SUCCEED REVIEW CENTER

COMPREHENSIVE ASSESSMENT AND DIAGNOSTIC EXAM 2011

FOUNDATION OF NURSING
1. Which element in the circular chain of infection can be eliminated by preserving skin
integrity?
a. Host
b. Reservoir
c. Mode of transmission
d. Portal of entry
2. Which of the following will probably result in a break in sterile technique for respiratory
isolation?
a. Opening the patients window to the outside environment b. Turning on the patients room
ventilator
c. Opening the door of the patients room leading into the hospital corridor
d. Failing to wear gloves when administering a bed bath
3. Which of the following patients is at greater risk for contracting an infection?
a. A patient with leukopenia
b. A patient receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics
c. A postoperative patient who has undergone orthopedic surgery
d. A newly diagnosed diabetic patient
4. Effective hand washing requires the use of:
a. Soap or detergent to promote emulsification
b. Hot water to destroy bacteria
c. A disinfectant to increase surface tension
d. All of the above
5. After routine patient contact, hand washing should last at least:
a. 30 seconds
b. 1 minute
c. 2 minute
d. 3 minutes
6. Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?
a. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen
b. Urinary catheterization
c. Nasogastric tube indertion
d. Colostomy irrigation
7. Sterile technique is used whenever:
a. Strict isolation is required
b. Terminal disinfection is performed
c. Invasive procedures are performed
d. Protective isolation is necessary
8. Which of the following constitutes a break in sterile technique while preparing a sterile field
for a dressing change?
a. Using sterile forceps, rather than sterile gloves, to handle a sterile item
b. Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves
c. Placing a sterile object on the edge of the sterile field
d. Pouring out a small amount of solution (15 to 30 ml) before pouring the solution into a
sterile container
9. A natural body defense that plays an active role in preventing infection is:
a. Yawning
b. Body hair
c. Hiccupping
d. Rapid eye movements
10. All of the following statement are true about donning sterile gloves except:
a. The first glove should be picked up by grasping the inside of the cuff.
b. The second glove should be picked up by inserting the gloved fingers under the cuff outside
the glove.
c. The gloves should be adjusted by sliding the gloved fingers under the sterile cuff and
pulling the glove over the wrist
d. The inside of the glove is considered sterile
11. When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should be careful that the first thing she
touches is the:
a. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown
b. Waist tie in front of the gown
c. Cuffs of the
d. Inside of the gown
12. Which of the following nursing interventions is considered the most effective form or
universal precautions?

a. Cap all used needles before removing them from their syringes b. Discard all used
uncapped needles and syringes in an
impenetrable protective container
c. Wear gloves when administering IM injections d. Follow enteric precautions
13. All of the following measures are recommended to prevent pressure ulcers except:
a. Massaging the reddened are with lotion b. Using a water or air mattress
c. Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning d. Providing meticulous skin care
14. Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood transfusion?
a. Prothrombin and coagulation time b. Blood typing and cross-matching c. Bleeding and
clotting time
d. CBC and electrolyte levels.
15. The primary purpose of a platelet count is to evaluate the:
a. Potential for clot formation
b. Potential for bleeding
c. Presence of an antigen-antibody response
d. Presence of cardiac enzymes
16. Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) counts clearly indicates leukocytosis?
a. 4,500/mm b. 7,000/mm c. 10,000/mm d. 25,000/mm
17. After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient begins to
exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping and muscle weakness. These symptoms probably indicate
that the patient is experiencing:
a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Anorexia
d. Dysphagia
18. Which of the following statements about chest X-ray is false?
a. No contradictions exist for this test
b. Before the procedure, the patient should remove all jewelry, metallic objects, and buttons
above the waist
c. A signed consent is not required
d. Eating, drinking, and medications are allowed before this test
19. The most appropriate time for the nurse to obtain a sputum specimen for culture is:
a. Early in the morning
b. After the patient eats a light breakfast c. After aerosol therapy
d. After chest physiotherapy
20. A patient with no known allergies is to receive penicillin every 6 hours.
When administering the medication, the nurse observes a fine rash on the patients skin. The
most appropriate nursing action would be to:
a. Withhold the moderation and notify the physician
b. Administer the medication and notify the physician c. Administer the medication with an
antihistamine
d. Apply corn starch soaks to the rash
21. All of the following nursing interventions are correct when using the Z- track method of
drug injection except:
a. Prepare the injection site with alcohol b. Use a needle thats a least 1 long
c. Aspirate for blood before injection
d. Rub the site vigorously after the injection to promote absorption
22. The correct method for determining the vastus lateralis site for I.M. injection is to:
a. Locate the upper aspect of the upper outer quadrant of the buttock about 5 to 8 cm below
the iliac crest
b. Palpate the lower edge of the acromion process and the midpoint lateral aspect of the arm
c. Palpate a 1 circular area anterior to the umbilicus
d. Divide the area between the greater femoral trochanter and the lateral femoral condyle into
thirds, and select the middle third on the anterior of the thigh
23. The mid-deltoid injection site is seldom used for I.M. injections because it:
a. Can accommodate only 1 ml or less of medication b. Bruises too easily
c. Can be used only when the patient is lying down d. Does not readily parenteral medication
24. The appropriate needle size for insulin injection is:
a. 18G, 1 long b. 22G, 1 long
c. 22G, 1 long d. 25G, 5/8 long
25. The appropriate needle gauge for intradermal injection is:
a. 20G b. 22G c. 25G d. 26G
MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH
1. For the client who is using oral contraceptives, the nurse informs the client about the need
to take the pill at the same time each day to accomplish which of the following?
a. Decrease the incidence of nausea b. Maintain hormonal levels
c. Reduce side effects
d. Prevent drug interactions

