Ese 2013 Me Paper 1 Set A

Institute for Engineers (IES/GATE/PSUs)
ESE - 2013
Exam Solutions (Mechanical Engineering)
Our Top Results in ESE - 2012

AIR
Vikas Ahlawat (CE)
AIR
2
AIR
7
AIR
8
AIR
12
AIR
16
AIR
25
CE
CE
CE
CE
ME
ME
Inderjeet Kaushik
Vipin Kumar
Sudhir Kumar
Musale Gautam Shirish
Vipin Kumar
Nilesh Kumar
AIR
37
AIR
47
AIR
58
AIR
60
AIR
61
AIR
63
CE
CE
CE
CE
ME
CE
Indrajeet Singh
Hemant Kumar
Vivek Nandan
Avinash Mishra
Ranjeet Kumar
Manish Kanodia
AIR
68
AIR
77
AIR
81
AIR
88
AIR
95
AIR
96
CE
CE
CE
CE
CE
CE
Shashi Kumar
Rajat Kr. Sharma
Rohit Jorwal
Rajkumar Garg
Vivek Kushwaha
Manish Garg
Continued......
Office Address : F-126, Katwaria Sarai, New Delhi - 110 016.
Telephone : 011-41013406, Mobile : 8130909220, 9711853908, 7838813406
Web : www.iesmaster.org
E-mail : ies_master@yahoo.co.in
Institute for Engineers (IES/GATE/PSUs)

AIR
111
AIR
116
AIR
122
AIR
134
AIR
147
AIR
155
CE
CE
CE
CE
CE
ME
Divey Kr. Sethi
Rakesh Uday
Shelke Pratap Ramchandra
Roopesh D
Chandra Bhan Singh
Rahul Meena
AIR
159
AIR
163
AIR
164
AIR
170
AIR
201
AIR
210
CE
CE
CE
CE
CE
CE
Rajesh Kumar
Ashish Kumar
Shivram Meena
Shailendra Soni
Rakesh Birla
AIR
214
AIR
221
AIR
224
CE
CE
CE
Gaurav Singh
Himanshu
Kuldeep Kr. Kanauzia
Landmark
Achievement of All India
1st Rank in very First Year of
IES Master in ESE-2012
Deshraj Meena
As per information received so far
Our Top Results in GATE - 2013

AIR
Vikas Ahlawat (CE)
AIR
3
AIR
6
AIR
20
AIR
34
AIR
35
CE
CE
CE
CE
CE
Swanapil Chaurasia
Abhinav Garg
Manohar
Divey Sethi
Bharat Bhushan
AIR
43
AIR
105
AIR
114
AIR
139
AIR
159
CE
CE
CE
CE
CE
Amitesh Pryadarshi
Nilesh Kumar
Sumit Garg
Vishal Mehta
Bharat Bhushan
and many more....
Admission Open For Session 2013-14

CIVIL ENGG - 8th JULY
MECHANICAL ENGG - 8th JULY
Explanation of Mechanical Engg. Paper-I (ESE - 2013)

SET - A
The value of an extensive property is
essentially dependent on
This expression is defined for a quasi-static

(reversible) process only. For non-quasi-static
or nn-reversible process, the path followed
by process is not defined and integration can
not be performed.
TE
(a) mass of the system

(b) interaction of the system with its surroundings
(c) path followed by the system in going from
one state to another
(d) nature of boundaries, rigid or flexible
Sol. The displacement work pdV
1.
Ans. (a)
4.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
non flow reversible process

steady flow reversible process
open system and any process
any system and any process
Ans. (a)
(a) 1.421 kg/s

(c) 0.1421 kg/s
(b) 14.21 kg/s

(d) 0.0421 kg/s
Ans. (a)
Sol.
Pdv gives work during non-flow reversible
IE
Sol.
1 pdv gives the measure of
The expression
work during
2.
AS
Sol. Extensive properties of a system depends

upon the mass of system only and intensive
properties independent of mass.
If power developed by a turbine in a certain

steam power plant is 1200 kW. Heat
supplied to boiler is 3360 kJ/kg. The heat
rejected by the system to cooling water is
2520 kJ/kg, and feed pump work required
to condensate back into boiler is 6 kW, then
the mass rate of flow through the cycle will
be
g
J /k
0k
6
3
3
1
Q 1=
Q 1200 kW
4
Wc
Q2 2520 kJ/kg
(quasi-static) proces and Vdp gives work
3.
during steady flow reversible process.
Net work output
The displacement work down by a system
Q1 Q2 Wnet
m
is given by pdv . It is valid for
3360 2520 1200 6

m
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
any process
a quasi-static process
an isentropic process
a non-quasi-static process
5.
1144
1 42143 kg / sec
840
An electric power plant produces 10 MW of

power consuming 90 106 kJ/hour of fuel
Ans. (b)

energy. The heat rejected by the power

plant is
(a) 5 MW
(c) 15 MW
873 W 580 W 580 Q2
(b) 10 MW
(d) 20 MW
T
W
293 580
1 2 1
W Q2
T1
873 873
873 580 W
Ans. (c)
Q2
Sol. Net power output

= Heat suppleid - Heat rejected
For
W 1 kW output
Q2
293
1 0 5050 kW
580
90 106
10000
3600
25000 10000 = 1500 kW = 15 MW
6.
Wh ic h th e r mody n amic s law pr edic ts

correctly, the degree of completion of
chemical reaction?
(b) First law
(d) Third law
(a) Zeroth law

(c) Second law
Ans. (c)
A Carnot en gine rejects 50% of heat

absorbed from a source to a sink at 27C.
What is the source temperature?
(a) 54C
(c) 327C
Sol.
T1 ?
HE
In a cyclic heat engine operating between

a source temperature of 600C and sink
temperature of 20C, the least rate of heat
rejection per kW net output of engine is
(a) 0.588 kW
(c) 0.505 kW
(b) 0.650 kW
(d) 0.460 kW
Q1
T2
Q
1 2
T1
Q1
0 5 Q1
300
1
T1
Q1
300
05
T1
Ans. (c)
Sol.
(b) 150C
(d) 600C
Ans. (c)
IE
S
7.
8.
AS
Q2 Q1 Power
TE
Power = Q1 Q2
580
T1 600 K 327C
W
HE
Q2
9.
A non flow quest-static (reversible) process

occurs for which P = ( 3V + 16) bar,
For reversible heat engine
where V is volume in m3. What is work

done when V changes form 2 to 6 m 3?
W
T
1 2
Q1
T1
(a) 16 105 J
(c) 16 103 J
W Q1 Q2
(b) 16.5 105 J

(d) 16.5 102 J
Ans. (a)

Sol.
Cop HP H Cop ref 1 4 5
P 3 V 16 bar
Work done in quasi-static process
Q1
25
Q1 = 12.5 kJ
5
3V 16 105 dV
6
3
V 2 105 16 6 2 105
2
2
1 5 32 16 4 105
48 64 105 16 105 J
(a) 2 kJ
(c) 12.5 kJ
(b) 2.5 kJ
(d) 2.5 kJ
Ans. (c)
Envrt
Sol.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans. (b)
Sol. Since the hydrocarbon fuel is burning in

deficit air but due to practical constraints it
is not possible to utilize complete air.
So the orsat analyser will CO, CO2, O2 and
N2.
12.
S
R/HP
IE
Q2
T2
(CoP)ref = 4
Heat taken from cold reservoir,
Q2 = 10kJ,
Q2
W
10
W
W = 2.5 kJ
Now the same same machine works as
Heat-pump.
Joules experiment states that for a cycle

