All India P.T. Test Series - Polity & Governance

IAS P.T.
TEST SERIES - 2014

SET NO: 14
By S.K. Mishra, IAS (Retd.) & Manoj K. Jha
POLITY & GOVERNANCE

Time Allowed: Two Hours
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2.
ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SET NUMBER IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.
3.
You have to enter your Roll Number on the test Booklet in

the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else
on the Test Booklet.
4.
This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case
you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any
case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. More than one response will be treated as wrong
answer.
5.
In case you find any discrepancy in this test booklet in any question(s) or the Responses; a written representation
explaining the details of such alleged discrepancy, be submitted within three days, indicating the Question
No(s) and the Test Booklet Series, in which the discrepancy is alleged. Representation not received within
time shall not be entertained at all.
6.
You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
7.
All items carry equal marks.
8.
For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (-0.33 %) of the
marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. There will be no penalty for a question which is
left blank.
9.
Before you proceed to mark in the Response Sheet, the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Response Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admit Card and
Instructions.
10. While writing Name and Roll No. on the top of the Response Sheet in appropriate boxes use "ONLY
BLACK BALL POINT PEN".
11. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Response Sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Response Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you
the Test Booklet.
9953595114
Head Off: Rajender Nagar
North Campus
Off No. 06 Ist Floor, Apsara Arcade,

Karol Bagh, New Delhi-5
A - 19, 3rd Floor, Priyanka Tower,

Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, New Delhi-9
www.facebook.com/iasscore
Website:iasscore.in
1. The role performed by the constitution for the

benefit of society are:
1. It provides a set of basic rules that allow
for minimal coordination amongst members
of a society.
2. It specifies who has the power to make
decisions in a society.
3. It limits the power of government to
crosscheck arbitrariness.
Select the correct code:

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above
5. The Election Commission, political parties,

various independent groups, and many scholars
have come up with proposals for electoral
reform, but Indian electoral system has been
able to withstand such transition period
because:
1. The election expenses are paid by the
government out of a special fund.
2. The social composition of candidates
represent inclusiveness.
3. The model code of conduct having legal
backing control the functioning of political
parties.
OR
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 & 3
6. Which of the following statements are true

related to semi-presidential type of system?
1. It has President as the head of the State
and may possess significant day-to-day
powers.
2. It has Prime Minister as head of the
government but is not accountable to the
legislature.
3. The President and the Prime Minister may
belong to the same party and at times they
may belong to two different parties.
SC
2. The special powers of Rajya Sabha includes:

1. Under Art. 67, a resolution seeking the
removal of the Vice-President can originate
only in the Rajya Sabha.
2. A resolution seeking legislation on any
subject of the State List can only originate
in the Rajya Sabha, if it thinks that such is
necessary or expedient in the national
interest.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
GS
3. Which of the following pairs of provision and

its source are correctly matched?
1. Institution of speaker and her role - USA
2. The idea of residual powers - Canada
3. Law making procedure - UK
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 2 & 3
(d) Only 1 & 3

(a) Only 1 & 3
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 1
4. Which of the following statements about election

method of Proportional Representation are
correct?
1. In PR voters vote for the party.
2. In PR more than one representative may
be elected from one constituency.
3. PR system is present in USA, Netherlands
and Israel.
7. The President can exercise discretionary powers

in the following cases:
1. The President can send back the advice
given by the Council of Ministers and ask
the Council to reconsider the decision.
2. The President has veto power by which he
can withhold or refuse to give assent to
Bills.
3. The President appoints the Prime Minister
from the group of members of the majority
party.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 & 3

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
IAS TEST SERIES 2014

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 3

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) None of the above
SC
OR
9. The advantages of the separation of Secretariat

and Executive functioning in department are:
1. The Secretariat, under the system of
separation of functions, acts as
dispassionate adviser to the Minister.
2. The secretariat is free from day to day issues
arising due to implementation of executive
functions.
3. It avoids centralized system of functioning.
12. What is the role of the President of India with

regard to Parliament?
1. The President summons the two Houses of
Parliament to meet from time to time as a
discretionary power.
2. The President has the power to call both
Houses for a joint sitting in case a dispute
arises over passing a Bill. In the joint sitting,
the matter is decided by special majority
vote.
3. The President nominates four members from
the Anglo Indian community to the Lok
Sabha if they are under-represented.
8. The advantages of bicameral legislature are:

1. It gives representation to all sections in the
society and also gives representation to all
geographical regions or parts of the
country.
2. A bicameral legislature makes it possible to
have every decision reconsidered.
3. It removes deadlock in the functioning of
the Parliament.

