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1. Patient was aware that physician was drunk yet he allowed the doctor to inject him:
A. doctrine of continuing negligence
C. res ipsa loquitor
B. vicarious liability
D. captain of the ship
2. Patient Mr. Lee promised to pay Dr. B one million pesos if he us cured of his cancer. The
professional fee to be collected by B refers to:
A. contingent fee B. package deal fee C. retainers fee D. simple contractual fee
3. HIV patient takes experimental drugs despite unknown side effects:
A. doctrine of informed consent
C. assumption of risk
B. doctrine of foreseeability
D. doctrine of contributory negligence
4. There is direct physical connection between the wrongful act of the Physician and the injury
suffered by the patient:
A. Doctrine of proximate cause
C. “Sine Qua now” test
B. “But for” test
D. “Substantial factor” test
5. Principle applied when the medical fee is not specified:
A. “Asumpsit on quanthum merit”
C. “Dura Lex sed Lex”
B. “Lex Loci contract”
D. “Sine Qua now”
6. Article 365 which deals with imprudence and negligence is a provision of:
A. Civil code
B. Medical Act 1959 C. Revised penal code D. Criminal Act of 1970
7. To which forum can an administrative complaint be filed against doctors?
A. Regional Trial Court
C. Department of health
B. National Bureau of Investigation
D. Professional Regulation Comission
8. Reprimand is a sanction imposed against a doctor when he is guilty of what liability:
A. Administrative liability B. Civil liability C. criminal liability D. no liability
9. If the license of a physician is suspended indefinitely, after how long can he apply for
A. 3 years B. 6 months C. 2 years D. it will depend on the pleasure of the Board of medicine
10. What is the degree of proof/evidence needed to convict physician of a crime?
A. Guilt beyond reasonable doubt C. Prosecution must prove that Dra. Gajardo got pregnant
B. Preponderance of evidence D. Prosecution must prove that Dr. Gimenez is a medical doctor
11. The study of licensure laws, regulatory laws and physician-patient relationship, is known in
medical school curriculum as:
A. Legal Medicine
B. Legal Ethics C. Medical Jurisprudence D. M<edical Ethics
12. Which of the following does not affect a termination of physician-patient relationship?
A. withdrawal of physician without patient consent
C. death of patient
B. recovery of patient
D. death of physician
13. A physician should never examine or treat hospitalized patient of another physician without the
latter’s knowledge and consent except when:
A. the patient expressly asks him to do so in the absence of attending physician
B. he is a relative of the patient
C. he will not changed the patient a professional fee
D. in case of emergency, the attending physician is not readily available
14. A physician accused of criminal abortion was acquitted because:
A. he was a duly licensed medical practitioner
B. the woman plaintiff was emotionally unstable
C. the product of conception could not be produced in court
D. a pregnancy test done 3 days before the alleged abortion definitely ruled out pregnancy
CASE: Mr. A brought his 3 yrs old son to a hospital. Dr. B, the admitting physician admitted the
pediatric case to the medicine ward because the pediatric ward is full. During the night, the patient
child was seen in the floor with a fractured skull resulting from a fall. It was found out that the bed
was without railings. Mr. A wanted to sue Dr. B and the hospital.
15. The doctrine applicable in this case would be:
A. Res ipsa loquitor B. Osiensible agent C. Forseeability D. Common knowledge
16. Suppose before admission Mr. A was informed of the absence of railings to protect the child from
A. assumption of risk
C. res ipsa loquitor
B. continuing negligence
D. common knowledge
17. Suppose Mr. A has already previously and repeatedly complained of the absence of railings to Dr.
B but no attention was given to the complaint, which doctrine could be applicable?
A. assumption of risk
C. contributory negligence
B. continuing negligence
D. common knowledge
18. Suppose one day after an intramuscular injection a part of the needle was discovered protruding
from the buttocks of the patient, what is the doctrine applicable?