(a) change of pressure is proportional to temperature change
(b) change of volume is proportional to temperature change
(c) change of internal energy is proportional
to temperature change
(d) sum of all heat transfers is proportional
to sum of all work transfers
R1
Cop
CO2 N2 and O2
CO, CO2 N2 and O2
CO, CO2 N2
CO2, CO, N2 O2 and H2O
AS
A refrigeration unit has a COP of 4 and

extracts 10 kJ of heat from the cold
reservoir. If this machine works as a heat
pump, how much heat will it deliver to the
environment?
10.
When a hydrocarbon fuel burns in deficit

air. Orsat analyzer will show the presence
of hollowing gases in the engine exhaust
TE
1 5 105 32 16 4 105
11.
PdV
Ans. (d)
Sol. Joules experiment states that for a cycle.
J Q cycle W cycle
Work involve a cycle is proportional to heat
involve.
13.
An insulated content is divided into two

compartments A and B by a thin diagram.
While A contains a mass of gas at pressure
P and temperature T, B is evacuated. The
diaphragm is punctured and the gas in A

Ans. (c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Sol. From low of increase of entropy, it is

stated that entropy always try to be maximum.
adiabatic
isentropic
constant internal energy
free expansion
16.
Sol
P, T
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Evacuated
AS
Diaphragm
Gas in chamber A will expand freely when

diaphragm is punctured-Because chamber
B is evacuated and other no resistance.
A gas is flowing through an insulated

nozzle. If the inlet velocity of gas is
negligible and there is an enthalpy drop of
45 kJ/kg, the velocity of gas leaving the
nozzle is
14.
Sol. Since the process gradient is finite it

should be irreversible whatever be the time
involve.
17.
V2
h2
V1
h1
From SFEE, h1
1 2
1
V1 h 2 V22
2
2
V2 2 h1 h 2 V12 2 45000 0
90000 300 m / sec
15.
Whic h of th e following pr ocesses are

irreversible?
1. Heat transfer through a finite temperature difference
2. Free expansion
3. Transfer of electricity through a resistor
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)
Sol.
becomes reversible
is irreversible
becomes isothermal
is adiabatic
Ans. (b)
(b) 200 m/s

(d) 350 m/s
IE
S
(a) 100 m/s

(c) 300 m/s
If the time taken by a system to execute a

pr oc ess th r oug h a fin ite g r adien t is
infinitely large, the process
TE
Ans (d)
rushes into B. The process is called.
Ans. (a)
Sol. Finite gradient results in irreversibilities.
Free expansion is always irreversible. Transfer of electricity through resistor is due to
potential difference (potential gradient) and
involves heat generation which is again an
irreversible process.
18.
The entropy of universe tends to
Whic h of th e following pr ocesses are

thermodynamically irreversible?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1. Gradual heating of water from a hot

source
2. Isothermal expansion in a Stirling
cycle
become zero
remain constant
be maximum
attain a certain finite minimum value

3. Mixing of two ideal gases at constant

pressure
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
1000136 T2136
1361
5136 1
1
036
1 136
T2 1000
= 653 K
5
Ans. (d)
462
362
462
362
kW/kg
kW/kg
kW/kg
kW/kg
and
and
and
and
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
IE
Ans. (b)
Sol.
1 0425 1000 653 361 64 kJ / kg

20.
AS
Consider a gas turbine supplied with gas

at 1000 K and 5 bar to expand aidabatically
to a 1 bar. The mean specific heat at
constant pressure is 1.0425 kJ/kgK and
constant volume is 0.7662 kj/kgK. Calculate
power developed in kW/kg of gas per second
and exhaust gas temperature.
647
653
653
647
K
K
K
K
19.
Work done h1 h 2 c p T1 T2
TE
Sol. In stirling cycle it is assumed that the

expansion and compression are reversible.
The heating of water from hot source involve
heat transfer due to temperature difference
i.e. irreversible. The mixing of ideal gases at
constant pressure may be due to temperature
difference i.e. irreversible.
5 ba
1 ba
van der Waals equation of state

Barrette-Bridgeman equation of state
Redlich-Kwong equation of state
Generalized compressibility chart
Sol. Options a,b, and c have characteristic gas

equations involving characteristic constant
but genrealized compressibility chart involves
reduced properties which are the ratio of
actual property and critical property.
21.
If a pure substance is below the triple point

temperature, the solid on being heated will only
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
solidify or freeze
liquefy
vaporize or sublimate
have its temperature increased
Ans. (c)
s
c p 1.0425 kJ / kgK
c v 0.7662 kJ / kgK
cp
c 1.36
v
Temperature after expansion

T1
T
2 1
1
P1
P2
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans. (d)
1000 K
1
It is very useful in predicting the properties

of gases for which more precise data are
not available, but their reduced properties
are known
Sol. Below triple point the liquid phase does not

exist.
22.
A 70 kg person walks on snow with a total

foot implint area of 500 cm2. What pressure
does he exert on snow?
(a) 0.5 kPa
(c) 13.73 kN/m2
(b) 12.5 kPa

(d) 137.3 kN/m2
Ans. (c)

Sol. Normal pressure on ice
Ans. (c)
A r ev er sib le en g in e h as idea l th er mal

efficien c y of 30%. When it is u sed as a
refrigerating machine with all conditions
unchanged, the coefficient of performance
will be
Sol. The efficiency of Diesel cycle,
(a) 3.33
(c) 2.33
(b) 3.00
(d) 1.33
Ans. (c)
rc 1
Q
1 1
W
1 . 1
1 2
rk
Q1 Q1
rc 1
rk re rc
At constant compression ratio if fuel cut off
ratio rc is increased, the heat addition is in-
T1
Q1
HE
25.
Thermal efficiency,
0 30 1
T2
T1
Q2
T2
AS
creased and expansion ratio re is decreased
Sol.
IE
S
T2
0 7
T1
Now refrigerating machine operates

under same conditions.
T2
1
COP
T1 T2 T1
1
T2
24.
13 73 kN / m 2
TE
23.
(d) change as the fuel cut-off ratio is increased
70 9 81
500 10 4
1
1
0 7
7
7 2 33
3
10 7
For a heat engine working on an airstandard Diesel cycle the efficiency will
(a) increase as the fuel cut-off ratio is
increased
(b) not change as the fuel cut-off ratio is increased
(c) decrease as the fuel cut-off ratio is increased
i.e. work out put decrease. So the with increase in fuel cutt off. The efficiency of Diesel
engine decrease.
For a given compression ratio, which of the
following ideal cycles have equal thermal
efficiency?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Diesel and Stirling

Stirling and Otto
Otto and Joule
Joule and Diesel
Ans. (c)
Sol. The expression for efficiency of Otto and Joule
(Braylon) cycle for compression ratio rk,
1
26.
1
rk
In gas cycle refrigeration, an engine is used

unstead of a throttle valve for pressure drop
of the refrigerant, because
(a) enough cooling or temperature drop is not
obtained by throttling
(b) there can be even heating of the gas if
the temperature before throttling is not
below
the
maximum inversion
temperature
(c) there is inadequate content of temperature

(d) there can be leakage of gas
1842 V314 1 T4 V414 1
Ans. (d)
1.4 1
V
T4 1842 3
V4
Sol. In gas refrigeration if the gas is ideal gas

there is no temperature change
An air standard Otto cycle has volumetric

compression ratio of 6, the lowest cycle,
pressure of 0.1 MPa and operates between
temperature limits of 27C and 1569C.
What is the temperature after isentropic
expansion if ratio of specific heats is 1.4?
(b) 700 K
(d) 1000 K
(c)
Sol.
(a) 600 K
(c) 900 K
Ans.
28.
In SI engines for higher thermal efficiency