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 1
GS
10. Which of the following provisions are amended

by simple majority?
1. Establishment of new states and alteration
of areas and boundaries.
2. Administration and control of Scheduled
Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
3. Impeachment of Supreme Court Judges and
UPSC Chairman.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1 & 2
(d) Only 2 & 3
11. The UTs have been created because:
1. Delhi and Chandigarh has been formed due
to
political
and
administrative
considerations.
2. Pondicherry has been formed UT due to
strategic importance of location.
3. Andaman and Nicobar islands has been
formed UT due to cultural distinctiveness.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 & 2
(d) Only 2 & 3
13. Consider the following statements related to

Electronic Services Delivery Bill and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
1. The Bill requires public authorities to deliver
all public services electronically within a
maximum period of eight years.
2. The bill will allow Indian citizens above 18
years to gain access to services such as
passport, ration card and driving licences
electronically.
3. The Bill establishes Central and State
Electronic Service Delivery Commissions to
monitor compliance of government
departments.
Select the correct option:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
14. The reasons for the delay in completing the
projects under JNNURM include:
1. delay in acquiring land;
2. deficiency in preparation of projects due to
shortage of manpower
3. Non-identification of beneficiaries which
increased the risk of ineligible beneficiaries
getting the benefits.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
18. The provisions related to Parliament's control

over executive are:
1. Parliament's control over the Budget.
2. Provision of 'no confidence motion'.
3. Impeachment of President and Vice
President.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 & 2
(c) Only 2 & 3

Article 15 "Prohibition of discrimination on
grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place
of birth":
1. Under article 15, the use of wells, bathing
ghats, roads and places of public resort
maintained wholly or partly out of State
funds are dedicated to the use of the
general public.
2. The State is permitted to make provisions
related to SC/ST/OBC admission to
educational institutions including private
educational institutions, whether aided or
unaided by the State.
3. The state is permitted to make special
provisions for women and children
OR
15. Consider the following statements related to the

changes brought by 44th amendment in
emergency provisions in India:
1. The President can declare such an
emergency if the Cabinet recommends in
oral for doing so.
2. The 44th Amendment of the Constitution
provided that ten per cent or more members
of the Lok Sabha can call special session in
the Lok Sabha and can disapprove
emergency by a simple majority.
3. The Constitution of India has provided for
imposition of emergency caused by war,
external aggression or armed rebellion but
by the 44th Amendment Act "armed
rebellion" was changed to "internal
disturbance".
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 2
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1 & 2
(d) Only 1 & 3
GS
SC

provisions of writs in Indian constitution:
1. Writ of quo-warranto can be issued if a
person holds an office beyond his
retirement age.
2. If the candidate is declared fit for the
appointment but the authority concerned
refuses to issue the appointment letter, the
aggrieved person can use writ of
'mandamus'.
3. The habeas corpus writ is issued only
against authorities of the State not to
private individuals or organizations

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3

veto power of President and select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
1. The President has no veto power in respect
of the Constitutional Amendment Bill and
Money Bill due to the 24th Amendment
Act of 1971.
2. The President does not possess suspensive
veto power against the Ordinary Bill.

special status of Jammu and Kashmir in Indian
Constitution:
1. Parliament could legislate on subjects
contained in the Union List but had no
jurisdiction in case of Concurrent List under
7th Schedule of the Constitution.
2. Residuary Powers rest with Jammu &
Kashmir, unlike other states where
residuary powers rest with Centre.
3. The Union can declare emergency in the
state only in case of War or External
Aggression not in case of Financial
Emergency.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
3. Ashok Chakra
4. Zamindar
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) Only 1 & 4
26. The reasonable restrictions proposed under
Article 19 are:
1. Right to move freely throughout the
territory of India may be restricted in the
interest of the Scheduled Tribes and
Scheduled Castes.
2. Restrictions may be put on the Right to
Freedom of speech and expression in the
interests of the friendly relations with
foreign States.
3. Right to assemble peacefully and without
arms may be restricted in the interests of
the defamation or incitement to an offence.
OR
Which of the above provisions are correct?

