
TO/GA Thrust
22
With the thrust levers in the CLB gate, A/THR disengages due to
an abnormal situation ; The engines thrust
B Is frozen at the existing thrust.
22
You are descending to 4000 ft with idle thrust and FD's OFF, FPV
ON, and you set one AP to ON:
B The AP engages in TRK-FPA.
22
You notice that some waypoints have a small triangle after the
name. What does it mean?
A It means this point has to be overflown.
23
How can you get the mechanics attention when he is outside the
aircraft?
A
Use the Mech pb sw on the CALLS panel which sounds an
external horn.
23
If RMP navigation tuning is currently in use for VOR tuning and
ATC assigns a new communication frequency, what must be
done?
C
Select the appropriate VHF communication radio
transmission key, tune using the rotary selector, press the
transfer key.
23
If the VHF 3 transmission key illuminated amber showing the
word 'CALL'
A Indicates a SELCAL
23 In case of RMP 2 failure, D Normal operation of VHF's
23
In the cabin one of the flight attendants has pressed the
Emergency Call button. What indications will you get in the flight
deck?
C
Three long buzzers, flashing EMER CALL, EMER ON and ACP
ATT lights.
23 In this example what does the white SEL light mean? D
It is an indication that both RMP 1 and RMP2 are being used
to tune VHF2.
23 Normally how should you call a Flight Attendant? C Using an overhead FWD or AFT call pushbutton.
23
On the ground, CVR is stopped automatically ______ after the
last engine shutdown.
D 5 minutes
23
Only the last ______ minutes of recording are retained by the
CVR (tap msn 629-2178).
D 120
23
The AM pushbutton switch, on the radio management panel, is
only operative when:
B An HF transceiver has been selected.
23 The cockpit voice recorder (CVR) is energized automatically : C On the ground with one engine running.
23
The override switch for the service interphone system is located
on the ______ and is used to communicate by means of the
service jacks. The landing gear must be compressed.
B Overhead Panel
23
The service interphone has ______ interphone jacks and an
OVRD switch located on the overhead panel.
(notice oe jack on each engine. i.e. there are two number 4)
C Eight
23
The service interphone system provides communication
between:
D All of the above.
23 To erase the CVR: C
Press the CVR ERASE pushbutton for 2 seconds when the
aircraft is on the ground with the parking brake set.
23
To make a PA announcement:
(read all answers)
D Both B and C are correct.
23
What is the function of the Guarded EMER push button on the
overhead panel?
D
To alert all flight attendants of a pending urgent need to
speak to them.
23
When looking at either RMP, how is it possible to determine if
an RMP is selected to a VHF system it is not dedicated to?
(Read all answers)
B
The white SEL light will be illuminated on both RMP's. This is a
normal occurrence in-flight.
23
When RMP1 (Radio Management Panel 1) or RMP 2 is OFF,
RMP3 is still able to control :
A All VHF/HF transceivers.
23 When selecting the guarded RMP NAV key: C FMGC auto tuning is inhibited.
23 When the aircraft is in the Emergency Electrical Configuration: B RMP 1 and ACP's 1 and 2 are operative.
23 Where are the HF antennas located? D Leading edge of the rudder.
23
Which ACP switch configuration allows communication with
other cockpit crew members while wearing your Oxygen Mask?
D
INT reception pb ON, ACP INT/RAD switch selected to INT
whenever emission is required ; Emission knob on any
position.
23
Which ACP transmission key will illuminate if the flight
attendants are calling the cockpit?
B CAB.
23 Which statement is correct regarding the cockpit voice recorder? D
Is automatically energized after the first engine start or five
minutes after AC electrical power is applied to the aircraft or
when GND CTL pb is pressed ON.
23
With the AUDIO SWITCHING knob in the CAPT3 position, the
Captain uses his acoustic equipment on which ACP ?
A ACP 3
24 AC BUS TIE contactors enable the electrical system: B To be supplied by any generator or external power.
24 AC ESS BUS is normally powered by : A AC BUS 1
24 According to these indications, which statement is true ? B Battery CHARGER voltages are above 25.5 V.
24
After having switched the external power to ON, you get the
following indications. What do they mean?
D
On ground these indications are normal when the engines are
not running.
24
After IDG disconnection why do you get a GALLEY SHED
indication on the SD?
C
It is a reminder that the main galley has been shed
automatically following the loss of one generator.
24
After landing, in the emergency electrical configuration: the
batteries automatically connect to the DC BAT bus when speed
decreases below _______ knots.
D 100
24
An AC ESS FEED switch located on the overhead panel shifts the
power source for the AC ESS bus from:
B AC bus1 to AC bus 2
24 Are there any limitations associated with disconnecting an IDG? D
Never disconnect an IDG unless the engine is running, nor
push the IDG disconnect push button for more then 3
seconds.
24
Both batteries are charged by the external power unit.
Approximately how long does the charging process take?
B 20 minutes.
24
Both batteries are now charged by the external power unit.
Approximately how long does the charging process take?
C 20 minutes.
24 Can you reconnect an IDG in flight? D No, it is not possible.
24 DC BAT BUS can be supplied: B By DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 or Batteries.
24
During a routine flight, which of the following would result after
the loss of Gen #1 and the subsequent start of the APU?
C
Eng gen #2 continues to power AC bus #2 and downstream
systems. The APU powers AC bus #1 and downstream
systems.
24 During RAT EXTENSION (about eight seconds) : A The BATTERIES power the emergency generator network.
24
Engine #1 has just been started and the APU is inoperative. The
EXT PWR push button blue ON light is illuminated. Which of the
statements below is correct?
D
Gen #1 supplies AC bus #1 and (generally) the downstream
systems; Ext power supplies AC bus #2 .
24
Having started the APU, how can you get the APU generator to
power the electrical system?
B
By pushing the EXT PWR pb thus disconnecting the external
power.
24
Having starting the APU, how can you get the APU generator to
power the electrical system?
B
By pushing the EXT PWR pushbutton thus disconnecting the
external power.
24
How many times can you reset a circuit breaker?
(READ ALL ANSWERS)
B Once, if authorized by the procedures.
24
If batteries are the only source of power in flight, how long will
battery power be available?
A Up to 30 minutes depending on equipment in use.
24
If during a normal flight the BUS TIE push button is depressed to
OFF, what effect would this have on power to the busses?
A None.
24 If EXTERNAL power is available and within limits: B
The green AVAIL light will illuminate on the EXT PWR push
button when connected by the ground crew.
24
If the battery voltages are below minimum how do you charge
them?
B
I have to switch the external power on and check the BAT pbs
are on (AUTO).
24
If the battery voltages are below the minimum, how do you
charge them?
B Switch Batteries to AUTO and EXT PWR to ON.
24
If the source of power for the AC ESS bus is lost, does another
source of power automatically power the bus?
C No, this must be done by the crew.
24
If two engine generators are powering the system, and one
engine generator subsequently fails, are any busses unpowered?
B No, but some loads are shed in both main galleys.
24
In cold aircraft configuration ( No AC and No DC supply), where
the batteries voltage can be checked ?
B On the ELEC O/H panel.
24
In cruise, you have suddenly a Master Warning ; a Caution come
on with ELEC EMER CONFIG and APP OFF. You notice a red
FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN pushbutton. What do you
think of this indication?
A The EMER GEN is not yet supplying the system.
24
In flight, in case of loss of all main generators, emergency
generator not running, the DC ESS BUS is supplied by:
C BAT 2 .
24 In normal operaration, how is DC ESS BUS supplied ? A From TR 1 (through DC 1)
24
Is it possible to determine the source of power for aircraft
busses
C
Yes, press the ECAM ELEC push button and view the electrical
schematic on the ECAM
24 Is it possible to parallel generators? C The electrical system will not allow 'paralleling' of generators.
24 Normal MINIMUM Battery voltage before APU start is : B 25.5 V
24
Now the APU generator is supplying the electrical system. Do
you know the order of priority for the different generators?
A
Generator 1 and 2 have priority over APU generator and over
External Power ; External Power has priority over APU
generator when EXT PWR pb is ON.
24
On the "EMER ELEC " panel, a fault light illuminates under the
"RAT AND EMER GEN" label. What does it mean?
B
Emergency generator is not supplying power when AC BUS 1
and 2 are not powered and landing gear is up.
24 Only one generation is operating in flight: B Automatically shedding part of the galley load.
24
Regarding circuit breakers, choose the correc statement :
(READ ALL ANSWERS)
D All of the above
24 Select the correct statement regarding ELECTRICAL SYSTEM: A One main Generator can supply the entire network.
24
The AC 1bus normally supplies power to _____ and to the _____
bus .
C TR1 and AC ESS
24 The BAT FAULT light will illuminate when: B
Charging current for the corresponding battery is outside
limits (charging at an abnormal rate).
24 The BATTERY BUS is normally powered by: C DC bus 1 through a DC tie control relay
24 The emergency generator supplies power as long as: D The landing gear is up.
24
The engine generators and APU generator are rated at _____
KVA.
C 90
24
The guard is now lifted. What is the important thing to
remember to avoid damaging the disconnection mechanism?
D
To push the IDG2 pb until the GEN FAULT light comes on, but
only for a maximum of 3 seconds.
24 The IDG : A
May be disconnected only after pilot confirming such action
and may be reconnected by maintenance only.
24 The IDG Fault light indicates: C IDG low oil pressure or IDG oil overheat
24
The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC
busses is:
D
Generator 1 and 2 when operating have priority over the APU
and over External Power.
24
The reset was unsuccessful. Why must you push the BUS TIE pb
sw OFF?
A To isolate both sides of the electrical system.
24 The STATIC INVERTER works: B When a/c in flight and ON BATTERIES ONLY.
24 What does the blue EXT PWR ON light mean? B External power is supplying the aircraft's electrical system.
24 What happens during EMERGENCY GENERATOR test ? C
The Blue System is pressurized, the Emergency Generator
powers AC ESS BUS and DC ESS BUS ; ECAM displays ELEC
page automatically (onground) ; The STATIC INVERTER powers
AC ESS BUS (if batteries only powers the aircraft)
24 What happens in case of inflight total loss of Main Generators ? B
The RAT is automatically extended and powers the blue
system which drives the EMERGENCY GENERATOR.
24 What happens when the GEN 1 line P/B set to off.? C
AC BUS 1 is powered by the GEN 2 because the GEN 1 line
contactor is opened.
24 What is the function of the GEN 1 LINE push button? C
When selected OFF generator # 1 is removed from all busses
but continues to power one fuel pump in each wing.
24 What is the meaning of the green AVAIL light? A
External power is plugged in, external power parameters are
normal , you must push the EXT PWR pb to connect it.
24 What is the significance of the green collared circuit breakers? B Green collared circuit breakers are monitored.
24 What would cause the GALLEY fault light to illuminate? C The load on any generator is above 100% of it's rated output.
24 When are the batteries supplying the DC BAT BUS? C Loss of AC BUS I + 2 (speed below I00 kts).
24 When are the Essential Shed buses powered by the battery? A
Never. The purpose of the shed buses is to reduce the load on
the batteries.
24 When disconnecting the IDG, the pb should be pressed: A Until FAULT light goes out, but no more than 3 sec.
24 When does the RAT automatically deploy? B
Electrical power to both AC BUS #1 & #2 is lost and the
aircraft speed is above 100 knots.
24
When no other power is available in flight, the static inverter
converts _____ power to AC power, for the ______ bus.
A BAT1 DC tfor AC ESS bus.
24 When will the RAT & EMER GEN red FAULT light illuminate? A
When the EMER GEN is not supplying electrical power, AC
busses #1 & #2 are unpowered and the nose gear is up.
24
Which busses will be powered after the RAT is extended and the
EMER GEN begins producing power?
A AC ESS BUS, DC ESS BUS via ESS TR.
24
Which communication and navigation radios are operational in
the Emergency Electrical Configuration with the EMER GEN
powering the system?
A ACP 1 and 2, VHF 1, HF 1, RMP 1, VOR 1, and ILS 1.
24
Which flight control computers are operational in the
Emergency Electrical Power configuration (inflight, gear down
and batteries powering the system)?