(a) compression ratio should be high
(b) heat liberation during combustion should
be maximum
(c) surface to volume ratio should be high
(d) long flame travel distance
Ans. (a)
AS
27.
899 56 K
TE
during throttling because enthalpy remains

constant. If the gas is real gas, then it is well
known from Jouble - Kelvin effect that temperature of gas may increase upon throttling
if initial temperature before throttling is less
than inversion temperature.
04
i.e. air
1
1842
6
Sol. The prime factor to increase efficiency in good

amount is compression ratio. Heat libration
during combustion also influence the efficiency but depends upon in which stage (initial or last) the heat libration is high.
29.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
IE
V1
6, P1 0 1 M Pa, 1 4
V2
The object of providing masked inlet valve

in the air passage of compression ignition
engines is to
enhance flow rate
control air flow
induce primary swirl
induce secondary turbulence
Ans. (c)
T1 27C 300 K
Sol. The primary swirl in open combustion chamber is provided by masking of inlet valve as
well as designing intake pipe.
T3 1569C 1842 K
30.
T4 ?
V4 V1
6
V3 V2
TV 1 cons tant
T3 V31 T4 V41
Which one of the following types of swirls

is generated by a precombustion chamber
in the diesel engine?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Squish
Compression swirl
Induction swirl
Combustion induced swirl
Ans. (b)

Sol. Pre compression chamber is a small chamber

connected to main chamber where combustion starts. Due to this partial combustion in
precombustion chamber, the compression
swirl is produced.
(a) 15C btdc

(c) 27C btdc
(b) 21C btdc

(d) 39C btdc
Ans.. (b)
Sol.
12
Ans. (b)
misfiring
detonation
knowcking
longer ignition delay
TE
In an SI en g in e th e fir st stag e of
combustion takes 1 ms and the second stage
2 ms at 1000 rpm of the engine. The spark
timing is set at 15 btdc. What will be the
new spark timing required if the engine
speed is doubled?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Sol. Generally denotation term is used with SI

engine fuel and knocking with CI engine fuel
i.e. diesel.
33.
AS
31.
same phenomenon.
Which of the following increase the diesel

knowking tendency?
1.
2.
3.
4.
(a)
(c)
Decreased compression ratio

Decreased engine speed
Retarded injection timing
Supercharging
1 only
(b) 2 only
2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
15
IE
S
First stage of combustion is purely chemical so angle turned by crank during first
stage,
1000 360
103
60
= 6
Second stage rotation i.e.
2m sec. = 12
When rpm is doubled, the second stage
crank rotation is uneffected i.e. 12 which
first stage which is time dependent chemical reaction.
Crank rotation degree
= 62 = 12
So new engine spark timing i.e. injection
advance
= 15 + 6
= 21
1 m sec
32.
Sometimes detonation word issued with SI

engine and diesel knock with CI engine for
Ans. (a)
Sol. Diesel knocking is enhanced by low
compression ratio which results in low temperature and low pressure. These low temperature and low pressure retards the first
state combustion which results in
knocking.
34.
Pre-ignition in SI engines results in :

1. Increase in the work of compression
2. Increase in the network of the process
cycles
3. Decrease in fuel efficiencies
4. Decrease in fuel loss from the engine
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (c)
Sol. Pre-ignition is SI engine is abnormal combustion which disturbs overall working of
engine i.e. advance ignition which increases

compression improper burning fuel i.e. lower

fuel efficiencies.
Which of the following statements are
correct for Diesel knowck?
37.

correct for turbo-prop powered aircrafts?
1. The propulsion efficiency of turbo prop is
higher than that of turbo-jet and rockets
for low speeds up to about 800 km/hr.
2. For the same thrust the turbine in the
turbo-pro aircraft is smaller than in the
turbo-jet aircraft.
3. For the turbo-prop the flight velocity cannot exceed the jet velocity.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
AS
TE
1. A long ignition delay period increases tendency of Diesel knock.

2. The Diesel knock occurs near the end of
combustion
3. The rate of pressure rise in Diesel knock
is lower than in detonation in spark ignition engines.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
35.
working pressure higher power output etc.

Thermal efficiency increases because of more
amount of air available for more fuel burning.
Ans. (d)
36.
Sol. Long ignition delay accumulates more amount

of fuel for instant burning. But rate of pressure fluctuation is lesser than SI engine detonation.
Which of the following remarks pertaining
to supercharging of IC engines are correct?
IE
1. Ideal supercharging increases the output,

but decreases the thermal efficiency
slightly
2. The indicated mean effective pressure and
mechanical efficiency increase with supercharging
3. The permissible amount of super charging depends on the compression rati, airfuel mixture and design of engine
4. Engine friction losses increase with
supercharging
(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (d)
Sol. Supercharging of an engine increases overall
mechanical loading which increases friction,
Ans. (a)
Sol. Turbo-prop powered air craft are suitable for
low speed and low altitudes only. They are
efficient because large amount of thrust is
obtained from propeller run by small turbine.
Theoretically maximum speed obtained is
equal to gas jet speed.
38.
If absolute jet exit velocity from a jet engine

is 2800 m/s and forward flight velocity is
2800 m/s and forward flight velocity is 1400
m/s, then propulsive efficiency is
(a) 33.33%
(c) 66.66%
(b) 40%
(d) 90%
Ans. (c)
Sol.
Propulsive efficiency
2
Jetvelocity
1
Flightvelocity
1
2
2/3
2800 1 2
1
1400
= 66.6%

1
2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
(a)
41.
Ans. (c)
(a) prevent the coolant from boiling

(b) allows the engine to warm up quickly
(c) pressurize the system to raise the boiling
point
(d) indicate to the driver, the coolant temperature
42.
AS
Sol. Assuming no compensatory device in

engine, the mass flow rate of air at higher
altitude will be halved and fuel rate will
remains unaltured. So air-fuel ratio will be
halved.
correct for rockets?
40.
The purpose of a thermostat in an engine

cooling system is to
An air-breathing aircraft is flying at an

altitude where the air density is half the
value at ground level. With reference to
the ground level, the air-fuel ratio at this
altitude will be
TE
39.
IE
S
1. Unlike the turbo-jet aircraft, in rockets

the flight velocity can exceed the jet velocity
2. In rockets gases having lower molecular
weight increase the specific thrust.
3. In rockets the gases are expanded in the
nozzle up to the atmosphere pressure.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1m and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Water reacts with nitrogen oxides

water does not contain nitrogen
the combustion temperature decreased
the combustion temperature increased
Ans. (c)
Sol. The only effective method to control NOx is
to keep the combustion temperature low by
any method. The water in emulsion of fuel
evaporates during combustion and temperature drops to lower value.
43.
In spark ignition petrol engines maximum

emission of NO x takes place when the air
fuel ratio (A/F) is
(a) very weak mixture and A/F ratio about
19
(b) weak mixture and A/F ratio about 17
(c) chemically correct mixture and A/F ratio
about 15
(d) rich mixture and A/F ratio about 13
Ans. (a)
Sol. Flight velocity can be more than exhaust jetvelocity.
In order to reduce the peak temperature during combustion, the number of molecules in
exhaust gases should be high because gas
total energy depends upon number of molecules.
Rocket gases can expand beyond atmospheric
pressure. This will reduce thrust. So generally expansion upto atospheric is allowed.
When water emulsion is used as the fuel in

SI engine the emission of nitrogen oxides
reduces significantly, this is due to
Ans. (b)
Sol. For NOx formation the required condition in
availability of oxygen and high temperature.
This high temperature and oxygen availability is achieved at a little lean air fuel ratio
around (17).
44.
In an experiment to determine the higher

c alor ific v alu e of a fu el w ith bomb

calorimeter , a few drops of water is
dropped into the bomb before sealing. This
is to
Sol.
(a) help absorption of carbon dioxide gas

(b) absorb latent heat of steam formed by
combustion of hydrogen
(c) saturate the air inside with water vapour
initially
(d) avoid overheating of the contents by burnt
gasts
AS
thermal diffusivity
kinematic viscosity
dynamic viscosity
mass diffusivity
IE
momentum diffusivity is same i.e. m 2 / sec.

