Republic of the Philippines

Sampaloc, Manila
MACRO INTEGRATED TRAINING & REVIEW CENTER, INC.
COMMUNICATIONS ENGINEERING
Date: 10/25/2006
Time: 8 -12 am

PREBOARD 2

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each
item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
1.

What is a distress communication ?

a. an internationally recognized communication indicating that the sender is threatened by grave and imminent
danger
b. communications indicating that the calling station has an urgent message concerning safety
c. radio comm. that affect life and property
d. notification of approaching navigational or meteorological hazards

2.

Refers to a connector that normally connects RG-213 coaxial cable to an HF transceiver

a. N-type cable
b. F-type cable
c
PL-259
d. BNC
.

3.

One part of the transmitter protects the crystal oscillator from pulling. It is the:
a. Buffer amplifier
c. Power amplifier
b. Modulation
d. Antenna coupler

4.

The lowest assigned carrier frequency for standard AM broadcast is:

a. 107 kHz
c. 540 kHz
b. 535 kHz
d. 1600 kHz

5.

A pulse width modulator in a switching power supply is used to:

a. provide the reference voltage for the regulator
b. vary the frequency of the switching regulator
c. vary the duty cycle of the regulator switch to control the output voltage
d. compare the reference voltage with the output to produce an error voltage
a. 5 kHz
c. 20 kHz
b. 10 kHz
d. 107 kHz

6.

3G with the UMTS platform technology has a maximum data rate of _________.
a. 384 Kbps
c. 56 Kbps
b.

2 Mbps

d.

721 Kbps

7.

KDDI in Japan is one of the most successful 3G provider, what accessing method is being used?
a. TDMA
c. WCDMA
b. FDMA
d. CDMA-2000

8.

What will be the result of the gain level being too high for signals entering the modulator?
a. Receiver noise
c. Oscillator disturbance
b. Excessive volume of receiver output
d. Distortion and splatter

9.

Amplitude modulation causes the amount of transmitter power to:

a. Increase
c. Remain the same
b. Decrease
d. Double

10. Which of the following statement refers why intelligence signal cannot be transmitted directly on their frequency?
a. Their frequencies are high and are susceptible to b. Their frequencies are high and need very large antennas
noise
c
Their frequencies are low and need very large d. Their frequencies are low and need very small antennas
.
antennas
11. Refers to the emission on frequency(ies) immediately outside its necessary bandwidth resulted form the modulation
process except spurious emission
a. Radiation
b
Out of band
.
c. Interference
d. Noise
12. Identify a modulation method, or methods, in use for a common-emitter configuration
a. Base modulation
c. Collector modulation
b. Emitter modulation
d. Both A and C
13. The rf signal injected into a balanced modulator is 10 MHz and the modulating frequency is 1 kHz. Which frequency, or
frequencies, will not appear in the output?
a. 9.999 MHz
c. 10.001 MHz
b. 10 MHz
d. Both A and B
14. Unwanted sidebands in SSB equipment can be suppressed by one or more of the following methods:
a. Phasing method
c. Decoder method
b. Filter method
d. Both A and B

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15. Where in the spectrum band should the line of sight or direct waves is appropriate for radio transmission and reception?
a. VLF band
b. HF band
c. UHF band
d. LF band
16. A louder sound, when generating the modulating waveform for FM, will cause a greater:
a. Carrier amplitude
c. Distortion at the receiver
b. Angle amplitude
d. Frequency deviation
17. When the electric field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave?
a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Elliptical
d. Circular
18. Which of the following antenna where its bandwidth id determined by the dimensions of its horn, lens or reflector?
a. Whip antenna
b. Aperiodic antenna
c. Aperture antenna
d. Long wire antenna
19. What do you call the LC networks inserted in an antenna element to provide multiband operation?
a. Director
b. Loading coil
c. Reflector
d. Traps
20. If a positive change in modulation signal level of 200 mV will cause a positive frequency deviation of 10 kHz, what will be
the frequency deviation for a negative change of 100 mV in the level of the modulating signal?
a. 0
c. +5 kHz
b. 5 kHz
d. +10 kHz
21. A reactance modulator is one method of obtaining:
a. Indirect FM
b. Direct FM

c.
d.

