Professional Documents
Culture Documents
(ENTERPRISE)
STUDENT
WORKBOOK
ECONOMICS
WDB1004
December 2011
Acknowledgements
These learning resources were developed by Victoria University, Melbourne Australia.
Edition / Publication
Subject:
Subject code:
Third Edition
Economics
3113C0207U04
June 2011
Contents
Table of Contents
Copyright 2010
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Contents
Case study: Free trade pact with India could lift GDP by $45bn ............................... 123
Cartoon case study ................................................................................................... 124
Topic 7B: Foreign Exchange Rate..................................................................................... 125
Multiple Choice Questions Topic 7B: Foreign Exchange Rate ................................... 131
Case study: Aussie exchange rates best for decades................................................ 134
Case study: Inflation eases rate-rise fears ................................................................. 136
Cartoon case study ................................................................................................... 137
Topic 8: Money and Monetary Policy ................................................................................ 139
Multiple Choice Questions Topic 8: Money and Monetary Policy ............................... 146
Case Study: Interest rate hikes put brakes on economic growth................................ 149
Cartoon case study 8.1.............................................................................................. 150
Cartoon Case Study 8.2 ............................................................................................ 151
Topic 9A: Fiscal Policy ...................................................................................................... 153
Multiple Choice Questions Topic 9A: Fiscal Policy .................................................... 160
Cartoon Case study................................................................................................... 165
A government budget deficit should help an economic recovery when there is a
recession: but how can large budget deficits each year threaten the economy in the
future? Explain. ......................................................................................................... 165
Topic 9B: Microeconomic Reform ..................................................................................... 166
Multiple Choice Questions Topic 9B: Microeconomic Reform .................................... 168
Case Study: Reforms are micro more than macro ..................................................... 171
Topic 10: Market Failure and Government Regulation ...................................................... 175
Conversation in English. ............................................................................................ 175
Multiple Choice Questions Topic 10: Market Failure and Government Regulation ..... 180
Case Study: Market Failure: Global Warming ............................................................ 185
Case Study Essay Question ...................................................................................... 186
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Writing Skills
Identify
You should recognise the required information when you read or hear it.
Explain
When you read the word scarcity, for example, you should
explain the term and how it is applied.
Outline
You should write about the main features and general principles of a
subject, leaving out minor details, but emphasising its structures and
relationships in the larger context.
Analyse
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Writing Skills
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Topic1A
Economics
Topic 1B
Economics Thoughts &
Theories
2011
School of Business Services
Faculty of Workforce Development
ANSWER
EXPLANATION
Scarcity
Choice
Factors of Production
Consumer goods
Capital goods
Economic problem
Economic good
Free good
Land
Labour
Entrepreneurship
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The first step when writing an answer to a question is to decide what type of
answer is necessary.
For question (2) above, you need to show DIFFERENCES. So your answer will need to a)
briefly say what macro economics is, b) briefly say what micro economics is and then c)
comment on the main difference/s between these.
The second step is to write you answer using the language for showing
difference:
For question (3) below, you need to show REASONS. When you see the word WHY, you
usually need to give reasons. So your answer will need to a) state that it is important to
study Economics, and b) you need to list the reasons. See below for some language tips.
Write here:
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Giving Reasons
Because + reason
Because of + noun
Due to + noun / -ing verb
Since
The reason ... + is that..
Scarcity
5. What are the big economic questions? Give examples. The first sentence is given.
(How)
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(Who)
(Where)
(When)
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8. What is the meaning of ceteris paribus; and why do economists use this term?
Graph 1
Questions 9 to 13
15
b
Unattainable
c
10
d
Attainable
e
z
f
0
2
3
4
Computers (millions)
5
37
..
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Question 12: If 10m mobile phones are produced, how many computers are produced?
Graph 2
Questions 14 to 18
Point of allocative
efficiency
15
A
10
PPF
1.5
2.5
3.5
Computers (millions)
5
52
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..
..
Question 18: Define productive efficiency.
..
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Graph 3
Questions 19 to 22
MC
A
Equilibrium
Marginal benefit = marginal Cost
efficient quantity of mobile phones
3
2
MB
1.5
2.5
3.5
Computers (millions)
53
..
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..
..
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Characteristic
Market Economy
Command Economy
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8. Identify the various schools of thought in economics. In your answer, give an outline of
the key principles of each school of thought.
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Question 2
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Economics is the social science that studies the choices that society make
b) Economics is the social science that directs the choices that society makes
c) Economic lacks realism because they are not based on facts
d) Economics teaches us where to invest to always earn a profit in the stock market
Question 3
Economics is divided into:
a) Two main branches: Microeconomics and Macroeconomics
b) One main branch: Economics
c) Three main branches: Microeconomics, Macroeconomics and Economics
d) Two main branches: microeconomic reform and labour markets
Question 4
Microeconomics is the study of:
a) The performance of national economy
b) The study of international trade
c) How households and firm make choices, how they interact in markets and how the
government attempts to influence their choices
d) National Economic performance
Question 5
Macroeconomics is the study of:
a) Global economy
b) The performance of national economy and the global economy
c) Capital markets
d) How households and firm make choices, how they interact in markets and how the
government attempts to influence their choices
Question 6
Which of the following will be considered a microeconomic issue?
a) Why did unemployment fall last year?
b) Why has Americas economy stagnated?
c) Can the Reserve Bank bring prosperity by keeping interest rates low?
d) What factors determine the quantity demanded for public transport?
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Question 7
The circular-flow is a model that illustrates:
a) How participants in the markets are linked and demonstrate the flow of spending and
money in the economy
b) How participants allocate their limited resources
c) Microeconomic issues
d) How to achieve efficiency in the economy
Question 8
Scarcity exists:
a) When people consume beyond their means
b) Only in rich nations
c) In all countries of the world
d) Only in poor nations
Question 9
The combined existence of scarce resources and unlimited wants forces us to
a) Have a low rate of economic growth
b) Have a low standard of living
c) Produce inefficiently
d) Choose among alternatives
Question 10
The opportunity cost of buying a new DVD player is:
a) The price of the new DVD player
b) The money paid to workers who made the player
c) The factors of production used in the making of the DVD player
d) The purchases that the buyer must give up to buy the new DVD player
Question 11
An economy can produce outside its production possibility frontier when
a) New technology is developed
b) People limit their choices
c) Distribution systems are improved
d) Never
Question 12
A market economic system is regarded as:
a) An economy, where all economic decisions are planned and managed by a central
planning authority
b) An economy where resources are allocated and goods and services distributed with
minimal control and regulation
c) An economy where resources are allocated and goods and services are distributed
by government
d) An economy, where all economic decisions are planned and managed by the private
sectors
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Question 13
You own a DVD of the film The Lord of the Rings. The opportunity cost of watching
the film
a) Is the value of the alternative use of the time you spent watching the DVD
b) cannot be calculated
c) Is one half the cost of the DVD, since this is the second time you have watched it
d) Is zero
Question 14
Assuming you have a test tomorrow morning, and a friend comes over your house
and invites you to go out to the movies, your opportunity cost will be:
a) The 50% extra in marks you could have gained if you studied all night
b) The cost of the movie tickets
c) The cost of popcorn and coca cola
d) None of the above
Question 15
Which of the following is NOT considered a school of thought in economics?
a) Classical and Keynesian Macroeconomics model
b) Monetarist model and the real business cycle model
c) The new classical model
d) The financial model
Question 16
Economists distinguish between positive statements (What is) and normative
statements (What ought to be). Which of the following statements is considered a
positive statement?
a) A reduction in taxation rates will lead to an increase in spending
b) The government should reduce tax rates
c) The governments should increase government expenditure
d) The Australian economy should not be in a recession
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Question 1
You have made a decision to study in a particular course at university level in
Australia. Based on your experience, respond to the following:
(a) What opportunity costs have you incurred by studying at university level?
(b) What are the opportunity costs of studying in Australia?
..
..
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Question 2
An Australian firm deciding to build a factory in China is an example of a marginal
decision. Explain how such a large investment could be described as marginal.
..
..
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Cartoon Activity 1B
Interpret and explain the economic point (s) made in the cartoon.
......................
.......................
....................
....................
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1. There is a saying in economics, 'There's no such thing as a free lunch' (hence the
sub-title for this case study). What does this mean? Give examples from the case.
....................
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2. Are any other (desirable) goods or services truly abundant? Explain your answer.
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Disadvantages
1. the market satisfies
demand but might not
meet needs
Planned Economy
Advantages
1. successful at rapid
industrialization and
structural change
Disadvantages
1. enterprises tended
to be oriented toward
increasing quantity of
output but not quality
2. economies as a
whole were not
technologically
dynamic
3. market power
monopolies, cartels,
etc.
4. structural changes
might be difficult
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Notes
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Topic 2A
Market Forces Demand &
Supply
Topic 2B
Elasticity of Demand &
Supply
2011
2. Explain what effect you think it will have on the demand or the supply of a good. The first
one has been done for you as an example.