2. When teaching a client about contraception. Which of the following would the nurse include
as the most effective method for preventing sexually transmitted infections?
a. Spermicides b. Diaphragm
c. Condoms
d. Vasectomy
3. When preparing a woman who is 2 days postpartum for discharge, recommendations for
which of the following contraceptive methods would be avoided?
a. Diaphragm
b. Female condom
c. Oral contraceptives d. Rhythm method
4. For which of the following clients would the nurse expect that an intrauterine device would
not be recommended?
a. Woman over age 35 b. Nulliparous woman
c. Promiscuous young adult d. Postpartum client
5. A client in her third trimester tells the nurse, Im constipated all the time! Which of the
following should the nurse recommend?
a. Daily enemas b. Laxatives
c. Increased fiber intake d. Decreased fluid intake
6. Which of the following would the nurse use as the basis for the teaching plan when caring
for a pregnant teenager concerned about gaining too much weight during pregnancy?
a. 10 pounds per trimester
b. 1 pound per week for 40 weeks c. pound per week for 40 weeks d. A total gain of 25 to
30 pounds
7. The client tells the nurse that her last menstrual period started on January
14 and ended on January 20. Using Nageles rule, the nurse determines her EDD to be which of
the following?
a. September 27
b. October 21 c. November 7 d. December 27
8. When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant client who states, I had a son born at 38
weeks gestation, a daughter born at 30 weeks gestation and I lost a baby at about 8 weeks,
the nurse should record her obstetrical history as which of the following?
a. G2 T2 P0 A0 L2 b. G3 T1 P1 A0 L2 c. G3 T2 P0 A0 L2 d. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2
9. When preparing to listen to the fetal heart rate at 12 weeks gestation, the nurse would use
which of the following?
a. Stethoscope placed midline at the umbilicus
b. Doppler placed midline at the suprapubic region
c. Fetoscope placed midway between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process
d. External electronic fetal monitor placed at the umbilicus
10. When developing a plan of care for a client newly diagnosed with gestational diabetes,
which of the following instructions would be the priority?
a. Dietary intake b. Medication
c. Exercise
d. Glucose monitoring
11. A client at 24 weeks gestation has gained 6 pounds in 4 weeks. Which of the following
would be the priority when assessing the client?
a. Glucosuria b. Depression
c. Hand/face edema d. Dietary intake
12. A client 12 weeks pregnant come to the emergency department with abdominal cramping
and moderate vaginal bleeding. Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cms cervical dilation.
The nurse would document these findings as which of the following?
a. Threatened abortion b. Imminent abortion
c. Complete abortion d. Missed abortion
13. Which of the following would be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client with an ectopic
pregnancy?
a. Risk for infection b. Pain
c. Knowledge Deficit
d. Anticipatory Grieving
14. Before assessing the postpartum clients uterus for firmness and position in relation to the
umbilicus and midline, which of the following should the nurse do first?
a. Assess the vital signs b. Administer analgesia
c. Ambulate her in the hall d. Assist her to urinate
15. Which of the following should the nurse do when a primipara who is lactating tells the
nurse that she has sore nipples?
a. Tell her to breast feed more frequently
b. Administer a narcotic before breast feeding c. Encourage her to wear a nursing brassiere d.
Use soap and water to clean the nipples