Demodulation
Low-frequency filtering

22. How much approximate maximum power can a human voice possibly produce?
a. 100 milliwatts
b. 1 watt
c. 10 watts
d
1 milliwatt
.
23. Where does a harmonic in a square wave of a simple signal transmission belong?
a. Even
b. Second and fifth
c. First and second
d
Odd
.
24. Which of the HF marine antenna safety link is intended to be broken during the unusual movement of the ship?
a. Halyard
b
Weak part
.
c. Mainmast
d. Foremast
25. How do you account the effect of light intensity on the refractive index of a fiber optic?
a. Decreases
b. Stable
c
Increases
d. Decreased by half
.
26. If the spectrum is shifted in frequency with no other changes, this is known as:
a. Frequency multiplication
c. Baseband reorientation
b. Sideband movement
d. Frequency translation
27. What is the international radiotelephone distress call?
a. SOS,SOS,SOS
b. MAYDAY,MAYDAY,MAYDAY

c.
d.

MAYDAY,MAYDAY
HELP,TULONG,HUWAG PO!!!!

28. If the frequency of each component in a signal spectrum is increased by the same fixed amount, this is known as:
a. Modulation
c. Frequency translation
b. Demodulation
d. Up conversion
29. Any device to be used as a frequency multiplier must be:
a. Active
b. Passive

c.
d.

Linear
Nonlinear

30. A particular amplifier circuit used for frequency doubling is known as:
a. Push-push
c. Pull-push
b. Push-pull
d. Pull-pull
31. What is the standard video voltage for blanking?
a. 0%
b. 75%

c.
d.

12.5%
100%

32. What is the advantage of using a top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?
a. Lower Q
c. Higher losses
b. Greater structural strength
d. Improved radiation efficiency
33. Identify an electronic device, not specifically designed for the purpose, which can be used as a phase detector:
a. Wien bridge
c. Balanced modulator
b. Colpitts oscillator
d. Butterworth filter

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34. A particular frequency synthesizer contains only a single crystal. What words describe this synthesizer?
a. Crystal modulated
c. Indirect
b. Inexact
d. Deficient
35. The term pulling refers to:
a. The change of the crystal oscillator frequency by
loading
b. One half-cycle operation of a push-pull amplifier

c.
d.

Loading on the transmitter caused by the antenna

connection
Reduction of the power supply terminal voltage as the
transmitter is keyed

36. When frequency modulation is achieved by initial phase modulation, this is called:
a. Angular modulation
c. Indirect FM
b. Direct FM
d. Indirect synthesis
37. In broadcast FM the maximum frequency deviation is:
a. 2500 Hz
b. 0 2 kHz

c.
d.

75 kHz
88 MHz

38. Referred to as a light source of fiber optic which supplies a power level of 5 to 7 milliwatts and having a narrow spectrum
of emission
a
Injection laser diode
b. Photodiode
.
c. Light emitting diode
d. Crystal diode
39. The principal reason for adopting the cellular mobile communications concept is to:
a. Increase privacy
c. Overcome limitations on the number of available
channels
b. Allow digitized services
d. Increase neighborhood and community spirit
40. What is the frequency separation between the visual carrier and the upper limits of its total channel bandwidth of a
monochrome TV broadcast?
a. 4.5 MHz
b
4.75 MHz
.
c. 3.0 MHz
d. 1.25 MHz
41. The actual vertical resolution of broadcast TV with reference to the number of horizontal lines
a. 428 lines
b. 485 lines
c. 339 lines
d
525 lines
.
42. For a given antenna site, which factor or factors influence the antenna pattern?
a. Tower placement and orientation
c. Tower base current phases
b. Tower base current amplitudes
d. All of the preceding choices are true
43. The purpose of the antenna monitor is to determine by measurement:
a. Total power input to the transmitter final stage
c. Electric field strength in the direction of greatest area
coverage
b. Antenna pattern as influenced by ground moisture d. Current ratios and relative phase angles
content
44. How a dip meter function?
a. reflected waves at specific frequency desensitize the detector coil
b. power coupled from an oscillator causes decrease in metered current
c. powers from a transmitter cancels feedback current
d. harmonics of the oscillator cause an increase in the resonant Q
45. Television has a number of features in common with:
a. FM stereo
b. Motion picture

c.
d.

Slick magazines
Postal service

46. With facsimile the rotation of a cylinder at the sending end and that of a second cylinder at the receiving end must be:
a. Multiplexed
c. Geared to a common shaft
b. Synchronized
d. Manually controlled
47. A complete NTSC scanning cycle, referred to as a frame, consists of:
a. 60 fields
c. 30 Hz
b. 525 lines
d. Odd-numbered lines
48. A device used in television broadcast that prevents any FM signal from entering into visual transmitter and vice versa
a. Duplexer
b. circulator
c
Diplexer
d. Synchronizer
.
49. A test method used to compare two audio systems switching inputs so that both/same recording is heard in rapid
succession over one given system to the other
a. A test
b. B test
c. Equipment test
d
AB test
.
50. In the color triangle the colors at the vertices (corners) are referred to as:

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a.
b.