Factor
Effect
Income will affect demand. If people are paid more then they
Income
Climate
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Factor
Effect
Technology
Price of substitutes
Expectations of
producers
Advertising
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Substitute
.
Complement
4. Distinguish between a movement along the demand curve and a shift in the demand
curve.
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Change in
Demand Only
Demand
Supply
Price
Quantity
Diagram
Demand
increases =
demand curve
shifts to the
right
D1D2
Demand
decreases =
demand curve
shifts to the left
D1D2
9. (a) List the factors that can cause the demand curve to shift.
...............................................
(b) List the factors that bring changes in demand: (shift the demand curve)
...............................................
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Change in
Supply Only
Demand
Supply
Price
Quantity
Diagram
Supply
decreases =
supply curve
shifts to the
right
S1S2
Supply
increases =
supply curve
shifts to the
right
S1S2
1)
(a) List the factors that can cause the Supply curve to shift.
(b) List the factors that bring changes to supply (shift the supply curve).
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2)
Both Demand
and Supply
change in same
Demand
Supply
Price
Quantity
Diagram
direction
Demand
increases
Supply
Increases at the
same time
D1D2
S1S2
Demand
decreases
Supply
decreases at the
same time
D1D2
S1S2
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3)
Most of the coffee in the world is grown in Brazil. Because of a severe frost, 90% of the
Brazilian coffee crop, soon to be harvested, is destroyed. Analyse the effect of the
Brazilian frost on the world coffee market.
Price
D
Quantity
Q
Analyse the possible effects of the Brazilian frost on the world tea market.
Price
D
Quantity
Q
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Assume that the price of air travel between Australia and China has been reduced by 25%.
Describe the outcome in terms of demand and supply.
Price
D
Quantity
Q
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Question 2
The law of demand results from:
a) Only substitute effect
b) Only income effect
c) Only supply effect
d) Both substitution effect and income effect
Question 3
The demand curve shows the:
a) The negative relationship between the quantity supply and the price, when all
other influences on consumers planned purchases remain the same
b) The negative relationship between the quantity demanded and the price, when all
other influences on consumers planned purchases remain the same
c) The positive relationship between the quantity demanded and the price, when all
other influences on consumers planned purchases remain the same
d) How much producers will supply at a given period
Question 4
A change in price will result in:
a) Demand remains the same
b) A shift in the demand curve to the left
c) A movement along the demand curve
d) A shift of the demand curve to the right
Question 5
Which of the following factors will NOT cause a shift in the demand curve?
a) Prices of related goods
b) Change in price
c) Expected future prices
d) Expected future income
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Question 6
Which of the following factors will cause a shift in the demand curve to the
right?
a) Population increase
b) Prices of a complement increases
c) Change in price
d) decrease in income
Question 7
Which of the following factors will cause a shift in the demand curve to the
left?
a) Population increase
b) Change in price
c) Increase in income
d) Prices are expected to decrease
Question 8
A new marketing campaign is introduced to educate people on the negative
side effects of smoking, if the campaign is effective it will cause:
a) The demand curve will shift to the left.
b) The demand curve will shift to the right
c) No change in the demand curve
d) A movement along the demand curve
Question 9
Which of the following factors would cause a shift in the demand curve to
the right (an increase in demand)
a) A decrease in the price of the good
b) An increase of a government subsidy to that industry
c) A reduction in the price of the substitute good
d) A decrease in rates of personal income tax
Question 10
Market equilibrium occurs when:
a) The level of demand exceeds supply
b) Supply and demand both decrease
c) Demand and supply are equal
d) The price of a good or service equals its production cost
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Question 11
Butter is a close substitute for margarine. If due to a rise in its production
cost, the price of butter rises, which of the following is the most likely
outcome for margarine?
a) An increase in demand
b) A reduced demand to its lower price
c) A reduced supply due to its higher price
d) A greater supply due to its higher price
Question 12
Coca Cola is a close substitute for Pepsi Cola. If due to a rise in its
production cost, the price of Coca Cola rises, which of the following is the
most likely outcome for commodity Pepsi Cola?
a) A reduced supply due to its higher price
b) A reduced demand to its lower price
c) An increase in demand
d) A greater supply due to its higher price
Question 13
Equilibrium is the condition that exists when:
a) The demand curve intersects the quantity axis
b) There is no government intervention in a market
c) The demand curve intersects the price axis
d) Quantity demanded equals quantity supplied
Question 14
A severe drought (no water) and crop failure would cause a decrease in the
supply of tea. This would result in
a) An increase in the equilibrium price and quantity of tea
b) No change in quantity but an increase in price
c) A shift to the left in the demand curve for coffee
d) An increase in price and a decrease in quantity of tea
Question 15
When the price of bananas is above equilibrium, the following will occur in
the market for bananas
a) The price will increase because of excess supply
b) The price will decrease because of excess demand
c) The price will decrease because of excess supply
d) The price will increase because of excess demand
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Question 16
If the quantity demanded for bread is greater than the quantity supplied for
bread then:
a) The supply of bread will increase and the price will fall
b) The resulting surplus of bread will cause the price to rise
c) The demand will increase and the price will fall
d) The resulting shortage of bread will cause the price to rise
Question 17
During a particular season, orange prices fell significantly. A possible
reason for this would be
a) Huge increase in orange supply due to good weather
b) A general increase in incomes
c) Increased exports of oranges to overseas markets
d) An increase in demand for orange juice
Question 18
The law of demand states that
a) As prices fall, demand decreases
b) As prices rise, demand increases
c) As prices fall, quantity demanded increases
d) As prices rise, quantity demanded increases
Question 19
The quantity demanded for Pepsi Cola has decreased. This is most likely
because:
a) Pepsi advertising is more effective as it was before
b) Coca Cola prices have gone up
c) Pepsi prices have gone up
d) Pepsi consumers have more income
Question 20
The introduction of new technology will cause supply curve to:
a) Shift to the right, prices fall and quantity will increase
b) Shift to the left, prices fall and quantity will increase
c) Shift to the right, price increases and quantity will increase
d) Shift to the left, prices fall and quantity decreases
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3) Calculate price elasticity of demand, if price increases by 15% and quantity demanded
decrease by 30%.
Method 1
Calculating Elasticity ( d ):
% Qd
% P
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6) If the price falls from $5 to $2, the quantity demanded increases from 0 to 10 soft
drinks an hour.
7) If the price rises from $100 to $110, the quantity demanded decreases from 50 to 45
sunglasses a week.
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8) If the price falls from $20 to $10, the quantity demanded increases from 10 to 12 soft
drinks an hour.
10) Calculate price elasticity of supply if, the price increases by 10% and the quantity of
supply increases by 20%.
Method 1:
Elasticity of Supply ( s ) =
% change in Qs
% change in P
11) Calculate price elasticity of supply if, the price increases by 10% and the quantity of
supply increases by 10%.
Method 1:
Elasticity of Supply ( s ) =
% change in Qs
% change in P
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12) Calculate price elasticity of supply if, the price increases by 10% and the quantity of
supply increases by 2%.
Method 1:
Elasticity of Supply ( s ) =
% change in Qs
% change in P
13) Calculate the elasticity of supply, if the price of a product rises from $100 to $150,
and quantity supply increases from 1000 to 2000.
In 2006 drought has had a severe impact on the supply of grapes in Australia. At the
same time demand for Australian wine was rising rapidly for the UK and USA as a result
of the quality of the wine and effective marketing and promotion.
Adapted from Fraser & Gionea, 2005, Economics for Business, page 78 McGraw-Hill
,
(a)`Describe the effect of the drought on the supply of wine in Australia.
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(c) Describe the impact of rising overseas demand for Australian wine.
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Question 2
Which of the following cannot be calculated?
a) Price Elasticity of Demand and Supply
b) Cross Elasticity of Demand
c) Income Elasticity of Demand
d) Import Elasticity of Demand
Question 3
Price Elasticity of demand measures:
a) The responsiveness of the quantity demanded to a change in quantity (all other
influences on buyers plans remain the same)
b) The responsiveness of the quantity demanded to a change in price (all other
influences on buyers plans remain the same)
c) The responsiveness of the quantity supplied of a good to a change in its price, other
things remaining the same
d) The responsiveness of the price supplied of a good to a change in its price, taking
into account all things
Question 4
Price Elasticity of Supply is calculated by:
a) % Qs/ % P
b) % Qs/ % Qd
c) % P/ % Qs
d) % Qd/ P
Question 5
The elasticity of supply of a product is dependent on
a) the ability to hold stocks of the product in a warehouse
b) the availability of substitutes
c) The demand for the product
d) the price of the product
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Question 6
The price of apples falls by 5% and the quantity demanded increases by
10%.
