VNTI University of Nigeria Past Questions

VNTI/SKULPALS UNN Post-UTME Past Questions And Answers
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USE OF ENGLISH
COMPREHENSION
Read the passage carefully and answer the question 1-5 below
One day, Alan, a friend of mine who likes a country life was fishing in a river, when he
caught trout. He tried to pull the fish in
but it slipped off the hook, flew over his hand and landed in a field behind him. Alan put
down his rod, went through the gate
and stared searching for his trout. Some people, obviously from the city, were having a
picnic in the field. One of the men
shouted, What on earth are you doing? thinking that it was a stupid question because
they could see how he dressed; Alan
replied, fishing. Dont be silly, the fish are down in the river answered the man. Fish
dont live in the fields He turned to
his that he had made a good joke. Go but they do. Said Alan: they jump
out of the river to look for flies and I catch them with my hands. At that area he found his
trout in the grass, and picked it up
and showed it to the picnickers. He out it in his basket and bent down, as if he hunting for
another one. The picnickers no
longer laughing spent the rest of the day searching the field.
1. Why did the fish lard in the field?
A. It had wings B It was a flying fish C. It was looking for food
D. Alan pulled too food E. It fell off the hook.
2. The picnickers were
A. Farmers B. From the nearby village C. Tourists
D. People from the city E. Anglers like him.
3. Where was Alan looking for the fish?
A. In the grass B. Down the river C. In front of the gate
D. In his basket E. Among the picnickers
4. Alan made the picnickers believe that fish jump out of the river to look for files by
A. Telling a story B. Finding his trout and showing it to them
C. Taking them down to the river D. Watching how trout catch flies
E. Picking up a fish and looking for more
5. He laughs best who laughs last (proverb). It is true for this story because
A. The picnickers were enjoying themselves B. Finally he found his fish
C. Alan played a good trick on the picnickers D. Fishing is a pastime
E. Alan likes country life.
(In the question below choose the word appropriate option opposite in meaning to the
word italic
6. The new administrator has emphasized the need for prudent spending during his term of
office.
A. Wasteful B. Stupid C. Hash D. Judicious
(In question 7 choose the option nearest in meaning to the word or phrase italics)
7. Our class prefect is officious and we hate him because of his behaviour.
A. Efficient B. Efficacious C. Over-zealous D. Active
(In each of the questions below fill the gap with the most appropriate option from the list
provided).
5


8. After dressing, the nurse warned the patient to take a good care of the wound to keep it
dirt.
A. Scrupulous B. Fastidious C. Meticulous D. Stringent
9. I called you this afternoon before you set for the airport.
A. Did I B. Isnt it C. Dont I D. Didnt I
10. Members of the church decided to travel bus
A. With B. By C In D. On
11. In order to stabilize the price of crude oil in world market, OPEC members were called
upon to cut production.
A. Down B. Back C. Out D. Off
12. Remember this mailer is
A. Between you and I B. Between you and me
C. Among you and me D. Between me and you
13. One of my relations who....
Abuja K.. recently been posted to Lagos
A. Live/has B. Lives/had
C Lives/has D. Live/have
In questions 14 and 15, choose the option that
14. A. Formality B. Hemisphere
C. Gravitate D. Illustrate
15. A. Mutineer B. Oversight
C. Tantamount D. Paradox
BIOLOGY
Indicate the correct option in each of the following questions
1. The mitochondrion consists of
A. Chemical that break up complex compounds in the cells into simpler compounds
B. Rich store of ribonucleic acid
C. Digestive enzymes and hormones
D. Protein phosphorus and
2. In Amoeba, the ectoplasm is bounded by a thin membrane known as the
A. Plasmasol B. Plasmagel C. Plasalemma D. Protoplasm
3. Centipedes are
A. Equally dangerous as millipedes B. Less dangerous than millipedes
C. More dangerous than all D. Not dangerous at all
4. Odontophore is a skeletal structure found in the phylum
A. Pisces B. Echinodermata C. Mollusca D. Amphibian
5. Cattle is the name of a structure found in
A. Lizard B. Chameleon C. Cock D. Dogfish
6. One of these is not a feature of the caudal vertebrae in a mammal
A. They possess neural canal B. Theft transverse processes axe poorly developed
UNN POSTUTME Past Questions & Solutions 2005 - 2011
6
C. Their neural spines are gradually lost D. There are not many articular Surfaces.
7. The inner ear has two types of coiled structures called cochlea which
A. Receive sound impulses-
B. Has sensory cells which carry impulses to the spinal cord
C. Connects to the Eustachian tube


D. Possess cells sensitive to balance
8. Viruses are the smallest known organisms and are divided into two parts the outer part
and an inner part. The outer
parts protein and the inner part is
A. Nucleus B. Vacuole C. Particle D, DNA and RNA
9. The thallus of a lichen consists of
A. A virus and a fungus B. Alga cells and fungal hyphae
C. Bacteria and fungal cells D. Soredium and basisospor
10. The palisade parenchyma is found in the
A Stem B. Leaf C. Rower D. Root
11. The tomato fruits is a very good example of
A. An aggregate fruit B. A drupe C. A berry D. A multiple fruit
12. Cremation occurs in the Red Blood cell when
A. It is placed in isotonic B. It is placed in hypertonic solution
C. Osmosis is allowed to occur D. Transpiration occurs
13. The capillaries act as Filters between
A. The veins B. The arteries C. The venules D. The arteries and the veins
14. The primary openings for gaseous exchange in a plant stem at night are
A. Opening in the cuticles B. Stomata C. Lenticels D. Branches
15. The outer membrane covering the brain is known as
A. Brain ventricle B. Anchnoid C. Pia meter D. Dura meter
Indicate the correct option in each of the following question
1. A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in
A. Steam B. Dilute hydrochloric acid C. Dilute sodium hydroxide D. Benzene
2. If 67.Sg of oxide of lead was reduced to 61 .2g of metal, calculate the formulae of the
oxide.
A. PbO B.Pb03 C. Pb304 D. P2R ( = 207,0 = 16)
3. Calculate the minimum volume of oxygen that is required for complete combustion of
mixture of 20cm3 of CO and
10cm3 of hydrogen.
A. 5cm3 B. 10cm3 C. 15cm3 D. 20cm3
4. HNO3 + H2O? H3O ++ NO3 In the reaction above, NO3 is the
A. Conjugate acid B. Acid C. Conjugate base D. Base
5. The pH range of a neutralization product of CH3COOH and KOH is
A. 1-3 B.7-8 C. 7 D. 12-14
6. How much Na3OH is required to make 250cm3of 0.lmolldm3 solution?
A. 10g B.1.Og C. 0.Ig D.4g
7. 2PbO2 _ 2PbO + O2 In the equation above, the oxidizing agent is
A. Pb4+ B.Pb2+ C. CO2 D. O2
8. A current of 0.5A flows for 1930 seconds and deposits 0.325g of metal M. if the charge is
+2, the relative molecular
mass is
A.65 B. 32. 5 C.24 D.40
7
9. Emission of chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) into the atmosphere causes
A. Global warning B. Acid rain C. Depletion of ozone later D. Greenhouse effect


10. It can be concluded that the reaction into above graph is
A. Spontaneous B. In equilibrium C. Non-spontaneous D. Exothermic
11. Which of the following samples will react fastest with dilute HCl?
A.10g of lumps of CaCO3 at 250C
B.10g of powder CaCO3 at 250C
C.10g of lumps of CaCO3at 500C
D.10g of powder CaCO3 at 500C
12. The colour exhibited by copper in a flame test is
A. Green B. Lilac C. Blue-green D. Crimson
13. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Chlorine bleaches by oxidant while sulphur (IV) oxide bleaches areduction
B. Chlorine bleaches by reduction while sulphur (IV) oxide bleaches by oxidation
C. Both of them bleach by oxidation
D. Both of them bleach by reduction
14. The JUPAC name for
A. 1 -chlorobenzoic acid B. Schloeobenzoic a C. Chlorobenzoic acid D. Chlorobenzoic acid
15. 2-methylbut-2-one is an isomer of
A. Pent- 1-one B.2-methylpent-2-one C. Hex-3-one D.2-methylprop-l-one
PHYSICS
Indicate the correct option in each of the following questions.
Reaction pathway
pathway
0
N
COOH
8
1. Which of the following is a set of vectors?
A. Force mass and moment B. Acceleration, velocity and moment
C. Mass, weight and density D. Mass, volume and densi
2. A catapult used to hold a stone of mass 500g is extended by 20cm with an applied force F.
If the stone leaves with
an applied force of 4Oms ,the value off is
A. 4.0 x 102 Nm2 B. 4.OxlO3N C. 2.0 x 10 N D.4.OxlO4N
3. A parachute attains a terminal velocity when.-
A. Its density is equal to the density of air.
B. The viscous force of the air and upthrust completely counteract weight.
C. It expands as a result of reduced external pressure.
D. The viscous force of the air is equal to the sum of the weight and upthrust.
4. An electrical heater is used to melt a block: ice, mass 1.5g. If the heater is powered by a
12V battery and a current
of 20A to flows through the coil, calculate the time taken to melt the block of ice at 0C.
(Specific latent heat of
fusion of ice = 336 x 103j kg-)
A. 76.0mm B. 35.0mm C. 21.0mm D. 2.9mm
5. 200g of water at 90C is mixed with l00g of water at 30C. What is the final temperature?
A. 50C B. 60C C. 70C D.80C