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
25. Which of the following titles is/are disallowed

under article 18?
1. Knighthood
2. Bharat Ratna
21. Consider the following provisions related to

citizenship:
1. Person is considered citizens of India only
if both of their parents are citizens of India.
2. Citizenship by registration is allowed to a
person of Indian origin who is ordinarily
resident in India for seven years before
making application for registration.
3. Indian Citizenship automatically terminates
except for PIO, when an Indian Citizen
voluntarily acquires the citizenship of
another country.
SC
22. Which of the following are correctly matched?

1. Brain mapping test violates Article 20(3).
2. Right to Work is granted under Article 21 A.
3. Right to go abroad is granted under Article
21.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 2
GS
23. Which of the following statements do not

conform to the Right to Equality?
1. Reservation to women in panchayats.
2. A former Union Minister facing charges of
corruption is exempted from attending the
Court.
3. Access to temples in South India is not
allowed to women.
4. Eligibility for employment based on
qualification.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 4
(d) Only 3 & 4
24. Sources of Income of Gram Panchayats are:
1. taxes on property, land, goods and cattle
2. grants-in- aid from the State government
only
3. land revenue collected by the Panchayats
4. tax on extraction of minerals
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) Only 2, 3 & 4

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 1 & 2
Right to Freedom of Religion:
1. Convertibility of religion is disallowed
under the Right.
2. Religious practices like sacrificing animals
or human beings, for offering to gods and
goddesses or to some supernatural forces
are also not-permissible.
3. This right is available to citizens of India
only.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
28. Minorities in the constitution means:
(a) A community minority at the national level.
(b) A community minority at the national level
as well as at the state level.
(c) Religious minority only
(d) Linguistic minority only
29. The important factors which challenge the rule

of law in India are:
1. Criminalisation of politics
2. Administrative supremacy
3. Judicial review
33. The eligibility criteria quoted by Sarkaria

Commission for selection of Governors are:
1. He should be a person from outside the
State
2. He should not be a detached figure and
should be intimately connected with the
local politics of the States so that he can
understand the ground reality well.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 1 & 2
3. The Governor should be appointed by the

President from a list of three eminent
persons suggested by the Chief Minister.
OR
(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1
34. The judiciary exercises control over

administration through the techniques such as:
1. Suits against government
GS
Select the correct option:

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 & 2
(c) Only 2 & 3
32. The concept of Basic structure defined under
the Keshawanand Bharti Case includes:
1. separation of powers between organs
2. essential features of the individual freedoms
secured to the citizens
3. mandate to build a welfare state
(a) Only 1 & 3
(d) Only 3

organisation of Panchayats and select the
correct answer:
1. A Gram Sabha consists of all the adults i.e.
voters living in the area of a Gram
Panchayat.
2. Gram Sabha is executive committee but not
a legal body.
3. Gram Panchayat is the village assembly of
Gram Sabha.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 & 2
(c) Only 3
SC

(a) Only 1, 2 & 3
(b) Only 3 & 4
(c) Only 1 & 2
(d) Only 2, 3 & 4
30. The implementation of DPSP Principles lead

to launch of:
1. MGNREGA under Article 42
2. Janani suraksha yojana under Article 41
3. NALSA under Article 39A
4. Panchayati Raj under Article 40
2. Judicial activism
3. Statutory appeal
Which of the above techniques are correct?

(a) Only 1 & 3
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 1 & 2
35. The seat in the Parliament is deemed to be

vacated by a member if:
1. If a person is elected to the Lok Sabha or
Rajya Sabha and also the State Legislature,
his seat in the State legislature becomes
vacant after 14 days unless he resigns his
seat in the Parliament.
2. A Member of Parliament may resign his
seat by writing under his hand addressed
to the President. Resignation becomes final
only when it has been accepted.
3. If a Member of Parliament is, without
permission of the House, absent for a period
of 60 days then the House may declare his
seat vacant.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1 & 2
(d) Only 2 & 3

1. Increases the wage rate in rural areas and

strengthen the rural economy through the
creation of infrastructure assets.
2. Large scale participation of women,
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(SCs/STs) and other traditionally
marginalised sections of society which led
to empowerment.
3. PRIs get strengthen by involvement in the
planning and monitoring of the scheme.
(a) Only 1 & 2
OR