This means that the price elasticity of demand for apples is:
a) Perfectly elastic
b) Elastic
c) Inelastic
d) Perfectly inelastic
Question 7
If a 5% reduction (fall) in the price of the good produces a 3% increase in the
quantity demanded, the price elasticity of demand is
a) elastic
b) perfectly elastic
c) inelastic
d) perfectly inelastic
Question 8
Price Elasticity of Demand is calculated by:
a) % Qd/ % P
b) % Qd/ % Qd
c) % P/ % Qd
d) % Qd/ P
Question 9
Calculate price elasticity of supply if, the price increases by 10% and
quantity supply increases by 20%?
a) 2 (Inelastic)
b) 2 (Elastic)
c) 1 (Elastic)
d) 0 (Inelastic
Question 10
Calculate price elasticity of demand, if price increases by 15% and quantity
demanded decrease by 30%?
a) 2 (Elastic)
b) 2 (Inelastic)
c) 1 (Elastic)
d) 0 (Inelastic)
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Question 11
Income Elasticity of Demand is:
a) The responsiveness of demand to a change in income, other things remaining the
same
b) The responsiveness of demand to a change in supply, other things remaining the
same
c) The responsiveness of demand to a change the price of a complement, other things
remaining the same
d) The responsiveness of demand to a change the price of a substitute, other things
remaining the same
Question 12
Cross Elasticity of Demand is:
a) The responsiveness of the demand for a good to the change in income, other things
remaining the same
b) It is calculated as the percentage change in the quantity demanded divided by the
percentage change in income
c) The responsiveness of the demand for a good to the price of a substitute or
complement, other things remaining the same
d) The responsiveness of demand to a change the price in price, other things remaining
the same
Question 13
At the midpoint of the demand curves:
a) Demand is elastic
b) Demand is unit elastic
c) Demand is inelastic
d) Equal to zero
Question 14
Unit Elastic of Demand is:
a) Greater than 1
b) Equal to zero
c) Equal to 1
d) Less than 1
Question 15
Perfect Inelastic Demand:
a) Greater than 1
b) Equal to zero
c) Equal to 1
d) Less than 1
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(a) Explain the reasons for the rise in the price of bananas in terms of demand and
supply.
(b) What does this article suggest about the elasticity of supply of bananas?
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(b) Explain why farmers want to stagger the timing of the release of the banana crop to the
market?
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(b) What does the article imply about the elasticity of demand and supply for fruit and
vegetables?
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L 2A & 2B
greatly
out
unrest in the Ivory Coast has (4) ____________ these fears. Many cocoa
better
reach
____________ for their security. This has (6) ____________ reduced the
fears
number of growers. The West African country grows 40 per cent of the
worlds cocoa beans and fears of another civil war have sent the price of
cocoa up. Prices have (7) ____________ by 10 per cent in this month
facing
jumped
prompted
alone and are set to (8) ____________ their highest levels for 30 years.
go
the industry in recent history. Supplies of sustainable cocoa are set to run
left
journal
nasty
hit
leading
mostly
simple
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L 2A & 2B
Chocoholics of the world (1) ____ better start stocking up on their favourite chocolate bars, if
we are to believe experts who say the world is facing a chocolate drought. They warn that
the world's (2) ____ of sustainable cocoa could run out by 2014. Political unrest in the Ivory
Coast has (3) ____ these fears. Many cocoa farmers have fled to neighbouring countries
because of fears (4) ____ their security. This has greatly reduced the number of growers.
The West African country grows 40 per cent of the worlds cocoa beans and fears (5) ____
another civil war have sent the price of cocoa up. Prices have jumped by 10 per cent in this
month (6) ____ and are set to reach their highest levels for 30 years.
Angus Kennedy, a (7) ____ British chocolatier and editor of a trade journal, told Britains
Daily Mail newspaper: Chocolate producers are facing one of the biggest challenges to (8)
____ the industry in recent history. Supplies of sustainable cocoa are (9) ____ to run out, it's
that simple." He commented on the political situation, saying: The Ivory Coast is a complete
(10) ____ area for cocoa traders as it's too dangerous, so training new farmers and trying to
cut problems in the region is now, mostly impossible. On reports of record price increases,
he said: Prices can't go up (11) ____ it's reported because there basically isn't enough
certified cocoa left to sell. He added that: Things could get (12) ____ now as producers
start to fight over the last stocks.
Put the correct words from the table below in the above article.
1.
(a)
should
(b) would
(c)
had
(d)
could
2.
(a)
supplied
(b) supply
(c)
supple
(d)
suppliers
3.
(a)
prompted
(b) prompt
(c)
prompting
(d)
prompts
4.
(a)
from
(b) by
(c)
at
(d)
for
5.
(a)
at
(b) by
(c)
of
(d)
with
6.
(a)
lonely
(b) lone
(c)
alone
(d)
lonesome
7.
(a)
leader
(b) leading
(c)
leaded
(d)
leads
8.
(a)
hit
(b) smack
(c)
punch
(d)
slap
9.
(a)
bet
(b) set
(c)
get
(d)
let
10.
(a)
no-go
(b) no-no
(c)
no joy
(d)
no-brainer
11.
(a)
has
(b) was
(c)
is
(d)
as
12.
(a)
nastily
(b) nasties
(c)
nastiness
(d)
nasty
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Topic 3
Market Structures
2011
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4. Complete the following Table and draw a demand curve demonstrating P = AR=MR
TR
AR
MR
(P x Q)
(TR/Q)
(TR/Q)
20
20
20
20
20
5. Define normal profit, and use diagrams to show when a firm will experience normal
profit, economic profit and economic loss?
In the short run, a PC firm can make a:
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Normal profit
Price = ATC
Break-even
MC
ATC
100
P=MR=AR=D
Economic profit
Price > ATC
100
90
MC
ATC
P=MR=AR=D
Economic loss
Price < ATC
MC
ATC
110
100
P=MR=AR=D
6. Explain, with the use of a diagram, why a firm in a perfectly competitive market may
make economic profit/loss in the short run but is very unlikely to do so in the long run.
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Topic 3: Monopoly
1) Explain the conditions necessary for a market to be defined as a monopoly.
Barriers to entry
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3) Why does a profit-maximising monopolist charge a price that is higher than marginal
cost?
4) Can monopoly profits achieve economic profits in the long run? Explain your answer.
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2. Discuss the trade-off between efficiency (excess capacity) and product variety.
Excess capacity
Mark-up
4. How does game theory explain the cycles of price wars and collusion that occur in many
oligopolistic industries?
5. Can a firm in monopolistic competition achieve economic profit in the long run? Explain.
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Characteristics
Perfect
Competition
Monopolistic
competition
Oligopoly
Monopoly
Number of firms
Products
Barriers to entry
Firm's control
over price
Concentration
ratio (0 to 100)
Examples
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The Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was formed in the 1970s to
coordinate the production of crude oil. It is a cartel that includes government representatives
of the worlds largest oil producers including Middle Eastern countries, Indonesia, Venezuela
and Nigeria. Each member has agreed to produce a certain amount of oil each day. OPEC
have a target rate for the price of oil and because they control the output they can affect the
price of oil. Restrict supply and the price must go up according the demand and supply
analysis.
In 2006 when the price of oil has risen to $70 a barrel and demand started to fall, Saudi
Arabia called for an increase in total production from OPEC to rise in order for prices to fall
and to maintain demand. However as the price of oil began to fall, there have been calls to
reduce output of oil in order to maintain high prices. The main customers of OPEC are the
global oil refining companies like shell and Exxon-Mobil.
Adapted from: Fraser & Gionea, 2005, Economics for Business, page 93 McGraw-Hill)
(a) Describe the market structure for global oil. Describe its characteristics.
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(b) Is this market structure different to the market for petrol in our cities? Explain your
answer.