16. The nurse assesses the vital signs of a client, 4 hours postpartum that are as follows: BP
90/60; temperature 100.4F; pulse 100 weak, thready; R 20 per minute. Which of the following
should the nurse do first?
a. Report the temperature to the physician
b. Recheck the blood pressure with another cuff c. Assess the uterus for firmness and position
d. Determine the amount of lochia
17. The nurse assesses the postpartum vaginal discharge (lochia) on four clients. Which of the
following assessments would warrant notification of the physician?
a. A dark red discharge on a 2-day postpartum client
b. A pink to brownish discharge on a client who is 5 days postpartum c. Almost colorless to
creamy discharge on a client 2 weeks after
delivery
d. A bright red discharge 5 days after delivery
18. A postpartum client has a temperature of 101.4F, with a uterus that is tender when
palpated, remains unusually large, and not descending as normally expected. Which of the
following should the nurse assess next?
a. Lochia b. Breasts c. Incision d. Urine
19. Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing practice with the current early
postpartum discharge?
a. Promoting comfort and restoration of health b. Exploring the emotional status of the family
c. Facilitating safe and effective self-and newborn care d. Teaching about the importance of
family planning
20. Which of the following actions would be least effective in maintaining a neutral thermal
environment for the newborn?
a. Placing infant under radiant warmer after bathing
b. Covering the scale with a warmed blanket prior to weighing c. Placing crib close to nursery
window for family viewing
d. Covering the infants head with a knit stockinette
21. A newborn who has an asymmetrical Moro reflex response should be further assessed for
which of the following?
a. Talipes equinovarus b. Fractured clavicle
c. Congenital hypothyroidism
d. Increased intracranial pressure
22. During the first 4 hours after a male circumcision, assessing for which of the following is
the priority?
a. Infection
b. Hemorrhage c. Discomfort
d. Dehydration
23. The mother asks the nurse. Whats wrong with my sons breasts? Why are they so
enlarged? Whish of the following would be the best response by the nurse?
a. The breast tissue is inflamed from the trauma experienced with birth
b. A decrease in material hormones present before birth causes enlargement,
c. You should discuss this with your doctor. It could be a malignancy
d. The tissue has hypertrophied while the baby was in the uterus
24. Immediately after birth the nurse notes the following on a male newborn: respirations 78;
apical hearth rate 160 BPM, nostril flaring; mild intercostal retractions; and grunting at the end
of expiration. Which of the following should the nurse do?
a. Call the assessment data to the physicians attention b. Start oxygen per nasal cannula at
2 L/min.
c. Suction the infants mouth and nares
d. Recognize this as normal first period of reactivity
25. The nurse hears a mother telling a friend on the telephone about umbilical cord care.
Which of the following statements by the mother indicates effective teaching?
a. Daily soap and water cleansing is best
b. Alcohol helps it dry and kills germs
c. An antibiotic ointment applied daily prevents infection
d. He can have a tub bath each day
COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING
1. Which of the following is the most prominent feature of public health nursing?
a. It involves providing home care to sick people who are not confined in the hospital.
b. Services are provided free of charge to people within the catchments area.
c. The public health nurse functions as part of a team providing a public health nursing
services.
d. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative, services.