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
39. The benefits of MGNREGA in rural areas are:
36. A person shall be disqualified for registration

in an electoral roll if he
1. is of unsound mind and stands so declared
by a competent court.
2. is for the time being disqualified from voting
under the provisions of any law relating to
corrupt practices and other offences in
connection with elections.
3. is registered in the electoral roll for more
than one constituency.
GS

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1, 2 & 4
(d) Only 2, 3 & 4
SC
37. Collective privileges of the Houses of Parliament

include:
1. The right to publish debates and
proceedings and the right to restrain others
from publishing.
2. The right to punish members only for
breach of its privileges.
3. A member cannot be summoned without
the leave of the House to give evidence
while the House is in session.
4. There is complete immunity for anything
spoken in the House.
38. Consider the following statements related to the

Model Code of Conduct:
1. The MCC is a set of guidelines issued by
the Election Commission under the Article
324 to regulate political parties and
candidates prior to elections.
2. The MCC is operational from the date that
the nomination of candidates is announced
till the date that results are announced.
3. The MCC is enforceable by law and
criminal proceedings can be issued for its
violation.
(c) Only 1 & 3
(b) Only 2 & 3

40. The Supreme Court has recently in Writ Petition

directed to provide a NOTA option on the EVM
and ballot papers so that the electors who do
not want to vote for any of the candidates can
exercise their option in secrecy. The benefits of
NOTA are:
1. NOTA button can increase the public
participation in an electoral process.
2. It will reduce bogus voting in elections.
3. It will compel the political parties to
nominate a sound candidate.
4. NOTA have the inbuilt provision of Right
to Recall option.
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3
(b) Only 2 & 4
(c) Only 1 & 3
41. The reasons for rise of paid news incidents in
India are:
1. corporatization of media
2. desegregation of ownership and editorial
roles
3. decline in autonomy of editors/journalists
due to emergence of contract system
4. poor wage levels of journalists
Which of the above provisions related to MCC

is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 2

(a) Only 1, 2 & 3
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 4
42. The Planning Commission allocates funds to

states through central assistance for state plans.
Allocation between non special category states
is determined by the Gadgil Mukherjee formula
which gives weight to:
1. Population
2. Fiscal performance
3. Tribal areas
4. Border and hill areas

voter's ink used in elections:
1. It avoid fraudulent, multiple voting &
malpractices.
2. The special ink is imported from USA.
3. Indelible Ink which is put on the left hand
finger nail of the voter whereas in case of
proxy voting ink is applied on the middle
finger of the left hand of the proxy.
Which of
(a) Only
(b) Only
(c) Only
(a) Only 1, 2 & 4

(b) Only 1 & 2
OR
(c) Only 2 & 4
(d) Only 2, 3 & 4
43. Consider the statements related to Fast Track

Courts:
1. FTCs were to be established by the state

governments in consultation with the CJI.
46. Which of the following Bills/Acts are AntiCorruption Bill?

1. The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Bill,
2011
2. The Right of Citizens for Time Bound
Delivery of Goods and Services and
Redressal of their Grievances Bill, 2011
3. The Electronic Delivery of Services Bill, 2011
4. The Public Procurement Bill, 2012
SC
2. The judges for these FTCs were appointed

by promoting members from amongst the
eligible judicial officers on adhoc basis only.
3. Under the scheme average of five FTCs
were to be established in each district of
the country.
(b) Only 2
GS
(a) Only 1
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 1 & 2
44. The roles played by public opinion in democracy

are:
1. An alert and free public opinion is a check
on absolute power;
2. It protects rights, freedoms and liberty:
'eternal vigilance' is rightly called the price
of liberty, i.e. every citizen needs to be
vigilant in order to protect democratic
values.
3. Promotes awareness and invites people's
views on issues of public concern.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 2
8
the above statements are correct?

1 & 2
2 & 3
1 & 3

(a) Only 1, 2 & 3
(b) Only 2, 3 & 4
(c) Only 1 & 4
47. The provisions of MGNREGA 2.0 includes:

1. Small, marginal and SC-ST farmers will be
able to employ NREGA workers on their
farms for transplantation, weeding, etc.
2. The watershed, irrigation and flood
management, agricultural and livestock
related works have been included in
MGNREGA 2.0.
3. MPs may allot fund for MGNREGA projects
approved by the Zila Panchayat for the year
out of MPLADS funds.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 2
(d) Only 1 & 3
1. Growth of delegated legislation

2. Frequent promulgation of ordinances
3. Low level of attendance
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 2 & 3