The unit of dynamic viscosity is Newton-sec/
m2.
In an d i deal v apou r c om pr ession
r efr ig er at ion c y c le th e r efr ig er ation
effect is 80 kJ/kg of refrigerant flow.
The COP is 4. If the flow of the refrigerant
is 2 kg/s, the heat rejected in the condenser
is
(a) 50 kW
(c) 150 kW
Ans. (d)
R
W
80
W
W 20 kJ / kg
Sol. Kinematic viscosity is also called momentum

diffusivity. So the units of thermal, mass and
46.
R
CoP
Q RW
80 20
= 100 kJ/kg
Heat rejected in kW
= 100 2 = 200 kW
The unit of the following property is not

m2/s
Ans. (c)
Sol. The drops of water will absorb the water

vapour formed by the combustion of hydrgeon
in fuel and gives the reading for higher calorific value.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
TE
Ans. (b)
45.
3
p
(b) 100 kW
(d) 200 kW
47.
In the expansion valve of a refrigerator,

the following property remains constant
(a) entropy
(c) internal energy
(b) enthalpy
(d) product pv
Ans. (b)
Sol. The process occuring in expansion value is
throttling and enthalpy remains constant in
expansion valve.
48.
Th e Poiss on s equ ation of g en er al

conduction heat transfer applies to the case
(a) steady state her conduction with heat generation
(b) steady state heat cc reaction without heat
generation
(c) unsteady state heat conduction without
heat generation
(d) unsteady state heat conduction with heat
generation
Ans. (a)

Tmax C
Sol. The poisson equation for a potential .
qx 2
2k
At x 5 cm
2 cons tan t 0
For heat conduction, the potential is temperature
T Tmax
Tmax T 50
2 T Cons tan t 0
So in steady state conduction with uniform heat generation,
q
0
k
Ans. (b)
AS
A plane slab of 100 mm thickness generates

heat. It is observed that the temperature
drop between the centre and its surface to
be 50C. If the thickness is increased to 20
cm the temperature difference will be
(a) 100C
(c) 400C
50.
(b) 200C
(d) 600C
IE
S
d2T q
0
dx 2 k
q
dT
xc
dx
k
At centre of wall i.e. x 0
qx
dT
dx
k
qx2
T
C
2k
At center, x 0
T = maximum
Three fins of equal length and diameters

but made of aluminimum, brass and castiron are heated to 200C at one end. If the
fins dissipate heat to the surrounding air
at 25C the temperature at the free end
will be least in case of
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
T
100
mm
200 mm
...( ii )
Tmax T 50 4 200C
Sol. The conduction equation with uniform heat

generation,
dT
dx 0
x 0
q
100
2k
50
25
4
Tmax T 100
Tmax T
49.
TE
2T
q
25
...( i )
2k
Now x 10 cm
aluminium fin
brass fin
cast iron fin
each fin will have the same temperature
the free end
Ans. (c)
Sol. Temperature reduction per unit length depends upon thermal conductivity. If thermal
conductivity is large the temperature reduction will be low. So for least temperature at
end of fin, i.e. large temperature reduction.
The thermal conductivity should be low. Cast
iron has the lowest thermal conductivity.
51.
Th e satur ation temperature of water

vapour at its partial pressure is equal
to
(a) wet bulb temperature
(b) dew point temperature

(c) adiabatic saturation temperature

(d) dry bulb temprature
3. Absorptivity, 1 represent a black surface

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (b)
Sol.
Ans. (c)
T
Cons tan t
pressure cooling
Hot air at 150C flows over a flat plane

maintained at 50C. If the forced convection
heat transfer coefficient is 75 W/m 2K, the
heat gain rate by the plate through an area
of 2 m2 will be
AS
52.
TE
dew pe int temp.
54.
(a) 15 kW
(b) 22 5 kJ/S
Ans. (a)
150 C
(c) 7 5 kJ/S
(d) None of the above
Sol.
Sol. A black body is a perfect emitter and perfect

absorber. It emits radiations at all temperature.
In thermal equilibrium with surroundings, it
emits the radiation heat and gains the same
from surroundings.
Absorptivity, 1 mean emissivity 1
(Kirchhoffs low)
What is next radiant interchange per
square meter for two very large plates at
temperature 800 K and 500 K respectively?
Emissivities of hot and cold plates are
0 8and0 6 and Stefan-Boltzmann constant
is 5 67 10 W/m2 K 4
(a) 1026 kW/m 2
(c) 102 6 kW/m2
(b) 10 26 kW/m2
(d) 1.026 kW/m 2
Ans. (b)
Ts 50 C
Sol. Net radiation exchanged between two large

parallel plates.
IE
h 75 W / m K ,A 2 m
Heat gained by plate
hA T Ts
T14 T24
1
1
1

E1 E 2
75 2 150 150
15kW
53.

correct for a blackbody?
1. A blackbody continues to emit radiation
even when it is in thermal equilibrium
with
2. A blackbody is a perfect emitter
5 67 108 8004 5004
1
1
0 8 0 6 1
10 27 kW / m 2
55.
Uniform heat generation takes place in a

symmetric slab so that heat flows towards
both sides in contact with fluid. The zerogradient boundary condition
(a) left wall of slab
(c) centerline of slab
T
0 occurs at
x
(b) right wall of slab

(d) nowhere in slab
Ans. (c)

Sol. Uniform heat generation in symmetrical slab,

the maximum temperature occur at center as
shown in figure So far maximum temperature.
h2 h1
187 53 21 45
TE
209 kJ / kg
This condition occur at center.
(a) 40 2 C
(c) 42 2 C
(d) 43 2 C
as 0 6155 kJ/kgK.
57.
IE
S
2
30 C
Sol.
h1 h4
h2 h1
T2 42 24C
In a 3 ton capacity water coolet, water
enters at 30C and leaves at 15C steadily.
What is the water flow rate per hour?
(b) 100 kg
(d) 2520 kg
3 tons of refrigeration means.

3 5 3 kW
10 5
4 18 15
0 16746 kg / sec
602 87 kg / hr
h 3 64 55 kJ / kg h 4
55
T2 T2 12 44
h2 201 45 kW / kg
R
W
12 24
c p T
10 5 m
W 40 kW, COP 5 5
Cop
209 201 45
0 6155
10 5 kW heatflowrate
h1 187 53 kJ / kg
Ans. (c)
(a) 60 kg
(c) 602 kg
(b) 41 2C
Ans. (c)
T2 T2
AS
A refrigerator operating on standard vapour

compression cycle has COP = 5 5 and is
driven by by 40 kW compressor. Saturated
liquid and saturated vapour enthalpies at
c on den sin g temper atu re of 30C ar e
690 55kJ/kg and 201 45kJ/kg respectively.
Saturated refrigerant vapour leaving the
evaporator has enthalpy of 187 53 kJ/kg .
Find refrigerant temperautre at compressor
h 2 h2 c p T2 T2
discharge. (Take c p of refrigerant vapour
Sol.
55
h 2 h1 21 45
T
0
x
56.
187 53 69 5 21 45
58.
In a vapour compression cycle a good

refrigerant should have a
(a) large latent heat of vaporization of condenser pressure
(b) large heat of evaporator pressure

(c) condenser pressure close to critical

pressure
(d) low critical pressure
(b) 0 6
(c) 0 3
(d) 3 0
Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
Sol. RSH loss = 30000 kJ/hr
Sol.
RLH loss = 20000 kJ/hr
CP
P
Room sensible heat factor,
RSH
30000
RSH RLH 30000 20000
3
0.6
5
TE
2
1
61.
AS
If condenser pressure is close to critical pressure (CP), the amount of refrigeration to reject desired amount of heat in condenser will
be large. So option a and c are rejected.
The critical pressure should be high. Large
latent heat of evaporation ensures good
amount of refrigeration with less refrigerant
circulation.
It is not a cause for discouragement of the
use of Chlorofluorocabon (CFC) refrigerants
in domest ic r efr ig er ator s an d air conditioners for
59.
(a) 0 6
1.
2.
3.
4.
(a)
(c)
Dry bulb temperature