A. assumption of risk B. res ipsa loquitor C. contributory negligence D. continuing negligence

Muskety C. merciful killing B. Homicide D. C. Under the doctrine the hospital owner may be liable for the mistakes of the residents: A. heat stiffening 39. it is called A. Substantive law B. judicial death D. dead body disposal C. and reckless imprudence is called: A. contributory negligence B. A missing person is presumed dead if he is not heard from for: A. assistance to the commission of suicide 37. 3 years D. Assisted Suicide 26. Maceration . and death occurred without intending to cause it. Murder C. murder C. The reporting of treatment of serious physical injuries by a physician is: A. 1 year B. 2 years C. sudden death B. post-mortem lividity B. Voluntary B. It is the prominence of the superficial veins with reddish discoloration due to the process of decomposition which develops on both flanks of the abdomen. negligent B. Continuing Negligence C. The bone which is most informative regarding the sex of the owner of the skeleton being examined is the: A. 5 years after burial D. Divine Law D. Borrowed servant doctrine C. accidental D. secondary flaccidity D. No crime because ethically allowed D. His child fell with a broken skull. post-mortem muscular irritability B. Joint and several liability D. it may be exhumed: A. 20 hrs. the father removed the railings so that he himself can sleep on the bed. Femur 27. A. Vicarious liability B. Algor mortis D. 12 hrs. Musketry. putrefaction C. common knowledge 20. C. An unembalmed body should be buried not later than: (if the person died as a result of a communicable disease): A. infanticide B. Mandatory C. Natural Law 25. 20 hrs. Patient leaves the hospital against advice: A. 48 hrs. 42. parricide 38. asphyxial death 36. 12 hrs B. Rigor mortis C. If one performed lawful act. Pelvis D. The cause of death resulting from lack of skill. Homicide B. 10 years after burial 30. Accidental C. Vicarious Liability B. Res Iplsa Loquitor D. Rigor mortis C. A terminally ill patient is given an overdose of sedatives without his knowledge. cadaveric spasm B. Skull B. murder C. post-mortem rigidity 44.19. nothing D. The convict is put to death by a volley of fire from a firing squad in: A. garroting D. When blood accumulates in the most dependent portions of the dead body. murder 40. If the physician performs euthanasia without the patients knowledge. lack of foresight. 3 years after burial C. he is guilty of: A. Any change for the position of the cadaver will not change the location of this type of cadaveric lividity: A. Captain of the ship doctrine B. 24 hrs. interment B. primary6 flaccidity C. mugging B. 24 hrs. Contributory Negligence 21. 41. An unembalmed body should be buried not later than: (if the person died as a result of a natural cause): A. Alteration 31. What is the doctrine applicable: A. murder 43. Common defense of the hospital are regards consultants liability to his private patients: A. slower C. faster B. Sternum C. Infanticide 28. Fellow Servant doctrine 24. Vicarious liability 22. 48 hrs. Marbolization D. homicide C. and he did it with due care. Case to case D. Exhumation is also known as: A. disinterment 32. Hypostatic B. Adiposer formation B. the offender may be changed with: A. stationary D. Instantenous rigor is also known as A. Negligence 29. negligible 33. algor mortis 34. cadaveric spasm D. Anytime B. Captain of the ship D. ground burial C. When a body is the subject matter of a criminal investigation. If a 3-day old unidentified child was intentionally killed with cruelty. D. borrowed servant doctrine D. Diffusion D. res ipsa loquitor C. Murder D. homicide D. and during a calamity. Mr A. Which of the following laws is enforced by the state: A. Independent Contractor C. The willful deliberate and painless acceleration of death of a person: A. Euthanasia C. Osmotic C. Cadaveric rigidity is also known as A. B. Originally there were railings on the bed of the patient. 4 years 35. Moral law C. embalming D. Every end of the month 23. What crime if any is committed by the doctor: A. the death is A. and hanging are examples of A. electrocution. Homicide B. D. Parricide B. Deep burial sites will make decomposition : A.