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
OR
49. The Core Principles recommended by second

ARC for Reforming the Structure of
Government are:
51. Consider the following statements and select

the correct answer?
1. The
Fifth
Schedule
deals
with
administration and control of scheduled
areas and scheduled tribes in any state
except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram.
2. Under Fifth Schedule President is
empowered to declare an area to be a
Scheduled Area.
3. Under Fifth Schedule President is also
empowered to direct that any particular
Act of Parliament or the state legislature
does not apply to such schedule areas.
48. Which of the following factors have led to the

decline of Indian Parliament?
1. The principle of subsidiarity should be

followed to decentralise functions to State
and Local Governments.
2. Reduce the number of levels in organization
and encourage team work.
SC
3. Hierarchical multi-level structure should be

maintained status quo as it provides
stability in the organization system.
Which of the above principles are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 2 & 3
GS
(d) Only 1 & 2
50. The necessary Pre-conditions for Good

Governance are:
1. Sound legal framework.
2. Robust institutional mechanism for proper

implementation of the laws and their
effective functioning.
3. Competent personnel staffing these
institutions and sound personnel
management policies.
4. Right policies for decentralization,
delegation and accountability.
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3
(b) Only 2, 3 & 4
(c) Only 1, 3 & 4
52. Consider the following statements.

1. The practice of the Sikhs to publicly carry
a kirpan (sword) on ceremonial occasions
is specifically protected by the Constitution
as their Fundamental Right under Article
25.
2. Parliament by law can ban wearing of
religious symbols in public places.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
53. Consider the following statement about the
Parliamentary privileges.
1. These are special rights, immunities and
exemptions enjoyed by the two houses of
Parliament, their committees and members.
2. President of India does not enjoy such
privileges even if he is also an integral part
of the Parliament.
3. The Constitution does not extend such
privileges to those persons who are entitled
to speak and take part in the proceedings
of Parliament.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
54. Consider the following statements about the

Tribal Advisory Council.
57. Chief Ministers of all the states are ex-officio

members of which of the following institutions?
1. Article 244 of the constitution provides for

the establishment of Tribal Advisory
Council in tribal areas to advise on welfare
and advancement of tribal people.
1. Planning Commission
2. National Development Council
3. Inter State Council
2. This Council should consist of not more

than twenty members.

(a) Only 1 & 2
3. Not less than two-third members of council

shall be the representatives of the Scheduled
Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the
State.
(d) Only 3
58. In the event of emergency proclaimed under

Article 352, consider the following statements
about the power of President of India.
OR
(a) Only 1 & 2
(c) Only 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(b) Only 1 & 3
1. President can suspend the enforcement of

Fundamental Rights.
(c) Only 2 & 3

2. President is authorized to direct any state

to exercise its Executive power in a
particular manner.
SC
55. Which of the following taxes are levied and

collected by the Union but assigned to the
States?
1. Duties in respect of succession to property

including agricultural land.
2. Taxes other than stamp duties on
transactions in stock-exchanges and future
markets.
GS
3. Taxes on the sale or purchase of

newspapers and on advertisements
published therein.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
56. Consider the following statements about

Attorney General of India.
1. He represents Government in any reference
made by the President under Article 143.
2. His consent is necessary for finalization of
appointment of Judges to State High Courts.
3. His consent is necessary for initiating
proceedings for contempt, in certain cases.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
10
3. President is authorized, during the recess

of Lok Sabha, to allow expenditure from
the Consolidated Fund of India pending
sanction of the Parliament.

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
59. The Indian Parliament can make legislation on

a subject provided in State List in certain specific
circumstances. Consider the following
statements in this context.
1. Parliament can legislate on State subjects if
the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
declaring the subjects to have national
importance.
2. A proclamation of emergency has been
issued by the President of India.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 & 3
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. 12 members are nominated to Rajya Sabha

by the President for their expertise in
specific fields of art, literature, science, and
social services.
2. One third of its members retire at the
expiration of every two years.
3. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is
appointed by the President of India.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(c) Only 1 & 3
61. Consider the following statement.
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and

forced labour is included in Directive
Principles of State Policy.
SC
2. Prohibition of consumption except for

medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks
and of other drugs which are injurious to
health is also a Directive Principles of State
Policy.
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
GS
(a) Only 1
62. With reference to Indian Parliament, consider

the following statements.
1. No money shall be withdrawn from the
Consolidated Fund of India except under
the appropriation made by the
Appropriation Act.
2. Finance Bill is required for proposing new
taxes but no another Bill/Act is required
for making changes in the rates of taxes
which are already under operation.
3. No Money Bill can be introduced except
on the recommendation of the President.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Attorney General of India:
1. He is appointed by the President of India.
2. He must have the same qualifications as
are required for a judge of the Supreme
Court.
3. He can be removed by impeachment
process by the Parliament.
OR
(b) Only 2 & 3