Wet bulb temperature
Relative Humidity
Specific Humidity
1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (a)
Sol.
IE
(a) their ozone depletion potential

(b) their global warming potential
(c) their tendency to migrate to the upper
atmosphere by molecular diffussion
(d) their toxicity and non-availability
When unsaturated air is adiabatically

saturated, which of the following properties
decrease?
RH
DBT
Ans. (c)
DBT-decreases
Sol. Toxicity of refrigerant can not be compromised

in domestic applications. The quality
that can be compromised is their tendency to
migrate upper atmosphere by molecular diffusion.
60.
The room sensible heat loss is 30,000 kJ/h

and the latent heat loss is 20,000 kJ/h.
Then the sensible heat factor is
WBT Constant
Sp. Humidity increases
Relative Humidity increases
62.
It is desired to condition the outside air

from 80% relative humidity and 45C dry
bulb temperature to 55% relative humidity

an d 25C dry bu lb temperature. The

practical arrangement will be
20C
heating and humidification

heating and dehumidification
cooling and humidification
cooling and dehumidification
Sol.
DBT
AS
RH-55%
25C
The process clearly shows the cooling and

dehumidification.
(a) Dry bulb temperature and specific humidity

(b) Wet bulb temperature and relative
humidity
(c) Dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature
(d) Dry bulb temperature and enthalpy
(a) 0 2
(b) 0 4
(c) 0 6
(d) 0 75
Ans. (c)
Sol.
Sol. DBT and specific humidity are two independent variables to construct psychometric
chart. Generally this chart is made at atmospheric pressure i.e. constant pressure.
If air at 20C is heated to 25C using heater
with a surface temperature of 30C then,
the by-pass factor is
(a) 2 0
(b) 0 5
(c) 1 0
Ans. (b)
15C
30C
40C
Coil efficiency =
=
66.
AB 30 15
AC 40 15
15
0.6
25
In the air-conditioned space, fan load is

considered as
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans. (a)
64.
15
0.6
25
Th e atom osph er ic air at dr y bu lb

temperature 15C enters a heating coil
maintained at 40C. If the air leaves the
heating coil at 30C, the coil efficiency is
equal to
Which parameters are the independent

v ar iable s in th e c on str u c tion of
psychometric plot for a particular value of
barmetric pressure?
IE
S
63.
30C
BC 30 15
Bypass factor =
AC 40 15
65.
RH-80%
45C
25C
Ans. (d)
TE
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Sol.
latent heat gain

sensible heat gain
both sensible and latent heat gain
Not considered as load
Ans. (b)
Sol. The equipment load in air conditioned space
is considered as sensible load because they
did not put any moisture as latent heat load.
67.
Equal friction method for designing airconditioning duct

(a) ensures constant static pressure at all terminals in the duct

(b) ensures same velocity in the duct all

through in all branches
(c) automatically reduces the air velocity in
the duct in the direction of flow
(d) does none of the above
(a) 9 9 m / s
(b) 14 0 m / s
(c) 17 1 m / s
(d) 19 8 m / s
Sol.
TE
Sol. In equal friction method, the frictional pressure drop per unit length of main duct and
branched duct is same so it reduces process
automatically by friction.
Ans. (b)
Ans. (c)
In a differntial manometer a head of 0 6

m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance
a head of 0 3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The
ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
(a) 2
(b) 0 5
(c) 0 3
(d) 0 18
Sol.
0.3 m
IE
The pressure at bottom in both the limbs

balances each other
A gh a Bgh B
2 9.81 (20 15)
98.1 = 9.9 m/sec
The centre of pressure of a plane submerged

surface
Sol. The definition of centre of pressure is the

point where the resultant hydrostatic force
supposed to act. It always acts below the
centroid of area. But locations is its characteristics not definition so option a is correct
A
0.5
B
5m
20 m
2gh
Ans. (a)
A 0.6 B 0.3
69.
(a) is a point on the submerged area at which

the resultant hydrostatic force is supposed
to act
(b) should always coincide within the centre
of submerged area
(c) should be at the centre of gravity of the
plane surface
(d) is always below the centroid of area
0.6 m
15 m
Velocity of jet
70.
Ans. (b)
5m
20 m
AS
68.
The velocity at the exit of the pipe as shown

in the above figure will be
71.
A pice of metal of specific gravity floats in

mercury of specific gravity 13 6 , what
fraction of its volume is under mercury?
(a) 0 5
(b) 0 4
(c) 0 515
(d) Fully immersed
Ans. (c)

and rotated about its vertical axis at such

a speed that half of the liquid spills out.
The pressure at the centre of the bottom is
Metal
=7
V
= 13.6
(a) zero
(b) one-fourth its value when the cylinder
wass full
(c) one-third its value when the cylinder was
full
(d) three-fourth its value when the cylinder
was full
Sol.
Buoyancy force = weight of metal piece

mercury Vg = metal V0g
Ans. (a)
AS
7
metal
0.5147
V0 mercury 13.6
TE
Let the volume under mercury is V and

total volume is V0. so in equilibrium
conditions
Sol.
72.
The streamline equation passing through

the point (2, 3) will be (The two dimensional
flow is given by u a and a )
(b) y x 1
(c) 2x y 1
= 1.2
(a) x y 1
We know that volume of cylinder enclosing

the rotation paraboloid generated due to
rotation is twice the volume of paraboloid.
When half volume of liquid is spilled away
the head at centre of cylinder will be zero
i.e., the liquid surface just touches the
bottom and pressure head at center of
bottom will be zero.
IE
S
Ans. (b)
Sol. The equation of stream line,

dx dy
u
v
uv a
dx dy = 0
Integrating it
x y =C
it passes through (2, 3)
2 3 = C
1 = C
x y = 1,
y = 1+x
73.
A right circular cylinder, open at the top is

filled with a liquid of specific gravity 1 2,
74.
Consider the following statements about

velocity potential :
1. Velocity potential is a vector function
similar to stream function
2. It is a fully three dimensional function
and not limited to two coordinates
3. Velocity potential does not exist at stagnation points
4. Velocity potential exists only if the flow
is Irrotational
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 , 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

Sol. Velocity potential is scalar functions of space

and time in three dimension i.e.,
f = f (x, y, z, t). It exists only for irrotational
flow and does not defined at stagnation points.
The velocity potential function in a two
dimen sion al flow field is g iv en by
x2 y 2 . The magnitude of velocity at
(b) 2
(c) 2 2
(d) 8
Ans. (d)
Sol.
The velocity of oil through siphon
Resultant velocity,
2y 2 1 2
y
S
B
IE
Water flows through a vertical contraction

from a pipe of diameter d to another of
d
. Inlet velocity at inlet to
2
contractionis 2 m/s and pressure 200 kN/
m2. If height of contraction measures 2 m,
the pressure at exit of contraction will be
nearly to
diameter of
(a) 192 kN/m2