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Question 3
Under perfect competition, the demand curve is equal to:
a) Demand = Price = Quantity = Demand
b) Demand = Price = Average Revenue = Marginal Cost
c) Demand = Price = Average Revenue = Marginal Revenue
d) Demand = Price = Average Price = Marginal Revenue
Question 4
Average Revenue is equal to:
a) AR = TR / Q
b) AR = TR / Q
c) AR = TR / Q
d) AR = TR * Q
Question 5
Marginal Revenue is equal to:
a) MR = TR / Q
b) MR = TR * Q
c) MR = P / Q
d) MR = TR / Q
Question 6
Marginal Cost is equal to:
a) MC = TC * Q
b) MC = TC / Q
c) MC = TC / Q
d) MC = TC / TR
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Question 7
Average Variable Cost is equal to:
a) AVC = TVC * Q
b) AVC = TC / Q
c) AVC = TVC / Q
d) AVC = VC / TR
Question 8
In perfect competition, profit maximization occurs when the firm produces a quantity
where:
a) The gap between TR and TC is the greatest
b) The gap between MR and MC is the greatest
c) The gap between TR and TC is the smallest
d) TR equals TC
Question 9
Which following statement is incorrect for a firm in perfectly competitive markets?
a) Profit maximization is achieved when; the gap between TR and TC is the greatest
b) Profit maximization is achieved when, MR equals MC
c) Firms are price makers and consumers price takers
d) Normal profit is achieved when P equals ATC
Price
MC
110
100
P=MR=AR=D
90
10
Quantity
Question 10
Using the above diagram, what will be the profit maximising output?
a) Q = 9
b) Q = 8
c) Q = 10
d) Q > 9
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Question 11
Using the above diagram, what will be the profit maximising Price?
a) P = $100
b) P = $90
c) P = $110
d) P > $100
Question 12
Monopoly is where:
a) The government legislates to maintain competition
b) There are a variety of brands available
c) There are a lot of sellers
d) One firm can determine the price
Question 13
The main feature of monopolistic competition is:
a) One large seller with control over price
b) Few producers sharing market power
c) Homogeneous products produced at a high price
d) Many sellers with similar types of products, lots of advertising
Question 14
Perfect competition is where:
a) The government legislates to maintain competition
b) There are a variety of brands available
c) There are a few main sellers
d) No one person can affect the price
Question 15
The main feature of an oligopoly is:
a) One large seller with control over price
b) Few producers sharing market power
c) Homogeneous products produced at a high price
d) An inelastic demand curve that is vertical.
Question 16
A characteristic of Oligopoly is:
a) No barriers to entry
b) Products homogeneous
c) One producer
d) Few number of firms
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Question 17
A large number of firms with product differentiation is a description of:
a) Oligopolies
b) Telecommunications industries
c) Monopolistic competition
d) A market system
Question 18
Product differentiation refers to:
a) The variety of goods and services produced within an economy
b) The price difference of a product in different markets
c) The characteristics or qualities of a product which make it different from its
Substitutes
d) The different ways a product can be used
Question 19
Which of the following statement is incorrect for a Monopolist?
a) Profit is maximised when MR = MC
b) Price > MR
c) Profit is maximises when AR = MC
d) Faces two distinct curves, AR = P = D and the MR curve
Price
MC
100
90
AR = D
MR
Q(000)
8 9 10
Question 21
Using the above diagram, what will be the profit maximising output?
a) Q = 8
b) Q = 10
c) Q = 9
d) Q > 9
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Question 22
Using the above diagram, what will be the profit maximising Price?
a) P = $4
b) P = $6
c) P = $5
d) P > 5
Question 23
A firm in perfect competition:
a) Is a price taker
b) Must advertise to stay in business
c) Is faced with inelastic demand curves
d) Is unable to move across industries
Question 24
An industry with many small sellers, a differentiated product and easy entry would
best be described by which of the following:
a) An oligopoly
b) Monopolistic competition
c) Perfect competition
d) A monopoly
Question 25
Excess capacity:
a) Occurs when firms produce at a higher unit cost than minimum MC
b) Occurs when firms produce at a lower unit cost than minimum ATC at equilibrium
c) Occurs when firms produce at a higher unit cost than minimum ATC at equilibrium
d) Occurs when firms produce at profit maximising output
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2. Explain why both businesses have the same price for a similar product.
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Apply what you have learnt in Topic 3: Monopolies to the Google Microsoft
issue.
Source: Business and Law, 2011, Microsoft calls Google a Monopoly, viewed 12/4/11,
<http://www.ibtimes.com/articles/129378/20110401/microsoft-calls-google-a-monopoly.htm#ixzz1JPDIcqz4
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Topic 4A
Economic Growth
Topic 4B
Business Cycle &
Unemployment
2011
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2. Describe what would be the level of economic activity, GDP and unemployment at each
stage of the business cycle (see table below).
Peak
Contraction
Trough
Expansion
3. Occasionally the Australian economy goes into a recession. Explain what recession is.
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4. Explain the different theories explaining fluctuations in the level of economic activity?
Innovation
Political events
Random events
Aggregate expenditure
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5.
7. List the other limitations of the method used by the Australian Bureau of Statistics to
determine the unemployment rate?
Under employment
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Underutilisation of skills
Other limitations
Explanation
Unemployment Rate
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9. Outline the four (4) different types of Unemployment. Study the sample of writing given.
Start a sentence with the
definition of the concept
Frictional Unemployment
Frictional unemployment is a constant yet healthy factor in a dynamic economy. This
type of unemployment arises from normal labour market turnover: when jobs are
completed or finish, workers search for new jobs or now jobs are created. But there are
increases and decreases in frictional unemployment, such as when a larger number of
young people enter the labour force, or when there is an increase in unemployment
benefit payments.
Second sentence: this explains the
concept in greater detail
Structural Unemployment
Cyclical Unemployment
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Seasonal Unemployment
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Question 2
The income side of the GDP accounts:
a) Include mixed incomes and consumption expenditure
b) Include mixed incomes but not gross operating surpluses
c) Include mixed incomes and gross operating surpluses
d) Does not include compensation of employees
Question 3
Real GDP is measured by:
a) (Price Index / Nominal GDP) X 100
b) Nominal GDP X Inflation rate
c) ( Nominal GDP / Price Index) X 100
d) none of the above
Question 4
GDP measures:
a) Composition and distribution of output
b) Market value of final goods and services produced
c) Social welfare
d) None of the above
Question 5
Which of the following is considered an investment by an economist?
a) Dividends on a BHP share
b) All final purchases of machinery, building and construction
c) Resale of existing assets
d) The purchase of 100 BHP shares
Question 6
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Question 11
Frictional unemployment refers to unemployment associated with:
a) Industry restructuring
b) Fluctuations in the level of economic activity
c) People changing jobs
d) None of the above
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Problem Questions
In which of the following cases is a worker counted as unemployed? Explain your
answer using factors of unemployment.
a) Rosa, an older worker who has been laid off and who gave up looking for work
months ago.
b) Anthony, a school teacher who is not working during his three-month summer break.
c) Grace, an investment banker who has been laid off and is currently searching for
another position.
d) Fred, a classically trained musician who can only find work by playing for local
parties.
e) Natasha, a graduate student who went back to school because jobs were scarce.
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bold
fired
sued
boss
use
damages
colleagues
causing
experience
disputes
borrow
helpless
still
highlights
appeal
stresses
1. TRUE / FALSE: Read the headline. Guess if a-h below are true (T) or false (F).
a. A woman in New Zealand lost her job for speaking in capital letters.
T/F
T/F
c. Her colleagues said her e-mail style wasnt good for office harmony.
T/F
d. The woman lost a court case when she sued her company.
T/F
T/F
f.
T/F
g. The woman had to refinance her housing loan because she was fired.
T/F
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saw red
a.
protested
fired
b.
destroyed
3.
constantly
c.
salary
4.
complained
d.
arguments
5.
pay
e.
got angry
6.
appeal
f.
dismissed
7.
further
g.
housing loan
8.
disputes
h.
call
9.
mortgage
i.
Always
a.
b.
my life
3.
c.
further compensation
4.
d.
and e-mails
5.
e.
red
6.
f.
7.
g.
stresses
8.
h.
9.
i.
j.
in capital letters
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Notes
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Topic 5
Inflation
2011
Topic 5: Inflation
1. Define inflation and explain the difference between anticipated and unanticipated
inflation.
Whereas;
whilst;
however;
by contrast;
on the contrary;
conversely;
instead;
Hyperinflation
Stagflation
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4. Explain the three reasons why potential GDP can decline if anticipated inflation is high.
5. Calculate real interest, if inflation is running at 10% p/a and nominal interest are 15%.
6. (a) Calculate real interest, if inflation is running at 5% p/a and nominal interest are 7%.
(b) What is the level of nominal interest, if real interest rates are 3% and inflation is 5%.
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(b) Explain the problems associated with underestimating the inflation rate.
Underestimating the inflation rate leads to:
9. Explain Demand-pull Inflation and draw a diagram to illustrate what happens to prices
and output.
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11. Explain Cost-Push Inflation and draw a diagram to illustrate what happens to prices and
output?