D ELAC 1+2, and SEC 1.
24
Which radios are inoperative with gear extension while inflight,
in the emergency electrical configuration (bat only)?
A DME 1 and ATC transponder 1.
24
Which voltage does NOT require recharging or replacing the
batteries?
D 26 volts.
24
While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN
powering the system, FAC #1 reset) which of the following
control laws are in effect?
B Alternate.
24
While operating on Emergency Electrical Power with the landing
gear lowered which of the following statements is correct?
C
On the ground at 100 knots, the DC BATTERY BUS
automatically reconnects to the batteries allowing APU start.
24 With ELEC ESS TR FAULT: A
ESS TR is faulty, DC ESS BUS is powered by TR 1 through DC 1
.
24 With ELEC TR 1 FAULT: C DC 1 BUS is powered by TR 2 through DC 2 and DC BAT BUS
24 With ELEC TR 2 FAULT: A
TR 2 is faulty, DC 2 BUS is powered by TR 1 through DC 1 and
DC BAT BUS
24
With engines off, if the AVAIL light is illuminated on both the
APU START pb and the EXT PWR pb, what is the source of
electrical power for the left side electrical bars?
C The APU.
24
You enter a dark cockpit, what action is necessary before
checking the battery voltages?
D You have to verify that both batteries are off.
24
You enter a dark cockpit, what actions are necessary before
checking the battery voltages?
D You have to verify that both batteries are off.
26
After an APU fire has been detected how long will the chime
continue to sound?
D B and C are correct.
26
After depressing the CARGO SMOKE TEST push button once, a
satisfactory test of the aft cargo compartment smoke detector
consist of: (MSN 185-837 0906-1399 1713-1816)
A Two complete cycles with associated warnings.
26 APU fire detection is accomplished by: B One sensing element with two parallel fire detection loops.
26
Are there any warnings to alert ground personnel when there is
a fire in the APU compartment?
C
Yes, the external fire warning horn will sound and the APU
red fire light will illuminate.
26
DISCH light on either the engine or APU fire agent switches
indicates:
B The extinguisher bottle has been discharged.
26 Each engine nacelle and pylon area is equipped with: A Two fire detection loops.
26 Each lavatory is equipped with: C
One smoke detector, and for lavatory waste bins, an
automatically discharging fire extinguisher.
26 Engine fire loops are installed in the: D Pylon nacelle + Core + Fan
26
Fire protection for the cargo compartments includes: (MSN 185-
837 0906-1231 1799-1816)
C
One single shot fire extinguisher agents which can be
discharged to either compartment.
26
How can a thermal discharge of the APU fire bottle be detected
when no electrical power is connected :
C By the RED DISC indicator.
26
How does the APU fire test on battery power differ from the
APU fire test with all busses powered?
B
While on battery power, only the red APU FIRE and
AGENT/DISC push button will illuminate.
26 How is an APU Fire on ground normally extinguished : B Automatically.
26
How long will the red APU FIRE pb on the overhead be
illuminated?
C For as long as the fire warning is present.
26
How many fire detection Units does the APU fire detector
system comprises:
C One.
26
How many fire extinguishing bottles are available for fighting an
APU fire?
A One.
26
How many halon fire extinguishing cylinders are there per
engine?
A Each engine has two fire extinguishers.
26
If a break in both engine fire loops occurs within _____ seconds
of each other a _____ will occur.
D 5 seconds / FIRE warning
26
If an APU fire is detected on the ground, the APU shuts down
automatically and the agent is discharged ______ after the
warning is activated.
C 3 seconds.
26
If an engine fire is detected, when will the guarded red ENG FIRE
push button light extinguish?
A Only after the fire warning no longer exists.
26
If an engine fire is detected, when will the pedestal mounted red
FIRE annunciator light extinguish?
B Only after the fire warning no longer exists.
26 If there is an APU fire in flight the APU: B
Must be shut down manually and the agent manually
discharged.
26 Illumination of the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light indicates: C
Smoke has been detected in the avionics compartment
ventilation duct.
26
In addition to the CRC and red MASTER WARN light, a good
engine fire test will display which of the following (AC power
available)? (READ ALL ANSWERS)
D
The CRC, the red MASTER WARN light, the E/WD red 1 (2)
ENG FIRE warning, lower ECAM engine page, red FIRE
annunciator, red ENG FIRE push button, and AGENT
SQUIB/DISC.
26 In case of APU FIRE appearance on ground: B
The APU Fire extinguisher Agent discharges automatically
three seconds after the appearance of the fire warning.
26 In the ENGINE and APU FIRE Protection System: D There are 2 FIRE AGENT bottles for each engine.
26 In the event a lavatory smoke detector detects smoke: D Warnings will be generated in the cockpit and in the cabin.
26
In the event an aft cargo compartment smoke detector detects
smoke:
D The crew must depress the appropriate DISCH switch.
26 STATUS page: INOP SYS indicates ENG1 LOOP B. C
One detection loop for engine 1 has failed. Fire detection for
both engines is still available.
26
The aft cargo compartment smoke detection system consists of:
(MSN 0185-0837 0906-1231 1799-1816)
B
Two cavities, each with two smoke detectors and a two
channel smoke detection control unit.
26 The AGENT pushbutton is active when : C ENGINE FIRE pb is pressed and released.
26
The APU test switch on the APU Auto Exting panel when pushed
will: (READ ALL ANSWERS)
A
Tests the operation of fire dection extinguishing system for
the APU.
26 The engine extinguishing agent discharge switch is armed when: C The engine fire switch is released out.
26 The GEN 1 LINE, SMOKE light indicates: B Smoke in the avionics ventilation duct.
26 To have a FIRE WARNING, it must be detected by: D
LOOP "A" and LOOP "B" or by a single LOOP in case of one
LOOP faulty.
26
What additional external warning are activated in case of an
APU fire on ground only ?
A
APU fire light accompanied by an external horn warning on
External Power Panel
26 What does the FIRE TEST pb verify ? (read all answers) C BOTH
26
What is indicated by a missing red APU thermal plug during an
exterior preflight?
C An APU fire agent thermal discharge has occurred.
26
What systems are affected when the guarded red ENGINE FIRE
push button is pushed and released?
(READ ALL ANSWERS)
D A and B are correct.
26
What systems are isolated when APU FIRE push button is
released out :
C FUEL, AIR and ELECTRIC.
26
When the aircraft is on the ground and the APU is started on
battery power only, is fire protection available?
A
Yes, the APU will initiate an auto shutdown and discharge the
extinguishing agent.
26 When the APU FIRE SWITCH is released out: C The APU bleed and crossbleed valves are closed.
26 Where are the ENGINE FIRE DETECTORS located ? B On the PYLON, the FAN and the CORE.
26
Which of the following have automatic fire extinguishing
systems?
C APU, and lavatory waste bins.
26
With reference to cargo compartment fire extinguishing,
(aircraft MSN 185-837 906-1231 1799-1816 ) which statement is
true?
C
There is only one fire bottle, when it is discharged both
amber DISCH lights come on.
26
With reference to cargo compartment fire extinguishing,
(aircraft MSN 870 1667-2178) which statement is true?
D
There are two fire bottles,which supply three nozzles (one in
the FWD compartment and two in the AFT compartment.
26
With reference to cargo compartment fire extinguishing, which
statement is true? (MSN 870 1667-2178)
A
There are two fire bottles, each bottle with two discharge
heads, one for each compartment.
26
You have detected avionics smoke. You have selected the GEN 1
LINE push button off and the RAT has been deployed. Generator
2 has been removed from the system. Which of the following is
TRUE?
D
The electrical distribuition is the same as "ELECTRIC
EMERGENCY CONFIGURATION" but fuel pumps are connected
upstream of GEN 1 line connector.
27
According to these indications, if the sidestick is held at full back
position...
C
The High Angle Of Attack protection will override the sidestick
input.
The pitch will be lowered to maintain 120 kts.
27 According to these indications, if you release the sidestick now... A The bank angle will automatically return to 33.
27
According to these indications, which flight control law is active
?
A Normal Law.
27
According to these indications, which flight control law is active
?
B Alternate Law.
27
According to these indications, which flight control law is active
?
C Direct Law.
27
According to these indications, which flight control law is active
?
D Mechanical Back Up.
27 According to these indications... A The High Angle Of Attack protection is active.
27
After landing or on a RTO (above 72 knots) , the ground spoilers
if not armed:
C
They will extend at reverse selection and retract when Idle is
selected.
27
Aileron droop may best be confirmed by checking which of the
following?
B The lower ECAM FLT/CTL page.
27
ALPHA /SPEED LOCK function (SLAT retraction form 1 to 0) is
inhibited if :
C ANGLE OF ATTACK exceeds 85 or SPEED < 148 kts
27 Are there any control surfaces with a mechanical backup? C Yes, the THS and the rudder.
27 Automatic pitch trim freezes when: (READ ALL ANSWERS) D All the above.
27 Can the rudders be moved with both FAC's inoperative? A
Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be
obtained when the slats are extended.
27 ELEVATORS, AILERONS, SPOILER are : C Hydraulically activated and electrically controlled.
27 Failure to retract the flaps CONF 1+F after takeoff will: D Result in automatic flap retraction at 210 kts.
27
FLAPS and FLAP LEVER where at FLAP 1+ F ; Speed increased
above 210 kt and an automatic retraction of the flaps occurred;
if speed decreases below 210 kts:
D Flaps will NOT re-extend automatically.
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS : What statement is correct : A Ground spoiler function : All SPOILERS deploy.
27
High and low speed stabilities may be available in alternate law,
stabilities:
D
Can be overridden by the pilot, and it is possible to exceed
Vmo, Mmo and stall the aircraft.
27 Horizontal stabilizer trim automatically resets to zero degrees: A After landing.
27 How can a deactivated STICK be reactivated: C
By momentary action on TAKE OVER push button of
deactivated STICK.
27 How do you interpret the amber crosses on the PFD ? C The bank angle protection is lost.
27
How many actuators are provided to control the ailerons and
how many hydraulic sources supply these actuators?
A 2 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators.
27 HOW MANY HYDRAULIC SYSTEMS ACTIVATE THE RUDDER : C 3 (three)
27
If angle of attack protection is active or flaps are in the
configuration Full:
B Speed brake extension is inhibited.
27 If both ELACs fail, what controls the elevator and stabilizer? B SEC 1 or SEC 2.
27 If both pilots deflect their sidesticks fully back... D
The total signal is limited to the signal that would result from
the maximum deflection of a single sidestick..
27 If ELAC 1 and 2 have failed : C The ELEVATOR and PITCH TRIM are controlled by SEC 1 or 2.
27 If electrical power to a SEC fails: A The affected spoilers automatically retract.
27 If FAC 1 and 2 have failed: A The RUDDER can always be controlled from the pedals.
27 If one hydraulic system is inoperative: A The corresponding surfaces are operating at half speed.
27 If the FO presses the take over pb constantly... D
The Capt can re-activate his sidestick immediately by pressing
his take over pb.
27
If there are no sidestick inputs, what will happen to this aircrafts
attitude?
C The aircrafts attitude will stay constant.
27 In ALTERNATE LAW, the change to DIRECT LAW occurs: A LANDING GEAR DOWN.
27 In flight CONTROL NORMAL LAW, the stall warning is activated: D
ANGLE OF ATTACK corresponding to stall warning cannot be
reached in NORMAL LAW.
27
In normal law all protections are active, which of the following
lists is the most complete list?
A
Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Alpha floor, angle of
bank, and High speed protection.
27
In Normal Law, if one sidestick is rapidly pulled fully back, can
the aircrafts maximum allowable "G" load be exceeded ?
D
No. The load factor limitation overrides sidestick commands
to avoid excessive "G" loads.
27 In Normal Law, is there a maximum bank angle ? B Yes, indicated by the green dashes (A).
27 In Normal Law, is there a maximum pitch attitude ? A Yes, indicated by the green dashes (A).
27
In normal law, what is the maximum bank angle you can reach
with the side stick fully deflected?
C 67
27
In Normal Law, what is the maximum bank angle you can reach
with the sidestick fully deflected ?