1. Article 108 of the Constitution has the
provision for joint sitting of the two houses
of the Parliament.
2. The presiding officer of joint sitting is
chairman of Rajya Sabha.
60. Consider the following statements about Rajya

Sabha (Council of States).

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
65. Which among the following comes under the

Concurrent list?
1. Marriage and divorce
2. Forests.
3. Criminal law and procedure
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 2 & 3
Ordinance making power of President.
1. It is coextensive with the law-making
powers of the Parliament.
2. President can promulgate the ordinance
when both the houses of Parliament are
not in session.
3. President can promulgate the ordinance
when either of the houses of Parliament is
not in session.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 2 & 3
11
1. Information, the disclosure of which would

cause a breach of privilege of Parliament
or the State Legislature has been exempted.
2. Information received in confidence from
foreign Government is also exempted.
3. Information available to a person in his
fiduciary relationship can be disclosed
under the RTI.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 3

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
OR

Comptroller and Auditor-General(CAG) of
India.
1. CAG is appointed by the President by
warrant under his hand and seal for a
period of six years.
2. CAG can only be removed from office in
like manner and on like grounds as a Judge
of the Supreme Court.
3. CAG is not be eligible for further office
either under the Government of India or
under the Government of any State after
he has ceased to hold his office.

information exempted from disclosure under
section 8 of Right to Information Act (RTI).

Zonal Councils.
1. Zonal Councils have been established under

the provision of Constitution.
SC
2. For the purpose of creation of Zonal

Councils, the territory of India has been
divided into five zones.
71. Consider the following statement about District

council under the sixth schedule.
1. The District council is empowered to assess
and collect land revenue within their
territorial jurisdiction.
2. District council of each autonomous district
consists of 30 members, elected on the basis
of adult franchise.
GS
3. The Zonal Councils provide an excellent

forum where irritants between Centre and
States and amongst States can be resolved
through free and frank discussions and
consultations.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3

1. Vote on Credit is a grant for meeting an
unexpected demand upon resources of
India and is voted by the Lok Sabha after
the end of the financial year.
2. Excess grant is for taking approval for
money spent during a financial year in
excess of the amount granted for the service.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

President's Rule and National Emergency.
1. There is no maximum period prescribed for
the operation of National Emergency
whereas for President's rule can be in
operation for 3 years.
2. The resolution for the continuance of the
National Emergency must be passed by a
special majority whereas of President' rule
by Simple majority.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
different Grants provided in the constitution.
1. Discretionary Grants under Article 282 are
given to states on the recommendation of
Finance Commission.
2. Statutory Grants under Article 275 are also

given to states on the recommendation of
Finance Commission.
3. Statutory grants form the larger part of the
central grants to the states.

Central Vigilance Commission.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
2. Salary, allowances and other conditions of

services of the Central Vigilance
Commissioner are similar to those of
chairperson of UPSC.
3. The jurisdiction of the CVC does not extend

to managers and above in general
insurance companies.
OR

Legislative Councils in state legislature.
1. Legislative Councils can be established only
by the amendment to the constitution.
2. Legislative Council is a permanent body
and cannot be dissolved.
3. Legislative Council has both nominated and
elected members.
1. Central Vigilance Commission consists of

chairperson and not more than two
members.
SC

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
GS
75. Which among the following are method

through which an Indian citizen can be
deprived of his citizenship?
1. By Renunciation
2. By Termination
3. By Deprivation.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 2 & 3
76. Which of the following statements are the

compulsory (mandatory) provisions of part IX
of the constitution?
1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or
groups of villages.
2. Indirect elections to the posts of chairperson
of panchayats at all the three levels.
3. Reservation of one-third seats for women
in panchayats at all the three levels.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 2 & 3
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 3

Fundamental Duties.
1. Some of the fundamental duties are moral
duties while others are civic duties.
2. Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens
only and do not extend to foreigners.
3. Fundamental
justiciable.
Duties
are also
non-