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Question 2
Cost-Push inflation involves:
a) A shift to the left in the aggregate supply curve
b) A shift to the right in the aggregate supply curve
c) A shift to the right in the aggregate demand curve
d) Both a shift to the right in the aggregate supply curve and a shift to the right in the
aggregate demand curve
Question 3
Which of the following could result in cost-push inflation?
a) A decrease in wage rates
b) An increase in raw material and oil prices
c) A reduction in transport costs
d) None of the above
Question 4
The real interest rate is:
a) The nominal interest rate plus the rate of inflation
b) The nominal interest rate minus the rate of inflation
c) The rate of inflation minus the nominal interest rate
d) Not related to the nominal rate in any way at all
Question 5
Calculate real interest, if inflation is running at 10% p/a and nominal interest are 15%?
a) Real interest is 15%
b) Real interest is 105%
c) Real interest is 5%
d) Real interest is 25%
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Question 6
Inflation is:
a) A process of rising prices
b) A process of falling prices
c) Both a rise and fall in prices
d) Constant
Question 7
Which of the following is worse?
a) Anticipated inflation
b) Unanticipated inflation
c) No inflation
d) Inflation
Question 8
Underestimating the inflation rate leads to:
a) More real incomes for workers:
b) Employers lay off workers
c) Unemployment rate increases
d) Less real incomes for workers
Question 9
Hyperinflation is:
a) The extremely rapid falling in the general price level
b) The extremely rapid increase in unemployment
c) An extremely rapid rise in the general price level
d) Anticipated inflation
Question 10
Overestimating the inflation rate leads to:
a) More real incomes for workers
b) Less real income for workers
c) Employees begin to quit
d) Firms incur labour turnover costs
Question 11
Deflation is a process of:
a) Rising prices- positive inflation
b) Inflation at high levels
c) Falling prices a negative inflation
d) Real GDP falls and inflation rises
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Question 12
Which of the following statement is true?
a) Deflation causes real GDP to rise
b) Deflation is worse than inflation, because monetary policy becomes ineffective
c) Deflation is worse than inflation, prices will reach higher levels
d) Deflation and inflation are the same
..
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............
.................
1. Define inflation.
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3. Which groups in the economy gain from the rising prices? Explain how.
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worth
high
pace
Zimbabwe dollar bank note, which was __________ US$2. People living
in Zimbabwe now have to be very good at __________ arithmetic to do
escalated
shelves
simple things like buy a loaf of bread, that is if they can find any bread on
mental
higher
numbers
80 per cent unemployment and salaries that cannot keep up with the
__________ of daily price rises.
blame
keep
enough
shortage
poverty
richest
woes
collapsed
prices. People can only take out 100 million Zimbabwe dollars a day from
their banks. Thats less than one US dollar.
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Topic 6
Keynesian Model
Aggregate Expenditure &
Real GDP
2011
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Investment
Autonomous investment
Induced Investment
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2. Explain the meanings of marginal propensity to consume (MPC) and marginal propensity
to save (MPS).
Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC)
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.
5. Calculate MPC and MPS?
Year
Disposable
Income
Consumption
Saving
2008
1000
1000
2009
1250
1200
50
in consumption
in saving
MPC =
MPS =
in income
in income
50
200
MPC =
MPS =
= 0.80
= 0.20
250
250
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Notes
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DISPOSABLE INCOME
SAVING ($)
(Y) ($)
0
-100
500
1000
100
1500
200
2000
300
Question 1
Calculate the marginal propensity to consume, when Income rises from 1,000 to 1,500:
a) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.6
d) 0.8
Question 2
Consumption equals disposable income when disposable income equals:
a) $500
b) $1000
c) $1500
d) $2000
Question 3
At the $1000 level of disposable income, the average propensity to save is:
a) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.6
d) 0.8
Question 4
The MPC plus MPS are:
a) Equal to one
b) Greater than one
c) Less than one
d) None of the above
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Question 5
The multiplier process occurs because a persons:
a) Saving becomes another persons investment
b) Saving becomes another persons income
c) Expenditure becomes another persons savings
d) Expenditure becomes another persons income
Question 6
If the marginal propensity to save is 0.2 in a private closed economy, a $20 billion rise in
investment spending will increase:
a) GDP by $20 billion
b) GDP by $40 billion
c) GDP by $60 billion
d) GDP by $100 billion
Question 7
Equilibrium occurs when:
a) AE = Real GDP
b) AE Real GDP
c) AE * Real GDP
d) None of the above
Question 8
Investment is defined as:
a) The purchase of shares in a company
b) Final purchases of machinery, equipment and tools, All building and construction and
Changes in stocks (or inventories)
c) Final purchases of machinery, equipment and tools, but not building and construction
and Changes in stocks (or inventories)
d) Changes in stocks (or inventories)
Question 9
Autonomous Investment is defined as:
a) The level of investment induced by the current level of income
b) The desired level of investment based upon long term profit expectations
c) The desired level of investment based upon short term profit expectations
d) The level of investment induced by the current level of income and short term profit
expectations
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Question 10
The multiplier is defined as:
a) The chain-reaction that results from changes in the level of expenditure
b) The chain-reaction that results from changes in consumption patterns
c) The chain-reaction that results from changes in expectations
d) Total consumption from changes in the level of expenditure
AE
450
AE
b
AE
a
c
Y1Y1
Ye
Y2
Y (GDP)
Question 11
Point (a) represents
a) Unintended fall in inventories
b) Equilibrium
c) Unintended rise in inventories
d) The economy is below full employment
Question 12
Point (b) represents
a) Unintended rise in inventories
b) Unintended fall in inventories
c) Equilibrium
d) The economy is below full employment
Question 13
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Question 15
Unintended rise in inventory is shown by point:
a) (a)
b) (b)
c) (c)
d) (45O)
Question 16
The multiplier is always:
a) Equal to 1
b) Equal to 0.
c) Greater than 1
d) Less than 1
Question 17
NX is equal:
a) Exports Imports
b) Exports + Imports
c) Net Exports
d) Net exports + Net Imports
Question 18
Change in GDP is equal to:
a) Multiplier * C or I or G
b) Multiplier / C or I or G
c) C or / Multiplier
d) Multiplier + C or I
Question 19
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Australia's former Prime Minister, John Howard, had announced that irrigation supply to the
Murray-Darling basin (eastern Australia's main water resource) will be cut off if the droughtafflicted region does not receive heavy rainfall over the next two months.
Given that the region is Australia's most important agricultural area, accounting for around
two-thirds of farm output by value, such a decision would not only add to the woes of
Australia's extremely weak agricultural sector. It could also have wider economic
repercussions by boosting food-price inflation and hurting agricultural exports.
Economic implications
If it occurs, the suspension of irrigation in the Murray-Darling basin would have a devastating
effect on Australian agriculture, creating a ripple effect throughout the economy.
The failure of crops grown in the regionwhich accounts for around 85% of Australia's
irrigated landcould cause the price of food products ranging from dairy to fruit and
vegetables to rise sharply. (The price of meat, however, would be likely to fall as lack of feed
and water forced farmers to slaughter livestock for early sale.)
In turn, there would be some danger that higher food prices would push up overall inflation,
which is already uncomfortably high (inflation climbed to 3.5% in 2006). Higher inflation
could then prompt the central bank to raise interest rates.
A sharp drop in agricultural output, which accounts for 3.6% of Australian GDP, would
inevitably slow the growth of the economy. In March 2007, before the announcement that
irrigation supplies may be cut off, the Australian Bureau of Statistics was already estimating
that drought conditions would result in a 23% drop in agricultural output in the 2006/07 fiscal
year, which in turn would cut 0.6 percentage points from GDP growth. This estimate would
be raised considerably if irrigation were suspended and further widespread crop failures
occurred as a result.
Australia's trade deficit would also widen, given that agriculture accounts for more than
20% of merchandise exports. Although agricultural exports would fall less sharply than
output, as sales are made from built-up stocks, there would still be some impact.
Other factors are also likely to exacerbate the external trade position. While the farm
sector is weakening, buoyant consumer spending, strong business investment and a
robust housing market continue to fuel non-farm imports. Meanwhile, the strength of the
Australian dollar is further weakening exports and bolstering imports. The seriousness of
the economic and political fallout from the drought crisis will ultimately depend on the
weather.
Source: The Economist Intelligence Unit Views Wire Apr 24th 2007
Define the underlined terms and outline how these terms will be affected by the drought
and the proposed solution.
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3. What is your view about the issue raised in the cartoon? Explain your answer.
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Notes
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Topic 7A
International Trade
Topic 7B
Foreign Exchange Rate
2011
..........................
............................
.........................
..........................
3. Comment on the following statement: we should protect our industries from being
undercut by imports produced using cheap labour.
...........................
...................
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..
...................................
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8. List the methods of protection that are employed by government in order to restrict trade.
9. Explain the difference between free trade areas, customs union and common markets.
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Question 1
A country is said to have Absolute advantage when?
a) the production of a good if it can produce it at a lower opportunity cost
b) the production of a good if it can produce it with fewer resources than the other
country.
c) the production of a good if it can produce it at a greater opportunity cost
d) the production of a good if it can produce it with more resources than the other
country.
Question 2
A country is said to have comparative advantage when?
a) the production of a good if it can produce it at a greater opportunity cost
b) the production of a good if it can produce it with more resources than the other
country.
c) the production of a good if it can produce it at a lower opportunity cost
d) the production of a good if it can produce it with fewer resources than the other
country.