D 67
27 In Pitch Normal Law, Flight Mode, pitch trim is: C Automatic with or without the autopilot engaged.
27
In pitch normal law, the elevator control changes from the
normal mode to a protection mode when the angle of attack is
greater than:
B Alpha Prot
27
In ROLL NORMAL LAW, the bank angle protection is active when
bank angle is :
B > 33 and <= 67
27
Lets assume the FO presses his take over pb and releases it after
more than 40 secs...
A
The Capts sidestick is de-activated unless he presses his take
over pb.
27
Lets assume you, as Capt, deflect your sidestick to the left in
order to fly a turn.
Observe the indications. How do you interpret them ?
(MSN 0750-0837 0906 0945-1034 1106-1127 1181-1206 1307-
1399 1713-1816)
B
If the FOs sidestick is also deflected, both inputs are
algebrically added.
27
Lets assume, you have set idle power and pulled the sidestick
back to maintain altitude. Observe the PFD. If you release the
sidestick now...
A The aircraft will descend with 135 kts.
27 Lift augmentation is achieved on each wing by : B 2 FLAP surfaces - 5 SLAT surfaces.
27 Mechanical backup permits aircraft control by applying: B Manual trim to the THS and rudder pedals.
27 Observe the PFD. Without any sidestick inputs... A The aircrafts attitude will stay constant.
27 Observe the PFD. Which statement is true ? B
The Alpha Floor protection has automatically set TO/GA
power.
27 Roll control is achieved by: C One aileron and four spoilers on each wing.
27 RUDDER TRAVEL Limitation is a function of : A FAC only
27
Selection flap lever to position 1 prior to takeoff will select
which of the following?
A Slats 1 and flaps 1 (CONF 1+F).
27
Selection of flaps 1 in flight will select which of the following
configurations?
C Slats 1 and flaps 0 (CONF 1).
27
Should both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be
obtained after :
B Slats extended.
27 Should the active elevator actuator fail, elevator control is: B Maintained by the other actuator.
27
Sidesticks provide electrical signals to the flight control
computers; if both sidesticks are operated:
B Both inputs are algebraically added.
27 SLATS SYS 1 FAULT on the ECAM WARNING display means: B
The SLAT CHANNEL in one SFCC has failed and SLATS are
slow..
27 The alpha speed lock function: B
Will inhibit slat retraction at high angles of attack (above 8.5
degrees) and low speeds (below 148 kt).
27 The FAC computes rudder travel limit: D At any time.
27
The flight control surfaces are _______ controlled and _______
actuated.
A Electrically / hydraulically
27 The mandatory parameter used by the alpha floor detection is : D A/C ANGLE OF ATTACK
27
The message F/CTL FLAPS LOCKED WING TIP BRK ON appears on
the E/WD. What does it mean?
A A hydraulic device locks the flaps in their present position.
27
The message WING TIP BRK ON appears on the E/WD (as on
picture shown). What does it mean?
A A hydraulic device locks the flaps in their present position.
27 The PITCH DIRECT LAW is : B A direct SIDE STICK to ELEVATOR relationship.
27 The PITCH NORMAL LAW provides: C
LOAD FACTOR limitation, PITCH ATTITUDE + HIGH ANGLE of
ATTACK + HIGH SPEED protection.
27 The purpose of the Load Alleviation Function is to: B
Relieve wing structure loads by moving the ailerons and
extending spoilers 4 and 5.
27 The TRIM function of the FAC is: B A RUDDER TRIM
27 The wing tip brakes, once activated: D
Lock only the affected high lift system surfaces in their
current position.
27 To select speed brakes inflight: B Push down on the speed brake handle and move it aft.
27
TOGA thrust is provided regardless of throttle position when
_______ engages the autothrottle system.
C Alpha Floor.
27 What are the limits for MANOEUVRE PROTECTION: C +2.5 G to -1 G for clean configuration
27
What computer normally commands the operation of the
elevators and horizontal stabilizer?
D ELAC 2
27
What does the flash memo amber SPEED BRAKES on lower
ECAM means ?
C Speed brakes are extended and engines are not at idle.
27 What happens in the event of an single ELAC failure? D
The functions of the failed ELAC will be assumed by the
remaining ELAC.
27
What happens in the side stick-neutral high speed protection
mode?
C
The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 40 and the
aircraft rolls wings level and pitches up to slow down to
VMO/MMO.
27 What happens when SFCC 1 fails: B FLAPS and SLATS operate at half speed.
27
What is the function of the FAC's?
(READ ALL ANSWERS)
D
Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed
computations, and windshear protection.
27
What is the maximum flap setting for in-flight use of the
spoilers?
B Flaps 3.
27 What will happen if the speed reaches 210 kts? A There will be an automatic flap retraction.
27 When BLUE HYDRAULIC SYSTEM is lost, what happens: D SLATS will operate at half speed.
27 When both sticks are moved in the same or opposite direction : A
The surface movement is proportional to the algebraic sum of
the deflections of both sticks.
27
When CONFIG 1 is selected, if CONF 0 is not selected, FLAPS
automatically retract at:
B 210 KTS
27 When do you get FLARE Mode in Alternate Law? B
In Pitch Alternate Law the flight mode changes to the Flare
Mode when pilots select Landing Gear down.
27 When FLAP TIP BRAKE FAULT: D Failure of one flap wingtip brake.
27 When GREEN HYDRAULIC SYSTEM is lost, what happens: D FLAPS and SLATS will operate at half speed.
27 When ground spoilers deploy automatically: A All ten spoiler panels fully deploy.
27 When is the THS NOT available ? B After YELLOW and GREEN system failure.
27 When SLAT TIP BRAKE FAULT ON: D Failure of one SLAT WING TIP BRAKE.
27 When SLATS LOCKED (WING TIP BRAKE) activated: D
SLATS are locked and if extended, diverting FUEL
consumption may be calculated multiplying clean config FUEL
consumption by 1.6 if slats extended.
27 When the flaps are extended, the ailerons: C Droop 5 degrees.
27 When the two RUDDER TRIM functions are engaged : C
Motor n 1, controlled by FAC 1, drives the trim, and FAC 2
with motor n2 remains synchronized as back-up.
27 When YELLOW HYDRAULIC SYSTEM is lost, what happens: D FLAPS will operate at half speed.
27 Which control surfaces are used for the mechanical backup? B Stabilizer trim to THS and rudder pedals.
27
Which of the following statements are correct concerning the
side stick takeover push button? (READ ALL ANSWERS)
C Both A and B are correct.
27
Which of the following statements is correct concerning the
spoiler elevator computers (SEC's)?
C
Three computers which achieve spoiler control and standby
elevator and THS control.
27 Which protection is not available below 100 ft RA on landing: A Alpha floor.
27 Which signals cause RUDDER PEDAL movement ? B RUDDER TRIM signals.
27 Which surfaces are used for lift dumping ? A All SPOILERS
27
While in flight operating in Normal law, movement of the
sidestick forward or aft and subsequent return to neutral will
command:
B
A load factor proportional to stick deflection, then maintain
one G flight corrected for pitch attitude.
27
Wing tip brakes hydraulically-operated are installed to lock the
flaps or slats in case of:
C
Asymmetry, mechanism overspeed, symmetrical runaway
and uncommanded movement.
27
With autopilot engaged, the RUDDER TRIM orders are normally
computed by :
A The FMGC
27 With either AP engaged, which statement is true ? D
Both sidesticks are locked in neutral position. By applying a
certain force, the lock can be overridden and the AP is
disengaged.
27 With FLAPS LOCKED (WING TIP BREAK) activated: D SLATS can be extended or retracted normally.
27
With the side stick in neutral position, according to the PFD
pitch, what will happen to this aircrafts attitude?
C The aircrafts attitude will stay constant.
27 You have the following message. What happened? C The left SPLR 3 failed to retract.
28 According to the FUEL page, which statement is correct? C All the pumps are on but no fuel is being used.
28
After engine shutdown, what are your actions to close the fuel
transfer valves?
C
No action is required. The valves will close automatically
during the next refueling.
28
After engine start, center tank fuel pumps run for ______
minutes regardless of slat position.
B 2 minutes.
28
Cruising FL below FL 300 . What precaution should you observe
when gravity feeding fuel?
A
Operate the aircraft at or below FL 150 or at a FL not above
7000 ft over departure airport altitude, whichever is higher .
28
During normal operations when should the fuel transfer valves
open? (MSN 0185-0837 0906-1231 1667 1799-2178)
D When low level is sensed in either inner wing cell.
28 From which tanks will fuel gravity feed? C Outer cell of the wing tanks, and inner cell of the wing tanks.
28
Fuel can be manually transferred from tank to tank: (MSN 0185-
0837 0906-1231 1667 1799-2178)
A Only on the ground.
28
Fuel transfer from the outer compartment to the inner
compartment of the wing tanks occurs when the inner
compartment quantity decreases to:
C 750 kilograms
28
How has the fuel been transferred from the outer to the inner
tanks?
D
The transfer valve has been opened automatically by the low
level sensor in the inner tank.
28 In normal operation, each engine fuel feeding: C
... is supplied by one pump in the center tank or two pumps in
its own side wing tank.
28 Minimum Fuel quantity for Takeoff is : A 1500 kg
28
Refueling time at normal pump pressure is _____ minutes for
the wing tanks and _____ minutes for all tanks (MSN 0185-0837
0906-1231 1667 1799-1816).
B 17 & 20
28 Regarding FUEL FEEDING, select the correct answer: A Takeoff on center tank is prohibited.
28 The APU fuel system: C
Obtains fuel from the left fuel manifold via the left side fuel
pumps or if needed, the APU fuel pump.
28
The fuel quantity indication on ECAM for the outer cell is boxed
amber if:
C
Both transfer valves fail to open when inner cell is at low
level.
28 The Fuel Used indication on ECAM is reset: B Automatically at engine start on the ground.
28
The message CTR TK FEEDG appears in the MEMO. What does it
mean?
C At least one center tank pump is energized.
28
The message CTR TK FEEDG appears in the MEMO. What does
this mean?
C At least one center tank pump is energized.
28
The message OUTER TK FUEL XFRD appears in the MEMO. What
does it mean?
B At least one transfer valve is open in one wing tank.
28 The OUTER TANKS fuel transfer valves are: B
Are automatically closed at refueling and held closed until
inner tank fuel reaches the low level..
28 This ECAM FUEL indication for a Center Tank Pump means that : D The Mode SEL pb is in AUTO but not supplying fuel.
28
What does an amber line across the last two digits of the fuel
quantity mean?
B The Fuel Quantity Indication is inaccurate.
28
What indication will you see on the overhead fuel panel if the
center tank has more than 250 kilograms of fuel and the left or
right wing tank have less than 5,000 kilograms.
C Mode select fault.
28
Why do the center tank pups stop automatically when then slats
are extended for takeoff?
C
To ensure that the engines are fed from the wing tanks for
takeoff (feeding segregation)
28
With fuel in the center tank the CTR TK MODE SEL push button
selected to AUTO and CTR TK PUMP push buttons ON (lights
out), which of the following conditions cause the center tank
fuel pumps to stop?
A
Extension of the slats (after completion of the short test
cycle).
28
With fuel in the center tank, the CTR TK MODE SEL push button
selected to AUTO and the CTR TK PUMP push buttons ON (lights
out), the center tank pumps: (READ ALL ANSWERS)
D Both A and B are correct.
29 During start up, when is the BLUE hydraulic system pressurized? C
Automatically if AC power available, after one engine running
or if the crew has pressed the BLUE PUMP OVRD pb in the
maintenance panel.
29
Each of the green and yellow systems has a fire shutoff valve in
its line upstream of its engine-driven pump. The flight crew can
close it by:
B Pushing the ENG FIRE pb.
29
Green RSVR LO AIR PRESS means: (MSN 0629-0837 0906-0933
979 1034-1165 1307-1399 1713)
C Air pressure in green reservoir drops below 22 psi.
29 How is the RAT deployed to power the BLUE system ? C
Automatically if AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are both lost ; It can
be manually deployed by lifting the cover and pressing the
RAT MAN ON pb on O/H panel.