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3

1. Territory of India is a wider expression than
the Union of India.
2. Both the union territory and acquired
territories are directly administered by the
central government.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Election Commission of India.
1. Under the Constitution, the Commission
has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of
post election disqualification of sitting
members of Parliament and State
Legislatures.
13
2. The cases of persons found guilty of corrupt

practices at elections which come before
the Supreme Court and High Courts are
also referred to the Commission for its
opinion on the question as to whether such
person shall be disqualified and, if so, for
what period.
83. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution accounts of
the Union and of the States is to be kept in
a form prescribed by the President on the
advice of the Comptroller & Auditor
General.
2. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
is entrusted with maintaining the accounts
of the state governments, in all the states.
3. The opinion of the Commission in all such

matters is not binding on the President or,
the Governor to whom such opinion is
tendered.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(a) Only 1 & 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
OR
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 1 & 3


Protection of Children from Sexual offence Act,
2012-
1. District judge hears criminal cases as session

judge and civil cases as district judge.
SC
2. District judge has power to impose any

sentence including capital punishment.
3. Constitution does not prescribe minimum

age required for appointment as a judge of
HC.
2. Under this Act, burden of proof is shifted

on the accused.
3. Act does not cover trafficking of children
for sexual purpose.
(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3
(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
GS
(a) Only 1 & 2

1. Right to Education Act (RTE) in India is
the first legislation in the world that puts
the responsibility of ensuring enrolment,
attendance and completion on the
Government.
2. Art. 45. of constitution states provision for
free and compulsory education for children
upto the age of 10 years.
14
1. An offence is treated as "aggravated" when

committed by a person in a position of trust
or authority of child such as a member of
security forces, police officer, public servant,
etc

1. The Constituent Assembly was constituted
in November 1946 under the Cabinet
Mission Plan.
2. Only provinces were to be allotted seats in
proportion to their population.
3. The strength of Constituent Assembly was
to be 389.
(a) Only 1
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Both 1 & 2
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2


feature borrowed
(1) residuary power
with centre.
(2) concurrent list.
(3) p r o c e d u r e
established by law.
(4) procedure
for
amendment of the
constitution
1. Freedom of speech and expression made

under Article 19 of the constitution is not
absolute.
2. When an emergency is running under
Article 352, article 19 gets suspended
automatically.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
86. Match the following.

Source
A. Canadian
Constitution
B. Australian
Constitution
C. Japanese
Constitution
D. South African
Constitution
(c) Both 1 & 2

(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(c) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
OR

Appropriation Bill and finance bill?
GS
SC
87. Match the following:

List 1
List 2
A. Fourth schedule
1) acts and regulations
dealing with land
reform
B. Ninth schedule
2) provision related
with
scheduled
areas.
C. Fifth schedule
3) allocations of seats
in Rajya sabha to
the states and UTs.
D. Eleventh schedule 4) provisions related
with power and
authorities
of
panchayats.
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
88. Which of the following sources form the

Consolidated fund of India?
1. All revenues collected by the government
2. All loans raised by the government
3. All receipts from recoveries from loans
granted by government
Choose the correct option:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
1. Appropriation bill pertains to expenditure

only; finance bill pertains to both
expenditure and revenue.
2. Finance bill is a money
Appropriation bill is not.
bill
but

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The National Development Council (NDC)
is presided over by the PM and includes
CMs of all States, Administrators of UTs
and deputy chairman of Planning
Commission.
2. It is a statutory body and its decisions are
binding on Planning Commission.
3. Its basic objective is to ensure the balanced
and rapid development of all parts of the
country and to promote common economic
policies in all vital spheres.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3

Preamble of the Constitution.
1. In the event of a conflict between the
Preamble and a specific provision of the
Constitution the former will prevail.
15

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
OR

Fundamental Rights.
1. The right to move Supreme Court for the
enforcement of the Fundamental Rights is
guaranteed in the constitution.
2. The right to get the Fundamental Rights
protected is in itself a Fundamental Right
in the constitution.
3. Both Supreme Court and High Courts can
issue writs for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights as well as for any other
purpose.