Absolute Advantage
Wheat (bushels/man-hour)
Coth (yards/man-hour
AUS
12
8
US
2
10
Question 3
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Australia is less efficient than or has the an absolute advantage over US in the
production of wheat
b) Australia is more efficient than or has the absolute advantage over US in the
production of wheat
c) US is more efficient than or has an absolute advantage over production of wheat
d) Australia is more efficient than or can produce more coth
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Comparative Advantage
Wheat (bushels/man-hour)
Coth (yards/man-hour
AUS
12
8
US
2
4
Question 4
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Australia has an absolute advantage in producing both goods, (wheat and cloth)
b) US has an absolute advantage in producing both goods, (wheat and cloth)
c) Australia and the US have absolute advantage in producing both goods, (wheat and
cloth)
d) US has an absolute advantage in producing (wheat)
Question 5
The infant industry argument is based on the assumption that?
a) An infant industry cannot become efficient
b) Would gain too much market share
c) An infant industry has the potential to become efficient
d) It will always be an infant industry
Question 6
Which of the following is NOT an argument that supports protection?
a) Infant industry argument
b) To prevent dumping and increase supply
c) To prevent the establishment of a foreign-based monopoly
d) To reduce the influence of a trade on consumers tastes
Question 7
A tariff is:
a) A tax that is imposed by the exporting country when a good crosses an international
boundary. A tariff is a price-based constraint
b) A tax that is imposed by the importing country when a good crosses an international
boundary. A tariff is a quantity constraint
c) A tax that is imposed by the importing country when they export goods overseas
d) A tax that is imposed by the importing country when a good crosses an international
boundary. A tariff is a price-based constraint
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Question 8
A subsidy is:
a) A cost-reducing privilege offered by the government to domestic firms to stimulate
their competitiveness so that they may be more successful against imports
b) A tariff privilege offered by the government to domestic firms to stimulate their
competitiveness so that they may be more successful against imports
c) A quota imposed by the government to domestic firms to stimulate their
competitiveness so that they may be more successful against imports
d) A cost-reducing privilege offered by the government to domestic firms to stimulate
their competitiveness so that they can charge higher prices
Question 9
A Quota is considered to be?
a) Non-tariff barriers
b) Tariff barriers
c) Both non-tariff and tariff barrier
d) Cartel
Question 10
The European Union is an example of?
a) Customs Union
b) Common Market
c) No trade Zone
d) Trade Zone
Question 11
An embargo is
a) The particular type of quota that sets the limit at zero imports
b) The particular type of quota that sets the limit at 100 imports
c) The particular type tariff
d) The particular type subsidy
Question 12
Protection is said to:
a) Allow firms to remain inefficient
b) Motivate firms to become efficient
c) Essential to achieve efficiency
d) Benefit consumers
Question 13
Nations gain the most by:
a) Only exporting
b) Only importing
c) Importing and exporting
d) Having high trade barriers
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Question 14
Free trade areas:
a) Is where member countries have tariffs and quotas between themselves,
b) Is where member countries have tariffs and quotas between themselves, the same
as non-member countries
c) Is where member countries more tariffs and quotas between themselves, but retain
whatever restrictions each member chooses with non-member countries
d) Is where member countries remove tariffs and quotas between themselves, but retain
whatever restrictions each member chooses with non-member countries
Question 15
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a common market?
a) Common systems of laws and regulations governing production, employment and
trade
b) Common system of taxation
c) Barriers of labour, capital, materials and goods, and service between countries
members
d) Fixed exchange rate between members countries currencies
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Effect on
The price of cars in Australia
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Case study: Free trade pact with India could lift GDP by $45bn
A FREE trade agreement between Australia and India could increase Australia's GDP by
$45 billion in the next 20 years, a feasibility study by the two countries has found. The twoyear feasibility study said a trade agreement between the two countries would lead to a
substantial increase in the trade of goods and create potential for more trade in services and
investment. Modelling done for the study by the Centre for International Economics showed
an FTA could result in a net increase to Australia's GDP of up to $45.5 billion and India's
GDP by up to $48.3 billion over 20 years. Government consultations with Australian
businesses also revealed broad support for a trade pact with India. India is already
Australia's fastest-growing large trading partner and its fourth-biggest export market. Twoway trade grew by 55 per cent in 2008-9 to nearly $22 billion. In the past four years two-way
trade has averaged 25 per cent growth.
The Age May 5, 2010
Question 1
What is a free trade agreement?
Question 2
How is a free trade agreement different from the WTO or the EU?
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Question 3
How could a free trade agreement increase GDP?
Explain what this cartoon is trying to say about free trade. Do you agree or disagree?
..
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2. Using a diagram explain the concept of the law of demand in relation to the exchange
rate?
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3. List the factors that determine the demand in the foreign exchange market.
5. List the factors that will cause the demand curve to shift to the left or right.
6. Explain what would happen to the level of Australian exports, when the A$ depreciates.
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8. If the levels of interest rates in Australia decrease relative to other countries, will it cause
the appreciation or depreciation of the Australian dollar?
A decrease in interest rates
9. Using a diagram explain the concept of the Law of Supply in relation to the exchange
rate?
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10. List the factors that will cause a movement along the Supply curve for Australian
dollar and the factors that will cause a shift.
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12. Who gains and who loses form a depreciation of the Australian dollar?
Winners:
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Losers
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Question 3
A factor that usually causes a decrease in demand for exports is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
An increase in inflation
An appreciation of the Australian dollar
A world recession
An increase in energy costs
Question 4
A movement along the demand curve will be due to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Question 5
An increase in Interest rates in Australia relative to other countries will:
a)
b)
c)
d)
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Question 6
An appreciation of the Australian dollar against the Chinese Yuan will:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Question 7
An increase in demand for Australian dollars will:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Question 8
An increase in Interest rates in Australia relative to other countries will:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Question 9
When the Australian dollar depreciates, the winners will be:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Question 10
When the Australian dollar depreciates, the winners will be:
a) Australian importers, because of the depreciation of
become cheaper
b) Australian exporters, because of the depreciation of
become cheaper, therefore Australia will export less
c) Australian exporters, because of the depreciation of
become cheaper, therefore Australia will export more
d) Australian importers, because of the depreciation of
more expensive
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Question 11
Speculators will benefit from the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Question 12
The Law of Supply of Foreign Exchange means that:
a) Other things remaining the same, the higher the exchange rate, the smaller is the
quantity of dollars supplied in the foreign exchange market
b) Other things changing, the higher the exchange rate, the greater is the quantity of
dollars supplied in the foreign exchange market
c) Other things remaining the same, the higher the exchange rate, the greater is the
quantity of dollars supplied in the foreign exchange market
d) Other things remaining the same, the lower the exchange rate, the greater is the
quantity of dollars supplied in the foreign exchange market
Question 13
Demand in the Foreign Exchange Market is NOT determined by:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Question 14
Supply in the Foreign Exchange Market is NOT determined by:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Question 15
When the Australian Dollar depreciates:
a) Tourism will increase, as it is cheaper for foreigners to come to Australia for a holiday
b) Tourism will decrease, as it is dearer for foreigners to come to Australia for a holiday
c) Tourism will decrease, as it is cheaper for foreigners to come to Australia for a
holiday
d) Tourism will remain the same, as the exchange rate has no impact
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3. Why might the $A fall if funding sources for the Australian capital market dry up?
4. Why is locking in a high exchange rate before setting off overseas a good thing?
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Todays inflation figures show that CPI inflation in Australia has continued to moderate,''
Treasurer Mr Wayne Swan told reporters in Canberra. Mr Swan singled out the rising dollar
- which gained about 13 per cent in the September quarter against the US dollar - as
helping to keep prices in check. The dollar's effect is likely to show up in subsequent
quarters, he said.'' The higher dollar does make it harder for some businesses in tradeexposed sectors, Mr Swan said. ''It also does mean lower prices for consumers and
cheaper capital equipment for businesses.
Source: The Age October 27 2010
1. Explain how the rising Australian dollar has affected the inflation rate.
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2. Explain the connection between the inflation rate and interest rates.
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Topic 8
Money
&
Monetary Policy
2011
RBA
RITS
ESA
CASH RATE
OPEN
MARKET
OPERATIONS
(OMO)
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4.
Recessionary Gap
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Inflationary Gap
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6. Explain how the reserve bank can use monetary policy to prevent a recessionary gap. In
your answer, clearly highlight how changes in the interest rate will affect aggregate
expenditure.
Easy Monetary Policy
Aim:
How:
Effect:
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7. Explain how the reserve bank can use monetary policy to prevent an inflationary gap. In
your answer, clearly highlight how changes in the interest rate will affect aggregate
expenditure.
How:
Effect:
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8. What are the strengths and the weaknesses of monetary policy in Australia?
Cyclical Asymmetry:
Cost-push inflation:
Sensitivity of investment:
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Monetary
Policy
Aim
When?
How?
Effect?