29
In the ECAM HYD page, the system pressure indication, normally
green, becomes amber when system pressure is below:
B 1.450 psi
29
Normally, HP bleed air from engine 1 pressurizes the hydraulic
reservoirs automatically. If the bleed air pressure is too low, the
system takes bleed air pressure from:
C Crossbleed duct.
29
On the hydraulic quantity indicator what does the amber level
indicate?
A The warning level.
29 The PTU : D
Is inhibitted during the first engine start and automatically
tested during the second engine start.
29
The PTU is automatically activated when the differential
pressure between the green any yellow systems is greater than:
C 500 psi
29
The valves that cut off the hydraulic power to heavy load users
in the event of low hydraulic pressure are:
A Priority valves.
29
We have done the procedure for you, this is how the ECAM will
look. Why is the GREEN system label in amber?
A
GREEN HYD SYS pressure below 1450 psi, due to the ENG 1
pump has been switched off.
29 What does the amber PTU indication mean? A The PTU pb sw is OFF.
29 What is the normal pressure in the hydraulic system? C 3000 psi (2500 psi when RAT operated).
29 With reference to the PTU, which statement is correct? A
The PTU is bi-directional allowing the YELLOW and GREEN
systems to pressurize each other.
29
You get a G RSVR OVHT message.
Why does the ECAM procedure ask you to switch the PTU off
first?
D
You want to stop the PTU from pressurizing the GREEN
system after you switch the ENG1 pump off.
29
You have started only engine 2, but the PTU has not operated to
pressurize the GREEN hydraulic system. Why not?
C
The PTU will not operate until the second engine has been
started.
30
"TYPE II/75 11:35" has been written on the Technical Book, after
a two step procedure of de-ing followed by anti-icing. This
means ...
C
... fluid "TYPE II", "25% water, 75% fluid", anti-icing started
at 11H35M
30
Aeroplane surfaces are contaminated by frozen moisture and
freezing precipitation occurs; the aeroplane shall be:
C De-iced followed by anti-icing.
30 Aeroplane wing protection against contamination: D
In the air is achieved with aeroplane wing ANTI-ICE ON ;
ground de-icing/anti-icing fluids do not provide any
protection in the air.
30 Anti-ice and de-icing protection is provided for: A The engine nacelle's and three outboard wing slats.
30 At what power level does window heat operate while airborne? A Normal power while airborne.
30 Automatic window heat operation begins: A
When at least on engine is running or when the aircraft is in
flight.
30 Before De icing/Anti icing treatment, A Avoid pressurizing or testing flight control systems
30 Can the wing anti-ice be SWITCHED ON on the ground? A
Yes. Wing Anti-ice Valves will open for test during 30
seconds.
30
Choose the correct answer regarding de-icing/anti-ice fluid
applications. (Please, READ ALL ANSWERS).
D A) + B) + C) are correct
30
Choose the most correct answer regarding "De-icing" / "anti-
icing" procedures. (Please, READ ALL ANSWERS)
D Answers A) + B) + C) are correct.
30
De/Anti-icing fluids provide active protection from
contamination once the aircraft is airborne.
B False
30
During taxiing, the flight crew should observe: (READ ALL
ANSWERS)
D All of the above
30 Engine Anti-Ice uses; D N2 (HP) HOT AIR
30
Even the slightest build-up of ice, frost or snow on the wings will
result in: (READ ALL ANSWERS)
D A) +B) + C) are correct
30 Holdover time begins at: B the begining of the one-step de-icing/anti-icing operation.
30 Hot air from the pneumatic system provides wing anti-ice to: C The three outboard slats (3, 4, 5) of each wing.
30 If Captain's pitot heat has failed: C Captain can recover his air data by using air data switching.
30 In a two-step de-icing/anti-icing procedure ... C
... the second step is performed with anti-icing fluid. Fluid
concentration chosen with regard to desired holdover time,
outside air temperature and weather conditions.
30
In flight, on the ANTI ICE panel when the WING pb sw is pressed
ON, the legend "ANTI ICE" is displayed on the ECAM BLEED page:
D
"ANTI-ICE" in white when the WING pb on the ANTI-ICE panel
is ON.
30 In the event of an electrical power supply loss ... A
The engine anti-ice valves will open automatically, anti-icing
is ensured.
30
Left upper wing surface has a small frost patch and no
precipitation is falling or expected. In this situation ...
D
Local area de-icing may be carried out by applying spray only
in the affected area with a heated fluid/water mix suitable for
a One-Step Procedure, then spray the same area on the other
wing.
30
Only one side of the aeroplane wing was contaminated with
some snow and freezing rain. In this case ...
A
...anti-icing treatments shall always cover the entire wing and
the entire horizontal stabiliser/elevator on both sides of the
aeroplane.
30 Rain protection is provided by: B Rain repellent and Windshield wipers.
30
Regarding "Clear Ice" precautions, choose the correct answer
(after reading all answers)
D A) + B) + C) are correct.
30 Significant deposits of clear ice can form, in the vicinity of: B Fuel Tanks
30 TAT probes are heated on the ground. D No.
30
Taxiing in contaminated taxiways under snow/freezing rain
operating conditions ... (READ ALL ANSWERS)
D A) + B) + C) are correct.
30 The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft induces an: B Up to 30% loss of Lift
30 The anti-ice fluid and mixture will be choosen so as to provide ... C
... holdover time equal to or greater than the estimated time
from start of anti-icing to start of takeoff
based on existing weather conditions.
30
The authority to decide whether de-/anti-icing of the aircraft is
necessary lies with the:
C Commander
30 The engine anti-ice system ... D
Is controlled manually by the pilot through the ENG1 and
ENG2 anti-ice pb.
30 The RAIN RPLNT (rain repellent) pushbutton is inhibited : A On the ground when the engines stopped.
30 The selection of Anti icing mixture ratio is based on: A Actual weather conditions and HOT (Holdover Time) tables.
30
The two step procedure consists in spraying heated and diluted
De icing fluid first; then a protective Anti icing coating is built by
a second fluid spray not heated. The Hold over time starts:
A At the beginning of the second spray.
30
Under which circumstances shall an aircraft that has been Anti
iced receive a further coating of Anti icing fluid directly on top of
the contaminated film?
B Under no circumstances.
30
Walk-around inspection shows that the wings are not
contaminated, but the forecast preview operation in adverse
weather conditions (freezing rain, airplane skin temperature
below minus 10 deg celsius) prior to takeoff. In this case ...
A
... anti-icing fluid shall be applied to the aeroplane surfaces
when freezing rain, snow or other freezing precipitation may
adhere to the aeroplane at the time of aeroplane dispatch.
30
What happens to the heat at the pitots when the aircraft is on
the ground?
C The heat is reduced to prevent injury to ground personel.
30
What is the difference between the engine and wing anti-ice
fault lights?
A
Both indicate valve in transit, or valve position disagrees with
selected position. Wing light also could indicate low pressure.
30 What is the speed limit for operating the windscreen wipers? D 230 kts.
30
When both ENG 1 and 2 pushbuttons are turned ON, each
engine nacelle is anti-iced by:
D Engine high pressure compressor.
30
When freezing prcipitation exists and there is a risk of
contamination of the surface at the time of dispatch, aeroplane
surfaces shall be:
A Anti iced
30 Where are the engine anti-ice controls? C C
30
Which one of the following statements is true applicable to anti-
ice system?
B
When the engine anti-ice is selected, the N1 limit is
automatically reduced and the N1 idle is automatically
increased.
30
With reference to the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb, which of the
following statements is true?
D
Window heating comes on automatically when at least one
engine is runing, or when the aircraft is in flight ; Probes are
manually heated when manually selected PROBE/WINDOW.
30 With the loss of electrical power the engine anti-ice valves: B Fail to the open position.
30 With the loss of electrical power the WING anti-ice valves: C Fail to the closed position.
30 You are in flight. According to these indications... B The left wing anti-ice valve has failed to close.
30
You are on the ground and the wing anti-ice pushbutton is set to
the ON position...
D Wing anti-ice valves will open for 30 seconds and then close.
31 Above what speed can the slats be safely retracted? C 191 kt.
31
After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the
display units?
A
Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace
the failed DMC with DMC #3.
31
After the engine shutdown, you observe a pulsing STS message.
What does it means?
C
It is a reminder that the status page holds a maintenance
message.
31 ALTITUDE WINDOW appears amber : B When a/c deviates from its selected ALTITUDE or selected FL.
31
Both ECAM screens have failed. Is it possible to get E/WD
indications?
C
Yes, to get E/WD information, it must be manually transferred
to one of the NDs.
31
Color-coding on the ECAM screens: which color indicates that
crew awareness is required?
B AMBER.
31
Colorcoding on the EFIS screens: which color indicates a normal
condition?
C GREEN
31
Colorcoding on the EFIS screens: which color indicates that crew
awareness is required?
B AMBER
31
Colorcoding on the EFIS screens: which color indicates that there
is immediate action required?
A RED
31 DMC'S basic rules are : A Compute and elaborate displays.
31 EIS : Select the correct statement : C DMC1 supplies data to PFD 1 + ND 1 + UPPER ECAM
31
How did the PNF cancel the caution for NAV ILS 1 FAULT and
bring up the CANCELLED CAUTION display?
A By pressing the EMER CANC pb.
31 If the landing gear is not down, the LANDING MEMO : B Will appear below 800 ft RA.
31
ILS 1 FAULT has been suppressed by the EMER CANCEL pb. How
can the ILS1 FAULT be displayed ?
D By pressing the RCL pb for more than 3 seconds.
31 In case of PFD failure, the PFD image is: B Transferred automatically to the ND.
31
In ROSE ILS MODE, THE ND displays what ILS information:
(CHOOSE THE MOST COMPLETE ANSWER)
D DEVIATION BAR, SELECTED COURSE, G/S and LOC SCALES
31
In ROSE NAV mode with VOR 1 selected, the ND displays what
VOR information:
B BEARING POINTER only.
31 In the event of no ADF1 reception, with ADF1 selected on ND: D
The bearing pointer goes out of view and station id is
replaced by frequency or identification.
31 INDICATIONS ON ND : Which of the following statements is true? D
The track to the TO waypoint, PAS, is 108, it will be overflown
at 14:30.
31
On the bottom of the STATUS page, what does the green arrow
mean?
D It means that there is more information to be seen.
31 RA gives HEIGHT on PFD : A At the bottom of ATTITUDE sphere.
31 Should a failure of the upper ECAM display screen occur: A
An automatic transfer of the E/WD to the lower ECAM screen
takes place.
31
The ALTITUDE numbers change from green to amber on
ALTITUDE window ...
A When aircraft goes below MDA.
31
The TO MEMO is displayed automatically provided at least one
engine is running when TO CONFIG test PB is pressed or:
B 2 minutes after the 2 engine start
31
The upper ECAM DU has failed. You want to see the DOOR/ OXY
page. How can you see it?
A You have to press and hold the DOOR pb on the ECP.
31
The VIB (N2) indication is flashing green. What is the name of
such an indication?
D Advisory.
31 VLS indication is inhibited : A From touchdown until 10 seconds after lift-off.
31
What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white
diagonal line?
D DMC failure.
31 What does a pulsing green parameter indicates? A An ADVISORY, the parameter is about to reach a limit.
31
What happens when ND shows red circle with "MAP NOT AVAIL"
message :
B
The FMGC has failed or the FMGC has delivered an invalid
aircraft position or the MODE CHANGE or RANGE CHANGE
message has been displayed more than six seconds.
31 What is the actual aircraft track? C 156
31 What is the actual heading? B 148
31 What is the actual speed? B 204 kt.
31 What is the actual vertical speed? B 500 ft/min in descent.
31
What is the maximum speed to select the next higher flap
setting?
C 177 kt.
31
What is the meaning of 9000 in blue at the top of the altitude
scale?
A It marks the FCU selected altitude.
31
What is the meaning of a diagonal line on a CRT (READ ALL
ANSWERS):
C
As in answer b. plus it is possible to get an image on again, by
switching EIS DMC.