The primer is usually made up of A.38 B. Loord’s test 60. cadaveric spasm B. homicide B. 3-6 minutes 59. Takayama test D. 2-4 days B. Presidential Decree 169 mandates all doctors to report all cases involving: A. stippling B. death stiffening D. The presence of weapon which is highly grasped by the hand of a victim of a shooting incident is an example of A. interrogation 62. Post-mortem dissection . revolver D. barium. bullet enters the skin sidewise C. Post-mortem examination C. death occurring in natural manner 47. The comprehensive study of a dead body performed by trained physician employing recognized procedures and techniques is known as A. soot C. shotgun 52. fouling 56. gunshot wounds 58. automatic pistol C. 5-10 minutes B. It is an expressed acknowledgement by the accused in a criminal case of the truth of his guilt as the crime charged. The most practical. suicides C. Cases when trauma or disease kill quickly that there is no opportunity for sequel or complication to develop is known as A. “Pugilistic” position of a boxer is associated with A. sketching D. drowning C. bacillus coli D. mutilation D. photography C. admission E. puramen reaction 61. Gettler’s test C. confession D.22 C. medical examination B. bursting fracture 51. A common law-husband who kills his common law wife with whom he has a 2 days old child can be prosecuted for A. acute angular approach of the bullet D. impossible crime 48. biological test of farnum C. pond fracture C. all of the above B. lead. deformity of the bullet which entered B. EXCEPT A. secondary cause of death D. The average time required for death in drowning is A. useful and reliable means of preserving evidence is by A. bacillus mesenterious C. A. smudging D. Tattooing is also known as A. barium and copper 55. 1-3 minutes C. proximate cause of death C. death unattended by physician D. 14-15 days 50. contraction of the elastic tissues of the skin 57. projectile 53. lead and barium D. description B. Its main function is the transformation of mechanical energy by the hit of the firing pin on the percussion cap to chemical energy: A. slight and less physical injury C. 0. manikin method 65. 9 mm 54. antimony C. less serious and serious physical B. chlostridium welchi B. Winslow’s test B. rifle B. burns B. the contusion’s estimated age is A. autopsy D. Rigor mortis C.45. cadaveric rigidity 63. 0. except A. complete cause of death 64. This is quantitative determination of the chloride content of the blood in the right and left ventricle of the heart: A. The following manner of death should be autopsied. The test which determines the whether semen is of human origin or not: A. accidental death B. Factors which make the wound of entrance bigger than the caliber. child abuse cases 49. none of the above C. 2-5 minutes D. The microorganisms that plays a dominant role in decomposition is A. parricide D. 0. Ganguli’s method D. gutter fracture B. primer B. asphyxia D. 4-5 days C. powder C. lead and antimony B. Berberio’s B. bacillus proteus vulgaris 46. bullet D. Fracture produced by a tangential or glancing approach of bullet: A. When the color of the contusion changes to green.45 D. This is a firearm which has a cylindrical magazine situated at the rear of the barrel which can accommodate five or six cartridge: A. infanticide C. indented fracture D. lead. If the diameter of the gunshot wound point of entry is 1 cm x 1 cm the probable caliber of the firearm used is A. immediate cause of death B. 7-10 days D.

The nature of liability against Dr. The venue with which to file the case in case Mr. Regional Trial Court C. documentary evidence D. no change in the temperature of the finger C. moral damage D. Dr. any of the above 80. The cost of the procedure to re-attach of Mr. absence of blood 68. is known in medical school curriculum as: A. it turns out be a case of acute appendicitis and the surgeon decides to remove the appendix C. freedom of sexual expression 75. rumor mongering D. When is patient’s consent necessary? A. A mental process whereby one or more persons appraise a situation and make a decision based on their judgement that may or may not lead to action is called: A. The most prominent sign of death is A progressive fall of the body temperature B. the body is that of a laundry woman C. During an appendectomy. Libel B. attorney’s fees 79. A uttered vexing words against Dr. 4 years B. smell and touch A. Moderate C. freedom of origin C. A. taste. criminal D. All of the above 77. no change in color of the finger B. actual damage C. When a surgeon operates on a patient without consent. moral damages C.66. Diagnosis C. insensibility of body loss of power to move 72. Legal Ethics D. in an emergency. Liquidated 81. Mr. Cutis Galina or Washer woman’s hands and feet on the corpse signifies that: A. Dr. actual damages D. Treatment B. This is a medical evidence made known or addressed to the senses of the court no limited to the sense of vision. the body died for syphilis 69. A maybe guilty of: A. Operation D. When the body surface of corpse is pressed it leaves a flattened area due to A. The principle used in the Magnus test for determining somatic death is A. Slander C. The colon was perforated during simoidoscopy and the surgeon decides on laparotomy to undertake repair 82. Medical Ethics 73. cessation of heart action and circulation C. civil C. change in the color of the finger D. Faith healing is allowed as an norm of treatment modality in the Philippines. experimental evidence C. in an acute emergency when there in no time to discuss the situation in order to seek consent . D. the surgeon discovers and abnormal ovary and desiced to remove it. precipitated skin proteins B. Ty that was incided would be in nature of: A. This is allowed on the basis of Constitutional guarantee on: A. cessation of respiration D. exemplary damage B. patient need tracheostomy B. when the patient is unconscious D. when the patient is merely being stubborn C. this constitutes an assault and even without proof of injury resulting. corpus evidence 71. Department of health B. Exemplary D. Ty demands P1 million pesos as payment would be: A. change in the temperature of the torniqueted finger 67. all of the above 78. Analysis 74. Medical Jurisprudence B. autoptic or real evidence B. Professional Regulation commission D. when the physician believes the procedure is necessary B. freedom of expression D. 5 years C. the body has been in water for sometime B. 6 years D. in a women diagnosed with ectopic pregnancy. This kind of damage is referred to as: A. Permission to disinter remains of persons who died of dangerous communicable diseases maybe granted after a burial period of A. a would be: A. Legal Medicine C. freedom of the press B. the plaintiff may recover what type of damage? A. 7 years 70. absence of edema C. ethical 76. A physician may perform a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure without the consent of the patient or his relatives. Nominal B. loss of elasticity of the skin D. but is intended to the sense of hearing. administrative B. the body died for drowning D. The study of licensure laws. B defaming his personality and dignity. regulatory laws and physician-patient relationship. exemplary damages B. Ty suffered sleepless nights and wounded feelings as well as besmirched reputation.