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Question 7
Higher interest rates can lead to:
a) Increase in investment and consumption
b) Increased investment decrease in investments
c) Decrease in investment and consumption.
d) Increased employment growth
Question 8
The implementation of an easy monetary policy results in:
a) Increase in AE, increase of GDP and reduction in the recessionary gap
b) Decrease in AE, increase of GDP and reduction in the recessionary gap
c) Increase in AE, decrease of GDP and reduction in the inflationary gap
d) Increase in AE, increase of GDP and reduction in the inflationary gap
Question 9
The use of an easy monetary policy to reduce the rate of unemployment will
most likely:
a) Increase the level of investment
b) Increase the government budget deficit
c) Increase the rate of interest
d) Decrease the rate of inflation
Question 10
Open Market Operations are:
a) The purchase of government assets
b) Is the purchase or sale of Commonwealth government securities by the RBA in the
open market
c) Only the sale of Commonwealth government securities by the RBA in the open
market
d) Only the purchase of commonwealth government securities by the RBA in the open
market
Question 11
The cash rate is:
a) The interbank debt
b) The interest rate charged on overnight loans
c) The balance on the overnight loans
d) The cash banks hold
Question 12
The Exchange Settlement Account is:
a) The account held by commercial banks with the RBA.
b) Loans settlement accounts
c) customers settlement accounts
d) The balance on the overnight loans
e) The accounts held by foreign banks
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Question 13
A Recessionary Gap is:
a) The difference between long-run real GDP and actual GDP, when actual GDP equals
its long run level
b) The equal to the long-run real GDP and actual GDP
c) The difference between long-run real GDP and actual GDP, when actual GDP is
above its long run level
d) The difference between long-run real GDP and actual GDP, when actual GDP is
below its long run level
Question 14
Which of the following statements does not represent a recessionary gap?
a) Economys production not at potential GDP
b) Real GDP > potential GDP
c) Cyclical unemployment exists
d) Unemployment Rate > Natural Rate of Unemployment
Question 15
When the RBA implements easy monetary policy, the:
a) RBA will buy bonds rise ESA Cash rate decrease increase credit availability
decrease interest rates
b) RBA will sell bonds rise ESA Cash rate decrease decrease credit availability
decrease interest rates
c) RBA will buy bonds rise ESA Cash rate increase decrease Credit availability
decrease interest rates
d) RBA will sell bonds ESA fall Cash rate increase decrease in credit
availability increase interest rates
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3. Explain the connection between the terms of trade and interest rates.
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3. What is your view about the issue raised in the cartoon? Explain your answer.
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Topic 9A
Fiscal Policy
Topic 9B
Microeconomic Reform
2011
Sources of Revenues
Categories of expenses:
Budget Surplus
Budget Deficit:
Balanced Budget
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2. What is fiscal policy? Discuss the difference between automatic and discretionary fiscal
policy?
Fiscal Policy
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Can we rely on the automatic elements of fiscal policy to regulate the economy
satisfactorily?
Built-in Stabilisers
Fiscal Policy
Contractionary FP
Expansionary FP
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4. Explain, with the use of diagrams, how fiscal policy can be used to reduce a
recessionary gap?
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5. Explain, with the use of diagrams, how fiscal policy can be used to reduce an inflationary
gap.
When
Inflationary Gap
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How
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Effect
....................
6. During the Great Depression, many governments reduced their spending in order to
ensure their budgets stayed balanced. The spending reduction arose because
government tax revenue was declining with growing unemployment. Was the focus on
balancing the budget a wise macroeconomic decision of government at that time?
Fiscal Policy
Government Response:
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Expansionary fiscal policy would have been a more effective policy, because:
Aim
When?
How
Effect
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Question 7
Fiscal policy is:
a) The governments attempt to change interest rates
b) The governments attempt to vary purchases of goods and services and its taxes to
smooth the fluctuations in aggregate expenditure
c) The governments attempt to increase competition to encourage efficiency
d) The government attempt to vary purchases of goods and services and its interest
rates to influence aggregate expenditure
Question 8
Build-in stabilizers are:
a) Automatic tax and spending changes that occur over the course of the business
cycle that tends to reduce the extent of fluctuations in real GDP
b) Additional government spending changes that occur over the course of the business
cycle that tend to reduce the extent of fluctuations in real GDP
c) Automatic tax and spending changes that occur only in periods of inflation
d) Automatic tax and spending changes that occur over the course of the business
cycle stimulate economic activity
Question 9
The deliberate manipulation of taxes and spending by government for the purpose of
altering real GDP and employment, controlling inflation and stimulating economic
growth is considered:
a) Build-in Stabilize.
b) Monetary policy
c) Non-Discretionary Fiscal Policy
d) Discretionary Fiscal Policy
Question 10
The government can decrease demand in the economy by:
a) Budgeting for a surplus
b) Decreasing government expenditure
c) Provide foreign aid
d) Increase both direct and indirect taxes
Question 11
If a budget deficit results and the government borrows from the money market, it will
result in:
a) The government will achieve its full objective
b) It will be able to implement expansionary fiscal policy
c) The crowding out problem can occur and reduce the impact of expansionary FP
d) The crowding out problem can occur and achieve contractionary FP
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Question 12
Crowding out effect means that:
a) Government borrowing increases money demand which in turn decreases interest
rates and when interest rates increase, it will result in the reduction of investments
b) Government borrowing decreases money demand which in turn increases interest
rates and when interest rates increase, it will result in the reduction of investments
c) Government borrowing increases money demand which in turn increases interest
rates and when interest rates increase, it will result in the reduction of investments
d) Government borrowing increases money demand which in turn increases interest
rates and when interest rates increase, it will result in the increase in investments
Question 13
Expansionary fiscal policy is implemented when?
a) A recessionary gap exists
b) An inflationary gap exists
c) In periods of high inflation
d) In both situation in recessionary and inflationary periods
Question 14
When in a recession, a contractionary government budget to reduce the current
account deficit will also tend to
a) Increase the rate of unemployment
b) Increase the rate of interest
c) Increase the rate of inflation
d) Increase in capital inflow
Question 15
Contractionary fiscal policy is implemented when?
a) A recessionary gap exists
b) An inflationary gap exists
c) In periods of high inflation
d) In both situation in recessionary and inflationary periods
Question 16
Contractionary fiscal policy is government action to influence aggregate demand and
the level of GDP through
a) Expanding the money supply
b) Encouraging business to expand investment
c) Regulating net exports
d) Decreasing government spending or increasing taxes
Question 17
To tighten fiscal policy the government would:
a) Privatise government assets
b) Raise interest rates
c) Increase the size of the budget deficit
d) Lower government spending
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Question 18
An Increase in government expenditure and reduction in taxes means the government
is conducting:
a) Contractionary fiscal policy
b) Tight monetary policy
c) Expansionary fiscal policy
d) Easy monetary policy
Question 19
The aim of expansionary fiscal policy is to:
a) Slow the economy down and reduce inflation
b) Provide an economic stimulus and return economy to full employment
c) Stimulate the economy and increase tax revenue
d) Provide an economic stimulus and reduce government deficits
Question 20
Expansionary fiscal policy will:
a) Increases aggregate expenditure (AE = C + I + G + NX).
b) Decrease aggregate expenditure (AE = C + I + G + NX).
c) Results in budget surplus if budget was balanced
d) Reduce the inflationary gap
Question 21
Discretionary fiscal policy is seriously hampered by three time lags:
a) Recognition lag (identification), Law-making lag (implementation), Impact lag (impact)
b) Readiness lag, Law-making lag (implementation), Impact lag (impact)
c) Recognition lag (identification), Law-making lag (implementation), Uncertainty lag
d) Recognition lag (identification), Forecasting lag, Impact lag (impact)
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Case study: The federal government's return to a budget surplus in 2012/13 will
require considerable effort and a lot of discipline.
Dr Henry, the secretary of the treasury was asked what his department meant in its advice to
government that returning the budget to surplus was a key but difficult priority. He said it
involved a reduction in the budget deficit of 4.5 per cent of gross domestic product over three
years. "That is quite demanding when revenue is not growing as strongly as revenue was
growing through the period 2003/04 through to 2007/08." "There are always spending
programs before government which are very difficult not to make some upward adjustment
for a variety of reasons." He described the current stance of fiscal policy as "accommodative
but tightening". Dr Henry was asked whether there was a trade-off between fiscal policy and
monetary policy. "In an economy close to full capacity, a tightening of fiscal policy would
mean that there is less work left to be done by monetary policy, and that would mean, other
things being equal, that interest rates would be somewhat lower," Dr Henry replied.
Source: The Australian October 21 2010
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5. List the some areas that microeconomic reform has taken place. The first sentence is
given.
Microeconomic reform in Australia has been taking place in a wide range of areas.