31 What is the selected heading? B 069
31
When FD BARS flash for 10 seconds and then remain steady :
(READ ALL ANSWERS)
D A., B., C. are correct.
31 Which computer processes the DECISION HEIGHT CALLOUTS : B FWC
31 Which computer processes the RADIO ALTITUDE CALLOUTS : B FWC
31 Which computer processes the RED WARNINGS : B FWC
31 Which of the following statements is true? A
The Flight Path Vector is displayed, the flight path angle is
about five degrees up.
31 Which of the following statements is true? D
The track to the waypoint PAS is 108, it will be overflown at
14:30.
31 With EIS DMC 1 FAULT on lower ECAM, means: C
The ECAM procedure requires you to select CAPT on the EIS
DMC switch located on the SWITCHING PANEL.
32 Accordingl to the attached image ECAM WHEEL page ... A
... LGCIU 2 detects the NLG in transit and displays the triangle
in red. LGCIU 1detects the NG down and locked and shows a
green triangle. Only one green triangle is sufficient to indicate
that the gear is down and locked.
32 Accordingly to the ECAM WHEEL page in the attached image ... A
One triangle is missing meaning that the gear is detected up
and locked by one system (LGCIU 1). The other triangle is red
because the other system (LGCIU 2) detects the gear in
transit.
32
After landing, at IAS 120 knots, keeping the airplane in the
runway centerline is achieved by directional control using ...
C ... aerodynamic directional control (rudder).
32 At the attached image, the green dashes ... C
... appear temporarily after the landing gear has been
lowered to indicate that the anti-skid function is ready. They
reappear after tounchdown along with the REL (blue) when
the anti-skid is active.
32 BRAKES HOT warning on ECAM is available: C With Gear down or up.
32 Choose de correct answer regarding "Landing Gear Brakes" C The "Nose Wheel" does not have any brake system.
32
During push back you start engine 2. You observe the NW STRG
DISC memo has changed to amber. Why?
D The memo has become amber because one engine is running.
32
For the Landing Gear Extension and Rectraction System, choose
the correct answer.
D
The LGCIUs receive position information from the landing
gear, cargo door and landing flap system.
32
How do you interpret the green arc shown here over a wheel
indication?
B
It marks the hottest brake with a temperature of more than
100 Celsius.
32
If ONE tire damage is suspected after landing or after a rejected
takeoff,
D
An inspection of the tires is required; after inspection, taxi at
a speed not greater than 7 knots when turning.
32
If the normal system to extend the landing gear hydraulically
fails... (read all answers)
C ... the flight crew can use a crank to extend it mechanicaly.
32 Main Landing Gear Brakes uses ... D
... "Green Hydraulic Pressure" in "Normal Braking " and
"Yellow Hydraulic Pressure in "Alternate Brakes"
32 Nose wheel steering achieved via ... D
... the captain steering hand wheel/rudder pedals or first
officer steering wheel/rudder pedals both using green
hydraulic pressure.
32
On ground, brake accumulator pressure is checked before
applying brakes; If the pressure indication is not in the green arc
...
A
... use the yellow hydraulic electrical pump to recharge the
brake accumulator.
32
On the Landing Gear Indicator Panel the "triangles" as shown on
the attached image...
B ... comes on "green" if the gear is locked down.
32 Refering to the attached image ... D
... the aircraft touch down occured at least 4 seconds ago,
autobrakes are ON (ON lighted) and at least 80% of the
deceleration (DECEL lighted) rate of 1.7
meters/second/square has been achieved.
32 Regarding Brake Temperature Indication : A
A green arc appears on the hotest wheel when one brake
temperature exceeds 100 degrees ; the grren arc becomes
amber when temperature exceeds 300 degrees.
32
Regarding the "Nose Wheel Steering", choose the correct
answer (please, read all answers):
D
An internal cam mechanism returns the nose wheel to the
centered position after takeoff.
32
The "A/SKID & N/W STRG" switch on the attached image if
placed in OFF position ...
B
... disconnects the anti-skid, steering rudder pedals and
steering handwheels.
32
The "ANTISKID SYSTEM" becomes active with ... (please, read all
answers)
B ... normal and alternate brakes.
32 The Anti-skid System ... A
... is available and may function with Autobrakes + Normal
Brakes + Alternate Brakes (hydraulic pump pressure available)
32
The BSCU transforms the steering orders into nose wheel
steering angle. As shown at the attached image, the nose wheel
steering angle ...
D
... has a 75 degrees limit for normal taxing speeds and
reduces to zero degrees limit at 70 knots, if steering order
comes from "hand wheels"
32
The BSCU transforms the steering orders into nose wheel
steering angle. The nose wheel steering angle ...
D
... has a 6 degrees limit for normal taxing speeds and reduces
to zero degrees limit at 130 knots, if steering order comes
from "rudder pedals"
32
The down arrow (on the right side of landing gear lever)
illumminates ...
D
... red when landing gear in not down and locked with flaps in
landing configuration, and a red warning appears in the
ECAM.
32
The landilg gear positions are indicated by two triangles for each
gear as shown on attached image. In this case ...
D
... the left triangle (yellow arrow 1) is controled by the LGCIU
1 and the right triangle (yellow arrow 2) is controled by the
LGCIU 2.
32
The landing Gear position Indications on center instrument
panel are provided by...
C .... LGCIU 1 even when LGCIU 2 is controlling the cycle
32
The pilot flying asks you to perform ECAM actions. What are
your actions according to the first line of the ECAM procedure?
D
I must put the L/G selector in the UP position, wait until the
gear has retracted, and then in the DOWN position again.
32
There are two triangles for each gear on the ECAM WHEEL page.
What do they represent?
B
Each triangle represents the position detected by one of the
two computer systems.
32 What does this NW STRG DISC memo indicate to you? A
The nose wheel steering has been disconnected by ground
personnel.
32
What is meant by the red and green triangles on the nose gear
indication (Wheel System Display)?
B
Only one system has detected the nose gear down and
locked, the other has detected it unlocked.
32 While Landing Gear Doors are open ... B ... the hand wheel steering angle NOT available
32 With electrical failure of a LGCIU ... B
... the other (healthy) LGCIU takes control od the landig gear
and some users will see "flight" condition, some users will see
"ground condition.
32
With RUDDER PEDAL DISC pb pressed down on steering Hand
Wheel ...
C
... aircraft will turn normally if "hand wheel" steering is
acuated left or right
32
You are landing on a wet runway. Why are you seeing these
indications?
B
It is an indication that the ANTI SKID is active and is releasing
the brakes as necessary.
32
You are ready to taxi. You apply the toe brakes on the rudder
pedals and release the PARK BRK. The BRAKES pressure falls to
zero. What should you do?
B
Nothing as this is normal. The BRAKES pressure indicator only
indicates alternate (yellow) brake pressure.
32
You have just set the parking brake handle to ON. Is it still
possible to check the main brake system using the toe brakes?
C
No. Puting on the PARK BRK deactivates the other braking
modes and the anti-skid system.
32
You have performed the L/G GRAVITY EXTENSION procedure.
According to these indications, which statement is true?
A The gear is in the down locked position.
32
You have recycled the L/G but there are still indications as
shown. How do you perform the next ECAM action?
A
According to the procedure L/G GRAVITY EXTENSION which is
found in the flight manual or QRH.
32
You have set the L/G selector to the DOWN position and
momentarily get the following indications. Whats happening
and is it normal?
C
This is normal. The L/G doors are open. L/G CTL indicates a
lever position disagree until the gear travels.
32
You have the ECAM presented on the attached image after
Landing Gear Gravity Extension. In this situation ...
C ... autoland and CAT III single are available.
32
You perform a landing with AUTO/BRK set to MED. After touch
down what triggers the AUTO/BRK?
B The AUTO/BRK system is triggered when the spoilers deploy.
33 According to these panel settings, which lights are actually on? A LAND, BEACON, NAV, T.O. and RWY TURN OFF lights.
33
During your walk-around, you see that one light needs a new
bulb.
What is its name?
D Taxi light.
33
If normal electrical power is lost, essential cockpit lighting is
maintained for the:
(READ ALL ANSWERS)
D All of the above.
33
On the cockpit overhead panel, there is a three position
EMERGENCY EXIT Light switch. What lights are associated with
this switch?
B Exit signs, emergency lights, and escape path lighting.
33 On which panel would you arm the emergency exit lights? B B
33 On which panel would you find the strobe light switch? A A
33
The STROBE light selector is set to AUTO. In this position, when
do the strobe lights stop flashing ?
B When the aircraft touches down.
33
Which electrical failure condition will automatically illuminate
the escape lights ?
(EMER EXIT Light selectror at ARM)
C The normal electrical power or the DC SHED ESS BUS is lost.
33 Which lights come on when the EMER EXIT LIGHT selected ON ? D
Escape Path markings, cabin Emergency lighting and Exit
signs.
34
A HOLD has been entered in the F-PLN ; SPEED and NAV are
MANAGED. The standard procedure to leave this HOLD would
be:
C Activate "IMM EXIT*" PROMPT
34
According to the shown picture, the DDRMI provides the pilot
with:
D Bearing and DME for VOR 1 and bearing for ADF 2.
34 ADIRU 3 can supply information to: D DMC 1, DMC 2 and DMC 3.
34 ADIRU 3 receives TAT information from: A The captain's TAT sensor.
34
AIR DATA MODULES (ADM) supply pressure information to the
ADIRUs from:
A All PITOT PROBES and STATIC PORTS.
34 An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that: C
Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT
mode.
34
An ILS approach is being flown. Which ILS information is now
being displayed to the Captain ?
(check the information presented on the PFD and on the ND)
A ILS1 on the PFD and ILS2 on the ND.
34
Because of MCDU "NAV accuracy downgrade" the MEMO TERR
STBY appears on the E/WD. What functions of the EGPWS have
been lost?
A
The enhanced TERRAIN AWARENESS and display functions
have been lost, basic GPWS remains active.
34
During a turnaround you notice that there is a residual ground
speed on both NDs. How do you correct this?
D
It is possible to carry out a rapid re-alignment by turning all
three ADIRS off momentarily.
34
Engines running, ready to taxi, a message appears : "CHECK
GW". Access to INIT B page is no longer available. On which page
is it possible to insert the correct GW :
C FUEL PREDICTION page.
34
From these screens, can the Captain and F/O monitor each
others ILS indications?
A
Yes, but they must have ILS push bottom selected and ROSE
ILS selected.
34 If ADIRU 2 fails, the correct action is : B Set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to F/0 ON 3.
34
If one IR mode rotary selector is in ATT position that IR will
provide only attitude and heading information. The heading
must be entered through the CDU and has to be reset within:
D About 10 minutes
34 If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF: D
The ADIRU is no longer energized ; AD and IR data are not
available.
34 In case of failure of FMGC 1 and 2 : D
VOR 1, ADF 1 are tuned by RMP 1 and VOR 2, ADF 2 are tuned
by RMP 2 ; ILS can be tuned through RMP 1 or RMP 2
34 In normal operation ADIRU 1 supplies information to : C The CAPTAIN'S PFD and ND
34 In which case both AP and A/THR are totally lost: A 2 IRS's failure or 2 ADR's failure.
34
IR alignment has counted down to one minute and the ALIGN
lights are flashing. Why is this?
B
It is an indication that alignment has stopped as the present
position data has not been entered.
34
Just after selecting the Rotary sw to NAV, the IRS start the
alignement.. For a FULL alignement, normally it takes:
D Approximately 10 minute.
34
Normal electrical power supplies the a/c and the MCDU CRT is
blank or locks up and the pilot cannot enter information into
CDU and cannot call up any MCDU pages for display. (NO other
warnings). This means :
D
The MCDU C/B has to be pulled and pushed back in after 10
seconds.
34
On the ground, when electrical power is initially supplied to the
a/c, the MCDU will automatically display :
D A/C STATUS page
34
On the pedestal mounted switching panel the ATT HDG and AIR
DATA selectors are at NORM, meaning :
A
ADIRU 1 supplies DATA to PFD 1, ND 1, RMI and VOR/DME
ADIRU 2 supplies DATA to PFD 2, ND 2
34 Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what? A
The OFF light will illuminate and air data output will
disconnect.