1. Fundamental Duties was added to
Constitution through 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1976.
2. Penalty or punishment cannot be imposed
for any non-compliance with or refusal to
observe any of these duties.
3. Fundamental Duties serve as a warning
against the anti-national and anti-social
activities.
2. The Preamble is not a part of the basic

structure of the Constitution.
3. It was held by the Supreme Court as not a
part of the Constitution in Berubari Union
Case.
SC
96. Which of the following provisions can be kept

under the category of the welfare functions of
the Indian state?
1. Telecommunication and defense
2. Reservation policy
3. Right to food and employment Guarantee
4. Right to education
5. Rehabilitation of the aged and the disabled
GS

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
94. Match the following.

List I
List II
A. Habeas Corpus
1) Against
the
unlawful arrest and
detention
B. Mandamus
2) Against
Nonperformance
of
public Duty
C. Quo Warranto
3) Against violation of
natural justice
D. Certiorari
4) Against exercise of
power
without
Jurisdiction
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
16
Choose the correct code:

(a) Only 1, 2, 3 & 4
(b) Only 2, 3, 4 & 5
(c) Only 1, 3, 4 & 5

Directive Principle of States Policy (DPSP).
1. DPSP aimed at realizing high ideals of
justice, liberty, equality and dignity of
individual.
2. DPSP acts as reference and should be kept
in mind by government while framing
public policies and laws.
3. In Minerva Mill's case, Supreme Court held
that fundamental rights and directive
principle of state policy are complementary
to each other.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
100. Part 14 of the constitution deals with the public

services and service commissions. Which of the
following statements are correct with respect
to Union Public Service Commission?
1. In the view of upholding the principle of
independence of the constitutional body,
chairman of UPSC is not eligible for
appointing as a governor of a state.
2. UPSC, a constitutional body which acts as
watchdog of merit system in India, is a
recruiting and appointing agency.
OR
99. Consider the following statements with respect

to Judiciary in India.
1. Parliament can confer on the Supreme
courts the power to issue writs for issues
other than Fundamental Rights.
2. Both Appellate and Writ Jurisdiction powers
of Supreme courts & High Courts are
original in nature and are exclusive.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
98. Which of the following statements is/are

incorrect?
1. Constitution of India has not prescribed any
qualification for Election Commissioners.
2. Constitution of India is silent on further
employment of Election Commissioners.
SC

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
GS
17
E
OR
SC
GS
18

All India P.T. Test Series - Polity &amp; Governance

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

All India P.T. Test Series - Polity &amp; Governance

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

IAS P.T.

TEST SERIES - 2014

POLITY & GOVERNANCE

Maximum Marks: 200

IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

You have to enter your Roll Number on the test Booklet in

All items carry equal marks.

Off No. 06 Ist Floor, Apsara Arcade,

A - 19, 3rd Floor, Priyanka Tower,

1. The role performed by the constitution for the

Select the correct code:

5. The Election Commission, political parties,

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

6. Which of the following statements are true

2. The special powers of Rajya Sabha includes:

3. Which of the following pairs of provision and

Select the correct code:

4. Which of the following statements about election

7. The President can exercise discretionary powers

Select the correct code:

Select the correct code:

Select the correct code:

Select the correct code:

9. The advantages of the separation of Secretariat

12. What is the role of the President of India with

8. The advantages of bicameral legislature are:

Select the correct code:

10. Which of the following provisions are amended

13. Consider the following statements related to

18. The provisions related to Parliament's control

19. Consider the following statements related to

15. Consider the following statements related to the

16. Consider the following statements related to

Which of the above statements are correct?

17. Consider the following statements related to

20. Consider the following statements related to

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Which of the above statements are correct?

Which of the above statements are correct?

IAS TEST SERIES 2014

Which of the above provisions are correct?

25. Which of the following titles is/are disallowed

21. Consider the following provisions related to

22. Which of the following are correctly matched?

23. Which of the following statements do not

Select the correct code:

29. The important factors which challenge the rule

33. The eligibility criteria quoted by Sarkaria

Select the correct code:

3. The Governor should be appointed by the

(b) Only 2 & 3

34. The judiciary exercises control over

Select the correct option:

(a) Only 1 & 3

31. Consider the following statements related to

Select the correct code:

Select the correct code:

Select the correct code:

30. The implementation of DPSP Principles lead

Which of the above techniques are correct?

35. The seat in the Parliament is deemed to be

(c) Only 1 & 2

(d) Only 2 & 3

1. Increases the wage rate in rural areas and

All India P.T. Test Series - Polity & Governance

All India P.T. Test Series - Polity & Governance