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Question 7
Microeconomic Reform is
a) The attempt to increase output from given of labour, capital and materials by making
markets works more efficiently.
b) The attempt to increase cost by making markets more efficient
c) The attempt to decrease the output given by labour
d) The attempt to reduce competition
Question 8
Deregulation of the Australian Financial System was aimed at:
a) Achieving allocative, operational and dynamic efficiency
b) Reducing competition
c) Reducing competition to help banks increase profits
d) Reducing international competitiveness
Question 9
Regulation Involves the:
a) Creation of international rules of conduct
b) The removal of rules for the conduct of business
c) Creation of rules for the conduct of business activities under the umbrella of
legislation
d) Creation of tariff barriers
Question 10
Prudential Regulation means the:
a) Deregulation to compel managers of financial institutions to make prudent decisions
so as to prevent institutional failures and to protect depositors
b) Regulation to compel managers of financial institutions to make increase profits of
financial institutions
c) Regulation to compel managers of financial institutions to make prudent decisions so
as to prevent institutional failures and to protect depositors
d) Regulation of trade barriers
Question 11
Microeconomic reform aims to:
a) Raise the supply potential of the economy and thereby, increasing GDP
b) Reduce the supply of the economy and thereby increasing GDP
c) Reduce the domestic supply of the economy
d) Raise the supply potential of the economy and thereby, decreasing GDP
Question 12
Tariff reform aims to:
a) Increase taxes to reduce aggregate expenditure
b) Reduce tariffs to increase competition and force local firms to become more
competitive
c) Increase tariffs to help local producers to remain competitive
d) Reduce tariffs to increase competition and force local produce more
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Question 13
Dynamic Efficiency occurs:
a) When new technologies and innovations are adopted over time
b) When firms reduce costs over time
c) When firms achieve increases in productions and reduce prices
d) When new innovations are exported
Question 14
Productive (technical) efficiency refers to:
a) Productivity or technical efficiency, the situation in which a good or service is
produced using the least amount of resources
b) The situation that occurs when no resources are wasted when no one can be made
better off without making someone else worse off
c) Occurs when new technologies and innovations are adopted over time
d) The situation that occurs only with new technology - when no resources are wasted
when no one can be made better off without making someone else worse off
Question 15
The situation that occurs when no resources are wasted when no one can be made
better off without making someone else worse off, refers to?
a) Dynamic efficiency
b) Information efficiency
c) Allocative efficiency
d) Operational efficiency
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market participants on equal terms. The hard grind of improving Australia's productivity
performance is at the heart of our economic strategy. There is hardly a sector anywhere in
the Australian economy that is not touched by the government's micro-economic reform
agenda.
Source: The Australian November 5 2009 by Lindsay Tanner Government finance minister
2.
List the micro economic reforms which have recently taken place as well as those
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Topic 10
Market Failure
&
Government Regulation
2011
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Divisible:
Exclusion Principle:
Indivisible:
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5. Define marginal private cost, marginal external cost and marginal social cost.
Marginal private cost:
7. Define marginal private benefit, marginal external benefit and marginal social benefit?
a)
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b)
c)
9. Explain the methods that the government can use to ensure positive externalities are
realised?
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Question 3
When people can receive benefits from the consumption of a good or service without
contributing directly to its costs. It leads to:
a) Negative externality
b) Free rider problem
c) Higher prices for everyone else
d) Positive externality
Question 4
Market failure refers to:
a) Too much competition, forcing firms to shutdown
b) The inability of an unregulated market to achieve allocative efficiency in all
circumstances
c) The inability of an unregulated market to achieve exports to other countries
d) The inability to enter other markets to achieve greater profits
Question 5
The production or consumption that provides an external benefit is considered to be:
a) A positive externality
b) A negative externality
c) A commercial transaction
d) A public transaction
Question 6
Marginal Social Cost
a) Benefit the firm receives when an additional unit is produced
b) Cost to the firm of producing an additional unit
c) Cost to society when an additional unit is produced
d) Benefit society receives when an additional unit is produced
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Question 7
Externality is the:
a) Effect of consumption or production
b) Effect of production
c) Effect of consumption
d) Effect of expenditure and production
Question 8
Which of the following can be considered an example of a positive externality:
a) Smoking
b) Education
c) Pollution
d) Toxic waste
Question 9
Marginal Social Cost (MSC) is equal to:
a) MSC = Marginal External Cost
b) MSC = Marginal Cost
c) MSC = MC + Marginal External Cost
d) MSC = Total Marginal Cost
Question 10
Marginal Social Benefit (MSB) is equal to:
a) MSB = MB -Marginal External Benefit
b) MSB = MB + Marginal External Benefit
c) MSB = Marginal Benefit
d) MSB = Total Marginal Benefit
Question 11
Positive externalities occur when:
a) Marginal social benefit < Marginal private benefit
b) Marginal social benefit > Marginal private benefit
c) Marginal social benefit = Marginal private benefit
d) Marginal social benefit + Marginal private benefit
Question 12
Negative externalities occur when:
a) Marginal social cost > Marginal private cost
b) Marginal social cost < Marginal private cost
c) Marginal social cost = Marginal private cost
d) Marginal social cost + Marginal private cost
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Question 13
Which of the following statements is correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Education
Positive Externality (Subsidy)
Price
SB
C1
P*
P1
Q*
Q1
Quantity
Question 14
What will be the level of production and at what prices is there is no government
intervention?
a) Quantity = Q1 and Price = P*
b) Quantity = Q* and Price = P*
c) Quantity = Q1 and Price = P1
d) Quantity = Q1 and Price = C1
Question 15
What will be the level of production and at what prices is there is with government
intervention?
a) Quantity = Q1 and Price = P*
b) Quantity = Q* and Price = P*
c) Quantity = Q1 and Price = P1
d) Quantity = Q1 and Price = C1
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Question 16
A subsidy ensures that:
a) Firms pay a fee or proportion of the cost of production
b) Government assist producers by paying a fee or proportion of the cost of production
c) Government assist producers by charging a fee or proportion of the cost of
production
d) Government provides loans to producers to cover the cost of production
Negative Externality
Price
SC
P1
P*
C1
Q1
C1
= Cost to Produce
Q*
Quantity
Q1
SC = Social Cost
16
Question 17
What will be the level of production and at what prices is there is no government
intervention?
a) Quantity = Q1 and Price = P*
b) Quantity = Q* and Price = P*
c) Quantity = Q1 and Price = P1
d) Quantity = Q1 and Price = C1
Question 18
What will be the level of production and at what prices is there is with government
intervention?
a) Quantity = Q1 and Price = P*
b) Quantity = Q* and Price = P*
c) Quantity = Q1 and Price = P1
d) Quantity = Q1 and Price = C1
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Question 19
Tax is equal to:
a) Tax = p1 + c1
b) Tax = p1 - P*
c) Tax = p1 - c1
d) Tax = p* - P1
Question 20
Which following statement is incorrect?
a) Negative externalities can be eliminated
b) Tax raises marginal private cost (MPC)
c) Government intervention reduces pollution
d) Tax reduces marginal private cost (MPC)
Question 21
Which of the following statement is NOT a method used by the government to
eliminate a negative externality?
a) Taxes
b) Emission charges
c) Marketable permits
d) Subsidies
Question 22
Educational services are a form of:
a) Public subsidy
b) Public provision
c) Licences
d) Private provision
Question 23
Which following statement is NOT a method used by the government to eliminate a
positive externality?
a) Private subsidy
b) Patent and copy rights
c) Taxes
d) Public provision
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A just-released report from the Congressional Budget Office takes on global warming. CBO
points to a negative externality from carbon emissions and a positive externality from
research. An excerpt:
The possibility of climate change involves two distinct market failures that prevent
unregulated markets from achieving the appropriate balance between fossil fuel use and
changes in climate. One market failure involves the external effects of emissions from the
combustion of fossil fuelsthat is, the costs that are imposed on society by the use of fossil
fuels but that are not reflected in the prices paid for them.
The other market failure is a general under-investment in research and development (R&D)
that occurs because investments in innovation may yield spillover benefits to society, which
do not translate into profits for the innovating firm. The first market failure yields inefficiently
high use of fossil fuels; the second yields inefficiently low R&D.
Because there are two separate market failures, an efficient response is likely to involve two
separate types of policies:
One type of policy would reduce carbon emissions by increasing the costs of emitting
carbon, both in the near term and in the future, to reflect the damages that those emissions
are expected to cause.
The other type of policy would increase federal support for R&D on various technologies that
could help restrain the growth of carbon emissions and would create spillover benefits.
Policymakers could increase the cost of emitting carbon by setting a price on those
emissions. That could be accomplished by taxing fossil fuels in proportion to their carbon
content (which is released when the fuels are burned) or by establishing a cap-and-trade
program under which policymakers would set an overall cap on emissions but allow fossil
fuel suppliers to trade rights (called allowances) to those limited emissions. Either a tax or a
cap-and-trade program would cause the prices of goods and services to rise to reflect the
amount of carbon emitted as a result of their consumption. To the extent that a carbon tax or
allowance price reflected the present value of expected damages, such policies would
encourage users of fossil fuels to account for the costs they impose on others through their
emissions of greenhouse gases.
Source: Congressional Budget office cbo Wednesday, September 20, 2006
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Market Failures
MF 1: external effects of emissions
MF 2: general under-investment in
research
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