(c) 165 kN/m2
u 2 v 2 4 4 2 2 units
2 9.81 (1.5 9)
11 9.81
= 10.4 m/sec
AS
2x 2 1 2
x
2g head of po int C
77.
Sol. x 2 y2
76.
(d) 10 4 m / s
Ans. (c)
V=
(c) 8 8 m / s
TE
(a) zero
v =
(b) 6 7 m / s
point P 1, 1 is
(a) 1 5 m / s
75.
The velocity of oil through the siphon will

be
(b) 150 kN/m2

(d) 175 kN/m2
Ans. (b)
d/2
Sol.
1.5 m
u=42
= 8 m/sec
2m
1.5 m
4m
d
u = 2m/sec
P = 200 kN/m
A tube is used (as shown in the above

figure) as a siphon to discharge an oil of
specific gravity 0 8 from a large open
vessel into a drain at atmospheric pressure.
Applying Bernoullis equation assuming

no loss
p1 u12
p
u2
h1 2 2 h 2
g 2g
g 2g

Reynold number of flow in pipe
p
200 103 4
64
0 2
2
g
2g
g 2g
R=
p2 200 10
4 64 2 2 9.81
g
g
2g
2g
200 49.62
g
4 0.01 900
716.2
0.2 0.08
Hence flow in laminar. So the head loss
in pipe
AS
p2 150.38
eg
g
p2 = 150.38 kN/m2
hf =
In flow through a pipe, the transition from

laminar to turbulent flow does not depend on
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
density of fluid
length of pipe
diameter of pipe
velocity of the fluid
Ans. (b)
= 46.15 900 9.81 0.01 watt
IE
S
uD
= 4.074 kW
80.
A 0 20 m diameter pipe 20 km long
(b) 3 074 kW
(c) 5 064 kW
(d) 4 074 kW
Pressure loss for laminar flow through

pipeline is dependent
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
transports oil at a flow rate of 0 01 m / s .

Calculate power required to maintain flow
if dynamic viscosity and density of oil is
0 08 Pas and 900 kg/m3 respectively.
(a) 4 064 kW
inversely on flow of velocity

directly on square of pipe radius
directly on length of pipe
inversely on viscosity of flowing medium
Ans. (c)
Sol. The pressure loss in pipe due to laminar flow
hf =
Ans. (a)
l = 20 km
Sol.
81.
0.2 m
3
Q = 0.01 m /sec
4 0.01
= 46.15 m
(0.2)4
= h f gQ
It is independent of length.
79.
32 0.08 20 10 4Q
900 9.81
D
power required to maintain flow
Sol. The Reynold number in pipe flow,

R=
32 uL
eg D2
5.22
78.
200 103 49.62
g
g
Q 4Q
A D2
D 4Q 4Q
R=
D2 D
u =
TE
uD
32 uL
pg D2
Fanno line flow is a flow in a constant area

duct
(a) with friction and heat transfer but in the
absence of work

Ans. (c)
82.
smoothen the flow

reduce suction head
increase delivery head
reduce acceleration head
Ans. (d)
Sol. Air vessel reduces the acceleration head. fric2
fL Vmax
.
tion head loss =
D 2g
where Vmax is maximum velocity during pump
piston movement (due to acceleration). By
installing air vessel on both sides of pump
Vmax is drastically reduced.
TE
Sol. Fanno flow in constant area duct is flow with

friction in absence of heat and work transfer.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(b) with friction and heat transfer accompanied by work

(c) with friction but in the absence of heat
transfer or work
(d) without friction but accompanied by heat
transfer and work
In an adiabatic flow with friction through

a c on stan t ar ea du c t, th e follow in g
phenomenons are predicted
84.
IE
AS
1. The flow downstream tends to be sonic

irrespective of the Mach number upstream
2. In the case of initially supersonic flow,
any increase it duct length beyond choked
flow would make the exit flow subsonic
3. In the case of initially subsonic flow increase in duct length will not change sonic
flow at the exit
4. The optimum pipe length for sonic outlet
in supersonic flow is considerably longer
than that of subsonic flow for the same
flow rate
Which of these are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Con sider th e follow in g st atemen ts

pertaining to centrifugal pumps :
1. The inlet to the impeller of a centrifugal

pump is always axial, while the outlet
may be radial or inclined.
2. The impeller may be shrouded on both
sides with an eye at the centre and vanes
curved backwards
3. Impellr of double entry type has a balanced radial thrust.
4. Un-shrouded and part shrouded impeller
are used only where high efficiency is unimportant.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (b)
Ans. (c)
Sol. It is well known that the length of pipe to

make the subsonic flow sonic in fanno flow is
far larger than the length of pipe to make
the supersonic flow sonic. So statement 4 is
wrong. So the correct option is (b)
Sol. Double entry impeller balances axial thrust

not radial.
83.
In a reciprocating pump, air vessels are

used to
85.
A centrifugal pump is fully primed, but on

startin g it fails to deliver flu id. The
probable reasons are listed below
1. Leaky foot valve or suction line

2. Suction head is very low

3. Insufficient motor speed
4. Damaged or closed delivery valve
N = 1450 rpm ; H = 25 m ; B = 5cm

D2 = 25 cm ; Q = 0.118 m3/s
86.
For a given centrifugal pump
0.25 1450
= 19 m/sec.
60
Assuming radial entry,
Manometric efficiency,
gH
0
V2 u2
TE
(a) head varies inversely as square of speed

(b) discharge varies directly as speed
(c) discharge varies directly as square of
speed
(d) power vaires directly as fifth power of speed
Sol. Head of a centrifugal pump,
Hm N 2D2
Discharge, Q ND3
Power, P N3 D5
AS
Ans. (a)
87.
0.75
IE
S
head of 25 m. The impeller diameter is 25

cm, its width at outlet is 5 c m an d
manometric efficiency is 75%. The vane
angle at outer periphery of impeller is
(a) 56 77 C
(b) 59 77 C
(c) 61 77C
(d) 48 77C
Ans. (b)
u2
V2
Vf2
Vr2
9.81 25
V2 19
V2 = 17.2 m/sec
Flow at outlet,
Q D2B Vf2
Vf2
A c en tr if u g al pu mp is to disc h ar g e
0.1118
= 3 m/sec
0.25 0.05
Blade angle at outlet,

Vf2
3
3
tan
u2 V2 19 17.2 = 1.8
0 118m3 /s at speed of 1450 rpm against a
Sol.
D2N
60
u2
Ans. (d)
= 59.05
88.
A turbine is working under a head of 200

m. The power developed by the turbine is
100 kW and discharge through the turbine
is 0 125 m3 / s. In such case, the ratio of
unit power to unit discharge for the turbine
will be
(a) 4000
(b) 16000
(c) 160 103
Ans. (a)
Sol. Ratio of unit power to unit discharge,
Vr1
u1
Pu
P
H
Qu H3/2
Q

202
10
N (0.3)3 ND32
P
100 103
=
HQ
200 0.125
= 4000
=
D2 =
AS
(c) 10 5 mand 0 23 m
Sol. Pump1
(a) turbine
(c) stator
91.
N = 1000 rpm ; D1 = 0.3 m ;

;
H = 20 m
Pump 2
Q = 20 lps
Q1
10 lps
2
D =?
N = 1000 rpm ; Q2 =
H = ?
Both pumps are geometrically similar, and

have same specific speed.
IE
NS1 = NS2
N Q1 N Q2
H13/4
H3/4
2
Q1
(Q1 / 2)
3/4
20
H3/4
2
(20)3/4 H3/4
2
2
20
12.6 m
22/3
Flow coefficient of both the pumps is same
H2 =
Q1
Q2
3
ND1 ND32
(b) impeller
(d) freewheel
Sol. The stator in between turbine and impeller

is used for torque multiplier.
(b) 10 5 mand 0 12 m
Ans. (d)
The component of torque converter that

allows torque multiplication is
Ans. (c)
(a) 12 5 mand 0 12 m
(d) 12 5 mand 0 23 m
90.
Two geometrically similar pumps are

running at 1000 rpm speed (both). If one
pump has impeller diameter of 0 3 m and
the other pump gives half of this discharges
rate; calculate head and diameter of second
pump
TE
89.
0.3
0.238 meter
21/3

correct with respect to regenerative feed
heating in a steam cycle?
1.
2.
3.
4.
It increases cycle efficiency