34 Please indicate the position of the WX RADAR controller. D D
34 The active F-PLN is erased when : C
The A/C has been on ground for 30 seconds or more after the
landing.
34 The ALIGN light flashes : B
During the ALIGNMENT phase in case of alignment fault, no
present position entry after 10 minutes or difference
between position at shutdown and entered position exceeds
1 degree.
34
The Baro correction or reference selected is sent to each ADIRU
via:
B The FCU
34
The GPWS mode 5 "excessive deviation below glide slope" has
an upper and lower cut-off limit:
C Upper 1000 ; Lower 30 ft
34 The GPWS warning "sink rate" means: A Excessive rate of descent.
34 The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean? B Alignment has been completed.
34 The IRs are normally initialized through: (READ ALL ANSWERS) D The FMGS but the ADIRS CDU may be used as a back up.
34
These messages appear on copilot side ND : "SELECT OFF SIDE
RANGE/MODE" and on MCDU : "OPP FMGC IN PROCESS"
C
Single FMGC operation and the two EFIS control panels to be
set at the same range & mode.
34
This radar display is in MAP mode. What do the colors
represent?
C Black = Water ; Green = Land ; Yellow = Buildings etc.
34 What action should be taken if ADR #1 is lost? C Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.
34 What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost: C Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O ON 3.
34
What does it mean when the ADR FAULT light illuminates steady
on the ADIRS CDU ?
A A FAULT is detected in AIR DATA reference.
34
When set to TA/RA, the TCAS system provides traffic and
resolution to...
B Only other transponding aircraft.
34 Which Nav-aids are displayed on the DDRMI? C ADF 2 and DME 1 only.
34
With the WX RADAR TILT set to zero tilt which is the correct
beam projection?
C C
34
With the WX RADAR switched ON and within the available range
in the image, what display options are available on this ND
range ?
A WX or MAP only.
34
With the WX Radar switched on, why is there a TERR AHEAD
indication on the ND?
C
It is an EGPWS indication that there is terrain ahead. The WX
RADAR has been suppressed by the TERR ON ND display.
34 You are performing a NAV ACCUR check. Does it satisfy you? B
Yes, raw data and FMGS position are the same or the
difference is within acceptable limits.
34
You press 'ALIGN IRS" prompt on INIT A page. On the ADIRS CDU
the ALIGN lights flash but no message is displayed on the CDU :
C Make a second "PRESENT POSITION" entry.
35 Cabin masks are deployed. The Oxygen will flow ... D
... when the passenger pulls the mask towards the passenger
seat.
35
If the oxygen masks fail to deploy automatically how else can
they be deployed?
B
They can be deployed by pressing the MASK MAN ON pb on
the Overhead Panel.
35
To perform the emergency oxygen pressure check, you must
press and hold the PRESS TO TEST AND RESET lever and the
emergency knob simultaneously. Which is the correct indication
that you will see while performing this test?
A Picture "A"
35
We are on the ground and the engines are not started.
Select the appropriate ECAM page to get information about the
oxygen system.
B You press the DOOR key on the ECP.
35 What is the highlighted selector ? B
Emergency pressure selector, turning the knob generates a
permanent overpressure.
35
Which ECAM indication (A or B or C or D) would you see in
accordance with O/H OXYGEN panel?
A A
35 Which indication confirms the deployment of the masks? B "B" picture.
35
You deployed the cabin masks. What is their effective time of
use, once activated? (MSN 0906-2178)
C 15 minutes.
36
According to these indications, which source is supplying the
bleed air?
B The engines are running, the APU is supplying bleed air.
36
Following an ENGINE 1 BLEED FAULT may you use two Packs and
Wing Anti Ice?
C
No, one ENG BLEED system can supply only 2 users ( 2 packs
or one pack and wing A/I).
36 In case of wing leak signal ... C
The XBLEED valve automatically CLOSES (except during an eng
start). The APU BLEED valve automatically CLOSES (except
during eng start).
36
Observe the switch selections and indications. Which source(s)
are supplying bleed air?
D There will be no bleed air supplied.
36
The BMC closes automatically the respective BLEED valve in case
of:
(read all answers)
D All the above.
36
The engines are now started. Which source(s) are providing
bleed air?
B The APU will continue to provide air.
36 When is this GND symbol displayed in green? B Whenever the aircraft is on the ground.
36
Which are the causes for ENG BLEED FAULT light to come on?
(Read all answers)
D All the above.
36
With APU BLEED ON and engine BLEED switches ON with
engines running, what is the position of the engine bleed valves?
A Closed.
36 You have just switched the APU BLEED on. Is this ECAM normal? C No, the X BLEED valve has failed to open.
49 A 60 minutes cool down period must be observed: B After 3 starts attempts without a cool down.
49 An APU emergency shutdown will occur: C When a fire is detected on ground.
49
APU Master SW has been selected to OFF ; why do you still have
the APU AVAIL indications?
B
The APU will run for 2 minutes to cool down because you
have been using the APU bleed.
49 Before starting the APU : C APU Fire Test should be done.
49 Before the APU starter is energized: C The APU air intake flap must be fully open.
49
If APU is operating in flight: (MSN 185-395 629 870 750-837 906-
1399 1713 1799-1816)
A You may use ELEC plus bleed air up to FL200.
49
Maximum altitude for APU bleed air and generator load is (ISA):
(MSN 1756-1765 2178)
C 22, 500 ft
49
Maximum altitude for APU bleed air extractio for WING anti-ice
and generator load is (ISA) :
D Not allowed.
49
No external power is available. What is the simplest way to bring
the APU back on line?
C I just have to push the APU MASTER SW back to ON.
49
On the ECAM APU page crew can find several information about
the APU working configuration. According to the image on the
right , if the crew has the shown selection on the overhead
panel, the ECAM APU page they will found corresponds to
figure,
C C
49
On the ECAM APU page the crew can find several APU
indications. In the image the APU is running and available and,
B It is providing bleed air only.
49
On the ground with engines not running, the APU can be started
using:
A The aircraft batteries or external ground electric power.
49
The APU BLEED valve (APU bleed air supply ) is automatically
closed above ______ feet climbing by the ECB.
B 25,000
49
The APU has an envelope of operating limitations. The
maximum altitude at which the APU may be started using the
engines generators electrical power is, (MSN 0185-0395 0750-
0837 0906-1399 1713)
D 39 000 ft.
49
The APU has an envelope of operating limitations.The maximum
altitude the APU may be used for electrical supply is, (MSN 0185-
0395 0750-0837 0906-1399 1713)
D 39 000 ft.
49
The APU is a self-contained unit that makes the aircraft
independent of external electrical and pneumatic power
supplies. Its ground operation safety device assures that in case
of an ECB failure,
D On ground an APU AUTO SHUT DOWN will occur.
49 The APU MASTER SW FAULT light will illuminate: B When an automatic shutdown of the APU occurs.
49
The APU master switch controls the electric supply for APU
operation and its protective features. Crew can find it in panel,
C C
49 The APU may be started up to what altitude ? (MSN 1799-1816) A
The APU can be started at any altitude using normal aircraft
electrical power.
49
The basic element of the APU is a single shaft gas turbine which
delivers ______ power for driving the accessory gearbox
(electrical generator) and produces bleed air (engine starting
and pneumatic supply).
D Mechanical shaft
49
The electrical starter controlled by the ECB engages if the air
intake is fully open and the MASTER SW and the START pb are
on. If during start the APU N does not increase,
D An APU AUTO SHUT DOWN will occur.
49
The Electronic Control Box (ECB) is primarily a full authority
digital electronic controller that performs the APU system logic
for all modes of APU operation such as:
(READ ALL ANSWERS)
D All of the above.
49 The LOW OIL LEVEL advisory message is set by the: C ECB
49 To shut down the APU, the crew must: C Select the APU MASTER pushbutton to OFF.
49 What are some of the causes for an APU automatic shutdown? D
Fire on ground, No acceleration, Overspeed, EGT
overtemperature, Reverse flow, Low oil pressure, High oil
temp.
49
What is the maximum altitude at which the APU may be started
using the aircraft batteries only?
C 25, 000 ft
49 When selected on, the APU START push button, will: B
Start the APU if the APU MASTER SW was previously selected
ON.
49 When the APU MASTER SW is selected ON: A
The APU computer automatically completes a self-test, opens
the air intake flap and supplies fuel pressure.
49
Which of the following statements is correct?
(MSN 0185-0395 0750-0837 0906-1399 1713-1816)
D
If the APU FIRE, APU SHUTOFF pb is pushed on the EXTERNAL
POWER PANEL, an emergency shutdown will occur.
49 Which one of the following statements is true? B
The APU is supplied by the aircraft left fuel feed line or by the
APU FUEL PUMP which starts automatically if pressure not
available (batteries only or pumps off).
49
With battery power, what would an APU fire test look like?
(Please, read all answers)
C Both are correct.
49
With nobody in the cockpit, if you have an APU FIRE, which
statement is correct?
A
On the ground, an APU EMER shut down will occur and the
APU fire bottle will be discharged automatically.
49
You switch OFF the APU but curiously you still have the APU
AVAIL indications.
B The APU will run for a cooling period of 120 seconds.
52
Crew can find several information about doors and slides on the
ECAM DOOR PAGE. According to these indications,
B
The left forward cabin door and the forward cargo door are
not locked.
52
Crew can find several information about doors and slides on the
ECAM DOOR PAGE. When a white SLIDE indication appears,
C The slide is armed.
52
You want to open a passenger door and when you lift the
control handle a white light illuminates. This is a warning for the
crew that,
C The slide is still armed.
70
A few seconds after selecting reverse, the amber REV indication
changes to green. What does this mean?
B All reverser blockers are now fully deployed.
70 Actual EGT in flight: (MSN 0629-2178) D Pulses red above 950.
70
After landing you select REVERSE and the following indications
appear. What is happening?
D
This is the normal indication whilst any one reverser blocker
is unlocked or unstowed.
70 After take-off the A/THR will not become active until ... A The thrust levers are placed in the CLIMB position.
70
Choose the correct answer regarding about Engines "Manual
Start":
C
Igniters AB fire and Fuel flows after "ENG MASTER" switch is
selected ON, provided AStart Selector" in IGN/START and ENG
MAN START pushbotton selected ON.
70 During a manual start, what function does the FADEC perform? A
Passive monitoring of the start sequence, to close the start
valve and cut off the ignition on the ground.
70
During an engine start sequence the gray background on N2 the
indication disappears at about 57%. What does this indicate?
B
That the start sequence has finished and all engine
parameters have stabilized.
70 During automatic ground start ... B ... Fuel flows at 22% N2.
70
During engine start the amber FAULT light on the ENG panel
illuminates. This indicates ...
A
That there is an automatic abort start or a disagreement
between the HP valveposition and its commanded position.
70
During engine start you get the ECAM on the attached image. In
this situation ...
D
... automatically the FADEC cuts OFF the fuel, turns OFF the
ignition and closes the start valve.
70 During inflight engine start ... A
... both igniters are supplied when Engine Master Switch is set
to ON.
70
During normal engine start the attached image panel shows
FAULT, thus indicating that ... (PLEASE, READ ALL ANSWERS)
A
... the automatic start is aborted or that a disagrement
betwen HP fuel valve i and its commanded position occured.
70
During the automatic start sequence of ENG 2, you notice that
only igniter B is powered. Is this normal?
D
Yes, igniters are used alternatively for engine start, in this
case B.
70 During the starting sequence ... A ... at 16% N2 the ignition starts firing.
70 FADEC provides several IDLE selections : D
APPROACH IDLE is selected when flaps lever not at zero
position.
70
If during eng start sequence an electrical power supply
interruption occurs (loss of ECAM CRT's).
C Start must be aborted (eng master sw to OFF).
70 In cruise we get the ECAM on the attached image. We should ... D
... call for ECAM ACTIONS which directs you to place the
Thrust Lever to Idle and Engine 1 Master to OFF.
70 In the attached image ... B
... Igniter B has been automatically selected for engine 2 and
is firing (letter B in green colour).
