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The most heavily traded assets are futures and options.

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Put option:

Call option:











ST

PT


ST


C T

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An option is a financial contract which provides the right to buy


(sell) an asset in a future date at a given price.

Options

commodities: gold, cotton, etc.


derivatives

currencies (foreign exchange)

stocks (equity)
bond

Traded assets in financial markets are:

Introduction to finance

Futures are different from forward because of contractual


differences regarding guarantees and the way the payoff is
delivered.

Futures are more liquid than their underlying.

A futures contract gives you the obligation to buy an asset in a


future date. In institutional markets, the counterparts have to pay
a guarantee when signing the contract. Theres no initial price.

Derivatives are financial contracts whose payoff at future dates


depends upon the value of an other asset, called underlying.

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Futures

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..... than models are very sophisticated.

A lot of data are available......

Derivatives

Dipartimento di Economia Politica, Universit`a di Siena

reno@unisi.it

Roberto Ren`o

Option pricing: the Black & Scholes model

Finance

Finance is a subset of Economics, which is quite peculiar for two


reasons:

Introduction to finance




Money Market Account





r s ds


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Lets look the time series of an asset (FIB30 2000-2001, daily


data):

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r t B t dt

dS t
St







drift

t S dt


t S

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t S dW t

volatility

t S

The price of a financial asset is modeled via a stochastic


differential equation:

Asset pricing

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The short rate is the state variable adopted in interest rate models.

short rate, spot rate

dB t

rt

The Money Market account is a model of a riskless asset, whose


payoff is certain

Money Market Account

If r t is constant, it coincides with the yield to maturity.



B 0 exp

Bt

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If r t id deterministic, the evolution of B t is deterministic, the


solution of the ordinary differential equation is

FIB30 time series

assets can be short-selled and bought in the desired


quantities
theres no default risk

theres no arbitrage
there are no transaction costs

We will work in market in which:

Perfect market

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A market is said to be complete if it is possible to replicate any


derivative with a buy-and-sell strategy accomplished with the
underlying.

We assume that in the market is is not possible to realize a


positive payoff with no risk. Such a contract would be an
arbitrage contract. This assumption is called absence of arbitrage.

Absence of arbitrage and completeness










 


In the Black and Scholes model there are two assets S and B,
which follow the following dynamics:

The Black and Scholes model















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F
s

1 2 2 2 F
S
rF 0
2
S2
F T S
ST

We then found a PDE for the price of any derivative.

0 the portfolio is riskless.

rS

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1 we have

 
 



If uS

u dW t

V uS











u dt

F
t



V uS

Solving for uS and u , keeping in mind that uS

uS

Now we use the assumption of absence of arbitrage; since the


portfolio is riskless, its drift has to be equal to r.

dV




then:




u t V t

uS t V S t




V t

The value of the portfolio is then given by:

u be the fraction of wealth invested in



Arbitrage and PDE


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Consider a portfolio composed by the asset S and the derivative.


Let:
uS be the fraction of wealth invested in S.


t

F
S
F

Arbitrage

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This result is still valid if and depend on t S.

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This result is valid only if the derivative is actively traded.

Our results depends only on the absence of arbitrage. This is


not astonishing, since the valuation equation for F needs the
dynamics of S to be computed.

Some considerations

1 2 2 2 F
S
2
S2
F
S
S

Portfolio

T.

F
t



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The Black and Scholes model can be used to value derivatives.

be the derivative price at time t



B is the riskless asset.


ST

F sSs

Let s





r are constants!
S is the risky asset, tipycally a stock.

For example, for the Call option S T

S t dW t



S t dt



dS t



t dW t

t t dt



d t



rB t dt

Itos lemma allows us to compute the evolution of t S

Contingent claim valuation

dB t

Let us consider the problem of pricing a derivative issued in t


which promises a payoff at T t given by S T .

Contingent claim valuation

Lets look for a probabilistic interpretation of this result.


The Feynman-Kac formula says that the solution of the PDE is
given by:
e r T t EI X T
F t St
t

Risk Neutral valuation













 






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r T s





Such a process is called a martingale, and


equivalent martingale measure.

Ps




EI

T:


is also called
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Fundamental theorem of mathematical finance:


In the market, there are no arbitrage opportunities if and only if
there exists a probability which is equivalent to P under which
discounted prices are martingales under .

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The market is complete if and only if is unique.


The above reasonings show that the Black and Scholes model is
complete and free of arbitrage.

Pt

F T ST e





 
 





The above formula says that, t

PsSs

s 2 ds

The relation we found for the Black and Scholes model is much
more general:

Risk is measured via volatility.

Risk premium: excess return per risk unit.

W t

W t



Let us consider the discounted price:

ST



is called risk neutral probability. Following Girsanovs


theorem, the relation between W and W is:

EI






F t St

r T t

Then, following Feynman-Kac formula, we can write:

1
2

Risk Neutral Probability and arbitrage



We then call the probability under which W is a Brownian


motion. We interpret X as the asset S under the probability .