It increases specific output
It reduces the condenser load
It improves the steam quality at the end
of expansion
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
Sol. Specific output of a turbine is reduced because some power is compromised in regeneration. The steam quality at exist is improved by reheating not regeneration. So
option (a) is correct
92.
Con sider th e follow in g st atemen ts

Isentropic flow through a steam nozzle
becomes choked when
1. Discharge is maximum
2. Discharge is zero
3. Nozzle pressure ratio is a critical pressure ratio
4. Throat velocity reaches sonic value

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1,
1,
2,
1,
2, 3 and 4
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
95.
Ans. (d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Maximum discharge, sonic velocity at minimum

area and pressure ratio is critical ratio
Frictional losses in the nozzle
reduces the enthalpy of the fluid
increases the enthalpy of the fluid
no effect on enthalpy of the fluid
None of the above
Ans. (b)
IE
S
96.
This increase is enthalpy is due to frictional

heat generated during expansion.
In a n oz zle desig n ed for max imu m
discharge conditions, the flow velocity in
the convergent section of the nozzle is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans. (a)
subsonic
sonic
supersonic
depends on initial pressure and condition
Without reducing the fluid flow rate, the

speed of an impulse steam turbine can be
brought down to practical limits by which
of the following methods?
1.
2.
3.
4.
(a)
(c)
Isentropic expansion in nozzle is 1 to 2 but

due to friction the expansion is 1 to 3 and
h3 > h2
94.
Sol. In boiling water reactor, the same coolant

i.e., water circulates in reactor, turbine condenser and pump. So it is the most prone to
radioactive hazards.
Sol.
pressurized water
boiling water
gas cooled
liquid metal cooled
Ans. (b)
AS
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The risk of radioactive hazard is greatest

in the turbine with following reactor
TE
Sol. Chocked nozzle means.
93.
Sol. A converging-diverging nozzle is designed for

maximum discharge then the flow in convergent part is subsonic at throat sonic and divergent part it is supersonic
Large flywheel
Centrifugal governor
Velocity compounding
Steam bleeding
1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
2 only
(d) 3 only
Ans. (d)
Sol. The speed of impulse turbine is brought to
practical limits by velocity compounding, pressure compounding not by other options made
in question.
97.
To improve the quality of steam of turbine

exit whihc of the following will be used?
1. Reheat cycle
2. Increase the maximum pressure
3. Use superheated steam, instead of saturated steam when the maxumum and
minimum pressures are fixed

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only
(a) isentropic work to Euler work

(b) whirl velocity to the blade velocity at the
impeller exit
(c) stagnation pressure to static pressure
(d) isentropic temperature rise to actual temperature rise
Ans. (c)
Sol.
Tmax
1
Sol.
2
s
u2
V2
In the centrifugal compressor the work

input is equal to sum of
Vw2
Slip factor = u
2
IE
(a) pressure head, relative head and dynamic

head
(b) dynamic head, centrifugal head and relative head
(c) pressure head, centrifugal head and dynamic head
(d) pressure head, centrifugal head and
relative head
Ans. (b)
Sol. The work input to centrifugal compressor by

Eulers equation
(u2 Vt2 u1 Vt1 )
w =
g
Vr12 Vr22
V22 V12 (u22 u12 )
=
2g
2g
2g
= Dynamic head + centrifugal head

+ Relative head
99.
For a centrifugal compressor with radial

vanes, slip factor is the ratio of
VS
V3
Increasing pressure while keeping Tmax constant, the expansion line 1 2 shifts towards
left and reduces quality of steam. So to improve quality of steam either reheat or superheat is used.
AS
98.
Ans. (a)
TE
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
whirl velocity
Blade velocity at impeller exit
100. Th e spec i fic speed of a c e n tr ifu g al

compressor is generally
(a) less than that of reciprocating
compressor
(b) independent of compressor type but,
depends only on size of compressor
(c) higher than that of axial compressor
(d) more than specific speed of reciprocating
compressor but less than axial
compressor
Ans. (d)
Sol. The expression of specific speed is similar to
pumps. So
N Q
H3/4
H is highest for reciprocating and lowest
for axial so the specific speed of various
NSC =

compressors are
reciprocating < centrifugal < Axial
(a) decreases the temperature of the gases

at the turbine inlet
(b) decreases the quantity of heat suppleid
in combusiton chamber
(c) increases the turbine output
(d) lowers the work input to compressor
diffuser inlet radius

diffuser outlet radius
impeller inlet radius
impeller outlet radius
TE
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
104. The thermal efficiency of a simple open gas

turbine plant is improved by regernation
as this
101. In a centrifugal compressor, the highest

Mach number leading to shock wave in the
fluid flow occurs at
Pr essure rise in rotor

Pr essure rise in stage
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
AS
Sol. The highest Mach number in centrifugal compressor occur at inlet to impeller i.e., at tip of
eye of impeller. The Mach number at this
location should be equal to or less than 0.9 to
avoid flow separation.
increase in low and increase in efficiency

increase in flow and decrease in efficiency
decrease in flow and increase in efficiency
decrease in flow and decrease in efficiency
IE
S
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
102. In a centrifugal compressor, an increase in

speed at a given pressure ratio causes
Ans. (b)
Sol. Since the maximum efficiency line is very

close to surge line so increase in speed at
given pressure ratio increases mass flow rate
and efficiency detoriates.
103. In an axial flow compressor, the ratio of
pressure rise in the rotor blades to the
pressure rise in the compressor in one stage
is known as
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
pressure coefficient
work factor
degree of reaction
slip factor
Ans. (c)
Sol. Degree of reaction in dynamic compressor
Sol. In regeneration heat transfer from exhaust

to compressed air after compression which
ultimately reduces heat addition in combustion chamber without affecting turbine output.
Direction : Each of the next Sixteen (16) items
consists of two statements, one labelled as the Statement (I) and the other as Statement (II). You are
to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given
below:
Codes
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is
the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is
NOT the correct explanation of Statement
(I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
is false
(d) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
is true
105. Statement (I) : Steady flow means that
the rates of flow of mass
and energy through the

control volume are constant.
dQ
0 Irreversible process
T
dQ
T 0 Reversible process
dQ
T 0 Impossible process
108. Statement (I) : Though the composition of

the working fluids change
from air and fuel to combustion products in all
internal combustion engines the working cycle is
still named as air standard cycle.
TE
Statement (II) : At th e ste ady state

of a system, any thermody namic pr oper ty will
have a fixed value at a
particular location and
will not alter with time.
reversibility as:-
Ans. (a)
AS
Sol. Steady flow across a control volume means

rate of flow of mass and energy at input and
output are same. The energy can be expressed
in terms of thermodynamic variables and for
constant rate, these thermodynamic variables
should be constant.
106. Statement (I) : There is entropy transfer

both in heat transfer and
work transfer.
Statement (II) : Both heat and work are

energy in transition.
Ans. (d)
IE
Sol. Entropy transfer is associated with heat

transfer only not with work transfer. But both
work and heat transfer are energy in transition i.e. work can be converted into heat and
heat into work.
107. Statement (I) : Th e
In eq u ality
of
Clausius provides the criterion of the rever sibility
of a cycle.
Statement (II) :
0 , the cycle is irre-
versible and possible.