Desaturated
Primary

c.
d.

White
Washed-out

51. The Hartley-Shannon theorem sets a limit on the

a. Highest frequency that may be sent over a given channel
b. Maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level
c. Maximum number of coding levels in the channel with a given noise level
d. Maximum number of quantizing levels in a channel of a given bandwidth

52. A UHF television transmitter must cover a range of:

a. 54 88 MHz
b. 174174 216 MHz

c.
d.

54 216 MHz
470 890 MHz

53. Approximately what is the bandwidth occupied by the chrominance video signal for color TV?
a. 0.6 MHz
c. 1.8 MHz
b. 1.2 MHz
d. 4 MHz
54. An antenna radiates a primary signal of 500 watts output. If there is a second harmonic output of 0.5 watt, what
attenuation of the 2nd harmonic has occured
a. 3 dB
c. 20 dB
b. 10 dB
d. 30 dB
55. If the probability of a message is 4, then the information in bits is
a. 1 bit
b. 2 bits
c. 3 bits
d. 4 bits
56. The outer conduction of the coaxial cable is usually grounded:
a. At the beginning and at the end of the cable
c.
b. Only at the beginning of the cable
d.

Only at the end of the cable

At the middle of the cable

57. If the transmitter power remains constant, an increase in the frequency of the sky wave will:
a. Lengthen the skip distance
c. Reduce the length of the skip distance
b. Increase the range of the ground wave
d. Have no effect on the ground wave range
58. A feature of an infinite transmission line is that:
a. Its input impedance at the generator is equal to the lines surge impedance
b. Its phase velocity is greater than the velocity of light
c. No rf current will be drawn from the generator
d. The impedance varies at different positions on the line
59. What is the effect of adding capacitors in series will an antenna?
a. The antennas resonant frequency will increase
b. The antennas resonant frequency will decrease
c. The antenna will be physically 5% longer than its electrical length
d. A capacitor is never added in series with an antenna
60. How does the electric field strength of a standard broadcast station vary with the distance from the antenna?
a. The field strength varies inversely as the square of the distance from the antenna
b. The field strength is directly proportional to the distance from the antenna
c. The field strength remains constant regardless of the distance from the antenna
d. The field strength varies inversely as the distance from the antenna
61. A vertical loop antenna has a:
a. Unidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane
b. Unidirectional radiation pattern in the vertical plane
c. Omnidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane
d. A bi-directional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane
62. A 4 volt peak audio modulating signal changes the carrier frequency from 200 kHz to 210 kHz, the frequency deviation is
a. 2.5 kHz
b. 10 kHz
c. 15 kHz
d. 40 kHz
63. In an AM signal, the peak antenna current is 13 Amp and the minimum current is 7 Amp. The percent modulation is
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 49%
d. 100%
64. How to eliminate ghosts in the picture ?
a. Pray hard
c. Use a longer transmission line

b.
d.

65. It is the number of voice channels supported by T1 line

a. 30
b. 32

Change the antenna orientation or location

Connect a booster
c.
d.

21
24

66. The cavity resonator:

a. Is equivalent to an LC resonant circuit
b. In a reflex klystron has its output taken from the reflector plate
c. Produces a frequency which is independent of the cavity size
d. Is confined to frequencies below 100 MHz

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67. Why nitrogen gas sometimes used in waveguides?

a. To increase the distributed capacitance
b. To keep the waveguide dry

c.
d.

To reduce the skin effect at the walls of the guide

To lower the voltage rating

68. At which position is the input signal inserted into a traveling-wave tube?
a. At the cathode end of the helix
c. At the collector end of the helix
b. At the collector
d. At the control grid of the electron gun
69. A high-power microwave pulse of the order of megawatts can be generated by a:
a. Traveling-wave tube
c. Magnetron
b. Lighthouse triode
d. Reflex klystron
70. What is the purpose of the electromagnetic field, which surrounds a traveling wave tube?
a. To accelerate the electron
c. To keep the electrons from spreading out
b. To velocity modulate the electron beam
d. To slow down the signal on the helix
71. Top load is used in the vertical antenna in order to increase its
a. Beam width
c.
b. Input capacitance
d.
72. Energy of a photon corresponding to red light (638 nm)
a. 2.1 x 10-10 J
c. 4.1 x 10-10 J

Effective height
All of these
3.1 x 10-10 J
5.1 x 10-10 J

b.
d.