70 On a "Manual Engine Start" ... A
... both igniters are supplied when "ENG MASTER" switch are
set to ON.
70 On a MAN ENG start if 22% N2 cannot be achieved you should: D
After checking that pack valve auto closure is operative, APU
loads must be shed switching off the galley power.
70 On the attached image, CL means ... D ... The Thrust Limit is Climb
70 On the situation shown on the attached image ECAM page ... C
... normal operation resumed, once the remaining engine oil
indications are normal and IDG outlet temperature is below
the engine oil temperature .
70 Take-off can be performed using which power settings? D FLEX or TO/GA
70 The "Start Valves" in the attached image ... B ... are fully closed.
70
The amber tick on the EGT display (pointed on attached image)
represents the ...
A
... maximum EGT (MAX EGT). Since the MAX EGT is different
for starting, TO, CL, Cruise, etc.., the tick moves automatically
depending on the phase of operation.
70 The display shows fuel used before engines have started ... C
... because this value is frozen at engine shut down and reset
automatically on the ground at engine start.
70
The ECAM additional information highlighted on the attached
image ...
B ... is presented during ground start or crank.
70 The FIRE FAULT light on ENG panel indicates: D
FIRE light indicates ENGINE ON FIRE.
FAULT light indicates an automatic start abort or
disagreement between the HP valve position and its
commanded position.
70 The selected number (94.1%) on the attached image means D ... the N1 Rating Limit for Thrust Limit Mode
70 What is the FADEC: A An engine control system.
70 What is the meaning of the amber CHK indication on this ECAM? D
It is an indication of a discrepancy between the F/F shown on
the FADEC-DMC and the corresponding displayed values.
70
Which steps of a manual start are being taken care of by the
FADEC?
A Starter valve closure and ignition cut off.
70
Why are both igniters powered during this ENG 2 start sequence
?
B This is a manual start and both igniters are always used.
70 With the ECAM page as shown in the attached image ... C
... the achieved N1 (green radial) is greater than the "thrust
lever Limit N1" ; this is a normal indication if in Alpha Floor
condition.
70 With engine oil pressure below 13 Psi: A Engine should be shutdown.
70
With Start selector in CRANK and Manual Start p/b ON, the Start
Valve will close :
B When the pilot selects the ENG MAN START Pb to OFF
70
You are about to perform a take-off. You have not inserted a
FLEX temperature. Can you still take-off?
D Yes, but only using the TO/GA detent.
70
You are at the start of a descent and a blue N1 command arc is
displayed showing the new thrust demanded. When does this
happen?
D Whenever there is a power change with auto thrust engaged.
70
You are in the middle of a manual engine start. What are you
looking for when you select ENG master 2 ON?
C
The fuel used is reset, both igniters are powered and fuel
flow is indicated.
70
You are performing a take-off with the thrust levers in the FLEX
position.
The A/THR now is ...
B Armed.
202
A319/112 MTOW COMPUTATIONS : GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 1+F ;
WET RWY ; A/C OFF
OAT= 22 ; Wind 070/12 ; QNH=1003
Compute MTOW and MTOW Speeds.
D 68.7 148/57/62
202
A319/112 MTOW COMPUTATIONS : GVA RWY 23 ; 1+F ; DRY ;
A/C OFF
OAT= 12 ; Wind 250/13 ; QNH=1013
Compute MTOW and MTOW Speeds.
D 72.9 170/70/75
202
A319/112 MTOW COMPUTATIONS : GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 1+F ;
WET RWY ; A/C OFF
OAT= 12 ; Wind 230/13 ; QNH=1013
Compute MTOW and MTOW Speeds.
D 72.8 167/69/74
202
A319/112 FLEX & SPEEDS computation. GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 1 ;
A/C OFF ; DRY RWY
OAT=30 ; Wind 040/10 ; QNH = 993 ; ATOW= 67.5
Compute FLEX and Takeoff SPEEDS.
D FLEX NOT ALLOWED
202
A319/112 FLEX & SPEEDS computation. GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 1 ;
A/C OFF ; DRY RWY
OAT=30 ; Wind 230/15 ; QNH = 993 ; ATOW= 69.1
Compute FLEX and Takeoff SPEEDS.
D Flex=43 Speeds= 159/62/67
202
A319/112 FLEX & SPEEDS computation. GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 1 ;
A/C OFF ; DRY RWY
OAT=31 ; Wind 050/5 ; QNH = 1003 ; ATOW= 63.9
Compute FLEX and Takeoff SPEEDS.
D Flex= 50 Speeds= 151/55/59
202
A319/112 FLEX & SPEEDS computation. GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 1 ;
A/C OFF ; DRY RWY
OAT=31 ; Wind 210/12 ; QNH = 1003 ; ATOW= 67.1
Compute FLEX and Takeoff SPEEDS.
D FLEX=48 SPEEDS 161/61/66
202
A319/112 MTOW COMPUTATIONS : GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 1+F ;
DRY ; A/C OFF
OAT= 17 ; Wind 350/10 ; QNH=1013
Compute MTOW and MTOW Speeds.
C 70.7 158/64/68
202
A319/112 MTOW COMPUTATIONS : GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 1+F ;
DRY RWY ; A/C OFF
OAT= 22 ; Wind 090/25 ; QNH=1013
Compute MTOW and MTOW Speeds for MSN 0629-1399 and
1713-4021
C Takeoff NOT ALLOWED with Tailwind greater than 10 kt.
202
A319/112 MTOW COMPUTATIONS : GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 1+F ;
WET RWY ; A/C OFF
OAT= 22 ; Wind 100/25 ; QNH=1013
Compute MTOW and MTOW Speeds.
D
Takeoff NOT ALLOWED with Tail wind componnent above 10
kt
202
A319/112 MTOW COMPUTATIONS : GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 1+F ;
DRY ; A/C OFF
OAT= 12 ; Wind 290/10 ; QNH=1013
Compute MTOW and MTOW Speeds.
D 72.5 168/69/74
202
A319/112 MTOW COMPUTATIONS : GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 1+F ;
WET RWY ; A/C OFF
OAT= 22 ; Wind 290/10 ; QNH=1003
Compute MTOW and MTOW Speeds.
D 71.4 161/64/69
202
A319/112 MTOW COMPUTATIONS : GVA RWY 23 ; WET ; A/C
OFF
OAT= 22 ; Wind 070/12 ; QNH=993 ; CONF 1+F
Compute MTOW and MTOW Speeds.
D 68.1 148/56/61
202
A319/112 MTOW COMPUTATIONS : GVA RWY 23 (TWY B) ;
CONF 1+F ; DRY RWY ; A/C OFF
OAT= 22 ; Wind 260/25g30 ; QNH=1003
Compute MTOW and MTOW Speeds.
D 71.9 166/68/73
202
A319/112 MTOW COMPUTATIONS : GVA RWY 23 ; DRY ; CONF
2 ; A/C OFF
OAT= 17 ; Wind light and variable ; QNH=1003
Compute MTOW and MTOW Speeds.
C 69.2 157/59/63
202
A320 MTOW : GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 2 ; DRY RUNWAY ; VISIBILITY
800m ; Visible Moisture (Anti-ice ON) ;
OAT= 3 ; Wind 270/20 ; QNH=1013.2
Compute MTOW and MTOW SPEEDS
D 71.6 165/65/70
202
A320 MTOW : GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 2 ; DRY RUNWAY ; Air /Cond
OFF ; A/I OFF
OAT= 7 ; Wind 230/10 ; QNH=1013.2
Compute MTOW and MTOW SPEEDS
A 71.9 166/66/70
202
A320 MTOW COMPUTATION: GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 2 ; DRY
RUNWAY ; A/C OFF
OAT=23 ; Wind 050/10 ; QNH=1013.2
Compute MTOW and MTOW SPEEDS
D 68.5 153/58/63
202
A320 MTOW COMPUTATION: GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 2 ; WET
RUNWAY ; A/C OFF
OAT=23 ; Wind 270/20 ; QNH=1013
Compute MTOW and MTOW SPEEDS
A 71.6 163/65/69
202
A320-211 FLEX & SPEEDS computation. GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 1 ;
A/C OFF ; DRY RWY
OAT=31 ; Wind 040/4 ; QNH = 1003 ; ATOW= 68.5
Compute FLEX and Takeoff SPEEDS.
C FLEX NOT ALLOWED.
202
A320-211 MTOW : GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 1 ; DRY RUNWAY ;
OAT=23 ; Wind 260/15 ; QNH=1013.2
Compute MTOW and MTOW SPEEDS
D 72.3 170/172/172
202
A320-211 MTOW COMPUTATION: GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 1 ; WET
RUNWAY ; A/C OFF
OAT=19 ; Wind 050/11 ; QNH=1003
Compute MTOW and MTOW SPEEDS
C 67.95 152/62/63
202
A320-211 MTOW COMPUTATION: GVA RWY 23 ; CONF 2 ; DRY
RUNWAY ; A/C OFF
OAT=23 ; Wind 290/10 ; QNH=1003
Compute Performance MTOW and SPEEDS
B 70.575 164/65/69
202
Depending on environmental takeoff conditions, the following
procedure is recommended:
A
For a Dry or Wet well paved runway use the configuration
giving the maximum Flex to extend engine life.
202
The minimum control speed in flight at which the aircraft can be
controlled with maximum bank of 5 degrees with one engine
failure and the remaining engines at takeoff power is called:
C c) VMCA
203
ALTERNATE PLANNING FROM DESTINATION to ALTERNATE
AIRPORT
Air Distance = 250 Nm ; FL = 200 ; Weight = 65 T
Compute Alternate FUEL and TIME.
C Alternate Fuel = 2019 kg ; Alternate Time = 47 M
203
ALTERNATE PLANNING FROM DESTINATION TO ALTERNATE:
Air Distance = 150 Nm ; FL = 200 ; Ldg Wght at Alternate = 60 T
Compute ALTERNATE FUEL and ALTERNATE TIME :
C ALTERNATE FUEL = 1273 KG ; ALTERNATE TIME = 0H31M
203
ALTERNATE PLANNING FROM DESTINATION TO ALTERNATE:
Air Distance = 190 Nm ; FL = 180 ; Ldg Wght at Alternate = 54 T
Compute ALTERNATE FUEL and ALTERNATE TIME :
A ALTERNATE FUEL = 1522 KG ; ALTERNATE TIME = 39M
203
As a general rule, an altitude that is 4000 feet below the
optimum produces a significant fuel penalty:
B Approximately 5%
203
CRUISE CONTROL - AUTO THRUST INOP:
Weight = 60 T ; FL = 350 ; ISA + 10 ; Long Range Cruise Speed
CRUISE parameters are :
A
Required N1 = 88.2% ; Aircraft Hourly Comsumption = 2392
kg / Hour ; TAS = 461 kt
203
CRUISE CONTROL - AUTO THRUST INOP:
Weight = 64 T ; FL = 350 ; ISA + 10 ; Long Range Cruise Speed
CRUISE parameters are :
D Required N1 = 89.3 A/I OFF ; IAS = 267 kt
203
DESCENT CONTROL ; Weight = 55 T
From FL = 390 to FL = 200, compute DESCENT TIME, FUEL and
DISTANCE
D
Descent Time = 7.5 M ; Descent Fuel = 72 kg ; Descent
Distance = 54 Nm
203
DESCENT CONTROL ; Weight = 65 T
From FL = 390 to FL = 200, compute DESCENT TIME, FUEL and
DISTANCE
A
Descent Time = 6.8 ; Descent Fuel = 41 kg ; Descent Distance
= 49 Nm
203
GROUND TO AIR DISTANCE
Ground distance = 470 nm ; Head wind = 50 Head
Compute Air Distance :
D Air Distance = 527 Nm
203
GROUND TO AIR DISTANCE
Ground distance = 470 nm ; Wind = 50 Tail
Compute Air Distance :
B Air Distance = 423 Nm
203
IN CRUISE QUICK CHECK FROM ANY MOMENT TO LANDING:
Air Distance = 450 Nm ; FL = 380 ; Weight = 70 T ; Mach = 78
Compute diversion FUEL and TIME to landing:
D Diversion Fuel = 2203 kg ; Diversion Time = 1H09M
203
IN CRUISE QUICK CHECK FROM ANY MOMENT TO LANDING:
Air Distance = 700 Nm ; FL = 370 ; Weight = 70 T ; Mach = 78
Compute diversion FUEL and TIME to landing:
A Diversion Fuel = 3620 kg ; Diversion Time = 1H43M
203
INTEGRATED CRUISE FUEL
FL =350 ; LRC SPEED ; INITIAL WEIGHT =56.4 T ; PERF PENALTY =
3% ;
Compute FUEL and TIME for 794 Nm air distance:
B Fuel = 3914 kg ; Time 1H51M
203
ISA DEVIATION INTEGRATED CRUISE FUEL
FL =350 ; LRC SPEED ; INITIAL WEIGHT =56.4 T ; PERF PENALTY =
3% ; ISA
Compute FUEL and TIME for 794 Nm air distance:
D CRUISE FUEL = 3914 KG ; TIME = 1H51M
203
ONE ENG INOP DIVERSION
Dist =700 Nm ; FL = 220 ; Weight = 60 T
Compute Diversion FUEL and TIME
A Fuel = 4127 kg ; Time = 2H01M
203
ONE ENG INOP DIVERSION
Air Dist = 325 Nm ; FL = 160 ; Weight 65 T
Compute diversion FUEL and diversion TIME
D Fuel = 2237 kg ; Time 0H58M
203
ONE ENGINO INOP ALT CAPABILITY AT LRC
Weight = 65.8 T ; ISA + 5 ; Long Range Cruise Speed
Find ALTITUDE CAPABILITY One Engine Inoperative.