2. When the nurse determines whether resources were maximized in implementing Ligtas
Tigdas, she is evaluating
a. Effectiveness
b. Efficiency
c. Adequacy d. Appropriateness
3. Vangie is a new B.S.N. graduate. She wants to become a Public Health Nurse. Where should
she apply?
a. Department of Health
b. Provincial Health Office
c. Regional Health Office
d. Rural Health Unit
4. Tony is aware the Chairman of the Municipal Health Board is:
a. Mayor
b. Municipal Health Officer
c. Public Health Nurse
d. Any qualified physician
5. Myra is the public health nurse in a municipality with a total population of about 20,000.
There are 3 rural health midwives among the RHU personnel. How many more midwife items
will the RHU need?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d.The RHU does not need any more midwife item.
6. According to Freeman and Heinrich, community health nursing is a developmental service.
Which of the following best illustrates this statement?
a. The community health nurse continuously develops himself personally and professionally.
b. Health education and community organizing are necessary in providing community health
services.
c. Community health nursing is intended primarily for health promotion and prevention and
treatment of disease.
d The goal of community health nursing is to provide nursing services to people in their own
places of residence.
7. Nurse Tina is aware that the disease declared through Presidential
Proclamation No. 4 as a target for eradication in the Philippines is?
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Measles
c. Rabies
d. Neonatal tetanus
8. May knows that the step in community organizing that involves training of potential leaders
in the community is:
a. Integration
b. Community organization
c. Community study
d. Core group formation
8. Answer: (D) Core group formation
9. Beth a public health nurse takes an active role in community participation.
What is the primary goal of community organizing?
a.To educate the people regarding community health problems
b.To mobilize the people to resolve community health problems
c.To maximize the communitys resources in dealing with health problems.
d.To maximize the communitys resources in dealing with health problems.
10. Myrna a public health nurse will conduct outreach immunization in a barangay Maligaya
with a population of about 1500. The estimated number of infants in the barangay would be:
a. 45 infants b. 50 infants c. 55 infants d. 65 infants
11. The community nurse is aware that the biological used in Expanded Program on
Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the freezer?
a. DPT
b. Oral polio vaccine
c. Measles vaccine
d. MMR
12. Maylene had just received her 4th dose of tetanus toxoid. She is aware that her baby will
have protection against tetanus for
a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 5 years d.
Lifetime

13. Nurse Ron is aware that unused BCG should be discarded after how many hours of
reconstitution?
a. 2 hours b. 4 hours c. 8 hours d. At the end of the day
14. In a mothers class, Nurse Lhynnete discussed childhood diseases such as chicken pox.
Which of the following statements about chicken pox is correct?
a. The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the complications of chicken pox.
b. A single attack of chicken pox will prevent future episodes, including conditions such as
shingles.
c. To prevent an outbreak in the community, quarantine may be imposed by health authorities.
d. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there is an impending outbreak in the community.
15. Barangay Pinoy had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is
the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the
barangay Pinoy?
a. Advice them on the signs of German measles.
b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and movie houses.
c. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given. d. Consult a physician
who may give them rubella immunoglobulin.
16. Myrna a public health nurse knows that to determine possible sources of sexually
transmitted infections, the BEST method that may be undertaken is:
a. Contact tracing
b. Community survey
c. Mass screening tests
d. Interview of suspects
17. A 33-year old female client came for consultation at the health center with the chief
complaint of fever for a week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise.
A week after the start of fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History
showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on
her history, which disease condition will you suspect?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatiti B
c. Tetanus
d. Leptospirosis
18. Mickey a 3-year old client was brought to the health center with the chief complaint of
severe diarrhea and the passage of rice water stools. The client is most probably suffering
from which condition?
a. Giardiasis
b. Cholera
c. Amebiasis
d. Dysentery
19. The most prevalent form of meningitis among children aged 2 months to 3 years is caused
by which microorganism?
a. Hemophilus influenza
b. Morbillivirus
c. Steptococcus pneumonia
d. Neisseria meningitidis
20. The student nurse is aware that the pathognomonic sign of measles is
Kopliks spot and you may see Kopliks spot by inspecting the:
a. Nasal mucosa
b. Buccal mucosa
c. Skin on the abdomen
d. Skin on neck
21. Angel was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. You will say that there is slow capillary refill
when the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not return within how many seconds?
a. 3 seconds
b. 6 seconds
c. 9 seconds
d. 10 seconds
22. It is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic area?
a. Use of molluscicides
b. Building of foot bridges
c. Proper use of sanitary toilets
d. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots
23. Several clients is newly admitted and diagnosed with leprosy. Which of the following clients
should be classified as a case of multibacillary leprosy?
a. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
b. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
c. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
d. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
24. Nurses are aware that diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of
symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign of leprosy?