73. What is the 7th harmonic of a 480 KHz signal radiated from a wavelength
a. 3.360 MHz
c. 3350 KHz
b. 3360 MHz
d. 875 KHz
74. Identical telephone numbers under different exchanges are distinguished by
a. Language digits area codes
c. Modulation indices
b. Area codes
d. Access digits
75. In CCIR system B standard for TV, the line frequency is
a. 15,625 lines/sec
b. 18,750 lines/sec

c.
d.

15,750 lines/sec
None of these

76. In TV transmitter, picture and sound respectively use

a. AM, FM
b. FM, AM

c.
d.

FM, FM
AM, AM

77. The function of interlacing in television is is

a. To avoid flicker
b. To provide vertical sync pulse position

c.
d.

To increase frame frequency

To avoid picture noise

78. If a sine wave begins from above or below the zero axis, how many times will it cross the zero axis in one complete cycle.
a. 360
c. 2
b. 180
d. 4
79. What is the height of the E layer of the ionosphere?
a. 20-50 miles
b. 95-120 miles

c.
d.

80. What is the simplest form of FM detector?

a. Slope detector
b. Sallen detector

55-90 miles
120-350 miles
c. PLL detector
d. Crystal detector

81. Most of the aircraft surveillance radar operate in

a. X-band
b. S-band

c.
d.

L-band
C-band

82. How do we refer to errors caused by faulty logic and coding mistakes?
a. virus
c. bugs
b. worm
d. Improper shutdown
83. Which of the following diodes is used as a detector in radar?
a. Gunn diode
c.
b. Schottky diode
d.

IMPATT diode
Any of the above

84. The average power of the pulsed radar transmitter equals

a. The product of the peak power of the pulse and the duty cycle
b. The peak power divided by the number of pulses repeated in one
c. Peak power divided by the duty cycle
d. None of the above

second

85. For global communications the minimum number of satellites needed is

a. 1
c. 3
b. 2
d. 6
86. The waiting time for telephonic conversation via communications satellite is of the order of
a. 200 ms
c. 700 ms
b. 540 ms
d. 960 ms

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87. What is the main loss mechanism between the ultraviolet and infrared absorption regions?
a. Mei scattering
c. Mal scattering
b. Rayleigh scattering
d. Quatul scattering
88. _____ is the structural mark-up language used to create documents that can be displayed on the Internet
a. PageMaker
c. ASCII
b. HTML
d. PostScript
89. A (An) _____ is the Internet address for a web document
a. Alias
b. DNS address

c.
d.

IP address
Universal Resource Locator

90. A superheterodyne receiver with an IF of 450 kHz is tuned to a signal of 1200 kHz, what is its image frequency?
a. 750 KHz
c. 1650 KHz
b. 1800 KHz
d. 2100 KHz
91. A 3G terminology for Network Monitoring System
a. Operations and Maintenance Center
b. Network Monitoring Center

c. Operation and Support System

d. Network Operations Center

92. What is the maximum GPRS throughput of GPRS?

a. 55 Kbps
b. 161 Kbps

c.
d.

171 Kbps
384 Kbps

93. The emission designation for facsimile (FAX) is:

a. F3C
b. F4E

c.
d.

A4E
F4F

94. What is the baud rate of a digital circuit that process 2000 elements per second with 20 KHz signal input?
a. 2 Baud
c. 4 000 Baud
b. 2 000 Baud
d. 10 Baud
95. Express a distance of 2.3 statute or land miles in terms of nautical miles:
a. 2.65
c. 2.37
b. 1.83
d. 2.00
96. At microwave frequencies, waveguides are preferred over coaxial cable because of their:
a. Lower attenuation
c. Greater flexibility
b. Lower cost
d. Smaller size
97. Express 3:00PM Central Standard Time (CST), in terms of Universal Time Coordinated (UTC):
a. 0900 hours
c. 1500 hours
b. 2100 hours
d. 1900 hours
98. Crossmodulation in a receiver must be eliminated in the:
a. IF stages
b. RF stage

c.
d.

Mixer stage
Detector stage

99. Pre-emphasis is used in FM transmitters to improve the signal-to-noise ratio of:

a. Low modulating frequencies
c. All modulating frequencies
b. High modulating frequencies
d. The carrier
100.When was the first 3G introduced in the market?
a. October 1, 2001
b. Nov. 1, 2001

c.
d.

December 1, 2001
January 1, 2002

-wishing everyone the success in your board exam and to your future careerJPL

MITRC