Immorality C. criminal negligence and imprudence C. qualified seduction 95. washerwoman’s skin B. consented obduction D. Revised Administrative Code D. consultation by appointment only 91. and the imagination of the skin. Stippling is caused by: A. The mistress of a married physician sought redress from the Board of Medicine when the physician left her for another woman. Revised Penal Code B. res ipsa loquitor C. she can accuse him for adultery D. Seduction C. Deep C. The following are provisions of Penal Law wherein a physician may be hold criminally liable. Abduction B. the procedure is necessary for the good of the patient C. ostensible agent B. qualified seduction B. white slave trade 99. The prohibition and imposition of penalty on physicians who sell medical samples gratuitously given to them by drug promoters is embodied in A. bullet REFFERENCE BOOK: SOLIS . there is implied consent by he patient’s spouse 84. extravagant or unethical advertisement 90. He may be charged before the Board of medicine for A. Rifling C. Concubinage 98. Adultery D. Immorality C. “Trained at Mayo Clinic” D. he can show that he applied his knowledge and skill with diligence and care B. Flame B.m. A physician cannot be held liable for the ill effect of his management procedure if A. simple seduction C. Contusion collar D. gunpowder residue C. violation of the Code of ethics C. she can charge him of abandonment 92. The testimony of an expert witness is NOT needed to prove a negligent act when which doctrine is applicable? A. Seduction B. Pharmacy Law 94. B. borrowed servant D. all produce the: A. An unmarried physician was discovered having sex with an unmarried nurse. A. violation of the Dangerous Drug Act D. saponification D. refusal to attend a case for which he has assumed responsibility D. forcible obduction C. Tattooing B. incompetence 89. its rough surface. One of the grounds for the suspension or revocation of the certificate of registration of a physician on account of a criminal act is A. reckless imprudence 93. Sexual intercourse is NOT necessary in this crime: A. forcible abduction D. Which statement is VALID? A. smoke D. The laceration involving more than half of the hymenal height but does not reach the hymenal based is called: A. simple seduction B.83. Adultery D. The element of deceit is required in case of: A. conviction by court of an offense involving moral turpitude D. The spinning motion of the bullet. Which provision specifically mention the physician as the wrong-doer? A. A balikbayan physician puts up a sign board at his clinic. the doctrine of res ipsa loquitor is applicable C. Which is unethical? A. macerated and wrinkled in: A. Superficial B. the procedure is known to be safe B. Complete D. the procedure is by its nature risky 88. refusal to render treatment in emergency cases 85. defamation B. Medical Act 1959 as amended C. immoral or dishonorable conduct B. Instances when a physician may NOT be held liable for abandonment. the procedure is required by law D. failure to arrange for a substitute during the attending physician’s absence 87. A physician may apply a procedure even it is against the wishes of the patient if A. cutis anserina C. failure to provide follow-up attention C. false. failure to visit the patient sufficiently after believing that the patient needed no further treatment B. contact flattening 97. The skin is whitened. the patient contributed to the ill-effects D. “Disease of Women and Children” C. Complicated 100. A physician who gives an overdose of a drug may be charged for A. consultation hours 9-11 a. she has no right to complain B. gross negligence B. captain of the ship 86. smudging 96. Virginity is a requirement in this crime: A. Dishonorable conduct D. she can charge the physician for immorality C.