C FL 230
203 Regulations state that REVERSE THRUST: D
May be used when computing CONTAMINATED RUNWAY
MTOW.
203 The best target speed is a function of : (read all answers) D d) All the above
203
The optimum flight level is continusly updated in flight .For this
computation it uses
D all the above
203
The recommended maximum altitude is defined: (read all
answers)
D d) By the lowest one of all above.
203
TRIP FUEL AND TIME with PERF PENALTY
FL =350 ; LRC SPEED ; LANDING WEIGHT =60T ; PERF PENALTY
5%
Compute TRIP FUEL and TRIP TIME for 600 Nm air distance:
D TRIP FUEL = 3915 KG ; TRIP TIME = 1H35M
203
TRIP FUEL AND TIME
FL =370 ; LRC SPEED ; LANDING WEIGHT =54T ; FL=370
Compute TRIP FUEL and TRIP TIME for 550 Nm air distance:
D TRIP FUEL = 3233 KG ; TRIP TIME = 1H27M
302
A pilot shall not takeoff in an aircraft that has: (READ ALL
ANSWERS)
D A) + B) + C) are correct.
302
According to the runway conditions, the cross wind value as a
function of reported brake action (friction coefficient) shall be
consulted for takeoff and landing and they are:
A Maximum cross wind 15 knos for brake action poor.
302
Among others, the following phenomena may cause
<<UNRELIABLE AIRSPEED INDICATION>> : (READ ALL ANSWERS)
D All the obove are correct.
302 CAT in jetstreams is most likely to occur : C
The turbulent region would be to the left of jet core (looking
downwind) in Northern Hemisphere and to right in Southern
Hemisphere.
302 Flight crew procedure regarding thusderstorms: A Avoiding thunderstorms is the best policy.
302
If necessary to fly closer than minimum distance of a line of cells
(thunderstorm squall line) the advisable procedure should be to
fly:
C
The safest path which is the upwind side (the side away from
the direction of storm travel)
302
If the weather conditions and route forecastindicate that
turbulence is likely, (READ ALL ANSWERS)
D A) + B) + C) are correct.
302
If thunderstorm penetration is unavoidable (READ ALL
ANSWERS)
D All the above.
302
In addition to reducing speed and changing altitude 1000 ft, to
avoid or to leave the areas of CAT, the following procedures
should be applied: (READ ALL ANSWERS)
D All the above A) + B) + C) are correct.
302
In case of Airspeed Indication descrepancies during takeoff in
adverse weather conditions:
D
Follow recall items which include: AP/FD OFF + A/THR OFF +
FLY APPROPRIATE ATTITUDE + MANTAIN FLAPS
CONFIGURATION + RETRACT SPEEDBRAKES + L/G UP
302
In the terminal area, the thunderstorm should be avoided by no
less than:
D 3NM
302 Landing Distance computation: D
The <Required Contaninated Landing Distance> equals
<Demonstrated Contaminated Landing Distance> times 1.15
302 Operation on slippery surfaces: D
The use of thrust reversers is mandatory on contaminated
runways.
302
Radar echoes from thunderstorms should be avoided by the
following minimum distances:
D 20 NM at FL 300
302
Regarding Icing conditions, choose the correct answer(s): (READ
ALL QUESTONS)
D Both answers A) + B) are correct.
302
The Recomended Maximum Cross wind on a runway covered
with dry snow (medium/poor brake action) is:
B 20 kt
302
The Recomended Maximum Cross wind on a runway covered
with wet snow is:
A 15 kt
302 Thunderstorms should be avoided: (Read all answers) D All the above.
302
Windshear may create a severe hazard for aircraft within 1 000
ft AGL, particularly during the approach to land and in the take-
off phases. On this take-off scheme:
C
The aircraft immediately after takeoff encounters a
headwind (increasing performance), followed by a tail wind
(decreasing performance)
308
>Blue Flame< or >gas pressure cigar lighters< or >strike
anywhere matches< are allowed to take on board the aircraft?
C Not allowed.
308
All Dangerous Goods can be accepted and loaded into an aircraft
?
D No
308
All Dangerous Goods can be accepted and loaded into an aircraft
cabin ?
A No
308 An excepted package is loaded in the aircraft without a NOTOC. D NOTOC may not be required accordingly regulations.
308
Cabin Crew notices a pap with a hand package as on the side
image : he (she) should...
C ... advise the Supervisor and he should inform the Captain.
308 Carriage of dangerous goods: (READ ALL ANSWERS) D A) + B) + C) principles are correct.
308 Choose the correct answer regarding Dangerous Goods hazards . C
The maximum allowed quantity per package is less for
packing group I (1- one).
308 Choose the correct answer regarding dangerous goods: C
Aerosols with no subsidiary risk for sporting or home use are
allowed to carry as <checked baggage>.
308 Dangerous Goods are identified by: A
Proper shipping name and UN numbers assigned under the
United Nations classification system.
308 Dangerous Goods to be transported: C
Many Dangerous Goods can be safely carried in good quality
packaging even though not marked or tested to UN standard.
308 Dangerous goods training: D Mandatory for flight crew once in a two years period.
308 Dry ice, even on a frozen fish box: A Must display the miscelaneous hazard label.
308
Due to the risks associated with the carriage of lithium ion spare
batteries with more watt-hour in excess of 100 Wh but not
exceeding 160 Wh ...
B ... may be carried in as <carry-on-baggage>
308 For 3W Drill Code ... (check attached image) C ... water (3W) MAY NOT be used as "firefighting agent".
308
For the following items, passengers DO need operator's
approval ?
C
Small oxygen cylinders for medical use (maximum 5kg oxygen
cilinders).
308
Handling Labels showing the quantities (weight, capacity,
volume) of Dangerous Goods in the boxes ...
A ... are not mandatory.
308
In case of an accident/incident with Dangerous Goods on board
...
C
... shall be reported to the appropriate authority of the state
in which occurred and also to Portuguese Aviation Authority.
308 In the attached NOTOC, the Aerosols Flammable: D Are carried in cargo compartment 2 section 1
308
In transportation of dangerous goods, air carrier and handling
agents must comply with the requirements for: (READ ALL
ANSWERS)
D All the above.
308 Labelling is the responsibility of: B The shipper.
308
May a passenger carry in carry-on-baggage two 750 ml hair
spray ?
D No.
308
NOTOC to be signed by Captain shows the product, "Acetone,
UN 1090" , but does not show the "Drill Code" ; In this case
...(check attached image)
A
... the " Drill Code 3H" may be found on the "Emergency
Response Guidance" booklet for "UN 1090".
308
NOTOC to be signed by Captain shows the "Dangerous Goods"
product, the "UN number" , the "Drill Code" and location on
board. When the "Drill Code" is not shown ...
C
... flight crew shall look for the "Drill Code" on the
"Emergency Response Guidance" booklet located in the
cockpit.
308
On the attached NOTOC for AEROSOLS FLAMABLE, the <drill
code> is:
D Not shown.
308
On the attached NOTOC, under the >IMP/CODE< column is
written:
B
The Interline Message Procedure Code or Interchange
Message Procedure Code
308
Point out the characteristics of substances which are forbidden
in an aircraft under any circumstances.
D Produce a heat, or a toxic, or a flammable gas.
308
Radioactive material may be loaded in a compartment occupied
by Passengers or Crew ?
D Negative if categories I, II or III.
308 Regarding Carbon Dioxide, solid (dry ice): B
Used in food and beverages service aboard the airplane is not
subject to the DGR.
308
Regarding Dangerous Goods transportation: (READ ALL
ANSWERS)
B
A number of limitations are placed on dangerous goods which
are permitted to be transported by air.
308
Rules to be observed by Dangerous Goods carrier: (READ ALL
ANSWERS)
D A) + B) + C) are correct
308
The "Additional Risk" for the product "Acetone"is ... (check
attached image)
A Highly Ignitable
308
The "Aircraft Risk" for the product "Acetone"is ... (check
attached image)
B Fire and/or explosion.
308
The following marking or label in a pack could show individually
the presence of dangerous goods in the pack.
C UN specification marking.
308 The information to Captain: A
Must include the indication that there is no evidence that any
damaged or leaking package s have been loaded on the
aircraft.
308
The main reason why certain principles contained in the
Dangerous Goods (DG) must be strictly followed is:
B The safety.
308 The NOTOC ... A
... is NOT required for Dangerous Goods in Excepted
quantities, Biological substancies UN3373 and excepted
packages of radioactive material.
308
The NOTOC may NOT show the Drill Code for a Dangerous Good
; in this case ...
B ... the Drill Code may be found in ERG booklet on board.
308 The operator responsibility consists on: B Loading.
308 The Shipper responsibility consists on: D Classifying
308 The shipper is responsible for: D
Proper identification, classification, packing, marking,
labelling and documentation. Shippers are also responsable
for compliance with the origin, transit and destination State
Regulations
308 Using the EDP NOTOC attached, the drill code for the Acetal is: D 3H
308
Using the information at the attached image, choose the correct
answer:
A The "additional risk" for the "drill code 4 F" is "flamable"
308
Using the manually completed NOTOC attached, the Nitrogen,
Refrigerated Liquid <DRILL CODE> is:
A 2L
308 Using the manually completed NOTOC attached: A
The 20 pakages of Nitrogen, Refrigerated Liquid are loaded
at cargo compartment 1, sections 1 , 2 and 3
308 Using the side NOTOC, A The UN 2077 loaded at section 2.1 (palet on hold 2, section 1)
308
Wheelchairs or other battery-powered mobility devices with
non-spillable batteries may be carried on board ...
C
... as checked baggage provided the battery is disconnected,
and the battery terminals are insulated.
308
Wheelchairs or other battery-powered mobility devices with
spillable batteries may be carried on board ...
D ... as checked baggage provided batteries are DISCONNECTED.
308 Wheelchairs with spillable batteries may be carried on board .. D
... as checked baggage provided it can be loaded, stowed,
secured and unloaded always in the up-right position and the
battery is disconnected.
308
Where can we found the definitions of terms commonly used in
the DGR?
D Glossary.
308
Where in the DGR can the information how to use the
regulations be found ?
C
In the section HOW TO USE THE REGULATIONS of the DGR
manual.
308
Which of the following items may carried as <carry-on-
baggage> ?
D
Carbon dioxide, solid (dry ice) associated with food
conservation.
308
Which of the following items may carried as <checked baggage>
?
A Aerosols with no subsidiary risk, for sporting or home use.