6. The equation FVT = constant is Charles law when
A. X=1,y=1,z=l B. X=0,y=1,z=l C. X= l, y=0,z= 1 D. X=0,y= 1 .z=0
7. For a short sighted person, light rays from a point on a very distant object is focused
A. In front of the retina B. Behind the retina
C. Behind the retina by a diverging lens D. In front of the retina, a distance 2F from the lens
8. Dispersion of light by a glass prism is due tie the
A. Different hidden colours of the glass B. Different speeds of various colours in glass
C. Defects in the glass D. High density in glass
9. To produce an enlargement and erect image with a concave mirror, the object must be
positioned.
A. Between the principal focus and the center curvature
B. At the principal focus
C. Between the principal focus and the pole
D. Beyond the center of curvature
10. To convert an ac dynamo into a dc dynamo, the
A. Number of turns of the coil is increased
B. Slip rings are replaced with a split ring commutator
C. The number if turns of the coil is reduced
D. Split ring commutator is replaced with slip Rings.
11. In an a.c circuit, that contains only a capacitor, the voltage
A. Lags behind the current by 90 B. Loads the current by 90
C. Lags behind the current by 180 D. Loads the current by 180
12. The purpose of the dielectric material in a parallel plate capacitor is to
A. Increase its capacitance B. Decrease its capacitance
C. Insulate the plates from other D. Increase the magnetic field between plates
13. A substance has a half life of 5mins. After 6mins, the count rate was observed to be
400.What was its count rate at
zero time?
A. 200 B.1200 C.1600 D. 2400
14. If light with photon energy 2Ev is incident on the surface of a metal with work function
3Ev, then
9
A. No electron will be emitted
B. The few electrons emitted will have maximum kinetic energy of I eV
C. The few electrons emitted will have a maximum kinetic energy of 3eV
D. Many electrons will be emitted with maximum kinetic energy of 5eV.
15. In a nuclear fusion experiment, the loss of mass amounts to 1.0 x l06kg. The amount
of energy obtained from the fusion (speed ofIight3.0xl03Ms-1 is
A. 3.0x104J B.5.0x10J C. 9.0x1043 D.9.OxlO-J
UNIVERSITY OF NIGERIA NSUKKA 2007/2008
USE OF ENGLISH
COMPREHENSION
(Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that follows)
The great herald of things to come was Ezekiel. not only in the sense that the predicted the
future, but also because in the


manner and content of his prophetic ministry, lie foreshadowed many of the religious
developments which were
characteristic of the age after the exile, but; as we shall see, he represented some of the
great elements in Israels religious
past.
The book which bars his name is outwardly impressive in its orderliness and symmetry and
in careful chronological
arrangement of its contents. It purpose to present the record of prophecies uttered in the
Babylonian exile between 593 and
571 books had been dissected and assigned to sundry authors and editors, this book
continued to be regarded by most
scholars as having come in its entirely from Ezekiel. Then came a period in which many
extreme theories were advanced,
assigning much of its contents to other hands, or presupposing complicated processes of
editorial revision, or dating the
book to a period much later than the Babylonian exile, maintaining that Ezekiels ministry
was not exercised in Babylonia but
in Palestine, or at least was begun there such theories have been subjected to damaging
criticism, and are now somewhat
die credited. The account of Ezekiels ministry and teaching is based on the view that he
lived and worked among the exiles
in Babylonia, at the period indicated, and that the bulk of the material in the book comes
from him, though, like other
prophetic collections, it owed much in its complication and arrangement to prophetic
disciples.
1. Ezekiel was a great herald of things to come because
A. He was a prophet
B. He preached about events which were to characterize the period after the exile.
C. God showed him what was going to happen after the exile.
D. He ran a prophetic ministry was with him.
2. In his work Ezekiel
A. Was friendly with Ezra
B. Founded Judaism in conjunction with Ezra
C. Had a large religious following
D. Forget a link between the past and the future
E. Demonstrated that he was a man of God.
3. By and large, critics of Ezekiel and his work were
A. Successful B. Ungodly C. Unsuccessful D. Jealous E. Angered by his acceptance
4. When other prophetic books were discarded, Ezekiels book was accepted because
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A. The people loved him B. The other prophetic writers were not as original
C. The critics were biased in the judgment D. He was a great prophet
E. His work was convincingly documented.
5. The account of Ezekiels ministry was
A. Complied with the collaboration of others B. His and his alone
C. Shared by many written D. Partly complied by him and partly by Ezra


E. Produced as a result of Gods inspiration.
(Select the option that best explains the information conveyed in these sentence).
6. Our hope is that poverty in the country should be eradicated across the board
A. Poverty should cut across board members
B. Poverty should not cut across members,
C. Everyone in the country should be fret from poverty.
D. All board members should be free poverty.
(In the next two questions, choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to
the word italics.)
7. Our earlier decision send aid to the war victims has been nullified.
A. Ratified B. Amended C. Canceled D. Upheld
8. His success at the polls was a result of. Tenacity in upholding the ideas of his party.
A. Stubbornness B. Stupidity C. Vacillation D. Carelessness
9. Copies of the handout would be sold only to those students that hitherto had not got
copies
A. Recently B. Previously C. For long D. Until now
10. The armed robber entered the mans under! guise of a religious minister.
A. Conviction B. Cover C. Shape D. Pretext
(In each of the following questions fill with the gap most appropriate option from the list
provided).
11. Our party shall sanction any candidate who resorts to means to gain office.
A. Grievous B. Obvious C. Devious D. Odious
12. He could not attend the night party his prolonged illness.
A. Owing to B. Resulting from C. Due to D. Following from
13. After the unions negotiation with the federal government, one should expect the
workers pay to improve drastically.
A. Takeaway B. Take home C. Take-home D. Take-away
(In the next question (14), choose the option that has a different consonant sound from
the others).
14.
A. Machine B. Machinations C. Machete D. Chalet
In the last question (15), the expression in capital Letter has the emphatic stress Choose
the option to which the
sentence relates).
15, The embargo on fruit drinks HAS ALREADY been lifted.
A. Has the embargo on foreign textile already been lifted?
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B. How soon will the embargo on fruit drinks be tightened up?
C. Has the embargo on fruit drinks already been lifted?
D. Will the embargo on fruit drinks ever be lifted?
Please select as your answer the correction
BIOLOGY
1. Animal cells
A. Do not have a definite shape B. Have definite shapes
C. Have cellulose cell walls D. Are very large in size when compared with plant cells
2. The attachment regions of chromosome is called.


A. Chromatid B. Centromere C. Spindle fibre D. Chromonemata
3. In some Tapeworm the fertilized eggs develop into an embryo enclosed within a
membrane called.
A. Onehosphere B. Zygospere C. Zygote D. Plerocerciod
4. In a Caterpillar, the last pair of eggs occurs on the last segment and they are called.
A. Larves B. Cluthes C. Claspers D. Ovopositor
5. Nuchal crest is a characteristic feature of
A. Toad B. Tilapia C. Agama D. Salamander
6. The subcutaneous layer of the mammalian skin contains
A. The outer layer, middle layer and the malphighian layer.
B. Sweat duct, sweat glands, erector and hair muscles. .
C. Sebaceous glands, nerve endings, hair follicles and blood vessels.
D. Nerve fibres, blood vessels, hair follicles and adipose layer.
7. The phenomenon whereby oxygenated blood leaves the heart through the left side and
returns to the heart in
deoxygenated form through the right is called.
A. Circulatory system B Plan of circulation C. Single circulation D Double circulation
8. The urine enters into the bladder through the
A. Urethra B. Pelvis C. Bowmans capsule D. Urether
9. Spirogyra cells are enclosed within cell walls that are lined by slimy substance called.
A. Mucus B. Cytoplasmic strand C. Mucilage D. Chloroplast
10. One of these is not a storage root
A. Carrot B. Onion C. Potato D. Cassava
11. A common example of a caryopsis is
A Groundnut B Sun flower C. Maize D. Tridax
12. The term scion refers to -
A. The plant that is firmly attached to die soil
B. The mupper plant that should be united with the plant attached the ground.
C. The wounds created when a plant is grafted
D. The stem into which a bud is sintered
13. Water and mineral salts are absorbed from the soil when
A. Osmosis occurs B. Evapo-transpiration occurs
C. Photosynthesis occurs D. Wilting occurs
14. In plants, the water and mineral transported from the root hairs are used for.
A. osmosis B. transpiration C) photosynthesis D) Homostasia
15. Phototaxis is a tactic movement which
12
A. Takes place in response to -stimulation of Heat.
B. Takes place in response to light
C. Takes place because of chemical exchange
D. A movement carried out by the cell
CHEMISTRY
1. A mixture of common salt, ammmonium chloride and barium sulphate is best separated
by
A. Sublimation following by addition of Water and evaporation.


B. Sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration.
C. Addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation.
D. Addition of water followed by crystallization and sublimation.
2. A brand of ink containing Cobalt (II) Ions can best be separated into its various
components by
A. Fractional crystallization B. Fractional distillation C. Chromatography D. Sublimation
3. 24g of Na2CO3 reacted with excess H2SO4 and0.2mole CO2 was produced. Calculate the
%purity of Na2CO3.
A. 70% B. 84.8% C. 88.3% D. 92.5%
4. Which of the following equations represents Charles law?
A. T1 - V1
T2 V2
B. T1 - V2
T2 V1
C. V1T1 - V2T2
D. P1V1 - P2V2
5. The azimuthal at number L=2 represents
A. S-orbital B. P-ortital C. D-orbital D. F-orbital
6. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water will not give the corresponding pH
value?
A. KHSO4, p11<5 B. Na2CO3, pB>8
C. NaCl. pH =7 D. NaHCO3, p11,6
7. Pb2+ + H2S _PbS + 2H In the above reaction is acting as
A. An acid B. A reducing agent C. A precipitating agent D. An oxidizing agent
8. A cell is represented by the notating Cu/Cu2+ //Ag+/Ag. If the E of Cu and Ag are
respectively + 0.34V and + 0.46V, calculate the cell potential
A. +1.10V B. 1.10V C. +0.12V D. 0.12V
9. The addition of enough NaCO3 to hard water leads to
A. The removal of temporary hardness only
B. The removal of permanent hardness only
C. The removal of both temporary and permanent harness
D. An increase in the hardness of water.
10. The relationship between _G, _H and T _S is
A. _H=_G+T_S B. _G=_H+T_S C. _H=_GT_S D. _G=_HT_S
11. MnO2is known to hasten the, decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. Its main action is to.
A. Increase the surface area of the reactants
13
B. Increase the concentration of the reactants
C. Lower the heat of reaction, AR, for the reaction
D. Lower the activation energy for the reaction.
12. A solution X, on mixing with AgNO3 solution gives a white ppt. soluble in Nb3, A
solution!!, when added to X, also
gives a white ppt. which is soluble on boiling. Solution Y contains
A. Ag ion B. Pb ion C. Pt ion D. Zn2 ion
13. Stainless steel is an alloy made up of
A, Chromium, nickel and. copper B. Chromium, lead and copper


C. Nickel iron and lead D. Chromium, nickel and iron
14. Magnesium ribbon was allowed to burn inside a given gas P, leaving a while. solid
residue Q. Addition of water to Q
librated a gas. which produced dense white fumes with drop I hydrochloric acid. The gas P
was
A. Nitrogen B. Chlorine C. Oxygen D. Sulphur (1V) Oxide
15. The synthetic rubber obtained by the Polymerization of chlorobutadiene in the presence
of sodium is called
A. Teflon B. Isoprene C. Polythene D. Neoprene
PHYSICS
1. A lorry travels : 10km northwards, 4km eastwards, 6km southwards and 4km westwards
to arrive at a point T.
What is the total displacement?
A. 6km south B. 4km north
C. 6km north D. 4km east
2. A piece of wood of mass 40 and uniform cross- sectional area of 2cnlfloats upright in
water. The length of the
woo4 immersed is
A. 80cm B.40cm C.20cm D. 2cm
3. The mass of a specific gravity bottle is l5.2g when it is empty. It is 24.Sg when filled with
kerosene and 27.2g when
filled with kerosene and 27.2g when filled with distilled water. Calculate the relative density
of kerosene.
A. 1.25 B. 1.10 C 0.90 D. 0.80
4. One of the most important applications of bimetallic is found in the conduction
A. A thermostat B. Altimeter C. A thermocouple D. A hygrometer
5. The resistances of platinum was at the ice and stream points are 0.75Q and 1.050
respectively. Compute the
temperature at which the resistance of the wire is 0. 900
A.1 3C B50.0C C.69.0C D. 87;OC
6. Which of the following conditions will make water boil at a temperature of 100C when
the atmospheric pressure is
750mm Hg?
A. Increase the B. Reduce the external pressure
C. Heat more rapidly at the same pressure D. Reduce the external pressure by a quartet
7. Which of the following media alloy transmission of sound waves through them?
I. AI II. Liquid III. Solids
A. l and II only B. l and III only C. II and III only D. I, II and II
8. An object is placed in front of a concave miner of focal length 15cm. What is the position
and nature of the image?
A .30cm and virtual B. 6cm and real C. 6cmandvirtual D. 30cm and real
9. In a sound wave in air, the adjacent
Rarefactions and compressions are separated by a distance of 1 7cm. If the velocity of sound
wave in. air is 340ns,
determine the frequency.


14
A:10Hz B. 20Hz C. 1000Hz D.5180HZ
10. Two capacitors of 6uF and 8uF are connected in series. What additional capacitance.
must be connected in series
with his combination to give a total of 3gF.
A.3WF B.1WF C.2WF D.36WF
11. If the separation. between two point charge is increased by a factor of four the
magnitude of the electrostatic force
between theta will be
A. of its original value B. of its original value
C. 1/16 of its original value D. 4 times its original value
12. A transformer has 300 turns of wire in the primary coil and 30 turns in the secondary coil
and 30 turns in the
secondary coil if the input voltage is.1 00 V, the output voltage is .
A.5V. B. 10V C. I00V D. 200V
13. In a certain fusion reaction a deuteron (21H) interacts with atrition(31H) and produces
an (3-)particle, (42He) and a
second product. The second product is
A. A proton B. At electron C. A neutron D. A gamma ray
14. In an. a.c. circuit theory, the root-mean-square(r.m.s) current I, and the peel
(maximum)current Ims and the peel
(maximum) current to are related by
A. 10 = 1 1/2 B. 1m = 102
C. 1ms = 1/102 D. 10 = 1/1ms2
15. One of the features of the fission process is that.
A, Its products are not radioactive B. It leads to chain reaction
C. Neutrons are not released .
D. The sum of the masses of the reactants equal the sum of the masses of the products.
UNIVERSITY OF NIGERIA NSUKKA POST UME SCREENING TEST
ECONOMICS
1. A mathematical table that gives a relationship among many economic variable is called
a) Pie chart b) Graph c) Frequency table d) Pictograph
2. Wants in economics refers to
a) Goods meant for consumption b) Service rendered
c) Goods and serviced desired for consumption d) Products made
3 The main importance of drawing a scale of preference is. .
a) to enable One make a rational choice b) to enable one to take a good decision
c) to enable one limit his or her need d) None of the above
4. Creation of utility yielding goods and services means
a) Production b) Consumption c) Manufacturing c) Extraction
5. If the variance for a set of scores is 7, the I standard deviation is
a)6.2 b) 1.6 c)2.6 d)3.6
6. Total changing of raw materials to finished goods ready for consumption is
a) Manufacturing b) Transformation c) Extraction d) Distribution
7. The quest to hold balances of cash is called
a) Precautionary motive b) Liquidity preference


15
c) Speculative motive d) Transactionary motive
8. The decentralization of resources allocation to meet the needs of a society is called
a) Socialism b) Mixed economy c) Capitalism d) Dualism
9. When elasticity of Demand is above I, the demand is
a) Elastic b) Inelastic c) Perfectly elastic d) Zero elastic
10. The bank that provides credit by lending of money to the public is
a) World bank b) Central Bank c) Mortgage Bank d) Commercial Bank
11. John has N70 to buy goods X and Y; and each cost N70. He buys X and forgoes Y. The
economic concept that
adopts this is
a) Scarcity b) Opportunity cost c) Scale of preference d) Choice
12. The exchange of commodities between Ghana and Nigeria is called
a) Multinational grade b) International trade c) External trade d) Bilateral trade
13. The role of ECOWAS is to attain
a) Multilateral trade b) Bilateral trade c) Economics elf reliance d) Regional free trade
14. The bankers bank is
a) Central bank b) Mortgage bank c) Commercial bank d) World bank
15. Prices of commodities are regulated by
a) Demand b) Supply c) Demand and Supply d) Advisement
GOVERNMENT
1. The adjudication of rule is the major responsibly of the
a) Legislative b) Judiciary c) Executive d) National Assembly
2. Which of these countries possesses an unwritten constitution?
a) France b) Great Britain c) United State of America d) Federal Republic of Germany
3. The power of emergency placed on the Federal Government in the independence
constitution was first practiced in
the
a) Eastern region b) Western region c) Mid-western region d) Northern region
4. The anonymity principle of Civil service workers means that they are
a) Entitled to gratuity and pension b) Career officer
c) No credited for anything they do d) Trained for duties they perform
5. The meeting of Commonwealth Heads of State was hosted by Nigeria in
a) 1967 b) 1966 c) 1957 d) 1968
6. Capitalism supports
a) Ownership of the means of production by private individual
b) Anarchy
c) A centrally planning economic system
d) Public ownership of means of production
7. A unitary system of government is characterized by
a) weak parliament b) diffused political power
c) high level of concentration of power d) no legislature
8. A government that has a fusion of executive and ceremonial power is
a) Parliamentary b) Presidential c) Unitary d) Oligarchy
9. The respect of individual rights and industrial revolution necessitated the development
of.


16
a) Fascism b) Capitalism c) Socialism d) Feudalism
10. Parliament can only be dissolved by
A) Referendum B) Bye election C) plebiscite D) General election
11. The day set aside for united Nation celebration is
A) September17 B)August 10 C) May 5 D) October24.
12. A common provision in the 1963 and 1979 constitution was the
a) provision for bicameral legislation at the apex
b) political parties registration
c) indirect funding of local government by the federal
d) none of the above
13. The 1976 local Government Reform in Nigeria resulted in
a) Five-tier system of local government b) one-tier local government system
c) three-tier local government system d) six-tier local government system
14. public or corporation are financed by
a) individual funds b) taxpayer c) federal funds d) political parties
15. the duration for the appointment of the secretary by the united Nation Organization is
a) 3years b) 4years c) 5 year d) 7 year
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE (C.R.K)
1. Gods creative strength was shown by his
a) approving that a thing be done b) making a command prefaced by there be
c) ordering the holy spirit to act d) allowing created things to evolve naturally.
2. which of these did not form part of Asas religious reform in Judah?
a) termination of male cult prostitution in the land,
b) Demolition of all the idols his father made
c) Cutting down of the image made by maacah for Asherah
d) Destruction of high places
3. Paul was grateful to God whenever he remembered Philemon in his prayer because of
Philemons.
a) Determination not to forgive Philemon b) Love for, and faith in Jesus
c) Lack of appreciation of Onesimus to him d) Pretended goodness
4. which of the following officials were charged by pharaoh to kill the Hebrew male children
a) Egyptian physician b) Egyptian taskmasters c) Hebrew midwives d) Egyptian soldiers
5. Jesus decided to send the multitude to buy food for themselves when it was already
getting late because
a) He wanted to reveal his messiah ship
b) He knew that his words were of greater value than food
c) The multitude was unwilling to go home
d) He know that the little food available would satisfy them.
6. Naaman the Syrian leper was healed by
a) Amos b) Hosea c) Elisha d) Elijah
7. This is my beloved son, listen to him this statement as made on
A) Baptism of Jesus b) Transfiguration
c) Triumphant entry into Jerusalem d)Ascension of Jesus
17
8. Jonah cried to God from the bowel of shem Sheol here implies to


a) region of darkness and death b) Tempestuous sea c) deep sea d) belly offish
9. The second account of creation was centers on the creation
a) birds b) heavens c) Deep d) plants
10. All the tribes of Israel was gathered by Joshua for his address of farewell at
a) Sinai b) bethel c) Jordan d) shechem
11. Moses experienced the burning bush at
a) Horeb b) Bethel c) Nebo d) Midian
12. Hosea called on Israel to return to the lord by
a) Allying with Assyria b) Steadfastly loving God
c) Ensuring regular sacrifices d) following the ways of their things
13. My father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from me. The cup here means
a) Baptism b) Temptation c) Death d) Loneliness
14. The reaction of the elder brother when the prodigal son returned illustrated the
behaviour of the
a) Herodians b) Pharisees c) Saducees d) Zealots
15. God created man to have dominion things.
Dominion here means
a) Mastership b) control
c) manage
GENERAL SCIENCE
26. A weight of 1000 grams hangs from a lever
20cm to the right of the fulcrum. At the left is a500-gram weight 20cm from the fulcrum,
and a200- grim weight x cm
away from the fulcrum. What is the value of x that will make the lever balanced?
27. What is the relative permittivity of a capacitor if its capacitance with a medium as
dielectric is16 farads and its
capacitance with vacuum as dielectric is 2 farads?
A. 1/8 B. 1/4 C.2 D.8 E. 32
28. If the magnification of a virtual image formed of an object 1 0cm from a convex lens is 3,
then the focal length of the
lens is.
A. 10cm B. 15cm C. 16cm D. 19cm E.20cm
29. If a water pump at Kanji Dam is capable of lifting 1000kg of water through a vertical
height of l0m in l0s. the power
of the pump is
A. 1.0kw B. 10.0kw C. 12.5kW D. 15.0kW E.20.0kW (g=l0m/s2)
30. A simple pendulum with a period of 2 .0s has its length doubled. Us new period is
A. 100s B.1.4ls C. 0.35s D.2.S3s E. 4.00s
31. In order to find the length of the sea, a ship sends out a sound wave and receives an
echo after one second. If the
velocity of sound in water is 1500m/s, what is the depth of the sea?
A. 0.75km B. 1.50km C. 2.20kmD. 3.00km E. 3.75km
32. A uniform cylindrical block of wood floats in water with one third of its height above the
water level. In a liquid of
relative density 0.8.what fraction of its height will be above the liquid level?
A.116 B, 1/5 C. 1/3 D.4/5 E.5/6


33. The resistance of a platinum wire at the ice and steam point are 0.75 ohm and 1.05 ohm
respectively. Determine
the temperature at which the resistance of the wire is 0.90 ohms.
18
A. 43,0C B. 50.0C C.69.9C D.87.0C
34. The electrochemical equivalent of platinum is5.0 x 10-7kg/C. to plate out 1.0kg of
platinum a current of 1 OOA must
be passed through an appropriate vessel for
A. 5.0 hours B. 56hours C. 14000 Hours D. 20000 hours
35. How many grams o1wterat ITC must to added to 42Kg of ice at QAC to melt the ice
completely?
A.200g B.500g C320g D.400g
36. The minimum point on the curve y = x2 -6x-i-5 is at
A. (1,5) B. (2,3) C. (-3,.4) D. (-3,4) E. (3,-4)
37. In sec2 x + tan2 x =3, the angle x is equal to
A.30 B.45 C.60 D.90 E. 105
38. Solve the given equation (log X)2-6logX +9=0
A.27 B.9 C.1/27 D.I8 E.81
39. Solve the following equations
4x3=3x+y=2y+5x-
A. x=5.y=2 B. x=2,y=5 C. x=5, y=-2 D. x=-2,y=-5 E. x=-5,y<<-2
40. If x 2 and x- I alt factors of the expressions1 x3 + 2kx2 + 24, find the values of 1 and k.
A. l=-6, k=-9 B.1 = -2,k = 1 C. l=-2,k=-l D. l=0,k = E. l=6,k=0
41. Find the equation of the curve which pass through the point (2,5) and whose gradient at
any point is given by the 6x
- 5
A.6x2-5x +5 B.6x2+5x +5 C.3x2-Sx -5 D. 3x2-5x +3
42. A flagstaff stands on the top of a vertical tower A man standing 60m away from the
tower observes that the angles
of elevation of the top and bottom of the flagstaff are M and 62 respectively. Find the
length of the flag staff.
A. 60(tan62 tan64) B. 60(cot64 - cot62A) C. 60(cot62-cot64) D. 60(tan64 -tan2)
43. Given that Q=(6 Wand Q+P=(7-2) (4 5)(68)Evaluate Q + 2P
A.90 B96 C.102 D.120
44. A function f(x) passes through the origin and its first derivative is 3x 2. What is f(x)?
A. y=312x2 B. y = 312x2 -1- x C. y = 3/2x2 2x D.3x2 xJ2
45. A ship sails a distance of 50km in the direction S 50 A E and then sails a distance of 50km
in the direction N 4(Y B.
Find the bearing of the ship from its original position.
A.8904E B.N40AE C.89YE D. N88AE
46. A certain volume of gas at 298K is heated such that its volume and pressure are now
four times the original values.
What is the new temperature?
A. 18.6K B. 100.0K C.298.0K D. 1192.0K E.4768.0K
47. The mass of silver deposited when a current of 10A is passed through a solution of silver
salt for 4830s is?


A. l08.0g B.54.0g C.27.0g D. 13.5g (Ag= 108, 1F = 96500C/mol)
48. 2CO(g) + O2(g)_ 2CO2(g)
Given that
49. How many moles of limestone will be required to produce 5.6 g of CaO
A.0.2Omol B. 0.l0mol C. 1.12moI D.0.56mo1
50. One mole of propane is mixed with 5mols of oxygen
GOVERNMENT
1. Government by the few is
a) Dictatorship b) Oligarchy c) Monarchy d) Autocracy
19
2. The primary function of the Judiciary is to
a) make laws b) protect the citizens c) interpret laws d) execute laws
3. A characteristic feature of communism is
a) free enterprise b) liberal democracy c) dictatorship d) multi-party system
4. A tax law is a
a) Private bill b) Speakers bill c) Public bill d) Judicial bill
5. Nigeria is a member of
a) OPEC, NATO and ECOWAS b) O.A.U, the U.N.O and ECOWAS
c) ECOWAS, NATO and O.A.U d) The Commonwealth of Nations, OPEC and the O.A.S
6. A country made up of semi-autonomous units is
a) a confederation b) a federation c) a region d) unitary
7. Unicameralisrn refers to a
a) a two-chamber legis1ature
b) the process of secpW5ting in the legislature
c) the lower chamber legislature
d) a one- chamber legislature
8. An important function of the legislature is
a) Judicial review b) review of executive policies and action
c) lobbying d) defending government policies
9. Fascism is a system of government which
a) encourages political dissent and opposition
b) represses individual freedom and opposition
c) promotes equality
d) promotes the individual brotherhood of man
10. The 1963 Constitution of Nigeria was
a) written and flexible b) written and rigid
c) flexible and unwritten d) unitary and rigid
11. The main source of Local government finance since the 197 6 Reform has been
a) local rate b) levies
c) revenue from court fines and licenses d) the Federal government
12. Sovereignty is limited by
a) the criminal code b) decrees c) the legal system d) international laws
13. Marxism is directed against
a) state ownership of the means of production b) materialism c) The proletariat d) Socialism
14. The rule of law implies that
a) judges interprets the law b} lawyers interpret the law


c) everyone is subject to the law d) the legislature makes the law
15. Freedom of speech in a democratic state is limited by
a) law of sedition b) law of trespass c) Press censorship d) Martial law
16. Liberalism is a philosophy underlying
a) Socialism b) Capitalism c) Feudalism. d) Nazism
17. In international relations, countries have right to
a) export Oil b) create more states
c) diplomatic immunity of their envoys d) own a police force
20
I 8. Political authority is normally vested in the
a) State b) Judiciary c) Government d) Armed force
19. Case-law are made by the
a) legislature b) Council of ministers c) Judiciary d) President
20. Bicameral legislatures are popular in
a) Unitary system b) Federal systems c) Con-federal system d) Rigid system
21. A flexible constitution is one that is
a) amended periodically b) easy to amend c) amendable with difficulty d) easy to interpret
22. Which of the following is NOT associated with local government elections?
a) Constituency b) Ballot box c) Electoral officer d) Ward
23. The fusion of the executive and legislative organs of government is associated with
a) Monarchy b) The presidential system c) Fascism D) The parliamentary system
24. The most important objective of political partiesis to
a) Elect their spokesman b) Lobby the government
c) Form effective national organizations have d) Control the government
25. The primary function of a pressure group is to
a) Win and control governmental power b) Elect their official
c) Influence government policy d) Organize workers to confront government
26. The Yomba traditional government system was
a) Egalitarian b) Republican c) Democratic d) Monarchical
27. The highest court in Nigeria before 1963 was the
a) Supreme Court b) High Court
c) Judicial Committee of the Privy Council d) Court of Appeal
28. Political authority refers to the
a) ability to effect political action
b) capacity to produce desired political results
c) capacity to reshape the political behaviour of citizen
d) recognized right to exercise political power.
29. The Civil service belong to the organ of government called the
a) Legislature b) Executive c) Judiciary d) Parastatals
30. Gerrymandering means
a) the second ballot system b) single transferable vote
c) the manipulation of constituency boundaries d) the tyranny of the majority
31. In Nigeria, the function of the Council of States - is
a) Judiciary b) Investigative c) Legislative d) Advisory
32. To highest policy making body of the O.A.U is the
a) Economic and Social Commission b) Council of Minister


c) General Secretariat d) Assembly of Heads of State and government
33. A society that is politically organized under a government is called a
a) Sovereign state b) Community c) National state d) Polity
34. One of the main functions of Political party is
a) Political evaluation b) Interest aggregation
c) Political accountability d) Interest determination
21
35. The Political party that replaced NNDP before Independence was
a)NYM b)NCNC c) UNDP d)AG
36. The first minority state to be created in the Nigeria federation was
a) Benue-Plateau b) Cross River c) Kwara d) Mid-West
37. The committee that recommended Abuja as the new Federal Capital was headed by
a) Graham Douglas b) Mamman Nasir c) Rotimi Williams d) Akinola Aguda
38. The major strategy used by OPEC to influence Oil price is by
a) determining the quantity of Oil to be Produced at any given period
B) influencing buyers at the International market to buy at high price
c) allowing member countries to produce at their discretion
d) increasing the supply of the commodities.
39. Power is understood to mean the
a) right to compel obedience b) capacity to compel obedience
c) relationship between the government and the people d) desire to seize the State
apparatus
40. The executive arm of government includes the
a) Police b) Court c) National Assembly d) Senate President
41. Laws made by the Attorney-General and Minister of Justice are called
a) temporary laws case laws b) bills of attainder d) expose facto laws
42. Nigeria adopted the nineteen-state structure in
a) 1960 b) 1966 c) 1969 d) 1976
43. The OAU is founded on the principle of
a) settlement of international disputes armed struggles
b) Justifiable interference in the domestic affairs of members state
c) sovereign equality of member states
d) equal contribution by member states
44. One of the achievements of ECO WAS is the
a) eradication of colonialism b) adoption of vehicle insurance scheme
c) settlement of Liberian refugees d) respect for human rights.
45. The most distinguished characteristics of the state is
a) Government b) Population c) Territory d) Sovereign
46. In a democracy, ultimate authority resides in the
a) Electorate b) People c) Head of State d) Armed forces
47. Ceremonial and executive powers are fused in the
a) Parliamentary system of government b) Presidential system of government
c) Federal system of government d) Unitary system of government
48. Nationalism in Nigeria was facilitated by
a) the actions of the veterans of the two World wars and traditional rulers
b) the activities of Christian churches and missionaries


c) education and urbanization
d) rapid economic growth
49. An example of Nigerias external Cultural relations is her
A) establishment of diplomatic relations with other nations
b) economic aid to neighbouring countries
c) exchange of students with friendly nations
22
d) trade interactions with developing countries
50. A hereditary an oligarchy aristocracy system of government is
a)an oligarch b) a gerontocracy c) an aristocracy d) a monarchy
51. The most important function of the executive organ of government is to
a) formulate policies b) give, assent to bills c) control foreign policy d) enforce law
52. The process of learning the norms and values with a Political system is referred to as
Political
a) Socialization b) introduction c) Culture d) Participation
53. One instrument for safeguarding the rights of citizen is
a) Judicial interpretation b) Presidential pardon
c) Legislative intervention d) Writ of habeas corpus
54. Naturalization is a process. of acquiring citizenship by
a) persons of dual nationality b) foreign visitors to a country
c) resident foreigners of good chambers d) persons born abroad
55. One of the major sources of a Constitution is
a) Opinion Poll b) Political debate c) Judicial precedence d) Executive order
56. The rule of law is a cardinal principle associated with
a) communist system b) democratic systems c) Federal system d) Federal system
57. Citizenship refers to the
a) indigenous member of a state b) legal status of a member of a state
c) highest position in a state d) Social status of a person in a state
58. Nigerias relations with African countries are underscored by its policy of
a) Non-alignment b) Political diplomacy c) Afro centralism d) peaceful co-existence
59 . The two leaders that played the most prominent roles in the formation of the ECO WAS
were
a) Acheampong and. Jawara b) Kounche and Senghor
c) Kerekou and Tubman d) Gowon and Eyadema
60. In the legislative process, a bill is a
a) motion accepted for debate b) motion rejected after debate
c) proposal before the legislature d) law passed by the legislature
61. The fundaments rights of citizen include rights to
a) free education, employment and freedom of thought
b) life, speech and association
c) life, liberty and property
d) association, property and social security
62. Public opinion is a view that is
a) held by the majority b) active in the public realm
c) widely publicized d) no longer a secret
63. The Western zone of the Sokoto caliphate was, administered from


a) Kebbi b) Ilorin c) Bida d) Gwandu
64. The equivalent of a commissioner at the local government level is the
a) executive chairman b) Secretary c) Councilor d)Supervisory councilor
65. Which of the following is the function of the Council of Ministers of the O.A.U.?
a) Co-coordinating the general policy of the organization
b) Directing the finances of the organization
c) Preparing the agenda of the organizations Meeting
e) Reviewing the functions and activities other organs of the organization
23
66. The structure of the Civil service is based on
a) Lateral organization b) Merit system c) Patronage system
67. One major factor that differentiates the presidential from the parliamentary system is
a) Separation of powers b) Judicial independence c) Passage of bills d) Party system
68. Centralization of power is the basic feature of
a) Federalism b) a confederation c) a presidential system d) a unitary government
69. The fees collected by local governments motor parks represent
a) levies b) fines c) income tax d) user charge
70. In Nigeria, the Council of State was first created by
a) General Murtala Mohammed b) General Olusegun Obasanjo
c) Major-general Aguyi lronsi d) General Yakubu Gowon
71. Which of the following is a founding member of the OPEC?
a) Nigeria b) Indonesia c) Venezuela d) Algeria
72. Government of the wealthy is known as
a) Plutocracy b) Oligarchy c) aristocracy d) democracy
73. The best form of government for a heterogeneous society is a
a) quasi federal system b) Confederal system c) federal system d) unitary system
74. Election as a political process is significant because it
a) is associated with campaigns for public office b) Facilitates the recall process
c) Facilitates constitutional change of government d) enables citizens to vote
75. The military head of state during the Third Republic was
a) General Olusegun Obasanjo
b) General Ibrahim Babangida
c) General Murtala Mohammed
d) General Sani Abacha.
76. Nigerias relations with Britain were at a low ebb under the
a) Shagari Regime b) Buhari Regime c) Gowon Regime d) Babangida Regime
77. A major problem of the defunct Organization of African Unity was
a) Language barrier b) Cultural diversity c) Inadequate resources d)Ideological differences
78. The Native Authority system was most effective and successful in
a) Eastern Nigeria b) Northern Nigeria c) Mid Western Nigeria d) Western Nigeria
79. The major motivation for British colonization of Nigeria was to
a) westernize Nigerians b) spread religion
c) protect Nigeria from external attack d) satisfy British economic interests.
80. The body responsible for running the personnel affairs senior local government staff in
Nigeria is the
a) Local Government Service Commission b) Local Government Council


c) State Civil Service Commission d) Senior Staff Committee
81. The difference between commercialized and privatized companies is that in the former,
a) public ownership is dominant b) government subsidizes costs
c) profit motive is recessive d) private ownership is dominant.
82. A Security Council resolution requires the concurrence of
a) 1 of the 5 permanent members b) All of the 5 permanents
c) 9 of the 15 permanent members d) 3 of the 5 permanent members.
83. The political party formed in 1923 by Herbert Macaulay was
a) Nigerian Youth Movement b) National Council of Nigeria and the Cameroon
24
c) United National Independent Party d) Nigerian National Democratic Party
84. The pre-colonial Tiv society can best be described as
a) Republican b) aristocratic
85. Serfs are the dominated class under
a) capitalism b) socialism c) fascism d) feudalism
86. In the present day local government structure, traditional rulers play,
a) an advisory role b) an executive role c) a judicial role d) a legislative role
87. Judges of the World Court are appointed to serve for
a) five years b) ten years c) four years d) nine years
88. In Nigeria, military regimes returned power to civilians through
a) transition programmes b) constitutional conferences c) impositions d) negotiations
89. Fascism originated from
a) China b) Greece c) Germany d) Italy
90. The type of government in which an individual wealds absolute power is called
a) autocracy b) theocracy c) oligarchy d) plutocracy
91. One of the greatest advocates of socialism was
a) Baron de Montesquieu b) A. V Dicey c) Karl Max d) Adam Smiths
UNIVERSITY OF NIGERIA NSUKKA
USE OF ENGLISH
COMPREHENSION
Read the passage carefully and answer the question 1-5 below
One day, Alan, a friend of mine who likes a country life was fishing ion a river, when he
caught trout. He tried to pull the fish
in but it slipped off the hook, flew over his hand and landed in a field behind him. Alan put
down his rod, went through the
gate a KKKKKKK.. Go but they do said Ajan: they jump out of the river to look for flies and I
catch them with my
hands. At that time he found his trout in the grass, and picked it up and showed it to the
picnickers. He out it in his basket
and bent down, as if he hunting for another one. The picnickers no longer laughing spent
the rest of the day searching the
field.
1. Why did the fish lard in the field?
A. It had wings B. It was a flying fish C. It was looking for food
D. Alan pulled too food E. It fell off the hook.
2. The picnickers were an making a serious point


A. farmers B. From the nearby village C. Tourists
D. People from the city E. Anglers like him
3. Where was I looking for --- air-raid the grass
Not clear
4. Alan made the picnicker of the river to look for files by fixed through repetition
A. Watching how trout catch flies B. Picking up a fish and looking for more
5. He laughs best who laughs last (proverb). It is true for this story because
A. The picnickers were enjoying themselves B. Finally he found his fish
C. Alan played a good trick on the picnickers D. Fishing is a pastime
25
E. Alan likes country life
In the question below choose the word appropriate option opposite in meaning to the
word italics
6. The new administrator has emphasized the need for prudent spending during his term of
office
A. Wasteful B. Stupid C. Has D. judicious
In question 7 choose the option nearest in meaning to the word or phrase italics.
7. Our class prefect is officious and we hate him because of his behaviour
A. Efficient B. Efficacious C. Over-zealous D. Active
In each of the questions below fill the gap with the most appropriate option from the list
provided.
8. After dressing, the nurse warned the patient to take a good care of the wound to keep it
from dirt.
A. scrupulous B. Fastidious C. Meticulous D. Stringent
9. I called you this afternoon before you set out for the airport
A. Did I B. Isnt it C. Dont I D. Didnt I
10. Members of the church decided to travel bus
A. With B. By C. In D. On
11. In order to stabilize the price of crude oil in world market, OPEC members were called
upon to cut production
A. Down B. back C. out D. off
12. Remember this matter is
A. Between you and I B. between you and me
C. Among you and me D. between me and you
13. One of relations whoK. In Abuja K. Recently been posted to Lagos
A. live/has B. Lives/had C. Lives/has D. Live/have
In questions 14 and 15, choose the option that has a different stress pattern from the
other
14. A. Formality B. hemisphere C. Gravitate D. Illustrate
15. A. Mutineer B. Oversight C. Tantamount D. Paradox
BIOLOGY
1. The mitochondrion consists of
A. Chemical that break up complex compounds in the cells into simpler compounds
B. Rich store of ribonucleic acid
C, Digestive enzymes and hormones
D. Protein phosphorus and


2. In Amoeba, the ectoplasm is bounded by a thin membrane known as the
A; Plasmasol B. Plasmagel C. Plasalemma D. Protoplasm
3. Centipedes are
26
A. Equally dangerous as millipedes B. Less dangerous than millipedes
C. More dangerous than all D. Not dangerous at all
4. Odontophore is a skeletal structure found in the phylum
A. Pisces B. Echinodermata C. Mollusca D. Amphibia
5. Wattle is the name of a structure found in
A. Lizard B. Chameleon C. Cock D. Dogfish
6. One of these is not a feature of the caudal vertebrae in a mammal
A. They possess neural canal
B. Their transverse processes are poorly developed
C. Their neural spines are gradually lost
D. There are not many articular surfaces.
7. The inner ear has two types of coiled structures called cochlea which
A. Receive sound impulses
B. Has sensory tells which carry impulses to the spinal cord
C. Connects to the Eustachian tube
D. Possess cells sensitive to balance
8. Viruses are the smallest known organisms and are divided into two parts the outer part
and an inner part. The outer
parts protein and the inner part is
A. Nucleus B. Vacuole C. Particle D. DNA and RNA
9. The thallus of a lichen consists of
A. A virus and a fungus B. Alga cells and fungal hyphae
C. Bacteria and fungal cells D. Soredium and basisospor
10. The palisade parenchyma is found in the
A. Stem B. Leaf C. Flower D. Root
11. The tomato fruits is a very good example of
A. An aggregate fruit B. A drupe C. A berry D.A multiple fruit
12. Cremation occurs in the Red Blood cell when
A. It is placed in isotonic B. It is placed in hypertonic solution
C, Osmosis is allowed to occur D. Transpiration occurs
13. The capillaries act as filters between
A. The veins B. The arteries C. The venules D The arteries and the veins
14. The primary openings for gaseous exchange in a plant stem at night are
A. Opening in the cuticles B. Stomata C. Lenticels D. Branches
15. The outer membrane covering the brain known as
A. Brain ventricle B. Mchnoid C. Pia meter D. Dura meter
CHEMISTRY
Indicate the correct option in each of the following question
1. A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in
A. Steam B. Dilute hydrochloric acid C. Dilute sodium hydroxide D. Benzene
2. If 67.5g of oxide of lead was reduced to 61.2g of metal, calculate the formular of the
oxide.


A. PbO B. Pb03 C. Pb,04 D. Pb203(Pb = 207,0= 16)
27
3. Calculate the minimum volume of oxygen that is required for complete combustion of
mixture of 20cm3 of CO and
10cm3 of hydrogen.
A.8cm3 B. 10cm3 C.l5cm3D. 20cm3
4. HNO3 + H,0 ? H30* + No3 In the reaction above, NO3isthe
A. Conjugate acid B Acid C. Conjugate base D. Base
5. The pH range of a neutralization product of CH3COOH and KOH is
A. 1-3 B.7-8 C.7 D. 12-14
6. How much NaOH is required to make 250cm3 of 0.mol/drn3 solution?
A. l0g B. l.0g C.0.lg D. 4g
7. 2PbO2A 2PbO + O2
In the equation above, the oxidizing agent is
A. Pb B. Pb2 C.O2 D. O2
8. A current of O.5A flows for 1930 seconds and deposits 0.325g of metal M. if the charge is
+2, the relative molecular
mass is
A. 65 B. 32.5 C.24 D. 40
9. Emission of chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) into the atmosphere causes
A. Global warming B. Acid rain C. Depletion of ozone later D. Greenhouse effect
10. It can be concluded that the reaction in the above graph is
A. Spontaneous B. In equilibrium C. Non-spontaneous D .Exothermic
11 . Which of the following samples will react fastest with dilute HCI?
A. I0g of lumps of CaCO3at25C
B. l0g of powdered CaCO3at25C
C. I0g of lumps of CaCO3at25C
D. 10 of powered CaCO3at25C
12. The colour exhibited by copper in a flame test is
A. Green B. Lilac C. Blue-green D. Crimson
13. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Chlorine bleaches by oxidant while sulphur (IV) oxide bleaches by reduction
B. Chlorine bleaches by reduction while sulphur (IV) oxide bleaches by oxidation
C. Both of them bleach by oxidation
D. Both of them bleach by reduction.
14. The IUPAC name for
A. 1 -chlorobenzoic acid B. 3-chloeobenzoica
C. m-chlorobenzoic acid D. p-chlorobenzoic acid
15. 2-methylbut-2-one is an isonnet of
A. Pent- 1-one B. 2-methylpent-2-one C. Hex-3-one D. 2-methylprop-l-one
1. Which of the following is a set of vectors?
A. Force mass and moment B. Acceleration, velocity and moment
C. Mass, weight and density D. Mass, volume and density
2. A catapult used to hold a stone of mass 500g is extended by 20cm with an applied force F.
If the stone leaves with


an applied force of 40ms ,the value of F is
28
A. 4.0xl02Nrn2 B. 2.0xl02N C. 4.0xl03N D. 4.0xl04N
3. A parachute attains a terminal velocity when
A. Its density is equal to the density of air.
B. The viscous force of the air and the upthrust completely counteract its weight.
C. It expands as a result of reduced external pressure.
D. The viscous force of the air is equal to the sum of the weight and upthrust.
4. An electrical heater is used to melt a block of ice, mass l.5g. If the heater is powered by a
12V battery and a current
of 20A flows through the coil, calculate the time taken to melt the block of ice at 0C.
(Specific latent heat of fusion,
of ice = 336x10l kg)
A.76.0min B. 55.0min C.21.0min D. 2.9
5. 200g of water at 90C is mixed with 100g of water at 30C. what is the final temperature?
A. 50C B. 60C C.7CTC D. 80C
6. The equation PVT = constant is Charles law when
A. X=l, y=l, z=l B.X=0,y=l, z=l C. X=l, y=O, z=l D. X=0,y=l, z=0
7. For a short sighted person, light rays from a point on a very distant object is focused
A. In front of the retina B. Behind the retina
C. Behind the retina by a diverging lens D. In front of the retina, a distance 2F from the lens.
8. Dispersion of light by a glass prism is due tie the
A. Different hidden colours of the glass B. Different speeds of various colours in glass
C. Defects in the glass D. High density in glass
9. To produce an enlargement and erect image with a concave mirror, the object must be
positioned.
A. Between the principal focus and the center curvature B. At the principal focus
C. Between the principal focus and the pole D. Beyond the center of curvature
10. To convert an ac dynamo into a dc dynamo, the
A. Number of turns of the coil is increased
B. Slip rings are replaced with a split ring commutator
C. The number if turns of the coil is reduced
D. Split ring commutator is replaced with slip rings.
11. In an a.c circuit, that contains only a capacitor, the voltage
A. Lags behind the current by 90
B. Loads the current by 90
C.
12 A. Increase its capacitance
B. Decrease its capacitance
C. Insulate the plates from other
D. Increase the magnetic field between plates
13. A substance has a half life of 5mins. After 6mins, the count rate was observed to be 400.
What was its count rate at
zero time?
A.200 B.1200 C.1600 D.2400
14. If light with photo the surface of a metal with work function 30, then


A. No electron will be emitted
B. The few electrons emitted will have maximum kinetic energy of 1ev
C. The few electrons emitted will have a maximum kinetic energy of 3eV
D. Many electrons will be emitted with maximum kinetic energy of 5eV.
29
15. In a nuclear fusion experiment, the loss of mass amounts to 1.0 x 1011kg. The amount
of energy obtained from
the fusion (speed of light 3.0x l02m5) is
(a) 3.0 x 104j (b) 9.Ox l04J (c) 3.0 x 10J (d) 9.0 x 10J
University of Nigeria Nsukka-UNN 2007 / 2008
USE OF ENGLISH
COMPREHENSION
(Read the passage below carefully and answer the question that follows)
The great herald of things to come was Ezekiel, not only in the sense that he predicted the
future, but also because in the
manner and content of his prophetic ministry. He foreshadowed many of the religious
developments which were
characteristic of the age after the exile, but: as we shall see, he represented some of the
great elements in Israels religious
past.
The book which bars his name is outwardly impressive in its orderliness and symmetry and
in careful chronological
arrangement of its contents. It purpose to present the record of prophecies uttered in the
Babylonian exile between 593 and
571 books had been dissected and assigned to sundry authors and editors, this book
continued to be regarded by most
scholars as having corne in its entirely from Ezekiel. Then came a period in which many
extreme theories were advanced,
assigning much of its contents to other hands, or presupposing complicated processes of
editorial revision or dating the
book to a period much later than the Babylonian exile, maintaining that Ezekiels ministry
was not exercised in Babylonia but
in Palestine, or at least was begun there such theories have been subject to damaging
criticism and are now somewhat die
credited. The account of Ezekiels ministry and teaching is based on the view that he lived
and worked among the exiles in
Babylonia, at the period indicated, and that the bulk of the material in the book comes from
though, like other prophetic
collections, is owed much in its complication and arrangement to prophetic disciples.
1. Ezekiel was a great herald of things to come because
A. He was a prophet
B. He preached about events which were to characterize the period after the exile
C. God shoed him what was going to happen after the exile
D. He ran prophetic ministry
E. God was with him
2. In his work Ezekiel


A. Was friendly with Ezra
B. Founded Judaism in conjunction with Ezra
C. Had a large religious following
D. Forget a link between the past and the future
E. Demonstrated that he was a man of God.
3. By and large, critics of Ezekiel and his work were
A. Successful B. Ungodly C. Unsuccessful D. Jealous E. Angered by his acceptance
4. When other prophetic books were discarded Ezekiels book was accepted because
30
A. The people loved him
B. The other prophetic writers were not as original
C. The critics were biased in the judgment
D. he was a great prophet
E. His work was concurringly documented
5. The account of Ezekiels ministry was
A. Complied with the collaboration of others
B. His and his alone
C. Shared by many written
D. Partly complied by him and partly by Ezra
E. Produced as a result of gods inspiration
Select the option that best explains the information conveyed in these sentence
6. Our hope is that poverty in the country should eradicated across the board
A. Poverty should cut across board members
B. Poverty should not cut across board members
C. Everyone in the country should be free from poverty
D. All board members should be free poverty
In the next two questions, choose he most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the
word italics.
7. Our earlier decision send aid to the war victims has been nullified.
A. Ratified B. Amended C. Canceled D. Upheld
8. His success at the polls was a result of his tenacity in upholding the ideas of his party
A. Stubbornness B. Stupidity C. Vacillation D. Carelessness
9. Copies of the handout would be sold only to those students that hitherto had not got
copies
A. Recently B. Previously C. For long D. Until now
10. The armed robber entered the mans under guise of a religious minister
A. Conviction B. Cover C. Shape D. pretext
In each of the following questions fill the gap with the most appropriate option from the
list provided)
11. Our party shall sanction any candidate any candidate who resorts to K.. means to gain
office
A. Grievous B. Obvious C. Devious D. Odious
12. He could not attend the night party Khis prolonged illness
A. owing to B. Resulting from C. Due to D. Following from
13. After the unions negotiation with the federal government, one should expect the
workers KKKKK pay to


improve drastically
A. Takeaway B. Take home C. Take-home D. Take-away
31
In the next question (14), choose the option that has a different consonant sound from
the others
14. A. Machine B. Machinations C. Machete D. Chalet
In the last question (15), the expression in capital letters has the emphatic stress. Choose
the option to which the
sentence relates
15 The embargo on fruit drinks HAS ALREADY been lifted.
A. has the embargo on foreign textile already been lifted?
B. How soon will the embargo on fruit drinks be tightened up?
C. has the embargo on fruit drinks already been lifted?
D. Will the embargo on fruit drinks ever be lifted?
BIOLOGY
Please select as your answer the correction option
1. Animal cells
A. Do not have a definite shape B. Have definite shapes
C. Have cellulose cell walls D. Are very large in size when compared with plant cells
2. The attachment regions of chromosome is called
A. Chromatid B. Centromere C. Spindle fibre D. Chromonemata
3. In some tapeworm, the fertilized eggs develop into an embryo within a membrane called
A. Onehosphere B. Zygospere C. Zygote D. Plerocerciod
4. In a caterpillar, the last pair of eggs occurs on the last segment and they are called
A. Larvae B. Clutches C. Laspers D. Ovopositor
5. Nuchal crest is a characteristic feature of
A. Toad B. Tilapia C. Agama D. Salamander
6. The subcutaneous layer of the mammalian skin contains
A. The outer layer, middle layer and the malphighian layer
B. Sweat duct, sweat glands, erector and hair muscles
C. Sebaceous glands, nerve endings, hair follicles and blood vessels.
D. Nerve fibres, blood vessels, hair follicles and adipose layer
7. The phenomenon whereby oxygenated blood leaves the heart through the left side and
returns to the heart in
deoxygenated form through the right is called
A. Circulatory system B. Plan of circulation C. Single circulation D. Double circulation
8. The urine enters into the bladder through the
A. Urethra B. Pelvis C. Bowmans capsule D. Ureter
9. Spirogyra cells are enclosed within cell walls that are lined by slimy substance called
A. Mucus B. Cytoplasmic strand C. Mucilage D. Chloroplast
10. One of these is not a storage root
A. Carrot B. Onion C. Potato D. Cassava
11. A common example of a caryopsis is
A. groundnut B. Sunflower C. Maize D. Tridax
12. The term scion refers to
A. the plant that is firmly attached to the soil


32
B. The mupper plant that should be united with the plant attached to the ground
C. The wounds created when a plant is grafted
D. The stem into which a bud is sintered
13. Water and mineral salts are absorbed from the soil when
A. Osmosis occurs B. Evapotranspiration occurs C. Photosynthesis occurs D. Wilting occurs
14. In plants, the water and mineral salts transported from the root hairs are used for
A. Osmosis B. Transpiration C. Photosynthesis D. Homostasia
15. Phototax is a tactic movement which
A. Takes place in response to stimulation of heat
B. Takes place in response to light
C. Takes place because of chemical exchange
D. A movement carried out by the cell cytoplasm
CHEMISTRY
1. A mixture of common salt, ammonium chloride and barium sulphate is best separated by
A. Sublimation following by addition of water and evaporation.
B. Sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration
C. Addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation
D. Addition of water followed by crystallization and sublimation
2. A brand of ink containing Cobalt (II) ions can best be separated into its various
components by
A. fractional crystallization B. Fractional distillation C. Chromatography D. Sublimation
3. 24g of Na2CO3 reacted with excess H2SO4 and 0.2mole CO2 was produced. Calculate the
% purity of Na2CO2
A. 70% B. 84.8% C. 88.3% D. 92.5%
4. Which of the following equations represents Charles Law?
A. T1 = V1 T2 / TV2 B. T1/T1 = V2 C. V1T1 = V1T2 D. P1V1 = P2 V2
5. The azimuth at number 1-2 represents
A. S-orbital B. P-orbital C. D-orbital D. F-orbital
6. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water will not give the corresponding pH
value?
A. KHSO4, pH<5 B. NaCO3, pH>8 C. NaCl, pH = 8 D. NaHCO, pH, 6
7. Pb2+ H2S _ PBS + 21P
In the above reaction H2S is a acting as
A. An acid B. A reducing agent C. A precipitating agent D. An oxidizing agent
8. A cell is represented by the notation Cu/Cu27/Ag+/Ag. If the E of Cu and Ag are
respectively +0.34V and +0.46V,
calculate the cell potential
A. +1.10V B. 1.10V C. +0.12V D. -1.12V
9. The addition of enough Na2CO4 to hard water leads to
A. The removal of temporary hardness only
B. The removal of permanent hardness only
C. The removal of both temporary and permanent harness
D. An increase in the hardness of water.
10. The relationship between AG, AH and TAS is


33
A. AH=AG + TAS B. AG=AH=TAS C. AH=AGTAS D. AG-AHTAS
11. MnO is known to hasten the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. Its main action is to
A. Increase the surface area of the reactants
B. Increase the concentration of the reactants
C. Lower the heat of reaction, AH, for the reaction
D. Lower the activation energy for the reaction.
12. A solution X, on mixing with AgNO, solution gives a white ppt. soluble in NH2A solution Y
when added to X also
gives a white ppt which is soluble on boiling. Solution Y contains
A. Ag ion B. Pb2+ ion C. Pb ion D. Zn ion
13. Stainless steel is an alloy made of
A. Chromium, nickel and copper B. Chromium, lead and lead
C. Nickel, iron and lead D. Chromium, nickel and iron
14. Magnesium ribbon was allowed to burn inside a given gas P, leaving a white solid
residue Q. addition of water to Q
librated a gas which produce dense white fumes with a drop of hydrochloric acid. The gas P
was
A. Nitrogen B. Calorine C. Oxygen D. Sulphur (IV) oxide
15. The synthetic rubber obtained by the presence of sodium is called
A. Teflon B. Isoprene C. Polyethene D. Neoprene
PHYSICS
1. A lorry travels 10km northwards, 4km eastwards, 6km southwards and 4km westwards to
arrive at a point T. what
is the total displacement?
A. 6km south B. 4km north C. 6km north D. 4km east
2. A piece of wood of mass 40g and uniform cross-sectional area of 2cm2 floats upright in
water. The length of the
wood immersed is
A. 80cm B. 40cm C. 20cm D. 2cm
3. The mass of a specific gravity bottle is 15.2g when it is empty. It is 24.5g when filled with
kerosene and 27.2g when
filled with distilled water, calculate the relative density of kerosene
A. 1.25 B. 1.10 C. 0.90 D. 0.80
4. One of the most important application of bimetallistic is found in the conduction
A. A thermostat B. An altimeter C. A thermocouple D. A hygrometer
5. The resistances of platinum was at the ice and stream points are 0.75Q and 1.05 O
respectively. Compute the
temperature at which the resistance of the wire is 0.900.
A. 13.00C B. 50.00C C. 69.00C D. 87.0C
6. Which of the following conditions will make water boil at a temperature of 1000C when
the atmospheric pressure is
750mm Hg?
A. Increase the external pressure B. Reduce the external pressure
C. heat more rapidly at the same pressure D. Reduce the external pressure by a quarter


7. Which of the following media alloy
transmission of sound waves through them?
I. Air II. Liquid III. Solids
34
A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II and III
8. An object is placed in front of a concave miner of focal length 15.cm. what is the position
and nature of the image?
A. 30cm and virtual B. 6cm and real C. 6cm and virtual D. 30cm and real
9. In a sound wave in air, the adjacent rarefactions and compressions are separated by a
distance of 17cm. if the
velocity of sound wave in air is 340ms, determine the frequency
A. 10Hz B. 20Hz C. 1000Hz D. 5780Hz
10. Two capacitors of 6uF and 8uF are connected in series. What additional capacitance
must be connected in series
with his combination to give a total of 3uF.
A. 3uF B. 1uF C. 2uF D. 36uF
11. If the separation between two point charge is increased by a factor of four, the
magnitude of the electrostatic force
between them will be
A. of its original value B. of its original value
C. 1/16 of its original value D. 4 time its original value
12. A transformer has 300 turns of wire in the primary coil and 30 turns in the secondary coil
if the input voltage is
100V, the output voltage is
A. 5V B. 10V C. 100V D. 200V
13. In a certain fusion reaction, deuteron (2
1H) interacts with a trition (3
1H) and produces an (3-) particles, (4
2He) and a
second product. The second product is
A. A Proton B. An Electron C. A neutron D. A gamma ray
14. In an a circuit theory, the root-mean-square (r.m.s) current Irms and the peel
(maximum) current I0 are related by
A. I0 = UsV1/2 B. Im = IrmsV1/2 C. Irms = 1/I0V2 D. Io = 1/rmsX2
15. One of the features of the fission process is that
A. Its products are not radioactive B. It leads to chain reaction
C. neutrons are not released
D. The sum of the masses of the reactants equal the sum of the masses of the products
UNIVERSITY OF NIGERIA NSUKKA
POST UME SCREENING TEST
ECONOMICS
1. A mathematical table that gives a relationship among many economic variable is called
A. Pie chart B. Graph C. Frequency table D. pictograph
2. Wants in economics refers to
A. Goods meant for consumption B. Service rendered
C. Goods and serviced desired for consumption D. Products made


3. The main importance of drawing a scale of preference is
A. to enable one make a rational choice B. to enable one to take a good decision
C. to enable one limit his or her need D. None of the above
4. Creation of utility yielding goods and services means
A. production B. Consumption C. Manufacturing D. Extraction
5. if the variance for a set of scores is 7, the standard deviation is
A.6.2 B. 1.6 C. 2.6 D. 3.6
6. Total changing of raw materials to finished goods ready for consumption is
35
A. Manufacturing B. Transformation C. Extraction D. Distribution
7. The quest to hold balances of cash is called
A. Precautionary motive B. Liquidity preference
C. Speculative motive D. Transactionary motive
8. The decentralization of resources allocation to meet the needs of a society is called
A. Socialism B. Mixed economy C. Capitalism D. Dualism
9. When elasticity of Demand is above 1, the demand is
A. Elastic B. Inelastic C. Perfectly elastic D. Zero elastic
10. The bank that provides credit by lending of money to the public is
A. World bank B. Central bank C. Mortgage bank D. Commercial bank
11. John has N70 to buy goods X and Y: and each cost N70. He buys X and forgoes Y, the
economic concept that
adopts this is
A. Scarcity B. Opportunity cost C. Scale of preference D. Choice
12. The exchange of commodities between Ghana and Nigeria is called
A. Multinational grade B. International trade C. External trade D. Bilateral trade
13. The role of ECOWAS is to attain
A. Multilateral trade B. Bilateral trade C. Economics elf reliance D. Regional free trade
14 The bankers bank is KKKK
A. Central bank B. Mortgage bank C. Commercial bank D. World bank
15. Prices of commodities are regulated by
A. Demand B. Supply C. Demand and Supply D. Advisement
GOVERNMENT
1. The adjudication of rule is the major responsible of the
A. Legislative B. Judiciary C. Executive D. National assembly
2. Which of these countries possesses an unwritten constitution?
A. France B. Great Britain C. United State of America D. Federal Republic of Germany
3. The power of emergency placed on the Federal Government in the independence
constitution was first practical in
the
A. Eastern region B. Western region C. Mid-western region D. Northern region
4. The anonymity principle of Civil service workers means that they are
A. Entitled to gratuity and pension B. Career officer
C. No credited for anything they do D. Trained for duties they perform
5. The meeting of commonwealth heads if state was hosted by Nigeria in
A. 1967 B. 1966 C. 1957 D.1968
6. Capitalism supports


A. Ownership of the means of production by private individual
B. Anarchy
C. A centrally planning economic system
D. Public ownership of means of production
7. A unitary system of government is characterized by
A. weak parliament B. diffused political power
C. high level of concentration of power D. No legislature
36
8. A government that has a fusion of executive and ceremonial power is
A. Parliamentary B. Presidential C. Unitary D. Oligarchy
9. The respect of individual rights and industrial revolution necessitated the development of
A. Fascism B. Capitalism C. Socialism D. Feudalism
10. Parliament can only be dissolved by
A. Referendum B. Bye election C. Plebiscite D. General election
11. The day set aside for United nation Celebration is
A. September 17 B. August 10 C. May 5 D. October 24.
12. A common provision in the 1963 and 1979 constitution was the
A. provision for bicameral legislation at the apex B. Political parties registration
C. indirect funding of local government by the federal D. none of the above
13. The 1976 local government reform in Nigeria resulted in
A. Five-ties system of local government B. one-ties local government system
C. three-ties local government system D. six-tier local government system
14. Public or corporation are financed by
A. individual funds B. tax payer C. federal fund D. political parties
15. The duration of the appointment of the secretary-general united nation organization is
A. 3 year B. 4 years C. 5 years D. 7 years
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE (C.R.K)
1. Gods creative strength was shown by his
A. approving that a thing be done B. making a command prefaced by there be
C. ordering the holy spirit to act D. allowing created things to evolve naturally
2. Which of these did not form part of Asas religious reform in Judah?
A. termination of male cult prostitution in the land
B. Demolition of all the idols his father made
C. Cutting down of the image made by maacah for Asherah
D. Destruction of high places
3. Paul was grateful to God whenever be remembered Philemon in his prayer because of
Philemons
A. Determination not to forgive Philemon B. Love for and faith in Jesus
C. lack of appreciation of the value of onesimus to him D. pretended goodness
4. Which of the following officials were charged by pharaoh to kill the Hebrew male children
A. Egyptian physician B. Egyptian taskmasters C. Hebrew midwives D. Egyptian soldiers
5. Jesus decided to send the multitude to buy food for themselves when it was already
getting late because
A. he wanted to reveal his messiahship
B. he knew that his words were of greater value than food
C. The multitude was unwilling to go home