Risk Neutral Valuation

s dW s



Risk Premium

 



with respect to P.

exp

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Lt



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Actually, investors are risk-averse. They take risky positions only


if them promise an excess return.



The only difference in the diffusion of X with respect to S is that


the drift is given by r instead of .

XdWt



dX
X t

Girsanov theorem says that for any process t , then


t
Bt
W t
0 s ds is a Brownian motion under the
probability P with density

Denote by P the probability under which Wt is a Brownian


motion.

Girsanov theorem



r r Xdt
St

where X is the solution of the SDE:

Indeed, investor would equally trade X, which has drift r but is


uncertain, and B, which has drift r and no uncertainity.

If X would be the price of an asset, than investors are risk-neutral

Risk Neutral Valuation



 










d2

d2

d1

$
%&%&'



1 2 2 2 F
S
2
S2

dt

F
V S dW t
V

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Let us denote by u and u0 the fractions of wealth invested, in S


and B respectively:
u u0 1

F
S

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The initial wealth invested in the strategy is given by the option


price.

dV t

F
t

We can than use again Itos lemma:


S

The value of the strategy must be given by the option price at any
instant:
F t St
V t

Now we address the following problem: I sold an option, and I


want to realize a strategy, using the underlying and the riskless
asset, which provides me the same payoff at maturity (hedging).



This task can be accomplished if the market is complete: i.e., if I


can replicate any option with a self-financed strategy which is
equivalent to the option itself.

The hedging strategy

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Hedging

does not depend on .

&) )&*

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In financial market, the Black and Scholes formula is so


widespread that what is quoted is not price, but implied volatility.

2
2



The estimate of obtained plugging the option prices in the Black


and Scholes formula and inverting is called implied volatility.

F
0

there is a one-to-one mapping between price and volatility.

Since

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Implied volatility

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"

is the cumulative distribution of a Normal 0 1 . The formula

We then verify that S t is exactly the desired solution.

W t

S
K


log


t

r T t



2
t
2

1
T



d1

d1




!




S0 exp



This suggests a method to estimate and using the time series


of prices. An estimate of obtained like that is called historical
volatility.

where:



St


t .

F t S

from which:

dWt

turns out to be Normal

with mean T

 
  
St

St
t and variance 2 T

dYt




ST



!

2
dt
2


Conversely, the distribution of

Using the solution we can compute the price of any derivative.


ST
K we
For example, for the Call option, S T
have:



log St and use (only formally!) Itos lemma:

SdWt


S 0 is then Lognormal.


The distribution of S T given S t

The Black and Scholes formula

dS Sdt
S0
S0

Historical volatility

We set Yt

We look for a solution of the SDE:

Solution of the Black and Scholes model



"



1 2 2 2 F
S
2
S2

rF

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Now we should ask ourselves if its assumption are respected by


financial markets, and consequently if it can be used safely or not.

The Black and Scholes model is paramountly used, starting from


the early Seventies. It is the natural benchmark for any option
pricing model. It owes its fortune to its simplicity: its the
simplest diffusion model with Normal returns.

Are interest rates constant?


Interest rates vary through time:

Black and Scholes: the empirics

F
S
2 F
S2
F
r
F
t
F

which is the PDE for the option price!

rS

F
t

F
S

1 we have:



u0 t



1 2 2 2 F
S
2
S2
rF



If we ask u0

F
t

The Greeks

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The price sensitivity with respect to the parameters is measured


by the so-called Greeks:

ut

F
S
F



we have:

V t u0 t r





u t dt





dV t

V t u t t dW t

Since for the strategy u u0 the portfolio value is given by:

The hedging strategy

Volatility is not constant.

Is volatility constant?

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Following that, in the Black and Scholes model hedging is called


hedging.

When we hedge an option in the Black and Scholes model, we


have:
S
u
F
than is exactly the number of stocks S that I have to buy for a
given number of options F, in order to have a riskless portfolio.

hedging

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Are returns Normal?

Implied volatility should be tha same for Call option at the money
(S K 1), in the money (S K 1), out of the money (S K 1).

The Black and Scholes formula implies that implied volatility


does not depend on the moneyness S K.

Implied volatility and moneyness

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Indeed they are not, the distribution is leptokurtic (fat tails):

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Such a result would be an important point made by the Black and


Scholes model, irrespectively of the empirical facts which it
cannot account for.

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The ACF of the absolute value of returns shows dependence for


very long periods (1-2 months).

Are returns independent?

Looking at the time series it seems not....

Are returns Normal?

Implied volatility depends on moneyness:

Smile effect

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The ACF of returns is null after one day! This is coherent with
the assumptions of independent returns, but...

Are returns independent?

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