a. Macular lesions
b. Inability to close eyelids
c. Thickened painful nerves
d. Sinking of the nosebridge
25. In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness, the nurse is aware that
the severe conditions generally require urgent referral to a hospital. Which of the following
severe conditions DOES NOT always require urgent referral to a hospital?
a. Mastoiditis
b. Severe dehydration
c. Severe pneumonia
d. Severe febrile disease
26. Marie brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever, started 4 days
prior to consultation. In determining malaria risk, what will you do?
a. Perform a tourniquet test.
b. Ask where the family resides.
c. Get a specimen for blood smear.
d. Ask if the fever is present everyday
27. Susie brought her 4 years old daughter to the RHU because of cough and colds. Following
the IMCI assessment guide, which of the following is a danger sign that indicates the need for
urgent referral to a hospital?
a. Inability to drink
b. High grade fever
c. Signs of severe dehydration
d. Cough for more than 30 days
28. Jimmy a 2-year old child revealed baggy pants. As a nurse, using the
IMCI guidelines, how will you manage Jimmy?
a. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement.
b. Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the child in a feeding program.
c. Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing on menu planning for her child.
d. Assess and treat the child for health problems like infections and intestinal parasitism.
30. Gina is using Oresol in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you
what to do if her child vomits. As a nurse you will tell her to:
a. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment.
b. Bring the child to the health center for intravenous fluid therapy.
c. Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician. d. Let the child rest for
10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly.
PSYCHIATRIC NURSING
1. Your patient is very dependent and submissive. There are times that the patient is very
clingy. This behavior reflects what type of personality disorder?
a. Antisocial personality b. Dependent Personality c. Manic behavior d. Anxiety disorder
2. The appropriate therapeutic distance between you and a psychiatric patient is?
a. 12 inches b. 35 inches c. 12 feet
d. 4 feet
3. Nurse Anna is instructing the new nurse to the psychiatric set-up. She also reminded her to
use her therapeutic communication skills in dealing with clients. Which of the following
techniques enlaces therapeutic communication?
a. What are you thinking about?
b. What made you think that way?
c. Why did you say that?
d. Lets not talk about that. What do you think?
4. Mr. Juan is diagnosed with Alzheimers disease. The nurses intervention should focus on
helping the client be oriented with the physical set-up and daily events. Which of the following
is the most effective nursing intervention in orienting patients who has Alzheimers disease?
a. Encourage the client to talk to family members to reminisce things
b. Provide simple and easily understood directions
c. Perform tasks with a variety of activities each day
d. Have the client socialize with other patients
5. A therapy that focuses on the remotivation of clients by directing their attention outside
themselves to relieve preoccupation with personal thoughts, feelings, and attitudes is known
as:
a. Pharmacologic therapy b. Music therapy
c. Occupational therapy d. Recreational therapy
6. The 12-year old male patient looks like the nurses younger brother who is missing for years.
During assessment and in the implementation of nursing care the nurse prioritizes this client.
One day, when she found the boy crying in his room she hugged him and cried with him. This
is an example of:
a. Counter-transference b. Transference
c. Resistance
d. Denial