D. he know that the little food available would satisfy them.
6. Naaman the Syrian leper was healed by
A. Amos B. Hosea C. Elisha D. Elija
7. This is my beloved son, listen to him this statement as made on
A. Baptism of Jesus B. Transfiguration
37
C. triumphant entry into Jerusalem D. Ascension of Jesus
8. Jonah cried to God from the bowel of Sheol here implies to
A. region of darkness B. tempestuous sea C. deep sea D. belly of fish
9. The second account of creation was centered on the creation
A. Birds B. heavens C. man D. plants
10. All the tribes of Israel was gathered by Joshua for his address of farewell at
A. Sinai B. Bethel C. Jordan D. Shechem
11. Moses experienced the burning bush at
A. Horeb B. Bethel C. Nebo D. Midian
12. Hosea called on Israel to return to the lord by
A. Allying with Assyria B. Steadfastly loving God
C. Ensuring regular sacrifices D. Following the ways of their things
13. My father if it is possible, let this cup pass from me. The cup here means
A. Baptism B. Temptation C. Death D. Loneliness
14. The reaction of the elder brother when the prodigal son returned illustrated the
behaviour of the
A. Herodians B. Pharisees C. Saducees D. Zealots
15. God created man to have dominion over all things. Dominion here means
A. Mastership B. Control C. Manage D. Leadership
ENGLISH
4. K of which Mr. Obasanjo was a part .. likely refers to
A. power mongers B. military rules
C. northern muslins D. Christian from Nigerias south west
5. From all indications, the July 24th K lavish dinner on the achievements of the conference
is a reference to the
A. Pronaco conference B. Regional conference
C. national conference D. international conference
6. K a mission from God and its spirit of harmony love and brotherhood are examples of
A. A phrase B. A noun clause C. An adjectival D. a simple sentence
7. Needless to any, Delta representatives boycotted the event is like
A. confirming and earlier missive B. highlighting a wrong case
C. emphasizing an existing exercise D. stating the obvious
8. From the account of the passage, it is likely that
A. the nation is tackling enemies B. tension may escalate in the Delta
C. calm would soon return to the Delta D. Onoyono would soon smile in the Delta
9. Delta representatives boycotted the event is a typical example of
A. simple sentence B. a complex sentence C. a phrase D. a multiple sentence
10. That the president went ahead to hold the lavish party is and indication that
A. everything was alright
B. he was unmindful of the feeling of the Delta people


C. that the was mindful of the peculiar experiences of the Delta region
D. that the president ordinary likes lavish parties
11. One of the qualities of good writing is
A. Wordiness B. Verbosity C. ambiguity D. Simplicity
38
12. A paragraph could be said to be
A. prosaic writing B. a unit of though around one main idea
C. broadly related sentence D. Illustrative
13. Which of the following is not a major quality of efficient organization in essay writing
A. Unity B. Coherence C. development D. Clumsiness
14. Smooth progression of though from sentence to sentence from paragraph to paragraph
and from one idea to the
other in writing is known as
A. coherence B. Organization C. arrangement D. Consistency
15. Logic is the major concern of
A. exposition B. narration C. argumentation D. description
16. All the members of the church K. The pastor remained seated
A. Accept B. Aspect C. Except D. Excerpt
17. The KKKK.. wrote a master-piece
A. Playwright B. Playwrite C. Playwrite D. play writer
18. The KK announce his promotion yesterday
A. personal B. personnel C. personel D. persona
19. It does not rain, it KKKKK
A. pores B. poors C. pours D. poure
20. A good dictionary gives you the following information apart from the
A. word class B. spelling of words
C. word etymology D. how to speak
BIOLOGY
21. Encystment in Amoeba is a device to
A. Reproduce B. conserve energy
C. protect itself from enemies D. tide over unfavourable seasons
22. Which of the following is a typical feature of a mould?
A. It ingests its food B. digestion is external C. it is symbiotic
23. Which of the following is not true of bacteria they are all
A. harmful B. Amoeboid C. saprophytic D. parasitic
24. which of these is absent from a wind pollinated plant?
A. feathery stigma B. Inflorescence C. production of nectar D. abundant pollen
25. The whole of a flower are bone directly on the
A. peduncle B. pedicel C. receptacle D. Bracts
26. Which of the following sets of conditions is suitable for germination?
A. water. Light, warmth B. oxygen; mineral salts, light
C. oxygen, right, moisture D. oxygen, warmth, water
27. Which of the following explains epigeal germination?
A. Hypocotyls is formed B. Cotyledon come above soil surface
C. Cotyledons remain in the soil D. plumule pierce through the soil
28. Which of those may not be propagated vegetatively from part of the plant?


A. Onion B. Maize C. Cassava D. sugarcane
29. Dead plant and animal tissue do not accumulate on the earths surface because they
39
A. are eaten by predators B. are washed away
C. decompose to form other substances D. sink into deeper layers of the soil
30. Which of these pairs are not functionally matched?
A. adrenal body productions of adrenalin B. kidney production of urea
C. Mammary gland production of milk D. pancreas production of insulin
CHEMISTRY
31. The part labeled X is the
A. galvanometer B. Voltameter C. Ammeter D. Salt bridge
32. The reaction at the zinc anode above is
A. displacement B. hydration C. Oxidation D. Hydrolysis
33. A carbohydrate molecule is made up of
A. carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only B. carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only
C. carbon, oxygen, nitrogen and hydrogen only D. Hydrogen and carbon only
34. Which of the following is not an electrolyte?
A. silver trioxotrate (V) B. sugar C. potassium trioxonitriate D. acidulated water
35. if the relative molecular mass of a contain gas is 31.6 its vapour density is
A. 15.0 B. 15.8 C. 16.6 D. 19.2
36. Which of the metals occurs in an uncombined state in nature
A. Gold B. Iron C. Sodium D. Aluminum
37. In the reaction 2H2O(L) .2H2O(L) + O2(g) hardly any oxygen is produced after a few
minutes unless a little manganese
(IV) oxide therefore acts as
A. an oxidizing agent B. a reducing agent C. a catalyst D. a dehydrating agent
38. The fumes from the exhaust pipes of motor cars are injurious health because
A. the hydrogen sulphide produced is produced is poisonous
B. the carbon monoxide produced causes suffocation
C. the sulphur (IV) oxide produced has an irritating smell
39. The solid product obtained from the destructive distillation of wood is
A. Coke B. charcoal C. soot D. graphite
40. Which of the following is not an allotrope of carbon?
A. graphite B. lampblack C. wool D. Diamond
PHYSICS
41. A stone is thrown vertically upwards from ground level with an initial velocity of 30ms-1
calculate the total distance it
does before hitting the ground. Neglect air resistance and take g = 10ms
A. 235m B. 90m C. 45m D. 30m
42. Which of the following is TRUE about the weight of a body
A. it is the same as the mass of a body
B. its variation form place to place can be detected using a sensitive beam balance
C. it is the product of the mass and acceleration of the a moving body
D. it is a force
40


43. The pressure at the bottom, of a lake is 2.8m and the temperature is 70C. an air bubble
of volume 30cm3 at the
bottom rises to the surface where the temperature is 270C. find its volume at the surface.
A. 10cm3 B. 30cm3 C. 60cm3 D. 90cm3
44. If P is pressure, V volume T temperature n number of moles, M molecular weight, e
density of gas and R universal
gas constant, the ideal gas equation can be written in the form
A. eT/P = constant B. PV/T = M C. nRV = constant D. PV nRT
45. A ray is incident at an angle of 600 on one face of a parallel-side glass block of thickness
5cm and refracture index
1.5. Find the distance traversed by the ray in the glass block
A. 5.2cm B. 5.7cm C. 6.1cm D. 7.2cm
46. The refractive index of flint glass for yellow light is 1.654 while the refractive index of the
material for blue light is
1.665. the corresponding refractive index for real light is
A. 1.632 B. 1.643 C. 1.659 D. 1.676
47. The electric field due to a charged metal sphere
A. is highest at the center of the sphere
B. is higher at the surface of the sphere compound with the center of the sphere
C. has the same value at the centre and surface of the sphere
48. A solenoid
A. uses the principle of magnetic field due to a current carrying conductor
B. works on the principle of electromagnetic
C. is used to measure the earths magnetic field
D. is a form of natural magnet
49. When a lithium atom supplied energy so that one of the three electrons escapes from
the atom. The new state of
the atom is
A. an excited state B. an ionized state C. a metstable state D. a ground state
50. An element Y which is obtained from the beta decay of X84
25 subsequently decays by alpha emission into Q,m
n the
value of m and n are
A. m=211, n=82 B. m-210, n=81 C. m=211, n=83 D. m=212, n=8
UNIVERSITY OF NIGERIA, NSUKKA
USEOFENGLISH
IE 2D 3A 4B 5C
6A 7C 8B 9D 10B
I1B 12B 13C 14A 15A
BIOLOGY
1 2 3 4 5
6 7 8 9 10B
11C 12B 13D 14D 15D
MATHEMATICS
1C 2A 3C 4D 5C
6C 7B 8C 9A 10C
11D 12D 13A 14A 15D


16D 17B 18B 19B 20D
41
21A 22D 23B 24B 25B
PHYSICS
ID 2A 3C 4B 5C
21A 22A 23D 24D 25B
LAW, ARTS & EDUCATION
1B 2A 3A 4A 5C
6B 7B 8D 9D 10D
11B 12B 13D 14D 15C
16D 17D 18C 19A 20B
21B 22B 23B 24D 25D
26B 27D 28A 29B 30D
31B 32A 33D 34C 35C
36C 37A 38D 39C 40D
41B 42A 43B 44B 45C
46D 47A 48A 49C 50A
2006/2007
MANAGEMENT SCIENCES &
ECONOMICS
1B 2A 3A 4A 5C
6B 7B 8D 9D 10D
11B 12B 13D 14D 15C
16D 17D 18C 19A 20B
21D 22B 23D 24D 25B
26C 27D 28A 29A 30B
31D 32E 33E 34D 35D
36E 37D 38E 39B 40D
41D 42B 43D 44B 45C
46C 47B 48C 49B 50B

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