Ans. (c)
Sol. Clausius Inequality provides criterion for ir-
Statement (II) : The composition of nitrogen in air and fuel mixture is high and does not
undergo any chemical reaction in the combustion
chamber.
Ans. (c)
Sol. Air standard cycles are the cycles which use
air as working medium but it is customery to
air-fuel mixture medium cycle as air standard cycle.
The composition of nitrogen in air-fuel mixture is high and nitrogen reacts with oxygen
during combustion to form NOx.
109. Statement (I) : The index of compression
and the index of expansion are different in reciprocating compressors.
Statement (II) : Reciprocating compressors
are used to compress a
large pressure ratio and
low discharge
Ans. (b)

112. Statement (I) : While designing the SI engine the designer tries to
keep the compression ratio as high as possible.
TE
It is well known facts that reciprocating

compressors are used for high pressure ratio
and low discharge.
is burnt due to proper mixing of air and fuel

so high energy is available for conversion.
Sol. The index of compression and index of expansion in reciprocating compressor are different by in numerical problems both are
taken same for calculation purposes only.
Statement (II) : Whereas while designing

the CI engine the designer
tries to keep the compression ratio as low as possible
110. Statement (I) : A good CI engine fuel is a

bad SI engine fuel and a
good SI engine fuel is a
bad Cl engine fuel
Ans. (c)
AS
Statement (II) : A CI engine fuel require

high self ignition temperature and a long delay period whereas a SI engine
fuel requires low self-ignition tempe r atu r e an d
short delay period.
IE
S
Sol. CI engine fuel has low self ignition temperature to avoid diesel knock. It also has small
delay period. In SI engine fuel the self ignition temperature is high and long delay period to avoid detonation.
111. Statement (I) : Specific output of a SI engine is higher than the CI
engine
Ans. (c)
Sol. While designing both CI and SI engines, the
designer try to have maximum possible compression ratio but fuel puts the limits on
compression ratio in SI engine and mechanical loading in CI engine
113. Statement (I) : D I diesel en g in es u se
multi hole nozzles for fuel
injection
Statement (II) : Single hole nozzles cause
w all impin gemen t an d
carbon deposits.
Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)
Sol. Because of low swirl in Direct Injection (DI)

diesel engine, multihole nozzles are used
while in engines where enough swirl is available single hole (bigger size) is used. This big
single hole nozzle has good penetration and
impinge upon chamber wall. Due to this big
size dribling is also there which results in
carbon deposits on nozzle hole during combustion.
Sol. Due to the characteristics of SI engine fuel,

low compression ratio is used. This low compression ratio requires light engine components and of low inertia mass. Rich mixture
114. Statement (I) : Fins are equally effective

irrespective of whether
they are on the hot-side
Statement (II) : Its higher engine speed

an d abilit y to bu r n
r ic h er mix t u r e r esu lt
in in c r eas ed en er g y
conversion rate

117. Statement (I) : Mass flow through the

convergent nozzle is maximum when the exit Mach
number is 1
Statement (II) : The divergent section is
added to c on v er g en t
nozzle to increase the exit
Mach number and not to
increase the mass flow
rate.
TE
115. Statement (I) : Immer sion c h illin g in

tanks of slush ice is better than the slow cool air
c h illi n g
for
poultry products.
stress (Newton Law of Viscosity) and rotation.
Statement (II) : The temperature along

the fin is variable and
hence the rate of heat
transfer varies along the
elements of fins.
Ans. (b)
AS
Statemnet (II) : Cool air chilling of poultry products cause a moisture loss of 1 to 2 per cent
while immersion chilling
can cause a moisture absorption of 4 to 15 per
cent.
Ans. (d)
Sol. Initially it was immersion chilling of paultry

product but now air chilling is getting popularity due to better quality. Air chilled also
reduces the spread of bacteria because the
individual chicken in hanging condition is
processed.
IE
In water-ice immersion chilling process weight

of chicken increases by 4% - 15% absorbing
moisture while air chilling reduces weight by
loosing moisture during chilling.
116. Statement (I) : In a fluid, the rate of deformation is far more important than the total deformation itself.
Statement (II) : A fluid continues to deform so long as the external forces are applied.
Sol. In convergent-divergent nozzle maximum flow

occurs when the flow is sonic at throat. In
divergent part further expansion of fluid take
place i.e. increase in Mach number not mass
flow rate. These two statements are correct
and are related to two parts of convergentdivergent nozzle.
118. Statement (I) : When a bluff body moves
at supersonic speed in still
air, an attached shcock
wave is produced at its
nose causing the flow to
be subsonic behind the
shock plane.
Statement (II) : A normal shock always
tr an sfor ms su per son ic
flow into subsonic flow
causing increase in pressure temperature and entropy.
Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
Sol. When bluff body moves at supersonic speed,

deteched shock occurs not attached shock.
Sol. Rate of deformation of fluid results in shear
119. Statement (I) : Cavitation occurs at the

entrance of the turbine

while it occurs at the exit
of the pump.
Statement (II) : At the critical condition,

throat Mach number remains at unity and the
upstream side of throat is
maintained low enough to
give a continuous decrease
of pressure and a continuou s
in c r ease
of
velocity.
TE
Statement (II) : In both the cases local

pressure at these points
falls below the vapour
pressure of the flowing
liquid
Ans. (a)
Ans. (b)
Sol. At maximum discharge nozzle throat mach

number is unity and upstream side of throat
of nozzle is such that it can supply the fluid
in continuously decrease in pressure and increase in velocity conditions.
AS
Sol. Since maximum velocity occurs at entrance

to turbine and exit of pump.
IE
S
120. Statement (I) : In an isentropic nozzle

flow, discharge reaches a
maximum value when the
throat pressure reaches
the critical value.


Ese 2013 Me Paper 1 Set A

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Ese 2013 Me Paper 1 Set A

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Institute for Engineers (IES/GATE/PSUs)

Our Top Results in ESE - 2012

Musale Gautam Shirish

Rajat Kr. Sharma

Institute for Engineers (IES/GATE/PSUs)

Divey Kr. Sethi

Shelke Pratap Ramchandra

Chandra Bhan Singh

Kuldeep Kr. Kanauzia

As per information received so far

Our Top Results in GATE - 2013

Admission Open For Session 2013-14

MECHANICAL ENGG - 8th JULY

Explanation of Mechanical Engg. Paper-I (ESE - 2013)

This expression is defined for a quasi-static

(a) mass of the system

Sol. The displacement work pdV

non flow reversible process

(a) 1.421 kg/s

(b) 14.21 kg/s

Pdv gives work during non-flow reversible

1 pdv gives the measure of

Sol. Extensive properties of a system depends

If power developed by a turbine in a certain

(quasi-static) proces and Vdp gives work

during steady flow reversible process.

Net work output

The displacement work down by a system

is given by pdv . It is valid for

3360 2520 1200 6

An electric power plant produces 10 MW of

Office Address : F-126, Katwaria Sarai, New Delhi - 110 016.

energy. The heat rejected by the power

873 W 580 W 580 Q2

Sol. Net power output

Wh ic h th e r mody n amic s law pr edic ts

(a) Zeroth law

A Carnot en gine rejects 50% of heat

In a cyclic heat engine operating between

A non flow quest-static (reversible) process

For reversible heat engine

where V is volume in m3. What is work

(b) 16.5 105 J

Office Address : F-126, Katwaria Sarai, New Delhi - 110 016.

Cop HP H Cop ref 1 4 5

Sol. Since the hydrocarbon fuel is burning in

Joules experiment states that for a cycle

A refrigeration unit has a COP of 4 and

When a hydrocarbon fuel burns in deficit

An insulated content is divided into two

Office Address : F-126, Katwaria Sarai, New Delhi - 110 016.

Sol. From low of increase of entropy, it is

Gas in chamber A will expand freely when

A gas is flowing through an insulated

Sol. Since the process gradient is finite it

Whic h of th e following pr ocesses are

(b) 200 m/s

(a) 100 m/s

If the time taken by a system to execute a

rushes into B. The process is called.

The entropy of universe tends to

Whic h of th e following pr ocesses are

1. Gradual heating of water from a hot

Office Address : F-126, Katwaria Sarai, New Delhi - 110 016.