7. A schizophrenic client is under your care. In reinforcing the functional behavior of this client
what will the nurse do?
a. Enumerate the symptoms of schizophrenia to the client
b. Correct delusional thoughts to orient to reality
c. Compliment the client for cessation of acting out behaviors
d. Encourage the client to drink his medications religiously
8. A client was brought to the ER. Based on the significant others, the client had a history of
shop stealing. However, no self-mutilating activities are committed by the client. During the
interview, the client is very manipulative and aggressive and impulsive. What personality
disorder most likely the client has?
a. Antisocial b. Histrionic c. Narcissistic
d. Borderline
9. When the client told the nurse that he feels good when he mutilates or cuts himself the
novice psychiatric nurse answered, Do you know the risks involved when you cut yourself?
what type of nontherapeutic communication is the nurse using?
a. Defending b. Testing
c. Making stereotyped comments
d. Disagreeing
10. A therapy that assists with discharge planning and rehabilitation, focusing on vocational
skills and activities of daily living (ADL) to raise self-esteem and promote independence is
called:
a. Behavior modification b. Milieu therapy c. Recreational therapy d. Occupational
therapy
11. Nurse Marie is caring for a patient that underwent alcohol detoxification. Which of the
following symptoms would Nurse Marie be most concern?
a. Fever
b. Delusions c. Excessive sweating
d. Increase BP
12. The Distance that is observed when family members or friends are talking is under what
zone:
a. Intimate b. Therapeutic
c. Personal d. Social
13. The client is sharing Nurse Marie about his experiences. Suddenly, he paused, looked to
the nurse and is hesitant to continue. The nurse responded, Go on, and tell me about it.
What therapeutic communication technique is the nurse using?
a. Exploring b. Focusing c. Encouraging expression
d. General leads
14. In a therapeutic communication, why questions are discouraged. For what reason is this
question not useful?
a. The question is intimidating and the client may be defensive in trying to explain him/herself.
b. It forces the client to recognize his or her problems. The clients acknowledgement that s/he
doesnt know things may be helpful to the nurses needs but not the client.
c. It indicates that the client is right rather than wrong.
d. It tends to make the client used and invaded.
15. An 18 year old client is brought to the ER due to a suicidal attempt. Her mother told the
nurse that she has been drinking alcohol for the last 3 weeks and is depressed. In caring for
this patient what is the most important consideration?
a. Administering antidepressant medications
b. Alcohol detoxification
c. Allowing the client to participate in a therapy
d. Close monitoring
16. In using a therapeutic communication technique interpreting client cues and signals is very
important. Clear statements of intent such as the client saying that he wants to kill himself is
a/an:
a. Covert cues b. Abstract messages
c. Nonsense messages
d. Overt cues
17. A client was admitted due to self-mutilation. One day during one of the sessions, the client
told the nurse that cutting himself feels great. What would be the nurses best response?
a. Do you know the risks involved when you cut yourself?
b. I dont want to hear about that!
c. The behavior of cutting is not acceptable.
d. Tell me more about that.
18. When the client told the nurse that he feels good when he mutilates or cuts himself the
novice psychiatric nurse answered, Do you know the risks involved when you cut yourself?
what type of nontherapeutic communication is the nurse using?
a. Defending b. Testing
c. Making stereotyped comments
d. Disagreeing
19. Restraints are only used for a certain reason. Which of the following is an appropriate
reason for placing a client in restraints?
a. Punishment for stealing the other clients things
b. Self- harming behaviors
c. Verbal abuse
d. Not drinking medications
20. If a client is on restraints which of the following would the nurse do?
a. Leave the client in the room for the whole 8 hours
b. Do not allow the client to eat

c. Take pictures of the client for evaluation

d. monitor the extremity circulation
21. A client is scheduled for an electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Which of the following
medications can be given to the client before the procedure?
a. Atropine b. Epinephrine
c. Hydralazine
d. Phenobarbital
22. To ensure that your client knows about the procedure, risks and outcome and has been
informed of the other alternative therapy. Which of the following must be accomplished?
a. A signed informed consent by a clients family member
b. A signed informed consent by a 23-year old client who has voluntarily admitted himself in
the unit.
c. A signed informed consent of a 23-year old clients parent
d. A signed informed consent by a 17-year old client
23. The client says that he is hearing voices. What is nurses initial response?
a. I dont hear any voices.
b. From where are those voices coming from?
c. What are the voices telling you?
d. Are you sure about that?
24. What is the most important criteria that must be accomplished by the nurse before dealing
with psychiatric patients?
a. Salary rate
b. Self-awareness c. Self-understanding
d. Standard of nursing
practice
Before a nurse can understand him/herself, being aware of what his/her strengths,
weaknesses, limitations, belief and principles is very essential. A nurse who barely knows and
understand herself cannot effectively establish a therapeutic communication with psychiatric
clients.
25. A male client with a history of medication noncompliance is receiving outpatient treatment
for chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. The physician is most likely to prescribe which
medication for this client?
a. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
b. Imipramine (Tofranil)
c. Lithium carbonate (Lithane)
d. Fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate)